Minnesota Real Estate Licensing Law
Minnesota Code · 518 sections
The following is the full text of Minnesota’s real estate licensing law statutes as published in the Minnesota Code. For the official version, see the Minnesota Legislature.
Minn. Stat. § 103F.205
103F.205 , and, if the common interest community includes shoreland, a statement that the common interest community may be subject to county, township, or municipal ordinances or rules affecting the development and use of the shoreland area; and
(14) if applicable, matters required by sections 515B.1-103 (33), Special Declarant Rights; 515B.2-107 , Declaration of Leasehold Common Interest Communities; 515B.2-109 , Common Elements and Limited Common Elements; 515B.2-110 , Common Interest Community Plat (CIC Plat); 515B.3-115 , Assessments for Common Expenses; and 515B.2-121 , Master Associations.
(b) The declaration may contain any other matters the declarant considers appropriate.
History:
1993 c 222 art 2 s 5 ; 1994 c 388 art 4 s 6 ; 1995 c 92 s 8 ; 1999 c 11 art 2 s 6 ; 2000 c 260 s 74 ; 2001 c 7 s 83 ; 2005 c 121 s 9 ; 2010 c 267 art 2 s 3
515B.2-106 DECLARATION OF FLEXIBLE COMMON INTEREST COMMUNITIES.
(a) The declaration for a flexible common interest community shall include, in addition to the matters specified in section 515B.2-105 :
(1) a reservation of any rights to add additional real estate;
(2) a statement of any time limit, not exceeding ten years after the recording of the declaration, upon which any right reserved under paragraph (1) will lapse, together with a statement of any circumstances that will terminate the option before the expiration of the time limit. If no time limit is set forth in the declaration, the time limit shall be ten years after the recording of the declaration; provided, that the time limit may be extended by an amendment to the declaration approved in writing by the declarant, and by the vote or written agreement of unit owners, other than the declarant or an affiliate of the declarant, to whose units are allocated at least 67 percent of the votes in the association;
(3) a statement of any limitations on any rights reserved under paragraph (1), other than limitations created by or imposed pursuant to law;
(4) a legally sufficient description of the additional real estate;
(5) a statement as to whether portions of any additional real estate may be added at different times;
(6) a statement, based upon the declarant's good faith estimate, of (i) the total number of units that may be created within any additional real estate, and (ii) how many of those units will be restricted to residential use;
(7) a statement that any buildings and units erected upon the additional real estate, when and if added, will be compatible with the other buildings and units in the common interest community in terms of architectural style, quality of construction, principal materials employed in construction, and size, or a statement of any differences with respect to the buildings or units, or a statement that no assurances are made in those regards;
(8) a statement that all restrictions in the declaration affecting use, occupancy, and alienation of units will apply to units created in the additional real estate, when and if added, or a statement of any differences with respect to the additional units;
(9) a statement as to whether any assurances made in the declaration regarding additional real estate pursuant to paragraphs (5) through (8) will apply if the real estate is not added to the common interest community.
(b) A declarant need not have an interest in the additional real estate in order to identify it as such in the declaration, and the recording officer shall index the declaration as provided in section 515B.1-116 (a). Identification of additional real estate in the declaration does not encumber or otherwise affect the title to the additional real estate.
History:
1993 c 222 art 2 s 6 ; 2005 c 121 s 10 ; 2010 c 267 art 2 s 4
515B.2-107 DECLARATION OF LEASEHOLD COMMON INTEREST COMMUNITIES.
(a) Any lease the expiration or termination of which may terminate the common interest community or reduce its size, or a memorandum thereof, shall be recorded. The declaration of a leasehold common interest community shall include:
(1) the recording data for the lease, or the memorandum of lease, and a statement of where the complete lease may be inspected if only a memorandum is recorded;
(2) the date on which the lease expires;
(3) a legally sufficient description of the real estate subject to the lease;
(4) any right of the unit owners to purchase the lessor's interest in the lease and the procedure for exercise of those rights, or a statement that they do not have those rights;
(5) any right of the unit owners to remove any improvements within a reasonable time after the expiration or termination of the lease, or a statement that they do not have those rights; and
(6) any rights of the unit owners to renew the lease and the conditions of any renewal, or a statement that they do not have those rights.
(b) After the declaration of a leasehold condominium or leasehold planned community is recorded, neither the lessor who has joined in the declaration nor any successor in interest may terminate the leasehold interest of a unit owner who makes timely payment of the unit owner's share of the rent and otherwise complies with all covenants which, if violated, would entitle the lessor to terminate the lease. A unit owner's leasehold interest in a condominium or planned community is not affected by failure of any other person to pay rent or fulfill any other covenant.
(c) Acquisition of the leasehold interest of any unit owner by the owner of the reversion or remainder does not merge the leasehold and fee simple interest unless the leasehold interest of all unit owners subject to that reversion or remainder are acquired.
(d) If the expiration or termination of a lease decreases the number of units in a common interest community, the allocated interests shall be reallocated in accordance with section 515B.1-107 as if those units had been taken by eminent domain. Reallocations must be confirmed by an amendment to the declaration prepared, executed, and recorded by the association.
History:
1993 c 222 art 2 s 7
515B.2-108 ALLOCATION OF INTERESTS.
(a) The declaration shall allocate to each unit:
(1) in a condominium, a fraction or percentage of undivided interests in the common elements and in the common expenses of the association and a portion of the votes in the association;
(2) in a cooperative, an ownership interest in the association, a fraction or percentage of the common expenses of the association and a portion of the votes in the association; and
(3) in a planned community, a fraction or percentage of the common expenses of the association and a portion of the votes in the association.
(b) The declaration shall state the formulas used to establish allocations of interests. If the fractions or percentages are all equal the declaration may so state in lieu of stating the fractions or percentages. The declaration need not allocate votes or a share of common expenses to units that are auxiliary to other units, such as garage units or storage units. The allocations shall not discriminate in favor of units owned by the declarant or an affiliate of the declarant, except as provided in sections 515B.2-121 and 515B.3-115 .
(c) If units may be added to the common interest community, the formulas used to reallocate the allocated interests among all units included in the common interest community after the addition shall be the formulas stated in the declaration.
(d) The declaration may authorize special allocations: (i) of unit owner votes among certain units or classes of units on particular matters specified in the declaration, or (ii) of common expenses among certain units or classes of units on particular matters specified in the declaration. Special allocations may only be used to address operational, physical or administrative differences within the common interest community. A declarant may not utilize special allocations for the purpose of evading any limitation or obligation imposed on declarants by this chapter nor may units constitute a class because they are owned by a declarant.
(e) The sum of each category of allocated interests allocated at any time to all the units must equal one if stated as a fraction or 100 percent if stated as a percentage. In the event of a discrepancy between an allocated interest and the result derived from application of the pertinent formula, the allocated interest prevails.
(f) In a condominium or planned community, the common elements are not subject to partition, and any purported conveyance, encumbrance, judicial sale, or other voluntary or involuntary transfer of an undivided interest in the common elements made without the unit to which that interest is allocated is void. The granting of easements, licenses or leases pursuant to section 515B.2-109 or 515B.3-102 shall not constitute a partition.
(g) In a cooperative, any purported conveyance, encumbrance, judicial sale, or other voluntary or involuntary transfer of an ownership interest in the association made without the possessory interest in the unit to which that interest is related is void.
History:
1993 c 222 art 2 s 8 ; 1999 c 11 art 2 s 7 ; 2005 c 121 s 11 ; 2010 c 267 art 2 s 5
515B.2-109 COMMON ELEMENTS AND LIMITED COMMON ELEMENTS.
(a) Except as limited by the declaration or this chapter, common elements other than limited common elements may be used in common by all unit owners. Limited common elements are designated for the exclusive use of the unit owners of the unit or units to which the limited common elements are allocated, subject to subsection (b) and the rights of the association as set forth in the declaration, the bylaws or this chapter.
(b) Except for the limited common elements described in subsections (c) and (d), the declaration shall specify to which unit or units each limited common element is allocated.
(c) Unless otherwise provided in the declaration, if any chute, flue, duct, wire, pipe, conduit, bearing wall, bearing column, or other fixture or improvement: (i) serves one or more but fewer than all units and is located wholly or partially outside the unit boundaries, it is a limited common element allocated solely to the unit or units served; (ii) serves all units or any portion of the common elements, it is a part of the common elements; or (iii) serves only the unit and is located wholly within the unit boundaries, it is a part of the unit.
(d) Unless otherwise provided in the declaration, improvements such as shutters, awnings, window boxes, doorsteps, stoops, porches, balconies, decks, patios, perimeter doors and windows, and their frames, constructed as part of the original construction to serve a single unit or units, and authorized replacements and modifications thereof, if located wholly or partially outside the unit boundaries, are limited common elements allocated solely to the unit or units served.
(e) If the declaration so provides, and subject to any different licensing provisions in a declaration recorded before August 1, 2010, the declarant may grant to a unit owner an exclusive license for the use of a common element originally designed and constructed to serve as a garage stall, storage locker, or other similar common element space, in which case the common element license shall be deemed to be appurtenant to the unit owner's unit, subject to transfer if so provided by the declaration. The declarant shall, at the time the license is granted, provide to the unit owner a common element license evidenced by a separate instrument signed by the declarant and provide a copy of the instrument to the association. The instrument shall, at a minimum, identify the licensed common element, the unit identifier of the unit to which it is appurtenant, and the section of the declaration governing common element licenses. If the declaration so provides, the declarant may require the onetime payment to the declarant of a consideration for the grant of a license.
(1) A common element license may be held only by a unit owner, and the purported transfer of a license to a person other than a unit owner shall be void. Except as provided in the declaration or this subsection, no interest in the common element license may be held or transferred separate from the unit.
(2) The right of any declarant to grant a common element license shall terminate at the earlier of (i) the conveyance of all units to persons other than a declarant or (ii) ten years after the recording of the declaration.
(3) The document granting the common element license shall not be recorded. The association shall maintain records of all common element licenses including originals or copies of the common element licenses and transfers of common element licenses authorized by the declaration.
(4) A common element license granted pursuant to this subsection shall not be subject to the approval requirements set forth in section 515B.3-102 (a)(9).
(f) An allocation of limited common elements may be changed by an amendment to the declaration executed by the unit owners between or among whose units the reallocation is made and the association. The amendment shall be approved by the board of directors of the association as to form, and compliance with the declaration and this chapter. The association shall establish fair and reasonable procedures and time frames for the submission and processing of the reallocations, and shall maintain records thereof. If approved, the association shall cause the amendment to be recorded promptly. The amendment shall be effective when recorded. The association may require the unit owners requesting the reallocation to pay all fees and costs for reviewing, preparing and recording the amendment and any amended CIC plat.
History:
1993 c 222 art 2 s 9 ; 1995 c 92 s 9 ; 1999 c 11 art 2 s 8 ; 2010 c 267 art 2 s 6 ; 2011 c 116 art 2 s 4
515B.2-110 COMMON INTEREST COMMUNITY PLAT (CIC PLAT); CIC CREATED BEFORE AUGUST 1, 2010.
(a) A CIC plat is required for condominiums and planned communities, and cooperatives in which the unit owners' interests are characterized as real estate. The CIC plat is a part of the declaration in condominiums, in planned communities utilizing a CIC plat complying with subsection (c), and in cooperatives in which the unit owners' interests are characterized as real estate, but need not be physically attached to the declaration.
(1) In a condominium, or a cooperative in which the unit owners' interests are characterized as real estate, the CIC plat shall comply with subsection (c).
(2) In a planned community, a CIC plat that does not comply with subsection (c) shall consist of all or part of a subdivision plat or registered land survey complying with subsection (d), or any combination thereof. The CIC plat or registered land survey need not contain the number of the common interest community and may be recorded at any time before the recording of the declaration; provided that if the CIC plat complies with subsection (c), the number of the common interest community shall be included and the CIC plat shall be recorded at the time of recording of the declaration.
(3) In a cooperative in which the unit owners' interests are characterized as personal property, a CIC plat shall not be required. In lieu of a CIC plat, the declaration or any amendment to it creating, converting, or subdividing units in a personal property cooperative shall include an exhibit containing a scale drawing of each building, identifying each building, and showing the perimeter walls of each unit created or changed by the declaration or any amendment to it, including the unit's unit identifier, and its location within the building if the building contains more than one unit.
(b) The CIC plat, or supplemental or amended CIC plat, for condominiums, for planned communities using a plat complying with subsection (c), and for cooperatives in which the unit owners' interests are characterized as real estate, shall contain certifications by a licensed professional land surveyor and licensed professional architect, as to the parts of the CIC plat prepared by each, that (i) the CIC plat accurately depicts all information required by this section, and (ii) the work was undertaken by, or reviewed and approved by, the certifying land surveyor or architect. The portions of the CIC plat depicting the dimensions of the portions of the common interest community described in subsection (c), clauses (8), (9), (10), and (12), may be prepared by either a land surveyor or an architect. The other portions of the CIC plat shall be prepared only by a land surveyor. A certification of the CIC plat or supplemental CIC plat, or an amendment to it, under this subsection by an architect is not required if all parts of the CIC plat, supplemental CIC plat, or amendment are prepared by a land surveyor. Certification by the land surveyor or architect does not constitute a guaranty or warranty of the nature, suitability, or quality of construction of any improvements located or to be located in the common interest community.
(c) A CIC plat for a condominium, or a cooperative in which the unit owners' interests are characterized as real estate, shall show:
(1) the number of the common interest community, and the boundaries, dimensions, and legally sufficient description of the land included therein;
(2) the dimensions and location of all existing material structural improvements and roadways;
(3) the intended location and dimensions of any contemplated common element improvements to be constructed within the common interest community after the filing of the CIC plat, labeled either "MUST BE BUILT" or "NEED NOT BE BUILT";
(4) the location and dimensions of any additional real estate, labeled as such, and a legally sufficient description of the additional real estate;
(5) the extent of any encroachments by or upon any portion of the common interest community;
(6) the location and dimensions of all recorded easements within the land included in the common interest community burdening any portion of the land;
(7) the distance and direction between noncontiguous parcels of real estate;
(8) the location and dimensions of limited common elements, except that with respect to limited common elements described in section 515B.2-102 , subsections (d) and (f), only such material limited common elements as porches, balconies, decks, patios, and garages shall be shown;
(9) the location and dimensions of the front, rear, and side boundaries of each unit and that unit's unit identifier;
(10) the location and dimensions of the upper and lower boundaries of each unit with reference to an established or assumed datum and that unit's unit identifier;
(11) a legally sufficient description of any real estate in which the unit owners will own only an estate for years, labeled as "leasehold real estate"; and
(12) any units which may be converted by the declarant to create additional units or common elements identified separately.
(d) A CIC plat for a planned community either shall comply with subsection (c), or it shall:
(1) comply with chapter 505 , 508 , or 508A , as applicable; and
(2) comply with the applicable subdivision requirements of any governmental authority within whose jurisdiction the planned community is located, subject to the limitations set forth in section 515B.1-106 .
(e) If a declarant adds additional real estate, the declarant shall record a supplemental CIC plat or plats for the real estate being added, conforming to the requirements of this section which apply to the type of common interest community in question. If less than all additional real estate is being added, the supplemental CIC plat for a condominium, a planned community whose CIC plat complies with subsection (c), or a cooperative in which the unit owners' interests are characterized as real estate shall also show the location and dimensions of the remaining portion.
(f) If, pursuant to section 515B.2-112 , a declarant subdivides or converts any unit into two or more units, common elements, or limited common elements, or combines two or more units, the declarant shall record an amendment to the CIC plat showing the location and dimensions of any new units, common elements, or limited common elements thus created.
(g) A CIC plat that complies with subsection (c) is not subject to chapter 505 .
(h) This section applies only to common interest communities created before August 1, 2010.
History:
1993 c 222 art 2 s 10 ; 1994 c 388 art 4 s 7 ; 1995 c 92 s 10 ; 1999 c 11 art 2 s 9 ; 2005 c 121 s 12 ; 2006 c 221 s 10 ; 2010 c 267 art 2 s 7 ; 2011 c 116 art 2 s 5
515B.2-1101 COMMON INTEREST COMMUNITY PLAT (CIC PLAT); CIC CREATED ON OR AFTER AUGUST 1, 2010.
(a) A CIC plat is required for condominiums and planned communities, and cooperatives in which the unit owners' interests are characterized as real estate. The CIC plat is a part of the declaration in condominiums, in planned communities utilizing a CIC plat complying with subsection (c), and in cooperatives in which the unit owners' interests are characterized as real estate, but need not be physically attached to the declaration.
(1) In a condominium, a planned community not utilizing a subdivision plat or registered land survey under subsection (d), clause (1), or a cooperative in which the unit owners' interests are characterized as real estate, the CIC plat shall comply with subsection (c).
(2) In a planned community, a CIC plat that does not comply with subsection (c) shall consist of all or part of a subdivision plat or registered land survey complying with subsection (d), or any combination thereof. The CIC subdivision plat or registered land survey need not contain the number of the common interest community and may be recorded at any time before the recording of the declaration; provided that if the CIC plat complies with subsection (c), the number of the common interest community shall be included and the CIC plat shall be recorded at the time of recording of the declaration.
(3) In a cooperative in which the unit owners' interests are characterized as personal property, a CIC plat shall not be required. In lieu of a CIC plat, the declaration, or any amendment or supplemental declaration creating, converting, or subdividing units shall include an exhibit containing a dimensioned, scale drawing showing (i) the boundaries of the land constituting the cooperative property, (ii) the location and dimensions of the front, rear, and side boundaries of each unit, and (iii) the unit's unit identifier and its location within the cooperative property.
(b) The CIC plat or supplemental or amended CIC plat for condominiums, for planned communities using a plat complying with subsection (c), and for cooperatives in which the unit owners' interests are characterized as real estate shall contain certifications by a licensed professional land surveyor and licensed professional architect, as to the parts of the CIC plat prepared by each, that (i) the CIC plat accurately depicts all information required by this section, and (ii) the work was undertaken by, or reviewed and approved by, the certifying land surveyor or architect. The portions of the CIC plat depicting the dimensions of the portions of the common interest community described in subsection (c), clauses (8), (9), and (10), may be prepared by either a land surveyor or an architect. The other portions of the CIC plat shall be prepared only by a land surveyor. A certification of the CIC plat or supplemental CIC plat, or an amendment to it, under this subsection by an architect is not required if all parts of the CIC plat, supplemental CIC plat, or amendment are prepared by a land surveyor. Certification by the land surveyor or architect does not constitute a guaranty or warranty of the nature, suitability, or quality of construction of any improvements located or to be located in the common interest community.
(c) A CIC plat for a condominium, a planned community not utilizing a subdivision plat or registered land survey under subsection (d), clause (1), or a cooperative in which the unit owners' interests are characterized as real estate shall show:
(1) the number of the common interest community, and the boundaries, dimensions, and a legally sufficient description of the land included therein;
(2) the dimensions and location of all existing roadways and material structural improvements that are part of the common elements;
(3) the intended location and dimensions of all roadways and material structural improvements that may be constructed by the declarant within the common elements after the filing of the CIC plat, labeled either "MUST BE BUILT" or "NEED NOT BE BUILT";
(4) the location and dimensions of any additional real estate, labeled as such, and a legally sufficient description of the additional real estate;
(5) the extent of any encroachments by or upon any portion of the common interest community;
(6) the location and dimensions of all recorded easements within the land included in the common interest community burdening any portion of the land;
(7) the distance and direction between noncontiguous parcels of real estate;
(8) the location and dimensions of limited common elements, except that with respect to limited common elements described in section 515B.2-109 , subsections (c) and (d), only such material limited common elements as porches, balconies, decks, and patios shall be shown;
(9) the location and dimensions of the front, rear, and side boundaries of each unit and that unit's unit identifier;
(10) the location and dimensions of the upper and lower boundaries of each unit with reference to an established or assumed datum and that unit's unit identifier; and
(11) a legally sufficient description of any real estate in which the unit owners will own only an estate for years, labeled as "leasehold real estate."
(d) A CIC plat for a planned community either shall comply with subsection (c), or it shall:
(1) comply with chapter 505 , 508 , or 508A , as applicable; and
(2) comply with the applicable subdivision requirements of any governmental authority within whose jurisdiction the planned community is located, subject to the limitations set forth in section 515B.1-106 .
(e) If a declarant adds additional real estate, the declarant shall record a supplemental CIC plat or plats for the real estate being added, conforming to the requirements of this section which apply to the type of common interest community in question. If less than all additional real estate is being added, the supplemental CIC plat complies with subsection (c), or a cooperative in which the unit owners' interests are characterized as real estate, shall also show the location and dimensions of the remaining portion.
(f) A CIC plat which complies with subsection (c) is not subject to chapter 505 .
(g) This section applies only to common interest communities created on or after August 1, 2010.
History:
2011 c 116 art 2 s 6
515B.2-111 EXPANSION OF FLEXIBLE COMMON INTEREST COMMUNITY.
(a) To add additional real estate pursuant to a right reserved under section 515B.2-106 (a)(1), the declarant and the owners of the additional real estate to be added, except vendors under a contract for deed, shall execute and record an instrument, titled a "supplemental declaration," as provided in this section. The supplemental declaration shall be limited to matters authorized by this section, and shall include:
(1) a legally sufficient description of the real estate added by the supplemental declaration;
(2) a description of the boundaries of each unit created by the supplemental declaration, consistent with the declaration, and the unit's unit identifier;
(3) in a planned community containing common elements, a legally sufficient description of the common elements;
(4) a reallocation of the common element interests, votes in the association, and common expense liabilities as applicable, in compliance with the declaration and section 515B.2-108 ;
(5) a description of any limited common elements formed out of the additional real estate, designating the unit to which each is allocated to the extent required by section 515B.2-109 ;
(6) a statement, based upon the declarant's current good faith estimate, of the total number of units that may be created within any remaining additional real estate;
(7) a statement as to whether or not the period of declarant control has terminated, regardless of the reason for such termination; and
(8) an attached affidavit attesting to the giving of the notice required by subsection (b), if such notice is required.
(b) If the period of declarant control has terminated, a declarant shall give notice of its intention to add additional real estate to the association (Attention: president of the association) by a notice given in the manner provided in section 515B.1-115 not less than 15 days prior to recording the supplemental declaration which adds the additional real estate. A copy of the supplemental declaration shall be attached to the notice. The supplemental declaration may be in proposed form; however, following notice, the supplemental declaration shall not be changed so as to materially and adversely affect the rights of unit owners or the association unless a new 15-day notice is given in accordance with this section.
(c) A lien upon the additional real estate that is not also upon the existing common interest community is a lien only upon the units, and their respective interest in the common elements (if any), that are created from the additional real estate. Units within the common interest community as it existed prior to expansion are transferred free of liens that existed only upon the additional real estate, notwithstanding the fact that the interest in the common elements is a portion of the entire common interest community, including the additional real estate.
(d) If a supplemental declaration in a planned community creates common elements, then a conveyance of the common elements to the association shall be recorded simultaneously with the supplemental declaration. If a supplemental declaration adds additional real estate to a cooperative, then a conveyance of the additional real estate to the association shall be recorded simultaneously with the supplemental declaration.
History:
1993 c 222 art 2 s 11 ; 2005 c 121 s 13 ; 2010 c 267 art 2 s 8
515B.2-112 SUBDIVISION, COMBINATION, OR CONVERSION OF UNITS.
(a) If the declaration so provides, (i) a unit or units that are not owned exclusively by a declarant or the association may be subdivided into two or more units or combined into a lesser number of units, or (ii) a unit or units owned exclusively by a declarant or the association may be subdivided, combined, or converted into one or more units, limited common elements, common elements, or a combination of units, limited common elements or common elements.
(b) If the unit or units are not owned exclusively by a declarant or the association, the unit owners of the units to be combined or subdivided shall cause to be prepared and submitted to the association for approval an application for an amendment to the declaration and amended CIC plat, for the purpose of subdividing or combining the unit or units. The application shall contain, at a minimum, a general description of the proposed subdivision or combination, and shall specify in detail the matters required by subsections (d)(2), (3), and (4). The basis for disapproval of the application by the association shall be limited to (i) health or safety considerations, (ii) liability considerations for the association and other unit owners, (iii) aesthetic changes to the common elements or another unit, (iv) any material and adverse impact on the common elements or another unit, or (v) a failure to comply with the declaration, this chapter, or governmental laws, ordinances, or regulations. The association shall give written notice of its decision and required changes to the unit owner or owners who made the application. The association shall establish fair and reasonable procedures and time frames for the submission and prompt processing of the applications. If an application under this subsection is approved, the unit owner shall cause an amendment, and an amended CIC plat if required, to be prepared based upon the approved application.
(c) If the unit or units are owned exclusively by a declarant or the association, the declarant or the association, as applicable, shall have the authority to unilaterally prepare, execute, and record, at its expense, an amendment to the declaration and an amended CIC plat subdividing, combining, or converting the unit or units. The amendment shall comply with subsection (d)(2), (3), (4), and (5), and shall be limited to those provisions necessary to accomplish the subdivision, combination, or conversion unless the consent of unit owners required to amend the declaration is obtained.
(d) An amendment approved under subsection (b) shall:
(1) be executed by the association and each unit owner of each unit to be combined or subdivided, and consented to by each secured party with a security interest in a unit to be combined or subdivided;
(2) assign a unit identifier to each unit resulting from the subdivision, conversion, or combination;
(3) reallocate the common element interest, votes in the association, and common expense liability, as applicable, formerly allocated to the unit or units being combined, converted, or subdivided (i) only among the resulting unit or units, or (ii) among all remaining units in the case of a conversion of a unit or units entirely to common elements, as applicable, on the basis of the formula described in the declaration;
(4) reallocate limited common elements formerly allocated to the unit or units being combined, converted, or subdivided among the resulting unit or units, or designate part or all of the limited common elements as common elements in the case of a conversion of a unit or units; and
(5) conform to the requirements of the declaration and this chapter.
(e) If the association determines that the amendment and amended CIC plat conform to the application approved under subsection (b), the declaration, and this chapter, the association shall execute the amendment and cause the amendment and the amended CIC plat to be recorded. The association may require the unit owners executing the amendment to pay all fees and costs for reviewing, preparing, and recording the amendment and the amended CIC plat, and any other fees or costs incurred by the association in connection therewith.
(f) The amended CIC plat shall show the resulting common elements, limited common elements or units, as subdivided, combined, or converted.
(g) A secured party's interest and remedies shall be deemed to apply to the unit or units that result from the subdivision or combination of the unit or units in which the secured party held a security interest. If the secured party enforces any remedy, including foreclosure of its lien, against any of the resulting units, all instruments and notices relating to the foreclosure shall describe the subject property as described in the amendment and the amended CIC plat which created the resulting units.
History:
1993 c 222 art 2 s 12 ; 2005 c 121 s 14 ; 2006 c 221 s 11 ; 2010 c 267 art 2 s 9
515B.2-113 ALTERATION OF UNITS.
(a) Subject to the provisions of the declaration and applicable law, a unit owner may, at the unit owner's expense, make any improvements or alterations to the unit, provided: (i) that they do not impair the structural integrity or mechanical systems, affect the common elements, or impair the support of any portion of the common interest community; (ii) that prior arrangements are made with the association to ensure that other unit owners are not disturbed; (iii) that the common elements are not damaged; and (iv) that the common elements and other units are protected against mechanics' liens.
(b) Subject to the provisions of applicable law, a unit owner of a unit that is used as a dwelling, whether primary, secondary, or seasonal, may, at the unit owner's expense, make improvements or alterations to the unit as necessary for the full enjoyment of the unit by any person residing in the unit who has a disability, as provided in the Fair Housing Amendments Act, United States Code, title 42, section 3601, et seq., and the Minnesota Human Rights Act, chapter 363A , and any amendments to those acts. This subsection applies to all common interest communities subject to this chapter, chapter 515 , or 515A , notwithstanding any contrary provision of section 515B.1-102 .
(c) The declaration, bylaws, rules, and regulations, or agreements with the association may not prohibit the improvements or alterations referred to in subsection (b), but may reasonably regulate the type, style, and quality of the improvements or alterations, as they relate to health, safety, and architectural standards. In addition, improvements or alterations made pursuant to subsection (b) must comply with subsection (a)(i), (ii), (iii), and (iv).
(d) The unit owner's rights under this section may not be waived.
(e) Subsection (b) does not apply to restrictions on improvements or alterations imposed by statute, rule, or ordinance.
(f) Subject to the provisions of the declaration and applicable law, a unit owner may, at the unit owner's expense, after acquiring title to an adjoining unit or an adjoining part of an adjoining unit, with the prior written approval of the association and first mortgagees of the affected units, remove or alter any intervening partition or create apertures therein, even if the partition is part of the common elements, if those acts do not impair the structural integrity or mechanical systems or lessen the support of any portion of the common interest community. The adjoining unit owners shall have the exclusive license to use the space occupied by the removed partition, but the use shall not create an easement or vested right. Removal of partitions or creation of apertures under this subsection is not an alteration of boundaries. The association may require that the owner or owners of units affected replace or restore any removed partition, that the unit owner comply with subsection (a)(i), (ii) and (iii), and that the unit owner pay all fees and costs incurred by the association in connection with the alteration.
History:
1993 c 222 art 2 s 13 ; 1999 c 11 art 2 s 10 ; 2005 c 56 s 1 ; 2005 c 121 s 15 ; 2010 c 267 art 2 s 10 ; 2018 c 117 s 4
515B.2-114 RELOCATION OF BOUNDARIES BETWEEN ADJOINING UNITS.
(a) Subject to the provisions of the declaration and applicable law, the boundaries between adjoining units may be relocated by an amendment to the declaration upon the submission of an application to the association by the owners of those units and approval by the association. The application shall contain, at a minimum, a general description of the proposed relocation, and shall specify in detail the matters required by subsection (b)(2) and (3).
(b) The association shall establish fair and reasonable procedures and time frames for the submission and prompt processing of the applications. The basis for disapproval shall be limited to structural or safety considerations, or a failure to comply with the declaration, this chapter, or governmental laws, ordinances or regulations. If the application is approved, the unit owners making the application shall cause an amendment and amended CIC plat to be prepared based upon the approved application, and submit them to the association for approval. The amendment shall:
(1) be executed by the association and the unit owners making the application, and consented to by any secured party with respect to the units;
(2) identify the units involved;
(3) reallocate the common element interest, votes in the association and common expense liability formerly allocated to the units among the newly defined units on the basis described in the declaration;
(4) contain words of conveyance between them;
(5) contain such other provisions as may be reasonably required by the association; and
(6) conform to the requirements of the declaration and this chapter.
(c) The interest and remedies of a secured party which joins in the amendment pursuant to this section shall be deemed to be modified as provided in the amendment.
(d) The association may require the unit owners making the application to build a boundary wall and other common elements between the units, and to pay all fees and costs for reviewing, preparing and recording the amendment and the amended CIC plat, and any other fees or costs incurred by the association in connection therewith.
(e) The applicant shall deliver a copy of the recorded amendment and amended CIC plat to the association.
History:
1993 c 222 art 2 s 14 ; 2010 c 267 art 2 s 11
515B.2-115 MINOR VARIATIONS IN BOUNDARIES.
The existing physical boundaries of a unit, or of a unit reconstructed in substantial accordance with the description contained in the original declaration, are its legal boundaries, regardless of vertical or lateral movement of the building or minor variances due to shifting or settling. This section does not relieve a declarant or any other person of liability for failure to adhere to the CIC plat or for any representation in a disclosure statement.
History:
1993 c 222 art 2 s 15
515B.2-116 USE FOR SALES PURPOSES.
A declarant may maintain sales offices, management offices, and models in units or on common elements in the common interest community only if the declaration so provides and specifies the rights of a declarant with regard to the number and location thereof. If the declaration so provides, a declarant may maintain signs on the common elements and in model units advertising the common interest community. Rights granted pursuant to this section are subject to the provisions of other state laws and to local ordinances.
History:
1993 c 222 art 2 s 16
515B.2-117 DECLARANT'S EASEMENT RIGHTS.
Subject to the provisions of the declaration, a declarant has an easement through the common elements as may be reasonably necessary for the purpose of discharging the declarant's obligations or exercising special declarant rights, whether arising under this chapter or reserved in the declaration.
History:
1993 c 222 art 2 s 17
515B.2-118 AMENDMENT OF DECLARATION.
(a) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (d), the declaration, including any CIC plat, may be amended only by vote or written consent of unit owners of units to which at least 67 percent of the votes in the association are allocated, or any greater or other requirement the declaration specifies, subject to the following qualifications:
(1) A declarant may execute supplemental declarations or amendments under section 515B.2-111 or 515B.2-112 .
(2) The association and certain unit owners, as applicable, may execute amendments under section 515B.2-107 , 515B.2-109 , 515B.2-112 , 515B.2-114 , or 515B.2-124 .
(3) Except for amendments or supplemental declarations under subsection (a)(1) and (2), and except as provided in sections 515B.1-102 (d)(3) and 515B.2-106 (a)(2), the unanimous written consent of the unit owners is required for any amendment which (i) creates or increases special declarant rights, (ii) increases the number of units, (iii) changes the boundaries of any unit, (iv) changes the allocated interests of a unit, (v) changes common elements to limited common elements or units, (vi) changes the authorized use of a unit from residential to nonresidential, or conversely, or (vii) changes the characterization of the unit owner's interest in a cooperative from real estate to personal property, or conversely. Where the amendment involves the conversion of common elements into a unit or units, the title to the unit or units created shall, upon recording of the amendment, vest in the association free and clear of the interests of the unit owners and all secured parties holding security interests in units.
(4) In addition to any other requirements contained in this section, a declarant must execute an amendment that eliminates or modifies any special declarant rights held by that declarant.
(5) If any provision of this chapter, the declaration, the bylaws, or the articles of incorporation requires the consent of a secured party holding a security interest in a unit as a condition for the approval or effectiveness of an amendment to the declaration, the bylaws, or the articles of incorporation, the consent is deemed to be granted if the secured party's written refusal to consent is not received by the association within 60 days after the secured party receives from the association notice and a copy of the amendment, by certified United States mail, postage prepaid and return receipt requested. If the secured party has not otherwise provided to the association an address for notice, the association shall send the notice to the address, if any, set forth in the recorded instrument that evidences the security interest. This subsection shall not apply to an amendment that affects the priority of a secured party's security interest or the ability of a secured party to foreclose its security interest. In such cases, the number or percentage of secured parties whose consent is required by the instrument to be amended must consent to the amendment in writing.
(6) The declaration may specify less than 67 percent for approval of an amendment, but only if all of the units are restricted to nonresidential use.
(7) If any provision of this chapter, the declaration, the bylaws, or the articles of incorporation requires the vote or consent of unit owners as a condition for the approval or effectiveness of an amendment to the declaration, the bylaws, or the articles of incorporation, the affirmative vote or consent of a unit owner is deemed to be granted if the association sends notice and a copy of the amendment, by certified United States mail, postage prepaid and return receipt requested, and (i) if a vote is conducted, the unit owner's vote is not cast against the proposed amendment, or (ii) if consent is requested, the unit owner's written refusal to consent is not received by the association within 60 days after notice is mailed. This subsection shall not apply to any amendment that would require execution by the association and certain unit owners pursuant to subsection (a)(2).
(b) No action to challenge the validity of an amendment or a supplemental declaration may be brought more than two years after the amendment or supplemental declaration is recorded.
(c) Every amendment to a declaration or supplemental declaration shall be recorded in every county in which any portion of the common interest community is located and is effective only when recorded. If an amendment (i) changes the number of units, (ii) changes the boundary of a unit, (iii) changes common elements to limited common elements, where the limited common element is required by section 515B.2-110 (c), to be shown on the CIC plat, (iv) changes limited common elements to common elements if the limited common elements are shown as limited common elements on the CIC plat, or (v) makes any other change that creates an inconsistency between the declaration, as amended, and the CIC plat, then an amendment to the CIC plat reflecting the change shall be recorded.
(d) The association may petition the district court
Minn. Stat. § 103G.245
103G.245 WORK IN PUBLIC WATERS.
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Subdivision 1. Permit requirement.
Except as provided in subdivisions 2, 11, and 12, the state, a political subdivision of the state, a public or private corporation, or a person must have a public-waters-work permit to:
(1) construct, reconstruct, remove, abandon, transfer ownership of, or make any change in a reservoir, dam, or waterway obstruction on public waters; or
(2) change or diminish the course, current, or cross section of public waters, entirely or partially within the state, by any means, including filling, excavating, or placing of materials in or on the beds of public waters.
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Subd. 2. Exceptions.
A public-waters-work permit is not required for:
(1) work in altered natural watercourses that are part of drainage systems established under chapter 103D or 103E if the work in the waters is undertaken according to chapter 103D or 103E;
(2) a drainage project for a drainage system established under chapter 103E that does not substantially affect public waters; or
(3) culvert restoration or replacement of the same size and elevation, if the restoration or replacement does not impact a designated trout stream.
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Subd. 3. Permit application.
Application for a public-waters-work permit must be in writing to the commissioner on forms prescribed by the commissioner. The commissioner may issue a state general permit to a governmental subdivision or to the general public under which more than one project may be conducted under a single permit.
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Subd. 4. Boathouses and boat storage structures.
(a) The following definitions apply to this subdivision:
(1) "boathouse" means a structure or watercraft that is moored by spuds, cables, ropes, anchors, or chains that may be intended for habitation and has walls, a roof, and either an open well for boats or a floor from wall to wall and does not include watercraft that are designed and operated as motorboats;
(2) "motorboat" means a watercraft that is designed for and is capable of navigation on the water and that has an adequately sized external or internal mechanical propulsion system for the type of watercraft; and
(3) "boat storage structure" means a structure that is used for storing boats or float planes.
(b) Boathouses and boat storage structures are prohibited on public waters of Minnesota, except as allowed by paragraphs (c) to (f).
(c) The commissioner may issue a public-waters-work permit for boathouses, when approved by the local governmental unit and:
(1) only in areas of historic use for the structures, as determined by the commissioner, and where the boathouse was in existence on public waters prior to January 1, 1997; or
(2) where the boathouse serves as a public service structure within a permitted commercial marina.
(d) A boathouse in existence on public waters prior to January 1, 1997, may be repaired or replaced, provided that the repairs or replacement are consistent with the permit issued by the commissioner under paragraph (c).
(e) The commissioner may issue a public-waters-work permit for the repair or replacement of boat storage structures when:
(1) approved by the local governmental unit;
(2) the boat storage structure was in existence prior to 1979 and is currently used for boat storage;
(3) the boat storage structure is not habitable and is not connected to a sewage system;
(4) the local government unit has had the opportunity to review the boat storage structure application and has not provided written comments opposing the application;
(5) the total area of boat storage structures on the applicant's property and on public waters adjacent to the applicant's property is not increased;
(6) the height of boat storage structures is not increased more than one foot, unless boat storage structures are consolidated and the same pitch roof results in an increased height; and
(7) the public-waters-work permit with the specific dimensions and location of the boat storage structure is recorded in the real estate records of the office of the county recorder or registrar of titles in the county in which the applicant's property is located.
(f) A boat storage structure may be repaired, replaced, or consolidated, provided that the repairs, replacement, or consolidation are consistent with the permit issued by the commissioner under paragraph (e). The repair or replacement of a boat storage structure may include:
(1) the replacement of the foundation of the boat storage structure, provided that the material below the ordinary high-water mark is not toxic to aquatic life; and
(2) the consolidation of multiple boat storage structures.
(g) Notwithstanding sections 103F.201 to 103F.221, and rules adopted under those sections, the local zoning authority may approve a boat storage structure that is at or above the ordinary high-water level to replace a boat storage structure that is at or below the ordinary high-water level of a public water if the boat storage structure was in existence prior to 1979. The replacement boat storage structure may not exceed the total area of the boat storage structure being replaced. A boat storage structure that is replaced under this paragraph must be removed prior to building the replacement structure.
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Subd. 5. Delegating permit authority to local units of government.
(a) The commissioner may delegate public-waters-work permit authority to the appropriate county or municipality or to watershed districts or watershed management organizations that have elected to assert local authority over protected waters. The public-waters-work permit authority must be delegated under guidelines of the commissioner and the delegation must be done by agreement with the involved county, municipality, watershed district, or water management organization and in compliance with section
Minn. Stat. § 103I.335
103I.335 . The lien attaches to the real property where the well or boring is located. The lien is perfected by recording the lien with the county recorder or registrar of titles where the well or boring and the property are located and serving or mailing by return receipt a copy of the lien to the property owner.
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Subd. 2. Enforcement of lien.
The commissioner or the Board of Water and Soil Resources may enforce the lien in the manner provided for a judgment lien under chapter 550 or certify the amount to the county auditor, which must be assessed against the property and collected in the same manner as real estate taxes.
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Subd. 3. Assessment of installments.
(a) In lieu of certifying the entire amount to be collected, the commissioner or the Board of Water and Soil Resources may have the amount due assessed in seven or less equal annual installments plus interest due at the rate determined by the state court administrator for judgments under section
Minn. Stat. § 115.061
115.061 ;
(2) the applicant, to the extent possible, fully cooperated with the agency in responding to the release;
(3) the state rules applicable after December 22, 1993, to operating an underground storage tank and appurtenances without leak detection;
(4) the state rules applicable after December 22, 1998, to operating an underground storage tank and appurtenances without corrosion protection or spill and overfill protection; and
(5) the state rule applicable after November 1, 1998, to operating an aboveground tank without a dike or other structure that would contain a spill at the aboveground tank site.
(j) The reimbursement may be reduced as much as 100 percent for failure by the applicant to comply with the requirements in paragraph (i), clauses (1) to (5). In determining the amount of the reimbursement reduction, the board shall consider:
(1) the reasonable determination by the agency that the noncompliance poses a threat to the environment;
(2) whether the noncompliance was negligent, knowing, or willful;
(3) the deterrent effect of the award reduction on other tank owners and operators;
(4) the amount of reimbursement reduction recommended by the commissioner; and
(5) the documentation of noncompliance provided by the commissioner.
(k) An applicant may request that the board issue a multiparty check that includes each lender who advanced funds to pay the costs of the corrective action or to each contractor or consultant who provided corrective action services. This request must be made by filing with the board a document, in a form prescribed by the board, indicating the identity of the applicant, the identity of the lender, contractor, or consultant, the dollar amount, and the location of the corrective action. The applicant must submit a request for the issuance of a multiparty check for each application submitted to the board. Payment under this paragraph does not constitute the assignment of the applicant's right to reimbursement to the consultant, contractor, or lender. The board has no liability to an applicant for a payment issued as a multiparty check that meets the requirements of this paragraph.
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Subd. 3a. Eligibility of other persons.
(a) A person who has taken corrective action may apply to the board for reimbursement under subdivision 3 if the board determines that:
(1) the person took the corrective action in response to a request or order of the commissioner made under this chapter;
(2) the commissioner has determined that the person was not a responsible person as defined in this chapter;
(3) the board has determined the person was not a volunteer under subdivision 3b; and
(4) the person incurs reimbursable costs on or after June 4, 1987.
(b) Notwithstanding subdivision 3, paragraph (a), a person eligible for reimbursement under this subdivision shall receive 100 percent of total reimbursable costs up to $1,000,000.
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Subd. 3b. Volunteer eligibility.
(a) A person may apply to the board for reimbursement under subdivision 3 if the board determines that:
(1) the person is not a responsible person as defined in this chapter;
(2) holds legal or equitable title to the property where a release occurred; and
(3) incurs reimbursable costs on or after May 23, 1989.
(b) The board may reduce the reimbursement to a person eligible under this subdivision if the person acquired legal or equitable title to the property from a responsible person who failed to comply with subdivision 3, paragraph (i), except that the board may not reduce the reimbursement under this provision to a mortgagee who acquires title to the property through foreclosure or receipt of a deed in lieu of foreclosure.
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Subd. 3c. Release at refineries and tank facilities ineligible for reimbursement.
(a) Reimbursement may not be made under this chapter for costs associated with a release:
(1) from a tank located at a petroleum refinery; or
(2) from a tank facility, including a pipeline terminal, with more than 1,000,000 gallons of total petroleum storage capacity at the tank facility.
(b) Paragraph (a), clause (2), does not apply to reimbursement for costs associated with a release from a tank facility:
(1) owned or operated by a person engaged in the business of mining iron ore or taconite;
(2) owned by a political subdivision, a housing and redevelopment authority, an economic development authority, or a port authority that acquired the tank facility prior to May 23, 1989;
(3) owned by a person:
(i) who acquired the tank facility prior to May 23, 1989;
(ii) who did not use the tank facility for the bulk storage of petroleum; and
(iii) who is not affiliated with the party who used the tank facility for the bulk storage of petroleum; or
(4) that is not a petroleum refinery or pipeline terminal and is owned by a person engaged in the business of storing used oil primarily for sales to end users.
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Subd. 3d. Political subdivision eligibility.
(a) A political subdivision that has taken corrective action may apply to the board for reimbursement under subdivision 3 if the board determines that:
(1) the political subdivision is not a responsible person as defined by this chapter;
(2) is not a volunteer under subdivision 3b; and
(3) incurs reimbursable costs on or after April 8, 1992.
(b) A political subdivision eligible for reimbursement under this subdivision may only apply for reimbursement if the identified responsible person has failed to take a corrective action ordered by the commissioner.
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Subd. 3e. Department of Transportation eligibility.
The Department of Transportation may apply to the board and is eligible for reimbursement of reimbursable costs associated with property that the department has acquired under section 115C.021, subdivision 3a , if corrective action pursuant to a plan reviewed and approved by the commissioner of the Pollution Control Agency in accordance with applicable rules and guidance documents was taken on the entire property so acquired. Notwithstanding subdivision 3, paragraph (a), the Department of Transportation shall receive 100 percent of total reimbursable costs associated with a single release up to $1,000,000.
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Subd. 3f.
[Expired, 1997 c 246 s 12 ]
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Subd. 3g.
[Repealed, 1Sp2001 c 2 s 162 ]
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Subd. 3h. Reimbursement; aboveground tanks in bulk plants.
(a) As used in this subdivision, "bulk plant" means an aboveground or underground tank facility with a storage capacity of more than 1,100 gallons but less than 1,000,000 gallons that is used to dispense petroleum into cargo tanks for transportation and sale at another location.
(b) For corrective action at a bulk plant located on what is or was railroad right-of-way, the board shall reimburse 90 percent of total reimbursable costs on the first $40,000 of reimbursable costs and 100 percent of any remaining reimbursable costs when the applicant can document that more than one bulk plant was operated on the same section of right-of-way, as determined by the commissioner of commerce.
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Subd. 3i. Reimbursement; natural disaster area.
(a) As used in this subdivision, "natural disaster area" means a geographical area that has been declared a disaster by the governor and President of the United States.
(b) Notwithstanding subdivision 3, paragraph (a), the board may reimburse:
(1) up to 50 percent of an applicant's pre-natural-disaster estimated building market value as recorded by the county assessor; or
(2) if the applicant conveys title of the real estate to local or state government, up to 50 percent of the pre-natural-disaster estimated total market value, not to exceed one acre, as recorded by the county assessor.
(c) Paragraph (b) applies only if the applicant documents that:
(1) the natural disaster area has been declared eligible for state or federal emergency aid;
(2) the building is declared uninhabitable by the commissioner because of damage caused by the release of petroleum from a petroleum storage tank; and
(3) the applicant has submitted a claim under any applicable insurance policies and has been denied benefits under those policies.
(d) In determining the percentage for reimbursement, the board shall consider the applicant's eligibility to receive other state or federal financial assistance and determine a lesser reimbursement rate to the extent that the applicant is eligible to receive financial assistance that exceeds 50 percent of the applicant's pre-natural-disaster estimated building market value or total market value.
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Subd. 3j.
[Repealed, 2008 c 296 art 1 s 35 ]
§
Subd. 3k.
[Repealed, 2013 c 135 art 3 s 23 ]
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Subd. 4. Reimbursement; effect on other liability.
The right to apply for reimbursement and the receipt of reimbursement does not limit the liability of a responsible person for damages or costs incurred by a person or the state as a result of a release.
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Subd. 5. Returning reimbursement.
(a) The board may demand the complete or partial return of any reimbursement made under this chapter if the applicant for reimbursement:
(1) misrepresents or omits a fact relevant to a determination made by the board or the commissioner under this chapter;
(2) fails to complete corrective action that the commissioner determined at the time of the reimbursement to be necessary to adequately address the release, unless the reimbursement was made under subdivision 3a;
(3) fails to reimburse a person for agreed-to amounts for corrective actions taken in response to a request by the applicant; or
(4) has entered an agreement to settle or compromise any portion of the incurred costs, in which case the amount returned must be prorated in proportion to the amount of the settlement or compromise.
(b) If a reimbursement under this chapter is not returned upon demand by the board, the board may recover the reimbursement, with administrative and legal expenses, in a civil action in district court brought by the attorney general against the applicant. If the board's demand for return of the reimbursement is based on willful actions of the applicant, the applicant shall also forfeit and pay to the state a civil penalty, in an amount to be determined by the court, of not more than the full amount of the reimbursement.
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Subd. 6. Fraud.
If a person, with intent to defraud, issues an invoice or other demand for payment with knowledge that it is false in whole or in part, and with knowledge that it is being submitted to the board for reimbursement:
(1) that person shall be considered to have presented a false claim to a public body under section
Minn. Stat. § 116J.035
116J.035 , the commissioner may:
(1) locate, develop, and promote international markets for Minnesota products and services;
(2) arrange and lead trade missions to countries with promising international markets for Minnesota goods, technology, services, and agricultural products;
(3) promote Minnesota products and services at domestic and international trade shows;
(4) organize, promote, and present domestic and international trade shows featuring Minnesota products and services;
(5) host trade delegations and assist foreign traders in contacting appropriate Minnesota businesses and investments;
(6) develop contacts with Minnesota businesses and gather and provide information to assist them in locating and communicating with international trading or joint venture counterparts;
(7) provide information, education, and counseling services to Minnesota businesses regarding the economic, commercial, legal, and cultural contexts of international trade;
(8) provide Minnesota businesses with international trade leads and information about the availability and sources of services relating to international trade, such as export financing, licensing, freight forwarding, international advertising, translation, and custom brokering;
(9) locate, attract, and promote foreign direct investment and business development in Minnesota to enhance employment opportunities in Minnesota;
(10) provide foreign businesses and investors desiring to locate facilities in Minnesota information regarding sources of governmental, legal, real estate, financial, and business services;
(11) enter into contracts or other agreements with private persons and public entities, including agreements to establish and maintain offices and other types of representation in foreign countries, to carry out the purposes of promoting international trade and attracting investment from foreign countries to Minnesota and to carry out this section, without regard to section
Minn. Stat. § 116J.64
116J.64 LOANS TO INDIANS.
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Subdivision 1. Scope.
For purposes of this section the following terms shall have the meanings ascribed to them herein.
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Subd. 2. Indian.
"Indian" means a person who is an enrolled member of a federally recognized Minnesota-based band or tribe.
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Subd. 3. Person.
"Person" means an individual Indian, or a partnership comprising Indians only, or a corporation whose stock is owned wholly by Indians.
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Subd. 4. Tribal government.
"Tribal government" means the reservation business committee, board of trustees, tribal council, federally recognized tribal entity, or equivalent duly constituted tribal authority.
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Subd. 5. Agency.
"Agency" means the Department of Employment and Economic Development.
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Subd. 5a. Eligible organization.
"Eligible organization" means any organization approved by a tribal government to administer its portion of the Indian business loan fund allotted to the tribal government.
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Subd. 6. Administration.
(a) The remaining 20 percent of the tax revenue received by the county auditor under section 273.165, subdivision 1 , shall be remitted by the county auditor to the commissioner of management and budget and shall be deposited in an account in the special revenue fund. The account is established under the jurisdiction and control of the agency, which may engage in a business loan program for Indians as that term is defined in subdivision 2.
(b) The tribal governments or eligible organization may administer the account, provided that, before making any eligible loans, each tribal government must submit to the agency, for its review and approval, a plan for that government's loan program which specifically describes, as to that program, its content, the application and reporting forms, utilization of money, administration, operation, implementation, and other matters required by the agency. The plan may provide for the tribal government to contract with an eligible organization to administer its loan program.
(c) All such plans must provide for a reasonable balance in the distribution of money appropriated pursuant to this section to make business loans between Indians residing on and off the reservations within the state. Each tribal government may allocate all, or a portion of, the funds in its account to one or more other tribal governments for purposes of making eligible loans. As a condition to the making of such eligible loans, the tribal governments shall enter into a loan agreement and other contractual arrangements with the agency to carry out this chapter, and shall agree that all official books and records relating to the business loan program shall be subject to audit by the legislative auditor in the same manner prescribed for agencies of state government.
(d) Whenever money is appropriated by the commissioner of management and budget to the agency solely for the purposes in this subdivision, the agency shall record in the Indian business loan account the receipt and disbursement of the money and of the income, gain and loss from the investment and reinvestment of the money.
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Subd. 7. Processing.
(a) An Indian desiring a loan for the purpose of starting a business enterprise or expanding an existing business shall make application to the appropriate tribal government. The application shall be forwarded to the appropriate eligible organization, if it is participating in the program, for consideration in conformity with the plans submitted by said tribal governments. The tribal government may approve the application if it determines that the loan would advance the goals of the Indian business loan program. If the tribal government is not participating in the program, the agency may directly approve or deny the loan application.
(b) If the application is approved, the tribal government shall forward the application, together with all relevant documents pertinent thereto, to the commissioner of the agency, who shall request a payment to be issued to the applicant or the applicable tribal government, if it is administering the loan, with appropriate notations identifying the borrower.
(c) The tribal government, eligible organization, or the agency, if it is administering the loan, shall maintain records of transactions for each borrower in a manner consistent with good accounting practice. The interest rate on a loan shall be established by the tribal government or the agency, but may be no less than two percent per annum nor more than ten percent per annum. When any portion of a debt is repaid, the tribal government, eligible organization, or the agency, if it is administering the loan, shall remit the amount so received plus interest paid thereon to the commissioner of management and budget through the agency. The amount so received shall be credited to the Indian business loan account.
(d) On the placing of a loan, additional money equal to ten percent of the total amount made available to any tribal government, eligible organization, or the agency, if it is administering the loan, for loans during the fiscal year shall be paid to the tribal government, eligible organization, or the agency, prior to December 31 for the purpose of financing administrative costs.
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Subd. 8. Loan period.
Loans made under subdivision 7 shall be limited to a period of ten years, if made for the purpose of financing nonreal estate purchases. Loans made for the purpose of financing real estate purchases, where such real property is to be used for nonresidential purposes only, shall be limited to a period of 20 years, and shall be a lien on the real property so acquired. Under no circumstances shall the state take a position junior to third lien. In instances where it is impossible or undesirable to secure a lien against real property, the state may secure a lien against personal property for an amount equal to, or greater than, the face value of the loan to ensure that adequate collateral is provided.
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Subd. 9. Penalty.
Any person misrepresenting facts regarding the Indian ancestry of a prospective borrower for the purpose of securing a loan under subdivision 7, whether such borrower is an individual, partnership or corporation, shall be guilty of a gross misdemeanor.
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Subd. 10. Tax revenue.
The county auditor shall remit the tax revenue received yearly to the commissioner of management and budget as required by subdivision 6 no later than December 15.
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Subd. 11. Appropriation.
There is appropriated annually an amount equal to the tax revenue allotted under subdivision 7.
History:
1973 c 254 s 3 ; 1973 c 492 s 14 ; 1973 c 650 art 20 s 4 ; 1977 c 430 s 25 subd 1; 1979 c 333 s 100 -102; 1980 c 391 s 1 -3; 1981 c 308 s 1 -7; 1981 c 356 s 210 ,211,248; 1982 c 424 s 128 ; 1984 c 558 art 4 s 1 ,2; 1Sp1985 c 14 art 4 s 16 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1989 c 335 art 4 s 47 ; 1989 c 356 s 27 ; 2003 c 112 art 2 s 50 ; 2003 c 128 art 13 s 15 ; 2004 c 206 s 15 -21; 2009 c 101 art 2 s 109 ; 1Sp2019 c 10 art 3 s 21
Minn. Stat. § 116J.8749
116J.8749 MAIN STREET ECONOMIC REVITALIZATION PROGRAM.
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Subdivision 1. Definitions.
(a) For the purposes of this section, the following terms have the meanings given.
(b) "Borrower" means an eligible recipient receiving a loan guaranteed under this section.
(c) "Commissioner" means the commissioner of employment and economic development.
(d) "Eligible project" means the development, redevelopment, demolition, site preparation, predesign, design, engineering, repair, or renovation of real property or capital improvements. Eligible projects must be designed to address the greatest economic development and redevelopment needs that have arisen in the community surrounding that real property since March 15, 2020. Eligible project includes but is not limited to the construction of buildings, infrastructure, and related site amenities, landscaping, or street-scaping. Eligible project does not include the purchase of real estate or business operations or business operating expenses, such as inventory, wages, or working capital.
(e) "Eligible recipient" means a:
(1) business;
(2) nonprofit organization; or
(3) developer
that is seeking funding to complete an eligible project. Eligible recipient does not include a partner organization or a local unit of government.
(f) "Guaranteed loan" means a loan guaranteed by the state for 80 percent of the loan amount for a maximum period of 15 years from the origination of the loan.
(g) "Leveraged grant" means a grant that is matched by the eligible recipient's commitment to the eligible project of nonstate funds at a level of 200 percent of the grant amount. The nonstate match may include but is not limited to funds contributed by a partner organization and insurance proceeds.
(h) "Loan guarantee trust fund" means a dedicated account established under this section for the purpose of compensation for defaulted loan guarantees.
(i) "Partner organizations" or "partners" means:
(1) foundations engaged in economic development;
(2) community development financial institutions; and
(3) community development corporations.
(j) "Program" means the Main Street Economic Revitalization Program under this section.
(k) "Subordinated loan" means a loan secured by a lien that is lower in priority than one or more specified other liens.
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Subd. 2. Establishment.
The commissioner shall establish the Main Street Economic Revitalization Program to make grants to partner organizations to fund leveraged grants and guaranteed loans to specific named eligible recipients for eligible projects that are designed to address the greatest economic development and redevelopment needs that have arisen in the surrounding community since March 15, 2020.
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Subd. 3. Grants to partner organizations.
(a) The commissioner shall make grants to partner organizations to provide leveraged grants and guaranteed loans to eligible recipients using criteria, forms, applications, and reporting requirements developed by the commissioner.
(b) To be eligible for a grant, a partner organization must:
(1) outline a plan to provide leveraged grants and guaranteed loans to eligible recipients for specific eligible projects that represent the greatest economic development and redevelopment needs in the surrounding community. This plan must include an analysis of the economic impact of the eligible projects the partner organization proposes to make these investments in;
(2) establish a process of ensuring there are no conflicts of interest in determining awards under the program; and
(3) demonstrate that the partner organization has raised funds for the specific purposes of this program to commit to the proposed eligible projects or will do so within the 15-month period following the encumbrance of funds. Existing assets and state or federal funds may not be used to meet this requirement.
(c) Grants shall be made in up to three rounds:
(1) a first round with an application date before September 1, 2021, during which no more than 50 percent of available funds will be granted;
(2) a second round with an application date after September 1, 2021, but before March 1, 2022; and
(3) a third round with an application date after June 30, 2023, if any funds remain after the first two rounds.
A partner may apply in multiple rounds for projects that were not funded in earlier rounds or for new projects.
(d) Up to four percent of a grant under this subdivision may be used by the partner organization for administration and monitoring of the program.
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Subd. 4. Award criteria.
In awarding grants under this section, the commissioner shall give funding preference to applications that:
(1) have the greatest regional economic impact under subdivision 3, paragraph (b), clause (1), particularly with regard to increasing the local tax base; and
(2) have the greatest portion of the estimated cost of the eligible projects met through nonstate funds.
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Subd. 5. Leveraged grants to eligible recipients.
(a) A leveraged grant to an eligible recipient shall be for no more than $750,000.
(b) A leveraged grant may be used to finance no more than 30 percent of an eligible project.
(c) An eligible project must have secured commitments for all required matching funds and all required development approvals before a leveraged grant may be distributed.
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Subd. 6. Guaranteed loans to eligible recipients.
(a) A guaranteed loan to an eligible recipient must:
(1) be for no more than $2,000,000;
(2) be for a term of no more than 15 years; and
(3) comply with the terms under subdivision 7.
(b) An eligible project must have all required development approvals before a guaranteed loan may be distributed.
(c) Upon origination of a guaranteed loan, the commissioner must reserve ten percent of the loan amount into the loan guarantee trust fund created under subdivision 8.
(d) No guaranteed loan may be made to an eligible recipient after December 31, 2024.
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Subd. 7. Required terms for guaranteed loans.
For a guaranteed loan under the program:
(1) principal and interest payments made by the borrower under the terms of the loan are to reduce the guaranteed and nonguaranteed portion of the loan on a proportionate basis. The nonguaranteed portion shall not receive preferential treatment over the guaranteed portion;
(2) the partner organization shall not accelerate repayment of the loan or exercise other remedies if the borrower defaults, unless:
(i) the borrower fails to make a required payment of principal or interest within 60 days of the due date; or
(ii) the commissioner consents in writing;
(3) in the event of a default, the partner organization may not make a demand for payment pursuant to the guarantee unless the commissioner agrees in writing that the default has materially affected the rights or security of the parties;
(4) the partner organization must timely prepare and deliver to the commissioner, annually by the date specified in the loan guarantee, an audited or reviewed financial statement for the loan, prepared by a certified public accountant according to generally accepted accounting principles, if available, and documentation that the borrower used the loan proceeds solely for an eligible project;
(5) the commissioner shall have access to loan documents at any time subsequent to the loan documents being submitted to the partner organization;
(6) the partner organization must maintain adequate records and documents concerning the loan so that the commissioner may determine the borrower's financial condition and compliance with program requirements;
(7) orderly liquidation of collateral securing the loan must be provided for in the event of default, pursuant to the loan guarantee; and
(8) the guaranteed portion of the loan may be subordinate to other loans made by lenders in the overall financing package.
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Subd. 8. Loan guarantee trust fund established.
A loan guarantee trust fund account in the special revenue fund is created in the state treasury to pay for defaulted loan guarantees. The commissioner shall administer this account. The day that this section expires, all remaining funds in the account are canceled to the general fund.
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Subd. 9. Statewide program.
In proportion to eligible demand, leveraged grants and guaranteed loans under this section shall be made so that an approximately equal dollar amount of leveraged grants and guaranteed loans are made to businesses in the metropolitan area as in the nonmetropolitan area, not to exceed 65 percent in any one area. After June 30, 2023, the department may allow leveraged grants and guaranteed loans to be made anywhere in the state without regard to geographic area.
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Subd. 10. Exemptions.
All grants and grant-making processes under this section are exempt from Minnesota Statutes, sections 16A.15, subdivision 3 ;
Minn. Stat. § 116J.982
116J.982 COMMUNITY DEVELOPMENT CORPORATIONS.
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Subdivision 1. Definitions.
For the purposes of this section, the terms in this subdivision have the meanings given them:
(a) "Commissioner" means the commissioner of employment and economic development.
(b) "Economic development region" means an area so designated in the governor's executive order number 83-15, dated March 15, 1983.
(c) "Federal poverty level" means the income level published annually by the United States Department of Health and Human Services under authority of the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1981, Public Law 97-35, title VI, section 673(2).
(d) "Low income" means an annual income below the federal poverty level.
(e) A "low-income area" means an area in which (1) ten percent of the population have low incomes, or (2) there is one or more recognized subareas such as a census tract, city, township, or county in which 15 percent of the population have low incomes.
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Subd. 2. Administration.
The commissioner shall administer this section except for subdivision 6, which shall be administered by the commissioner of housing finance. The commissioners of employment and economic development and housing finance may, separately or jointly, adopt rules necessary to implement this section.
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Subd. 3. Certification; corporations eligible.
(a) The commissioner shall certify a community development corporation under this section if the corporation is a nonprofit corporation incorporated under chapter 317A and meets the other criteria in this subdivision.
(b) The corporation, in its articles of incorporation or bylaws, must designate a low-income area as the specific geographic community within which it will operate. Within cities of the first class, a designated community must be an identifiable neighborhood or a combination of neighborhoods but may not be the entire city. Outside cities of the first class, a designated community may be an identifiable neighborhood or neighborhoods, or home rule charter or statutory cities, townships, unincorporated areas, or combinations of those entities, but may not be an entire economic development region nor cross existing economic development region boundaries except as provided in this section.
(c) The corporation's major purpose, in its articles of incorporation or bylaws, must be economic development, redevelopment, or housing in its designated community.
(d) The corporation must be tax exempt under section 501, paragraph (c), clause (3), of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended.
(e) The membership and board of directors of the corporation must be representative of the designated community. At least 20 percent of the directors shall have low incomes or shall reside in low-income areas described in subdivision 1, paragraph (e), clause (1), or the low-income subarea described in subdivision 1, paragraph (e), clause (2). At least 60 percent of the directors must be residents of, or be employed in, the designated community. Other directors shall be business, financial, or civic leaders or representatives-at-large of the designated community. At least 40 percent of the directors must reside in the designated community. Notwithstanding the requirements of this paragraph, a corporation which meets board structure requirements for a Community Housing Development Corporation under Code of Federal Regulations, title 24, part 92.2, is deemed to meet the board membership requirements of this subdivision.
(f) The corporation shall not discriminate against any persons on the basis of a status protected under chapter 363A.
(g) The corporation shall demonstrate that it has or can obtain the technical skills to analyze projects, that it is familiar with available public and private funding sources and economic development, redevelopment, and housing programs, and that it is capable of packaging economic development, redevelopment, and housing projects.
(h) The corporation must have completed two or more economic development, redevelopment, or housing projects within its designated community during the last three years.
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Subd. 4. Approval for certification.
(a) The commissioner shall certify as a community development corporation any organization which meets the criteria in subdivision 3. The certification is for two years from the date of certification and is renewable. The commissioner shall certify as a community development corporation for a nonrenewable period of three years from the date of certification an organization which meets all the criteria in subdivision 3, except for paragraphs (d) and (h), but which plans to meet those requirements by the end of the three years.
(b) As part of the certification process, the commissioner shall resolve disputes concerning boundaries of the designated community of a community development corporation.
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Subd. 5. Grants; economic development contracts.
The commissioner may make a grant to a community development corporation and enter into contracts with certified community development corporations for:
(1) specific economic development projects within the designated community, such as development of a proposal for a venture grant, or for establishment of a business venture, including assistance to an existing business venture, purchase of partial or full ownership of a business venture, real estate development, strategic development planning, infrastructure development, or development of resources or facilities necessary for the establishment of a business venture;
(2) dissemination of information about, or taking applications for, programs operated by the commissioner; and
(3) developing the internal organizational capacity to engage in economic development activities such as the partnership activities listed in clause (1).
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Subd. 6. Housing contracts.
The commissioner of the housing finance agency may enter into contracts with certified community development corporations for purposes of housing activities associated with economic development activity under subdivision 5.
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Subd. 6a.
[Repealed, 1993 c 163 art 1 s 35 ]
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Subd. 7. Other programs.
A certified community development corporation is eligible to participate in a program available to nonprofit organizations which is operated by the commissioners of employment and economic development or housing finance if the certified development corporation meets the requirements of the program.
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Subd. 7a. Real estate license exemption.
A certified community development corporation is exempt from the licensure requirements of section
Minn. Stat. § 116J.9923
116J.9923 TELECOMMUTER FORWARD! CERTIFICATION.
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Subdivision 1. Definition.
In this section, "political subdivision" means a city, township, or county.
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Subd. 2. Certification.
A political subdivision may apply to the commissioner of employment and economic development for certification as a Telecommuter Forward! Community. The commissioner of employment and economic development shall prescribe the form and manner for making an application. Before approving an application, the commissioner shall consider the application and the information in subdivision 3.
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Subd. 3. Resolution.
In addition to the application in subdivision 2, a political subdivision must adopt a resolution that does both of the following:
(1) states the political subdivision's support and commitment to promote the availability of telecommuting options; and
(2) provides for a single point of contact for coordinating telecommuting opportunities that has all of the following responsibilities:
(i) coordination and partnership with broadband providers, realtors, economic development professionals, employers, employees, and other telecommuting stakeholders;
(ii) collaboration with broadband providers and employers to identify, develop, and market telecommuter-capable broadband packages;
(iii) communication and partnership with broadband providers and economic development professionals to develop common goals;
(iv) promotion of telecommuter-friendly work spaces, such as business incubators with telecommuting spaces, if such a work space has been established in the political subdivision at the time the political subdivision adopts the resolution;
(v) familiarity with broadband mapping tools and other state-level resources;
(vi) maintaining regular communication with the state broadband office; and
(vii) making regular reports to the governing body of the political subdivision.
History:
2019 c 13 s 1
Minn. Stat. § 116J.9926
116J.9926 EMERGING DEVELOPER FUND PROGRAM.
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Subdivision 1. Definitions.
(a) For the purposes of this section, the following terms have the meanings given.
(b) "Commissioner" means the commissioner of employment and economic development.
(c) "Disadvantaged community" means a community where the median household income is less than 80 percent of the area median income.
(d) "Eligible project" means a project that is based in Minnesota and meets one or more of the following criteria:
(1) it will stimulate community stabilization or revitalization;
(2) it will be located within a census tract identified as a disadvantaged community or low-income community;
(3) it will directly benefit residents of a low-income household;
(4) it will increase the supply and improve the condition of affordable housing and homeownership;
(5) it will support the growth needs of new and existing community-based enterprises that promote economic stability or improve the supply or quality of job opportunities; or
(6) it will promote wealth creation, including by being a project in a neighborhood traditionally not served by real estate developers.
(e) "Emerging developer" means a developer who:
(1) has limited access to loans from traditional financial institutions; or
(2) is a new or smaller developer who has engaged in educational training in real estate development; and
(3) is either a:
(i) minority as defined in section 116M.14, subdivision 6 ;
(ii) woman;
(iii) person with a disability, as defined in section 116M.14, subdivision 9 ; or
(iv) low-income person.
(f) "Low-income person" means a person who:
(1) has a household income at or below 200 percent of the federal poverty level; or
(2) has a family income that does not exceed 60 percent of the area median income as determined by the United States Department of Housing and Urban Development.
(g) "Partner organization" means a community development financial institution or a similarly qualified nonprofit corporation, as determined by the commissioner.
(h) "Program" means the emerging developer fund program created under this section.
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Subd. 2. Establishment.
The commissioner shall establish an emerging developer fund program to make grants to partner organizations to make grants and loans to emerging developers for eligible projects to transform neighborhoods statewide and promote economic development and the creation and retention of jobs in Minnesota. The program must also reduce racial and socioeconomic disparities by growing the financial capacity of emerging developers.
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Subd. 3. Grants to partner organizations.
(a) The commissioner shall design a competitive process to award grants to partner organizations to make grants and loans to emerging developers under subdivision 4.
(b) A partner organization may use up to ten percent of grant funds for the administrative costs of the program.
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Subd. 4. Grants and loans to emerging developers.
(a) Through the program, partner organizations shall offer emerging developers predevelopment grants and predevelopment, construction, and bridge loans for eligible projects according to a plan submitted to and approved by the commissioner.
(b) Predevelopment grants must be for no more than $100,000. All loans must be for no more than $1,000,000.
(c) Loans must be for a term set by the partner organization and approved by the commissioner of no less than six months and no more than eight years, depending on the use of loan proceeds.
(d) Loans must be for zero interest or an interest rate of no more than the Wall Street Journal prime rate, as determined by the partner organization and approved by the commissioner based on the individual project risk and type of loan sought.
(e) Loans must have flexible collateral requirements compared to traditional loans, but may require a personal guaranty from the emerging developer and may be largely unsecured when the appraised value of the real estate is low.
(f) Loans must have no prepayment penalties and are expected to be repaid from permanent financing or a conventional loan, once that is secured.
(g) Loans must have the ability to bridge many types of receivables, such as tax credits, grants, developer fees, and other forms of long-term financing.
(h) At the partner organization's request and the commissioner's discretion, an emerging developer may be required to work with an experienced developer or professional services consultant who can offer expertise and advice throughout the development of the project.
(i) All loan repayments must be paid into the emerging developer fund account created in this section to fund additional loans.
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Subd. 5. Eligible expenses.
(a) The following are eligible expenses for a predevelopment grant or loan under the program:
(1) earnest money or purchase deposit;
(2) building inspection fees and environmental reviews;
(3) appraisal and surveying;
(4) design and tax credit application fees;
(5) title and recording fees;
(6) site preparation, demolition, and stabilization;
(7) interim maintenance and project overhead;
(8) property taxes and insurance;
(9) construction bonds or letters of credit;
(10) market and feasibility studies; and
(11) professional fees.
(b) The following are eligible expenses for a construction or bridge loan under the program:
(1) land or building acquisition;
(2) construction-related expenses;
(3) developer and contractor fees;
(4) site preparation, environmental cleanup, and demolition;
(5) financing fees, including title and recording;
(6) professional fees;
(7) carrying costs;
(8) construction period interest;
(9) project reserves; and
(10) leasehold improvements and equipment purchase.
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Subd. 6. Emerging developer fund account.
An emerging developer fund account is created in the special revenue fund in the state treasury. Money in the account is appropriated to the commissioner for grants to partner organizations to make loans under this section.
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Subd. 7. Reports to the legislature.
(a) By January 15 of each year, beginning in 2025, each partner organization shall submit a report to the commissioner on the use of program funds and program outcomes.
(b) By March 15 of each year, beginning in 2025, the commissioner shall submit a report to the chairs of the house of representatives and senate committees with jurisdiction over economic development on the use of program funds and program outcomes.
History:
2023 c 53 art 15 s 16
BUSINESS SUBSIDIES
Minn. Stat. § 118A.03
118A.03 or with any comparable successor enactment relating to the collateralization of municipal deposits.
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Subd. 8b. Disclosure of investment authority; receipt of statement.
(a) For this subdivision, the term "broker" means a broker, broker-dealer, investment advisor, investment manager, or third-party agent who transfers, purchases, sells, or obtains investment securities for, or on behalf of, a covered pension plan.
(b) Before a covered pension plan may complete an investment transaction with or in accord with the advice of a broker, the covered pension plan shall provide annually to the broker a written statement of investment restrictions applicable under state law to the covered pension plan or applicable under the pension plan governing board investment policy.
(c) A broker must acknowledge in writing annually the receipt of the statement of investment restrictions and must agree to handle the covered pension plan's investments and assets in accord with the provided investment restrictions. A covered pension plan may not enter into or continue a business arrangement with a broker until the broker has provided this written acknowledgment to the chief administrative officer of the covered pension plan.
(d) If any portion of the plan's assets are held by a security broker or its agent, the security broker or its agent must acknowledge in writing annually that sufficient insurance has been obtained from the Securities Investor Protection Corporation, supplemented by additional insurance, if necessary, to cover the full amount of covered pension plan assets held by the security broker or its agent. Uniform acknowledgment forms prepared by the state auditor shall be used by covered pension plans and brokers to meet the requirements of this subdivision.
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Subd. 9. Prohibited transactions.
(a) No fiduciary of a covered pension plan may engage in a prohibited transaction or allow the plan to engage in a transaction that the fiduciary knows or should know is a prohibited transaction.
(b) A prohibited transaction is any of the following transactions, whether direct or indirect:
(1) the sale, exchange, or lease of real estate between the pension plan and a fiduciary of the plan;
(2) the lending of money or other extension of credit between the plan and a fiduciary of the plan;
(3) the furnishing to a plan by a fiduciary for compensation or remuneration, of goods, services other than those performed in the capacity of fiduciary, or facilities;
(4) the furnishing to a fiduciary by a plan of goods, services, or facilities other than office and related space, equipment and office supplies, and administrative services appropriate to the recipient's fiduciary position;
(5) the transfer of plan assets to a plan fiduciary for use by or for the benefit of the fiduciary, other than the payment of retirement plan benefits to which a fiduciary is entitled or the payment to a fiduciary of a reasonable salary and of necessary and reasonable expenses incurred by the fiduciary in the performance of the fiduciary's duties; and
(6) the sale, exchange, loan, or lease of any item of value between a plan and a fiduciary of the plan other than for a fair market value and as a result of an arm's-length transaction.
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Subd. 10. Defined contribution plans; application.
(a) To the extent that a plan governed by chapter 352D, 353D, 354B, 354C, or 354D permits a participant or beneficiary to select among investment products for the person's account and the participant or beneficiary exercises that investment self-direction, no fiduciary is liable for any loss which may result from the participant's or beneficiary's exercise of that investment self-direction.
(b) Subdivisions 1, 2, 6, 8, and 8a do not apply to plans governed by chapter 354B or 354C.
History:
1989 c 319 art 7 s 6 ; 1990 c 570 art 5 s 1 ; 1994 c 604 art 2 s 3 ; 1995 c 122 s 2 ; 1995 c 262 art 6 s 1 ,2; 1996 c 399 art 2 s 12 ; 1996 c 438 art 4 s 7 ; art 10 s 2; 1997 c 202 art 2 s 63 ; 1998 c 386 art 2 s 90 ; 2000 c 461 art 12 s 18 ; 1Sp2001 c 10 art 3 s 26 ; 2002 c 363 s 41 ; 1Sp2005 c 8 art 9 s 9 ; art 10 s 66; 2006 c 196 art 1 s 52 ; art 2 s 12; 2006 c 271 art 8 s 6 ; 2007 c 134 art 1 s 11 ; 2008 c 349 art 14 s 3 -5; 2010 c 359 art 13 s 3 ; 2012 c 286 art 10 s 10 ,11; 2013 c 111 art 5 s 68 ,80; 2014 c 296 art 12 s 3 ,4; 2018 c 211 art 14 s 1 ; 2022 c 65 art 9 s 13 ,14; 2024 c 102 art 12 s 5
Minn. Stat. § 119A.08
119A.08 NEIGHBORHOOD-BASED SERVICES FOR CHILDREN AND FAMILIES.
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Subdivision 1. Pilot projects authorized.
The commissioner may establish a pilot project for family services collaboratives to deliver and broker services through neighborhood-based community organizations.
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Subd. 2. Family service collaborative; pilot.
(a) A family services collaborative under section
Minn. Stat. § 11A.23
11A.23 .
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Subd. 2. Asset class definition.
(a) For purposes of this section, "asset class" means any of the following asset groupings as authorized in applicable law, bylaws, or articles of incorporation:
(1) cash and any cash equivalent investments with maturities of one year or less when issued;
(2) debt securities with maturities greater than one year when issued, including but not limited to mortgage participation certificates and pools, asset backed securities, guaranteed investment contracts, and authorized government and corporate obligations of corporations organized under laws of the United States or any state, or the Dominion of Canada or its provinces;
(3) stocks or convertible issues of any corporation organized under laws of the United States or any state, or the Dominion of Canada or its provinces, or any corporation listed on the New York Stock Exchange or the American Stock Exchange;
(4) international stocks or convertible issues;
(5) international debt securities; and
(6) real estate and venture capital.
(b) If the pension plan is investing in open-end investment companies registered under the federal Investment Company Act of 1940, or in the Minnesota supplemental investment fund under section
Minn. Stat. § 11A.24
11A.24 and acts amendatory thereto. All interest and profits from such investments shall be credited to the real estate education, research and recovery fund. The commissioner of management and budget shall be the custodian of securities purchased under the provisions of this section.
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Subd. 6. Authorized expenditures.
The commissioner may expend money as appropriated for the following purposes:
(a) to promote the advancement of education and research in the field of real estate for the benefit of those licensed under this chapter;
(b) to underwrite educational seminars and other forms of educational projects for the benefit of real estate licensees;
(c) to establish a real estate chair or courses at Minnesota state institutions of higher learning for the purpose of making such courses available to licensees and the general public;
(d) to contract for a particular educational or research project in the field of real estate to further the purposes of this chapter;
(e) to pay any reasonable costs and disbursements, excluding attorney's fees, incurred in defending actions against the real estate education, research and recovery fund including the cost of mailing or publication of notice pursuant to subdivision 14; and
(f) to provide information to the public on housing issues, including but not limited to, environmental safety and housing affordability.
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Subd. 7. Application for recovery.
When any aggrieved person obtains a final judgment in any court of competent jurisdiction regardless of whether the judgment has been discharged by a bankruptcy court against an individual licensed under this chapter, on grounds of fraudulent, deceptive, or dishonest practices, or conversion of trust funds arising directly out of any transaction when the judgment debtor was licensed and performed acts for which a license is required under this chapter, or performed acts permitted by section 327B.04, subdivision 5, the aggrieved person may, upon the judgment becoming final, and upon termination of all proceedings, including reviews and appeals, file a verified application in the court in which the judgment was entered. The application shall state with specificity the grounds upon which the application seeks to recover from the fund, and request an order directing payment out of the fund of the amount of actual and direct out of pocket loss in the transaction, but excluding any attorney's fees, interest on the loss and on any judgment obtained as a result of the loss, up to the sum of $150,000 of the amount unpaid upon the judgment, provided that nothing in this chapter shall be construed to obligate the fund for more than $150,000 per claimant, per transaction, subject to the limitations set forth in subdivision 14, regardless of the number of persons aggrieved or parcels of real estate involved in the transaction, provided that regardless of the number of claims against a licensee, nothing in this chapter may obligate the fund for more than $250,000 per licensee. An aggrieved person who has a cause of action under section 80A.76 shall first seek recovery as provided in section 80A.66(e), before the commissioner may order payment from the recovery fund. For purposes of this section, persons who are joint tenants or tenants in common are deemed to be a single claimant. A copy of the verified application shall be served upon the commissioner and upon the judgment debtor, and a certificate or affidavit of service filed with the court. For the purpose of this section, "aggrieved person" does not include a government agency, financial institution, or other entity that purchases, guarantees, or insures a loan secured by real estate, and does not include a licensee unless (1) the licensee is acting in the capacity of principal in the sale of interests in real property owned by the licensee; or (2) the licensee is acting in the capacity of principal in the purchase of interests in real property to be owned by the licensee. Under no circumstances shall a licensee be entitled to payment under this section for the loss of a commission or similar fee.
For the purposes of this section, recovery is limited to transactions where the property involved is intended for the direct personal habitation or commercial use of the buyer.
Except for securities permitted to be sold by a licensee pursuant to section 82.81, subdivision 7 , for any action commenced after July 1, 1993, recovery under this section is not available where the buyer's participation is for investment purposes only, and is limited to providing capital to fund the transaction.
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Subd. 8. Accelerated claims payment.
(a) The commissioner shall pay claims from the recovery portion of the fund that do not exceed the jurisdiction limits for conciliation court matters as specified in section
Minn. Stat. § 11A.244
11A.244 INVESTMENT IN IRAN.
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Subdivision 1. Definitions.
(a) For the purposes of this section, the following terms have the meanings given them in this subdivision.
(b) "Active business operations" means all business operations that are not inactive business operations.
(c) "Company" means any sole proprietorship, organization, association, corporation, partnership, joint venture, limited partnership, limited liability partnership, limited liability company, or other entity or business association, including all wholly owned subsidiaries, majority-owned subsidiaries, parent companies, or affiliates of such entities or business associations, that exists for profit-making purposes.
(d) "Direct holdings" means all publicly traded debt and equity securities of a company that are held directly by the State Board of Investment or held in an account or fund in which the State Board of Investment owns all shares or interests.
(e) "Government of Iran" means the government of the Islamic Republic of Iran or its instrumentalities or political subdivisions and companies owned or controlled by the Islamic Republic of Iran.
(f) "Inactive business operations" means the continued holding or renewal of rights to property previously operated for the purpose of generating revenues but not presently deployed for such a purpose.
(g) "Indirect holdings" means all investments held in an account or fund, including a mutual fund, a real estate fund, a private equity fund, or a commingled fund, managed by one or more persons who are not employed by the State Board of Investment, in which the public funds own shares or interests together with other investors who are not subject to this section.
(h) "Scrutinized company" means any company engaging in scrutinized business operations.
(i) "Scrutinized business operations" means any and all active business operations that are subject or liable to sanctions under Public Law 104-172, as amended, the Iran Sanctions Act of 1996, and that involve the maintenance of a company's existing assets or investments in Iran, or the deployment of new investments to Iran that meet or exceed the $20,000,000 threshold referred to in Public Law 104-172, as amended, the Iran Sanctions Act of 1996. "Scrutinized business operations" does not include the retail sale of gasoline and related products.
(j) "Substantial action specific to Iran" means adopting, publicizing, and implementing a formal plan to cease scrutinized business operations within one year and to refrain from any such new business operations.
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Subd. 2. Identification of scrutinized companies.
(a) Within 90 days following August 1, 2009, the State Board of Investment shall make its best efforts to identify all scrutinized companies in which it has direct holdings. These efforts shall include, as appropriate:
(1) reviewing and relying, as appropriate, on publicly available information regarding companies with business operations in Iran, including information provided by nonprofit organizations, research firms, international organizations, and government entities;
(2) contacting asset managers contracting with the State Board of Investment who invest in companies with business operations in Iran; and
(3) contacting other institutional investors that have divested from or engaged with companies with business operations in Iran.
(b) At the first meeting of the State Board of Investment after it has completed the requirements of paragraph (a), the State Board of Investment shall assemble a list of scrutinized companies in which it has direct holdings.
(c) The State Board of Investment shall update the scrutinized companies list each quarter based on continuing information, including but not limited to information from sources identified in paragraph (a).
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Subd. 3. Engagement of scrutinized companies.
The State Board of Investment shall use the following procedures with respect to companies on the scrutinized companies list:
(1) for each company newly identified in subdivision 2 with scrutinized business operations, the State Board of Investment shall, within 90 days following its assembly of the scrutinized companies list, send a written notice informing the company of its scrutinized company status and that it may become subject to divestment by the State Board of Investment. The notice shall offer the company the opportunity to clarify its scrutinized business operations and shall encourage the company to cease, within 90 days of the date of the notice, its scrutinized business operations, or to convert them to inactive business operations in order to avoid divestment by the State Board of Investment; and
(2) if, within 90 days following the State Board of Investment's first engagement with a company under clause (1), that company publicly announces its commitment to substantial action specific to Iran, that company shall be removed from the scrutinized companies list and the provisions of this section shall cease to apply to it unless it resumes active business operations in Iran.
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Subd. 4. Divestment.
(a) If, after 90 days following the State Board of Investment's first engagement with a company under subdivision 3, clause (1), the company continues to have scrutinized business operations, and only while the company continues to have scrutinized business operations, the State Board of Investment shall sell, redeem, divest, or withdraw all publicly traded securities of the company, according to the following schedule:
(1) at least 50 percent of the holdings in the company shall be removed from the State Board of Investment's assets under management by nine months after the company's initial appearance on the scrutinized companies list; and
(2) 100 percent of the holdings in the company shall be removed from the State Board of Investment's assets under management within 15 months after the company's initial appearance on the scrutinized companies list.
(b) If a company that ceased scrutinized business operations following engagement under subdivision 3, clause (1), resumes such operations, paragraph (a) immediately applies to the company and the State Board of Investment shall send a written notice to the company. The company shall also be immediately reintroduced onto the scrutinized companies list.
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Subd. 5. Prohibition on new acquisitions.
The State Board of Investment may not acquire securities of companies on the scrutinized companies list that have scrutinized business operations, except as provided in this section.
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Subd. 6. Relation to federal action.
If the federal government excludes a company from its present or any future federal sanctions relating to Iran, that company is exempt from the divestment requirements and the investment prohibitions in this section.
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Subd. 7. Exemptions.
Subdivisions 4 and 5 do not apply to any of the following:
(1) investments in a company that is primarily engaged in supplying goods or services intended to relieve human suffering in Iran;
(2) investments in a company that is primarily engaged in promoting health, education, or journalistic, religious, or welfare activities in Iran; and
(3) investments in a United States company that is authorized by the federal government to have active business operations in Iran.
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Subd. 8. Excluded securities.
Subdivisions 4 and 5 do not apply to indirect holdings in actively managed investment funds. The State Board of Investment shall submit letters to the managers of investment funds containing companies with scrutinized active business operations requesting the managers to consider removing such companies from the fund or to create a similar actively managed fund with indirect holdings that do not include the companies. If a manager creates a similar fund, the State Board of Investment shall promptly replace all applicable investments with investments in the similar fund consistent with prudent investing standards. For the purposes of this section, "private equity" funds shall be deemed to be actively managed investment funds.
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Subd. 9. Reporting.
By January 15 of each calendar year, the State Board of Investment shall submit a report to the chairs and ranking minority members of the legislative committees and divisions with jurisdiction over the State Board of Investment. The report must include:
(1) a copy of the most recent list of scrutinized companies;
(2) a summary of correspondence with companies engaged by the State Board of Investment under subdivision 3;
(3) a list of all investments sold, redeemed, divested, or withdrawn in compliance with subdivision 4;
(4) a list of all prohibited investments under subdivision 5; and
(5) a description of any progress made under subdivision 8.
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Subd. 10. Expiration.
This section ceases to be operative if either of the following apply:
(1) Iran is removed from the United States Department of State's list of countries that have been determined to repeatedly provide support for acts of international terrorism; or
(2) the president of the United States determines and certifies that state legislation similar to this section interferes with the conduct of United States foreign policy.
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Subd. 11. Other legal obligations.
The State Board of Investment is exempt from any statutory or common law obligations that conflict with actions taken in compliance with this section, including all good faith determinations regarding companies as required by this section, including any obligations regarding the choice of asset managers, investment funds, or investments for the State Board of Investment's securities portfolios.
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Subd. 12. Severability.
The provisions of this section are severable. If any provision of this section or its application is held invalid, that invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications that can be given effect without the invalid provision or application.
History:
2009 c 90 s 1
Minn. Stat. § 11A.245
11A.245 INVESTMENT IN RUSSIA AND BELARUS.
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Subdivision 1. Definitions.
(a) For the purposes of this section, the following terms have the meanings given.
(b) "Active business operations" means all business operations that are not inactive business operations.
(c) "Belarus" means the government of the Republic of Belarus and its instrumentalities or political subdivisions, and companies owned or controlled by the Republic of Belarus.
(d) "Company" means any sole proprietorship, organization, association, corporation, partnership, joint venture, limited partnership, limited liability partnership, limited liability company, or other entity or business association, including all wholly owned subsidiaries, majority-owned subsidiaries, parent companies, or affiliates of such entities or business associations, that exists for profit-making purposes.
(e) "Direct holdings" means all publicly traded debt and equity securities, including depository receipts representing ownership rights of such securities, of an entity subject to this section, or derivatives or notes representing exposure to such securities, that are held directly by the state board or held in an account or fund in which the state board owns all shares or interests.
(f) "Inactive business operations" means the continued holding or renewal of rights to property previously operated for the purpose of generating revenues but not presently deployed for such a purpose.
(g) "Indirect holdings" means all investments held in an account or fund, including a mutual fund, a real estate fund, a private equity fund, or a commingled fund, managed by one or more persons who are not employed by the state board, in which the public funds own shares or interests together with other investors who are not subject to this section.
(h) "Russia" means the government of the Russian Federation or its instrumentalities or political subdivisions, and companies owned or controlled by the Russian Federation.
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Subd. 2. Divestment required.
(a) The state board must sell, redeem, or withdraw, in a fiscally prudent manner and consistent with applicable laws and regulations not in conflict with this section, all direct holdings of the following assets:
(1) securities issued by a company with a principal place of business in Russia or Belarus, or depository receipts representing ownership rights to such securities;
(2) securities issued by Russia or Belarus;
(3) securities issued by any governmental unit of Russia or Belarus;
(4) currency issued by Russia, Belarus, or a governmental unit of Russia or Belarus; and
(5) derivatives or notes representing exposure to any assets listed in this subdivision.
(b) For purposes of this subdivision, when determining whether a company has a principal place of business in Russia or Belarus, the state board must give consideration to the company's country of risk; domicile; country of incorporation; the country in which the company's securities are issued; and other relevant factors as determined by the state board or its director.
(c) At least quarterly, the director must report to the state board on the status of any actions taken under this subdivision.
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Subd. 3. Schedule.
To the extent practicable, the sale, redemption, or withdrawal of assets under subdivision 2 must be completed according to the following schedule:
(1) at least 50 percent of any direct holdings must be removed from the state board's assets under management by nine months after April 2, 2022; and
(2) 100 percent of any direct holdings must be removed from the state board's assets under management within 15 months after April 2, 2022.
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Subd. 4. Prohibition on new acquisitions.
The state board may not further acquire securities that are subject to sale, redemption, or withdrawal under subdivision 2.
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Subd. 5. Relation to federal action.
If the federal government excludes an asset from its present, or any future, federal sanctions relating to Russia or Belarus, that asset is exempt from the divestment requirements and the investment prohibitions in this section.
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Subd. 6. Exemptions.
Subdivision 2 does not apply to any of the following:
(1) investments in a company that is primarily engaged in supplying goods or services intended to relieve human suffering in Russia or Belarus;
(2) investments in a company that is primarily engaged in promoting health; education; or journalistic, religious, or welfare activities in Russia or Belarus; and
(3) investments in a United States company that is authorized by the federal government to have active business operations in Russia or Belarus.
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Subd. 7. Excluded securities.
Subdivision 2 does not apply to indirect holdings in actively managed investment funds. The state board must submit letters to the managers of investment funds containing assets that would otherwise be subject to sale, redemption, or withdrawal under subdivision 2 requesting the managers to consider removing those assets from the fund or to create a similar actively managed fund with indirect holdings that do not include those assets. If a manager creates a similar fund, the state board shall promptly replace all applicable investments with investments in the similar fund consistent with prudent investing standards. For the purposes of this section, private equity funds shall be deemed to be actively managed investment funds.
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Subd. 8. Reporting.
By January 15 of each calendar year, the state board shall submit a report to the chairs and ranking minority members of the legislative committees and divisions with jurisdiction over the state board. The report must include:
(1) a list of all investments sold, redeemed, or withdrawn in compliance with subdivision 2;
(2) a list of all prohibited investments under subdivision 4; and
(3) a description of any progress made under subdivision 7.
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Subd. 9. Expiration.
This section ceases to be operative if the President of the United States determines and certifies that state legislation similar to this section interferes with the conduct of United States foreign policy.
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Subd. 10. Other legal obligations.
The state board, including its executive director and staff, is exempt from any statutory or common law obligations that conflict with actions taken in compliance with this section, including all good-faith determinations regarding companies as required by this section, including any obligations regarding the choice of asset managers, investment funds, or investments for the State Board of Investment's securities portfolios.
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Subd. 11. Severability.
The provisions of this section are severable. If any provision of this section or its application is held invalid, that invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications that can be given effect without the invalid provision or application.
History:
2022 c 43 s 1
Minn. Stat. § 123A.455
123A.455 REALIGNING SPLIT RESIDENTIAL PARCELS.
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Subdivision 1. Definitions.
"Split residential property parcel" means a parcel of real estate that is located within the boundaries of more than one school district and that is classified as residential property under:
(1) section 273.13, subdivision 22 , paragraph (a) or (b);
(2) section 273.13, subdivision 25 , paragraph (b), clause (1); or
(3) section 273.13, subdivision 25 , paragraph (c).
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Subd. 2. Petition.
The owner of a split residential property parcel may petition the auditor of the county where the split parcel is located to transfer that part into the adjoining school district so the entire property will be located in the same school district. The petition must contain:
(1) a correct description of the split parcel to be affected by the transfer including supporting data on location and title to the land;
(2) a list of the school districts in which the split parcels currently lie;
(3) the school district into which the petitioner desires to have the whole split parcel transferred; and
(4) the district of attendance of any students currently residing on the property.
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Subd. 3. Auditor's order.
Within 60 days of receipt of the petition, the auditor of the county in which the petition was filed under subdivision 2 shall issue an order to transfer the affected parcel to the district determined by the county board. Orders issued on or before July 1 will be effective for taxes payable in the following year. The auditor must notify the affected school districts and the commissioner of the change in school district boundaries.
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Subd. 4. Commissioner.
The commissioner shall modify the records of school district boundaries to conform to the order.
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Subd. 5. Taxable property.
Upon the effective date of the order, the whole split property parcel is transferred into a single school district. Beginning in the next subsequent taxes payable year, all taxable property in the whole split parcel is:
(1) relieved of all school district taxes from the district in which the parcel is no longer located; and
(2) subject to all school district taxes in the district in which the whole split parcel is now located.
History:
2003 c 127 art 2 s 1 ; 2013 c 143 art 17 s 1
Minn. Stat. § 123A.58
123A.58 COMMON DISTRICT TO INDEPENDENT DISTRICT.
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Subdivision 1. Vote to change organization of district.
If six or more eligible voters of a common district desire to change the organization of their district to an independent district, they may call for a vote upon the question at the next annual meeting by filing a petition therefor with the clerk. In the notice for the meeting, the clerk shall include a statement that the question will be voted upon at the meeting.
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Subd. 2. Board election.
At the annual meeting, if a majority of the votes cast on the question favors the conversion to an independent district, a board of six members shall be elected. Nominations may be made from the floor of the meeting and election shall be by secret ballot. All board members elected at this meeting shall serve for terms expiring on the third Tuesday in the next May following the election on which date a regular annual election shall be held in the manner provided by law. At this first annual election for independent districts, six directors shall be elected, two to hold office until July 1 following the next annual election, two to hold office until the expiration of one year from said July 1 and two to hold office until the expiration of two years from said July 1; the time which each director shall hold office being designated on the ballot.
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Subd. 3. Identification number.
If the organization of the district is changed from common to independent at the meeting, the clerk shall notify the auditor and the commissioner.
Upon receipt of such notification, the commissioner shall assign a new identification number to the district and shall notify the auditor and the clerk of the district thereof.
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Subd. 4. Change in district classification.
As of the date of election, if a majority of votes cast on the question favor the conversion to an independent district, the classification of the district is changed from common to independent. Title to all the property, real and personal, of the common district passes to the independent district and all current outstanding contractual obligations, including the bonded indebtedness, if any, of the common district, together with any legally valid and enforceable claims against the common district are imposed on the independent district.
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Subd. 5. Clerk to record district identification number.
Upon receipt of the identification number from the commissioner, the clerk of the district shall record such change of number with the county recorder in any county in which the common district owns any real estate.
History:
Ex1959 c 71 art 3 s 9 ; 1976 c 181 s 2 ; 1980 c 609 art 6 s 13 ; 1987 c 266 art 2 s 7 ; 1998 c 397 art 5 s 45 ,46,104
Minn. Stat. § 127A.31
127A.31 ;
(5) advise and provide recommendations to the Executive Council and Land Exchange Board on all matters regarding school trust lands presented to either body;
(6) advise and provide recommendations to the commissioner of natural resources on managing school trust lands, including but not limited to advice and recommendations on:
(i) Department of Natural Resources school trust land management plans;
(ii) leases of school trust lands;
(iii) royalty agreements on school trust lands;
(iv) land sales and exchanges;
(v) cost certification; and
(vi) revenue generating options;
(7) serve as temporary trustee of school trust lands for school trust lands subject to proposed or active eminent domain proceedings;
(8) serve as temporary trustee of school trust lands pursuant to section 94.342, subdivision 5;
(9) submit to the Legislative Permanent School Fund Commission for review an annual budget and management plan for the director that includes proposed legislative changes that will improve the asset allocation of the school trust lands;
(10) develop and implement a ten-year strategic plan and a 25-year framework for management of school trust lands, in conjunction with the commissioner of natural resources, that is updated every five years, with goals to:
(i) retain core real estate assets;
(ii) increase the value of the real estate assets and the cash flow from those assets;
(iii) rebalance the portfolio in assets with high performance potential and the strategic disposal of selected assets;
(iv) establish priorities for management actions;
(v) balance revenue enhancement and resource stewardship; and
(vi) advance strategies on school trust lands to capitalize on ecosystem services markets; and
(11) keep the beneficiaries, governor, legislature, and the public informed about the work of the director by reporting to the Legislative Permanent School Fund Commission in a public meeting at least once during each calendar quarter.
(b) In carrying out the duties under paragraph (a), the school trust lands director may:
(1) direct and control money appropriated to the director;
(2) establish job descriptions and employ staff within the limitations of money appropriated to the director;
(3) enter into interdepartmental agreements with any other state agency;
(4) enter into joint powers agreements under chapter 471;
(5) evaluate and initiate real estate development projects on school trust lands in conjunction with the commissioner of natural resources and with the advice of the Legislative Permanent School Fund Commission to generate long-term economic return to the permanent school fund; and
(6) submit recommendations on strategies for school trust land leases, sales, or exchanges to the commissioner of natural resources and the Legislative Permanent School Fund Commission.
History:
2012 c 249 s 10 ,12; 1Sp2015 c 3 art 12 s 2 ; 1Sp2015 c 4 art 4 s 123 ; 2016 c 189 art 27 s 14 ; 1Sp2019 c 4 art 3 s 107 ; 1Sp2021 c 6 art 2 s 102 ; 2023 c 55 art 1 s 27 ,28
STATE AID PAYMENT AND ADJUSTMENT
Minn. Stat. § 13.045
13.045 .
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Subd. 25. Deliberative processes.
Data that reflect deliberative processes or investigative techniques of law enforcement agencies are confidential data on individuals or protected nonpublic data; provided that information, reports, or memoranda that have been adopted as the final opinion or justification for a decision of a law enforcement agency are public data.
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Subd. 26. Booking photographs.
(a) For purposes of this subdivision, "booking photograph" means a photograph or electronically produced image taken by law enforcement for identification purposes in connection with the arrest of a person.
(b) Except as otherwise provided in this subdivision, a booking photograph is public data. A law enforcement agency may temporarily withhold access to a booking photograph if the agency determines that access will adversely affect an active investigation.
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Subd. 27. Pawnshop and scrap metal dealer data.
Data that would reveal the identity of persons who are customers of a licensed pawnbroker, secondhand goods dealer, or a scrap metal dealer are private data on individuals. Data describing the property in a regulated transaction with a licensed pawnbroker, secondhand goods dealer, or a scrap metal dealer are public.
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Subd. 28. Disclosure of predatory offender registrant status.
Law enforcement agency disclosure to health facilities of the registrant status of a registered predatory offender is governed by section
Minn. Stat. § 13.3215
13.3215 UNIVERSITY OF MINNESOTA DATA.
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Subdivision 1. Definitions.
(a) For purposes of this section, the terms in this subdivision have the meanings given them.
(b) "Business data" is data described in section 13.591, subdivision 1 , and includes the funded amount of the University of Minnesota's commitment to the investment to date, if any; the market value of the investment by the University of Minnesota; and the age of the investment in years.
(c) "Financial, business, or proprietary data" means data, as determined by the responsible authority for the University of Minnesota, that is of a financial, business, or proprietary nature, the release of which could cause competitive harm to the University of Minnesota, the legal entity in which the University of Minnesota has invested or has considered an investment, the managing entity of an investment, or a portfolio company in which the legal entity holds an interest.
(d) "Investment" means the investments by the University of Minnesota in the following private capital:
(1) venture capital and other private equity investment businesses through participation in limited partnerships, trusts, limited liability corporations, limited liability companies, limited liability partnerships, and corporations;
(2) real estate ownership interests or loans secured by mortgages or deeds of trust or shares of real estate investment trusts through investment in limited partnerships; and
(3) natural resource investments through limited partnerships, trusts, limited liability corporations, limited liability companies, limited liability partnerships, and corporations.
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Subd. 2. Claims experience data.
Claims experience and all related information received from carriers and claims administrators participating in a University of Minnesota group health, dental, life, or disability insurance plan or the University of Minnesota workers' compensation program, and survey information collected from employees or students participating in these plans and programs, except when the university determines that release of the data will not be detrimental to the plan or program, are classified as nonpublic data under section 13.02, subdivision 9 .
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Subd. 3. Private equity investment data.
(a) Financial, business, or proprietary data collected, created, received, or maintained by the University of Minnesota in connection with investments are nonpublic data.
(b) The following data shall be public:
(1) the name of the general partners and the legal entity in which the University of Minnesota has invested;
(2) the amount of the university's initial commitment, and any subsequent commitments;
(3) quarterly reports which outline the aggregate investment performance achieved and the market value, and the fees and expenses paid in aggregate to general partner investment managers in each of the following specific asset classes: venture capital, private equity, distressed debt, private real estate, and natural resources;
(4) a description of all of the types of industry sectors the University of Minnesota is or has invested in, in each specific private equity asset class;
(5) the portfolio performance of University of Minnesota investments overall, including the number of investments, the total amount of the University of Minnesota commitments, the total current market value, and the return on the total investment portfolio; and
(6) the university's percentage ownership interest in a fund or investment entity in which the university is invested.
History:
1Sp2003 c 8 art 2 s 6 ; 2009 c 178 art 2 s 1
Minn. Stat. § 13.4965
13.4965 PROPERTY TAX DATA CODED ELSEWHERE.
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Subdivision 1. Scope.
The sections referred to in subdivisions 2 to 4 are codified outside this chapter. Those sections classify tax data as other than public, place restrictions on access to government data, or involve data sharing.
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Subd. 2. Certificate of value.
Data in a real estate certificate of value filed with the county auditor are classified under section 272.115, subdivision 1 .
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Subd. 2a. Uniform assessment data.
Data on property shared to promote uniform assessment is governed by section 273.061, subdivision 8a .
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Subd. 3. Homestead and other applications.
The classification and disclosure of certain information collected to determine eligibility of property for a homestead or other classification or benefit are governed by sections 273.124, subdivisions 13, 13a, 13b, 13c, and 13d;
Minn. Stat. § 136F.60
136F.60 COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY SITES; ACQUISITION.
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Subdivision 1. Purchase of neighboring property.
The board may purchase property adjacent to or in the vicinity of the campuses as necessary for the development of a state college or university. Before taking action, the board shall consult with the chairs of the senate Finance Committee and the house of representatives Ways and Means Committee about the proposed action. The board shall explain the need to acquire property, specify the property to be acquired, and indicate the source and amount of money needed for the acquisition. The funds needed may be spent from sums previously appropriated for purposes of the state colleges and universities, including, but not limited to, general fund appropriations for instructional or noninstructional expenditures, general fund appropriations carried forward, or state college and university activity fund appropriations. The board may pay relocation costs, at its discretion, when acquiring property.
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Subd. 2. Methods of acquisition and real property transactions.
(a) If money has been appropriated to the board to acquire lands or sites for public buildings or real estate, the acquisition may be by gift, purchase, or condemnation proceedings. Condemnation proceedings must be under chapter 117.
(b) The board may accept gifts to improve or acquire facilities as provided in this paragraph:
(1) for remodeling existing facilities if the remodeling does not materially increase the square footage of the facility;
(2) for the acquisition, construction, or remodeling costs of facilities for which state capital appropriations have been made and whose use will not be substantially changed; or
(3) for capital projects not authorized by the legislature if the board first certifies that project revenues, other gifts or grants, or other sources of capital funds are available for project costs and that no tuition revenues or state or federal appropriations are used for the capital or operating costs, including all program costs, salaries, and benefits, of the facility.
(c) The board may convey or lease real property under the board's control, with or without monetary consideration, to provide a facility for the primary benefit of a state college or university or its students if the board certifies that project revenues, other gifts or grants, or other sources of funds are available for project costs and that no tuition revenues or state or federal appropriations are used for the capital cost of the facility. Agreements under this paragraph must demonstrate to the board's satisfaction the financial viability of the proposed project, including all proposed financial and contractual obligations, and operating costs, including all program costs, salaries and benefits, and other costs reasonably expected to be incurred or binding upon the college or university. Siting and design of the facility must be consistent with the campus master plan and Minnesota State Colleges and Universities building standards. Agreements under this paragraph to convey, or to lease for a term not to exceed 30 years, subject to section
Minn. Stat. § 14.68
14.68 .
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Subd. 5. Approval of plan by eligible members.
(a) Notice. Within 90 days following the date of the public hearing, if any, or the date the commissioner determines the application is complete if no hearing is held, the converting mutual company shall give all eligible members notice of a regular or special meeting of the members called for the purpose of considering the plan and any corporate actions that are a part of, or are reasonably attendant to, the accomplishment of the plan.
(b) Notice requirements. A copy of the plan or a summary of the plan must accompany the notice. The notice must be mailed to each eligible member's last known address, as shown on the converting mutual company's records, not less than 45 days before the date of the meeting, unless the commissioner directs a later date for mailing. If the meeting to vote upon the plan is held coincident with the converting mutual company's annual meeting of members, only one combined notice of meeting is required. The notice of the meeting of eligible members may be combined with the notice of hearing described in subdivision 4, paragraph (d).
(c) Failure to give notice. If the converting mutual company complies substantially and in good faith with the notice requirements of this section, the converting mutual company's failure to give any member or members any required notice does not impair the validity of any action taken under this section.
(d) Voting. (1) The plan must be adopted upon receiving the affirmative vote of a majority of the votes cast by eligible members.
(2) Eligible members may vote in person or by proxy. The form of any proxy must be filed with and approved by the commissioner.
(3) The number of votes each eligible member may cast shall be determined by the converting mutual company's bylaws. If the bylaws are silent, or if the commissioner determines that the voting requirements under the bylaws would be unfair or would prejudice the rights of the eligible members, each eligible member may cast one vote.
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Subd. 6. Conversion.
Following approval by the eligible members, the converting mutual company shall file a copy of the company's amended or restated articles of incorporation with the commissioner, together with a certified copy of the minutes of the meeting at which the plan was adopted and a certified copy of the plan. The commissioner shall review and, if appropriate, approve the amended or restated articles. After approval by the commissioner, a converting mutual company shall file the articles with the secretary of state as provided by section 60A.07, subdivision 1d , and chapter 302A.
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Subd. 7. Plan not unfair or inequitable.
A plan of conversion shall not be unfair or inequitable to members. A plan of conversion is not unfair or inequitable if it satisfies the conditions of subdivision 8 or 9. The commissioner may determine that a plan proposed under subdivision 10 or that any other plan proposed under subdivision 12 is not unfair or inequitable to members.
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Subd. 8. Share conversion.
A plan of conversion under this subdivision shall provide for exchange of membership interests in return for shares in the reorganized company or a permitted issuer, according to paragraphs (a) to (c), and shall provide for the reasonable dividend expectations of policyholders of active participating policies as set forth in subdivision 16a.
(a) The membership interests of the eligible members shall be exchanged, for all of the common shares of the reorganized company or a permitted issuer, or for a combination of the common shares of the reorganized company or a permitted issuer, or for a combination of: (1) common shares of the reorganized company or a permitted issuer; and (2) consideration equal to the proceeds of the public sale in the market of the common shares by the issuer or by a trust established according to subdivision 11. The consideration must be allocated among the eligible members in a manner that takes into account the estimated proportionate contribution of each class of eligible members to the aggregate consideration being given.
(b) Unless the anticipated issuance within a shorter period is disclosed in the plan of conversion, the issuer of common shares shall not, within two years after the effective date of reorganization, issue either of the following:
(1) any of its common shares or any securities convertible with or without consideration into the common shares or carrying any warrant to subscribe to or purchase common shares; and
(2) any warrant, right, or option to subscribe to or purchase the common shares or other securities described in paragraph (a), except for the issue of common shares to or for the benefit of eligible members according to the plan of conversion and the issue of nontransferable subscription rights for the purchase of common shares being granted to officers, directors, or a tax qualified employee benefit plan of the reorganized company or its parent company, if any, or a permitted issuer, according to subdivision 11.
(c) Unless the common shares have a public market when issued, the issuer shall use its best efforts to encourage and assist in the establishment of a public market for the common shares within two years of the effective date of the conversion or a longer period as disclosed in the plan of conversion. Within one year after any offering of stock other than the initial distribution, but no later than six years after the effective date of the conversion, the reorganized company shall offer to make available to eligible members who received and retained shares of common stock or securities described in paragraph (b), clause (1), a procedure to dispose of those shares of stock at market value without brokerage commissions or similar fees.
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Subd. 9. Distribution of distributable net worth.
A plan of conversion under this subdivision shall provide for the exchange of the membership interests of the eligible members in return for a distribution of the converting mutual company's distributable net worth and shall provide for the issuance of new shares of the reorganized company or a permitted issuer, and shall provide for the reasonable expectations of policyholders of active participating policies as set forth in subdivision 16a.
(a) Distributions by the converting mutual company under this subdivision shall be distributed to eligible members in a form or forms selected by the converting mutual company. The form of distribution may consist of cash, securities of the reorganized company, securities of another institution, a certificate of contribution, additional life insurance, annuity benefits, increased dividends, reduced premiums, or other equitable consideration or any combination of forms of consideration. The consideration, if any, given to a class or category of eligible members may differ from the consideration given to another class or category of eligible members. A certificate of contribution must be repayable in ten years, be equal to 100 percent of the value of the eligible members' membership interest, and bear interest at the highest rate charged by the reorganized company or its insurance company subsidiary for policy loans on the effective date of the conversion.
(b) The consideration must be allocated among the eligible members in a manner that is fair and equitable and that takes into account the estimated proportionate contribution of each class of eligible members to the aggregate consideration being given.
(c) The reorganized company or its parent corporation shall issue and sell shares of one or more classes having a total price equal to the estimated value in the market of the shares on the initial offering date. The estimated value must take into account all of the following:
(1) the pro forma fair market value of the reorganized company;
(2) the consideration to be given to policyholders according to paragraph (a);
(3) the proceeds of the sale of the shares; and
(4) any additional value attributable to the shares as a result of a purchaser or a group of purchasers who acted in concert to obtain shares in the initial offering, attaining, through such purchase, control of the reorganized company or its parent corporation.
(d) If a purchaser or a group of purchasers acting in concert is to attain control in the initial offering, the converting mutual company shall not, directly or indirectly, pay for any of the costs or expenses of conversion of the converting mutual company, whether or not the conversion is effected, except with permission of the commissioner.
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Subd. 10. Subscription rights.
A plan of conversion under this subdivision shall provide for exchange of the eligible members' membership interests in return for the protection of the reasonable dividend expectations of the policyholders of active participating policies, for the creation of a liquidation account to protect the interests of eligible members, for the issuance of subscription rights to eligible members, and shall provide for the issuance of shares by the reorganized company, each according to paragraphs (a) to (j).
(a) The plan of conversion shall provide for the protection of the reasonable dividend expectations of policyholders of active participating policies as provided in subdivision 16a.
(b) The reorganized company or its parent corporation or a permitted issuer shall issue and sell shares of one or more classes having a total price equal to the estimated value of the shares in the market on the initial offering date taking into account the proceeds of the sale of shares and the consideration given to eligible members.
(c) The eligible members shall receive nontransferable preemptive subscription rights to purchase all of the common shares of the issuer according to paragraph (b).
(d) The preemptive subscription rights to purchase the common shares must be allocated among the eligible members in whole shares in a fair and equitable manner and as provided in the plan, taking into account the estimated proportionate contribution of each class of eligible members to the total amount of the eligible members' consideration. The plan must provide a fair and equitable means for the allocation of shares in the event of an oversubscription. The plan must further provide that any shares of capital stock not subscribed by eligible members may be sold in a public offering through an underwriter, unless the number of shares unsubscribed is so small in number so as not to warrant the expense of a public offering, in which case the plan may provide for the purchase of the unsubscribed shares by private placement or through any fair and equitable alternative means approved by the commissioner.
(e) The number of the common shares that a person, together with any affiliates or group of persons acting in concert, may subscribe or purchase in the reorganization, must be limited to not more than five percent of the common shares. For this purpose, neither the members of the board of directors of the reorganized company nor its parent corporation, if any, are considered to be affiliates or a group of persons acting in concert solely by reason of their board membership.
(f) Unless the common shares have a public market when issued, officers and directors of the issuer and their affiliates shall not, for at least three years after the date of conversion, purchase common shares of the issuer, except with the approval of the commissioner.
(g) Unless the common shares have a public market when issued, the issuer shall use its best efforts to encourage and assist in the establishment of a public market for the common shares.
(h) The issuer shall not, for at least three years following the conversion, repurchase any of its common shares except according to a pro rata tender offer to all shareholders, or with the approval of the commissioner.
(i) A liquidation account must be established for the benefit of eligible members in the event of a complete liquidation of the reorganized company. The liquidation account must be equal to the distributable net worth of the converting mutual company as of the effective date of the conversion. The function of the liquidation account is solely to establish a priority on liquidation and its existence does not restrict the use or application of the distributable net worth of the reorganized company except as specified in paragraph (j). The liquidation account must be allocated equitably as of the effective date of conversion among the then eligible members. The amount allocated to an eligible member must not increase and must be reduced to zero when the policy or contract giving rise to the membership interests of the owner terminates. In the event of a complete liquidation of the reorganized company, the eligible members among which the liquidation account is allocated are entitled to receive a liquidation distribution in the amount of the liquidation account before any liquidation distribution is made with respect to shares.
(j) Until the liquidation account has been reduced to zero, the reorganized company shall not declare or pay a cash dividend on, or repurchase any of, its common shares (i) in case of a converting mutual insurer, in an amount in excess of its cumulative earned surplus generated after the conversion determined according to statutory accounting principles, or (ii) in the case of a converting mutual holding company, in an amount in excess of its retained earnings, if the effect would be to cause the amount of the distributable net worth of the reorganized company to be reduced below the then amount of the liquidation account.
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Subd. 11. Optional provisions.
A plan under subdivision 8, 9, or 10 may include, with the approval of the commissioner, any of the provisions in paragraphs (a) and (b).
(a) A plan may provide that any shares of the stock of the reorganized company or its parent corporation or a permitted issuer included in the eligible members' consideration must be placed on the effective date of the conversion in a trust or other entity existing for the exclusive benefit of the eligible members and established solely for the purposes of effecting the reorganization. Under this option, the shares placed in trust must be sold over a period of not more than 40 years and the proceeds of the shares must be distributed using the distribution priorities prescribed in the plan. Eligible members shall have the option to sell their shares at any time following the date specified in the plan, which date may not be later than two years following the effective date of the plan.
(b) A plan may provide that the directors and officers of the converting mutual company may receive warrants, options, or nontransferable subscription rights to purchase capital stock of the reorganized company or its parent or a permitted issuer.
(c) A plan may provide that only eligible members whose policies were in force as of a specified date are eligible to receive compensation under the plan, which date must be no earlier than one year before the effective date of the plan.
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Subd. 12. Alternative plan of conversion.
In lieu of selecting a plan of conversion provided for in subdivision 8, 9, or 10, the converting mutual company may convert according to a plan approved by the commissioner if the commissioner finds that the plan does not prejudice the interests of the eligible members, is fair and equitable, and is based upon the fair market value of the converting mutual company, and is a fair and equitable allocation of any consideration to be given eligible members. The commissioner may retain, at the converting mutual company's expense, any qualified expert not otherwise a part of the commissioner's staff to assist in reviewing the fair market value of the company and in determining whether the alternative plan may be approved.
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Subd. 13. Effect of conversion.
(a) Upon the conversion of a converting mutual company to a reorganized company according to this section, the corporate existence of the converting mutual company is continued in the reorganized company. All the rights, franchises, and interests of the converting mutual company in and to all property and things in action belonging to this property, is considered transferred to and vested in the reorganized company without any deed or transfer. Simultaneously, the reorganized company is considered to have assumed all the obligations and liabilities of the converting mutual company.
(b) The directors and officers of the converting mutual company, unless otherwise specified in the plan of conversion, shall serve as directors and officers of the reorganized company until new directors and officers of the reorganized company are duly elected according to the articles of incorporation and bylaws of the reorganized company.
(c) All policies in force on the effective date of the conversion continue to remain in force under the terms of those policies, except that any voting rights of the members provided for under the policies are extinguished on the effective date of the conversion.
(d) All membership interests in the converting mutual company are extinguished on the effective date of a conversion.
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Subd. 14. Conflict of interest.
No director, officer, agent, employee of the converting mutual company, or any other person shall receive a fee, commission, or other valuable consideration, other than the person's usual regular salary and compensation, for in any manner aiding, promoting, or assisting in the conversion except as set forth in the plan approved by the commissioner. This provision does not prohibit the payment of reasonable fees and compensation to attorneys, accountants, investment bankers, and actuaries for services performed in the independent practice of their professions.
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Subd. 15. Costs and expenses.
All the costs and expenses connected with a plan of conversion must be paid for or reimbursed by the converting mutual company or the reorganized company except where the plan provides otherwise.
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Subd. 16. Limitation of actions.
(a) An action challenging the validity of or arising out of acts taken or proposed to be taken according to this section must be commenced within 180 days after the effective date of the conversion.
(b) The converting mutual company, the reorganized company, or any defendant in an action described in paragraph (a), may petition the court in the action to order a party to give security for the reasonable attorney fees that may be incurred by a party to the action. The amount of security may be increased or decreased in the discretion of the court having jurisdiction if a showing is made that the security provided is or may become inadequate or excessive.
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Subd. 16a. Continuance of participating policy dividends.
(a) To the extent required by this section, the plan of reorganization of a converting mutual insurer that is a mutual life insurance company or of a converting mutual holding company that has a life insurance company subsidiary shall make adequate provision for the protection of the reasonable dividend expectations of the policyholders of active participating policies, either through the establishment of a closed block or other method acceptable by the commissioner.
(b) A closed block must be operated as follows:
(1) The converting mutual company's active participating policies may be operated by the reorganized company as a closed block of participating business.
(2) Assets must be allocated to the closed block of participating business in an amount that ensures that the assets, together with the anticipated revenue from the closed block, are reasonably expected to be sufficient to permit the closed block to pay all policy benefits, including dividends according to the current dividend scale, and other items as appropriate. The plan must be accompanied by an opinion of an independent qualified actuary who meets the standards set forth in the insurance laws or rules for the submission of actuarial opinions as to the adequacy of reserves or assets. The opinion must relate to the adequacy of the assets allocated to support the closed block of business. The actuarial opinion must be based on methods of analysis considered appropriate for those purposes by the actuarial standards board.
(3) The reorganized company shall keep a separate accounting for the closed block and shall make and include in the annual statement to be filed with the commissioner each year a separate statement showing the gains, losses, and expenses properly attributable to the closed block.
(4) The closed block must be reviewed periodically by an independent, qualified actuary for compliance with the requirements of the plan and this subdivision and a copy of the report must be provided to the commissioner and the reorganized company.
(5) Notwithstanding the establishment of a closed block, the entire assets of the company that issued the policies must be available for the payment of benefits to policyholders. Payment must first be made from the assets supporting the closed block until exhausted, and then from the general assets of the company which issued the policies.
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Subd. 17. Supervisory conversions.
The commissioner may waive or alter any of the requirements of this section to protect the interests of policyholders or members if the converting mutual company is subject to the commissioner's administrative supervision under chapter 60G or rehabilitation under chapter 60B.
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Subd. 18. Postconversion acquisition.
Prior to and for a period of three years following the date when the distribution of consideration to the eligible members in exchange for their membership interests is completed under a plan of conversion according to this section, no person other than the reorganized company shall directly or indirectly acquire or offer to acquire in any manner ownership or beneficial ownership of ten percent or more of any class of voting security of the reorganized company, or of any affiliate of the reorganized company which controls, directly or indirectly, a majority of the voting power of the reorganized company, without the prior approval of the commissioner. For the purposes of this subdivision, the terms "affiliate" and "person" have the meanings given in section
Minn. Stat. § 14.69
14.69 .
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Subd. 9. Satisfaction of applications for compensation.
The commissioner shall pay compensation from the fund to an owner or a lessee pursuant to the terms of an agreement that has been entered into under subdivision 7, clause (1), or pursuant to a final order that has been issued under subdivision 7, clause (2), or subdivision 8 by December 31 for applications submitted by July 1 or June 30 for applications submitted by January 1 of the fiscal year. The commissioner shall not pay compensation to owners or lessees that totals more than $275,000 per licensee during Cycle One of a fiscal year nor shall the commissioner pay out during Cycle One if the payout will result in the exhaustion of a licensee's fund. If compensation paid to owners or lessees in Cycle One would total more than $275,000 or would result in exhaustion of a licensee's fund in Cycle One, the commissioner shall not make a final determination of compensation for claims against the licensee until the completion of Cycle Two. If the claims against a licensee for the fiscal year result in the exhaustion of a licensee's fund or the fund as a whole, the commissioner must prorate the amount available among the owners and lessees based on the amount agreed to or ordered to be paid to each owner or lessee. The commissioner shall mail notice of the proration to all owners and lessees no later than March 31 of the current fiscal year. Any compensation paid by the commissioner in accordance with this subdivision shall be deemed to satisfy and extinguish any right to compensation from the fund based upon the verified application of the owner or lessee.
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Subd. 10. Right of subrogation.
Notwithstanding subdivisions 1 to 9 and 11 to 16, the commissioner shall not pay compensation from the fund to an owner or lessee unless and until the owner or lessee executes an assignment to the commissioner of all rights, title, and interest in the final judgment in the amount of the compensation to be paid under an agreement under subdivision 7, clause (1), or a final order issued under subdivision 7, clause (2), or subdivision 8. If the commissioner pays compensation from the fund to an owner or a lessee pursuant to an agreement under subdivision 7, clause (1), or a final order issued under subdivision 7, clause (2), or subdivision 8, then the commissioner shall be subrogated to all of the rights, title, and interest in the owner's or lessee's final judgment in the amount of compensation paid from the fund. The commissioner shall deposit in the fund money recovered under this subdivision.
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Subd. 11. Effect of section on commissioner's authority.
Nothing contained in this section shall limit the authority of the commissioner to take disciplinary action against a licensee under the provisions of this chapter. A licensee's repayment in full of obligations to the fund shall not nullify or modify the effect of any other disciplinary proceeding brought under the provisions of this chapter.
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Subd. 12. Limitation.
Notwithstanding subdivision 5, nothing may obligate the fund for claims brought by:
(1) insurers or sureties under subrogation or similar theories; or
(2) owners of residential property where the contracting activity complained of was the result of a contract entered into with a prior owner, unless the claim is brought and judgment is rendered for breach of the statutory warranty set forth in chapter 327A.
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Subd. 13. Condominiums or townhouses.
(a) For purposes of this section, the terms "owner" and "lessee" of residential real estate include the following, regardless of the number of residential units per building:
(1) an owner or lessee of an apartment as defined in and governed by chapter 515;
(2) an owner or lessee of a unit in a common interest community created under or governed by chapter 515B;
(3) an owner or lessee of a unit in a planned community or cooperative created prior to June 1, 1994, that has not elected to be governed by chapter 515B;
(4) an association or master association, as defined in chapter 515B, that owns or leases the common elements of a common interest community; and
(5) a homeowners association that owns or leases the common elements in a planned community or cooperative created prior to June 1, 1994, that has not elected to be governed by chapter 515B.
(b) For purposes of this subdivision, "common elements" means common areas and facilities as defined in chapter 515 and common elements as defined in chapter 515B.
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Subd. 14.
[Repealed, 2017 c 94 art 2 s 19 ]
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Subd. 15. Appropriation.
Money in the fund is appropriated to the commissioner for the purposes of this section.
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Subd. 16. Additional assessment.
If the balance in the fund is at any time less than the commissioner determines is necessary to carry out the purposes of this section, every licensee, when renewing a license, shall pay, in addition to the annual renewal fee and the fee set forth in subdivision 3, an assessment not to exceed $200. The commissioner shall set the amount of assessment based on a reasonable determination of the amount that is necessary to restore a balance in the fund adequate to carry out the purposes of this section.
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Subd. 17. Recovery of payments.
If the commissioner pays compensation from the fund on the basis of any false or misleading information provided to the commissioner in connection with the application for compensation, then, upon the application of the commissioner, a district court shall order the owner or lessee to repay to the fund all such compensation paid from the fund. In addition, the state may be allowed an amount determined by the court to be the reasonable value of all or part of the litigation expenses, including attorney fees, incurred by the state. The commissioner shall deposit in the fund money recovered under this subdivision.
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Subd. 18. Payment of penalty.
If an owner or lessee violates section
Minn. Stat. § 142B.42
142B.42 , subdivision 6, also apply to receiverships ordered according to this section.
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Subd. 6. Physical plant of the program.
Occupation of the physical plant under an involuntary receivership shall be governed by paragraphs (a) and (b).
(a) The physical plant owned by a controlling individual of the program or related party must be made available for the use of the program throughout the receivership period. The court shall determine a fair monthly rental for the physical plant, taking into account all relevant factors necessary to meet required arm's-length obligations of controlling individuals such as mortgage payments, real estate taxes, and special assessments. The rental fee must be paid by the receiver to the appropriate controlling individuals or related parties for each month that the receivership remains in effect. No payment made to a controlling individual or related party by the receiver or the managing agent or any state agency during a period of the receivership shall include any allowance for profit or be based on any formula that includes an allowance for profit.
(b) If the owner of the physical plant of a program is not a related party, the court shall order the controlling individual to continue as the lessee of the property during the receivership period. Rental payments during the receivership period shall be made to the owner of the physical plant by the commissioner or the managing agent on behalf of the controlling individual.
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Subd. 7. Fee.
A receiver appointed under an involuntary receivership or the managing agent is entitled to a reasonable fee as determined by the court.
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Subd. 8. Termination.
An involuntary receivership terminates 18 months after the date on which it was ordered or at any other time designated by the court or when any of the following events occurs:
(1) the commissioner determines that the program's license or certification application should be granted or should not be suspended or revoked;
(2) a new license or certification is granted to the program;
(3) the commissioner determines that all persons residing in a residential program have been provided with alternative residential programs or that all persons receiving services in a nonresidential program have been referred to other programs; or
(4) the court determines that the receivership is no longer necessary because the conditions that gave rise to the receivership no longer exist.
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Subd. 9. Emergency procedure.
(a) If it appears from the petition filed under subdivision 1, from an affidavit or affidavits filed with the petition, or from testimony of witnesses under oath if the court determines it necessary, that there is probable cause to believe that an emergency exists in a residential or nonresidential program, the court shall issue a temporary order for appointment of a receiver within two days after receipt of the petition.
(b) Notice of the petition must be served on the authorized agent of the program that is subject to the receivership petition or, if the authorized agent is not immediately available for service, on at least one of the controlling individuals for the program. A hearing on the petition must be held within five days after notice is served unless the authorized agent or other controlling individual consents to a later date. After the hearing, the court may continue, modify, or terminate the temporary order.
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Subd. 10. Receivership costs.
The commissioner may use the accounts and funds that would have been available for the room and board, services, and program costs of persons in the program for costs, cash flow, and accounting purposes related to the receivership.
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Subd. 11. Controlling individuals; restrictions on licensure.
No controlling individual of a program placed into receivership under this section may apply for or receive a license or certification to operate a residential or nonresidential program for five years from the commencement of the receivership period. This subdivision does not apply to programs that are owned or operated by controlling individuals that were in existence before the date of the receivership agreement, and that have not been placed into receivership.
History:
2024 c 80 art 2 s 21
Minn. Stat. § 144.496
144.496 ; and
(11) the resale disclosure certificate shall contain a certification by the subscribing party that the information contained therein is true and correct as of the date of the certification.
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Subd. 4. Subscription agreement for new project.
The subscription agreement must include the following provisions:
(1) a statement that all subscription funds received from applicants shall be deposited promptly without deduction in an escrow account at a bank or banks whose deposits are insured by an agency of the federal government. The escrow account shall be controlled by a licensed title insurance company or agent thereof. Money in the account shall be held solely for the benefit of the subscribers until transferred to the account of the cooperative as provided in clauses (2) and (5). The escrow account may be interest bearing, in which event interest earnings shall accrue to the benefit of subscribers, except that subscription funds and interest earned, if any, may be used solely to pay the escrow agent to administer the escrow account and to pay costs and expenses associated with the offering;
(2) a statement of any subscription funds due and payable upon execution of the subscription agreement and, where less than all of the subscription funds are due and payable upon execution of the subscription agreement, a statement of the balance due and payable and the estimated time frame within which that balance must be paid;
(3) a statement of the estimated monthly carrying charges with respect to the membership interest being subscribed for;
(4) a statement that refundable subscription funds shall be immediately refunded by the escrow agent to an applicant whose subscription agreement is terminated pursuant to the agreement and a statement whether the return of subscription funds shall be with or without accrued interest earned on the escrow;
(5) a statement concerning the deadline when sufficient subscribers and loan commitments must be obtained, and a statement that if the deadline is not attained, the subscribers' escrowed funds will be released;
(6) a statement that the entire escrow account and accrued interest earned, if any, shall be immediately paid to the cooperative if sufficient subscribers and loan commitments are obtained by the disclosed end date and the cooperative proceeds with the project;
(7) a statement that:
(i) within ten days after the receipt of an information bulletin, a purchaser may cancel the subscription agreement for the purchase of a membership in a cooperative, provided that the right to cancel terminates upon the purchaser's voluntary acceptance of a conveyance of the membership interest from the cooperative or by the purchaser agreeing to modify or waive the right to cancel by a separate writing from the subscription agreement and signed by the purchaser more than three days after the purchaser receives the information bulletin; and
(ii) if a purchaser receives an information bulletin more than ten days before signing a subscription agreement, the purchaser cannot cancel the subscription agreement pursuant to this ten-day cancellation.
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Subd. 5. Membership purchase and sale agreements.
In the event of a resale of a membership interest by either the departing member or by the cooperative, a membership purchase and sale agreement shall be utilized as the contract for purchase of the membership interest rather than a subscription agreement. A membership purchase and sale agreement must contain the following provisions:
(1) a statement disclosing the identities of the selling and purchasing parties;
(2) a statement acknowledging that the purchase of a membership interest in the cooperative constitutes personal property and not an interest in real estate;
(3) a statement of the purchase price for the membership interest, including any earnest money due and payable, the date on which the membership interest is due and payable, and any sum which may be due and payable upon closing;
(4) a schedule of any items of personal property owned by the seller that the buyer is purchasing as part of the membership interest;
(5) a statement acknowledging that the seller and the cooperative have furnished the buyer with copies of the cooperative's articles of incorporation, bylaws, rules, and policies currently in effect and a resale disclosure statement;
(6) a statement that:
(i) within ten days after the receipt of a copy of the documents set forth in clause (5), a purchaser may cancel the purchase agreement for the purchase of a membership in a cooperative, without penalty and with a full and prompt refund of all payments made under the purchase agreement, unless within that ten-day period the buyer has closed on the purchase of the membership interest; and
(ii) if the buyer elects to cancel the purchase agreement pursuant to this provision, the buyer may do so in writing by hand delivering the notice of cancellation to the seller or seller's agent, or by mailing such notice by postage prepaid United States mail, to the seller or the seller's agent within the ten-day period;
(7) a statement outlining any contingencies or conditions precedent to closing on the purchase of the membership interest and the impact of a failure of one or more of the articulated contingencies on the refund of any earnest money to the buyer;
(8) a statement of the monthly carrying charges allocable to the dwelling unit appurtenant to the membership interest being purchased and any adjustments or prorations of carrying charges due and payable in the month of closing as between the seller and buyer;
(9) a statement of any dwelling alterations that will be permitted prior to closing, the conditions under which those alterations may be made, and the parties financially responsible for any such alterations;
(10) a statement of the anticipated closing date for the purchase of the membership interest;
(11) a statement of the remedies available to the seller or buyer as a result of a default by the other party in its obligation to close on the purchase of the subject membership interest;
(12) a schedule of the items to be delivered at closing which shall include:
(i) the seller's delivery of seller's membership certificate to the buyer, duly assigned to the buyer;
(ii) the seller's delivery to the buyer of a bill of sale in a form reasonably acceptable to the buyer, conveying to the buyer free and clear of all encumbrances any personal property purchased by the buyer pursuant to clause (4);
(iii) the buyer's delivery to the seller of funds representing any balance of the purchase price due and payable; and
(iv) the buyer's delivery to the cooperative of an occupancy agreement duly executed by the buyer; and
(13) a statement regarding the impact of destruction of the subject dwelling unit prior to the closing date on the buyer's purchase obligations and refund of any earnest money paid.
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Subd. 6. Occupancy agreement contents.
The occupancy agreement must include the following provisions:
(1) a statement of the monthly carrying charges due and payable by the member to the cooperative representing the member's proportionate share of the sum that the cooperative's board of directors' estimates are required to meet the cooperative's annual expenses, and the method of calculating the same;
(2) a statement of when the payment of carrying charges will commence;
(3) a statement of the circumstances under which the cooperative may issue any patronage refunds or credits to members;
(4) a statement that the term of the occupancy agreement is coextensive with membership in the cooperative, a statement regarding any automatic renewal of the occupancy agreement term, and a statement of any other terms, conditions, or requirements for renewal of the occupancy agreement term;
(5) a statement of the terms under which the member or cooperative may terminate a member's occupancy agreement;
(6) a statement that the member may occupy the member's dwelling unit solely as a private residential dwelling unit;
(7) a statement outlining the member's rights, duties, and obligations under the occupancy agreement and as a member of the cooperative;
(8) a statement outlining member acts prohibited by the occupancy agreement, articles, bylaws, or the rules, regulations, and policies of the cooperative;
(9) a statement regarding the circumstances under which assignment of the occupancy agreement or subletting is to be permitted or prohibited;
(10) a statement outlining the circumstances and manner in which a membership interest can be transferred, assigned, or sold;
(11) a statement outlining the manner in which the cooperative will manage the cooperative property and operate and administer the cooperative's business, including the payment of all taxes and assessments levied against the cooperative to the extent not billed by the taxing authority directly to the member;
(12) a statement outlining the separate insurance obligations of the cooperative and the member, and should minimally include the separate insurance requirements set forth in this chapter;
(13) a statement concerning the circumstances and extent to which the cooperative must repair, maintain, and replace property owned by the cooperative and the circumstances, if any, under which the cooperative may hold the member responsible for repairing, maintaining, or replacing property owned by the cooperative;
(14) a statement defining events of default under the occupancy agreement, the effects of default, and the remedies available to the cooperative;
(15) a statement through which the member covenants that the member and the member's guests and subtenants, if any, must preserve and promote the cooperative ownership principles of the cooperative and abide by the cooperative's articles, bylaws, and rules, policies and regulations;
(16) a statement that representatives of any mortgagee holding a mortgage on the property of the cooperative, the officers and employees of the cooperative, and, with the approval of the cooperative, the employees of any contractor, utility company, municipal agency, or others, has the right to enter the member's dwelling unit and make inspections at any reasonable hour of the day with reasonable notice and at any time in the event of emergency; and
(17) a statement that the cooperative will not discriminate against any person because of race, color, religion, sex, handicap, or national origin.
History:
2024 c 96 art 1 s 55
Minn. Stat. § 144A.20
144A.20 ADMINISTRATOR QUALIFICATIONS.
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Subdivision 1. Criteria.
The Board of Executives for Long Term Services and Supports may issue licenses to qualified persons as nursing home administrators or assisted living directors, and shall establish qualification criteria for nursing home administrators and assisted living directors.
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Subd. 2.
[Repealed, 1999 c 102 s 7 ]
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Subd. 3. Nursing home administrator qualifications.
The Board of Executives for Long Term Services and Supports may issue licenses to qualified persons as a nursing home administrator and shall approve training and examinations. No license shall be issued to a person as a nursing home administrator unless that person:
(1) is at least 21 years of age and otherwise suitably qualified;
(2) has satisfactorily met standards set by the Board of Executives for Long Term Services and Supports. The standards shall be designed to assure that nursing home administrators are individuals who, by training or experience, are qualified to serve as nursing home administrators; and
(3) has passed an examination approved by the board and designed to test for competence in the subject matters referred to in clause (2), or has been approved by the Board of Executives for Long Term Services and Supports through the development and application of other appropriate techniques.
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Subd. 4. Assisted living director qualifications; ongoing training.
(a) The Board of Executives for Long Term Services and Supports may issue licenses to qualified persons as an assisted living director and shall approve training and examinations. No license shall be issued to a person as an assisted living director unless that person:
(1) is eligible for licensure;
(2) has applied for licensure under this subdivision within 30 days of hire as an assisted living director; and
(3) has satisfactorily met standards set by the board. The standards shall be designed to assure that assisted living directors are individuals who, by training or experience, are qualified to serve as assisted living directors.
(b) In order to be qualified to serve as an assisted living director, an individual must:
(1) have completed an approved training course and passed an examination approved by the board that is designed to test for competence and that includes assisted living facility laws in Minnesota; or
(2)(i) currently be licensed in the state of Minnesota as a nursing home administrator or have been validated as a qualified health services executive by the National Association of Long Term Care Administrator Boards; and
(ii) have core knowledge of assisted living facility laws.
(c) An assisted living director must receive at least 30 hours of continuing education every two years on topics relevant to the operation of an assisted living facility and the needs of its residents. An assisted living director must maintain records of the continuing education required by this paragraph for at least the most recent three-year period and must provide these records to Department of Health surveyors upon request. Continuing education earned to maintain another professional license, such as a nursing home administrator license, nursing license, social worker license, mental health professional license, or real estate license, may be used to satisfy this requirement when the continuing education is relevant to the assisted living services offered and residents served at the assisted living facility.
History:
1976 c 173 s 20 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1996 c 451 art 4 s 23 ; 1999 c 102 s 2 ; 2019 c 60 art 4 s 7 -9; 2022 c 98 art 1 s 71 ; 2024 c 108 art 3 s 1
Minn. Stat. § 144A.483
144A.483 .
§
Subd. 2. Notice required.
(a) This subdivision applies to all transactions where:
(1) the health care entity involved in the transaction has average revenue of at least $80,000,000 per year; or
(2) the transaction will result in an entity projected to have average revenue of at least $80,000,000 per year once the entity is operating at full capacity.
(b) A health care entity must provide notice to the attorney general and the commissioner and comply with this subdivision before entering into a transaction. Notice must be provided at least 60 days before the proposed completion date of the transaction, subject to waiver of all or any part of this waiting period under paragraph (f).
(c) Subject to waiver of all or any part of these disclosure requirements under paragraph (f), as part of the notice required under this subdivision, at least 60 days before the proposed completion date of the transaction, a health care entity must affirmatively disclose the following to the attorney general and the commissioner:
(1) the entities involved in the transaction;
(2) the leadership of the entities involved in the transaction, including all board members, managing partners, member managers, and officers;
(3) the services provided by each entity and the attributed revenue for each entity by location;
(4) the primary service area for each location;
(5) the proposed service area for each location;
(6) the current relationships between the entities and the affected health care providers and practices, the locations of affected health care providers and practices, the services provided by affected health care providers and practices, and the proposed relationships between the entities and the affected health care providers and practices;
(7) the terms of the transaction agreement or agreements;
(8) all consideration related to the transaction;
(9) markets in which the entities expect postmerger synergies to produce a competitive advantage;
(10) potential areas of expansion, whether in existing markets or new markets;
(11) plans to close facilities, reduce workforce, or reduce or eliminate services;
(12) the brokers, experts, and consultants used to facilitate and evaluate the transaction;
(13) the number of full-time equivalent positions at each location before and after the transaction by job category, including administrative and contract positions; and
(14) any other information relevant to evaluating the transaction that is requested by the attorney general or commissioner.
(d) Subject to waiver of all or any part of these submission requirements under paragraph (f), as part of the notice required under this subdivision, at least 60 days before the proposed completion date of the transaction, a health care entity must affirmatively submit the following to the attorney general and the commissioner:
(1) the current governing documents for all entities involved in the transaction and any amendments to these documents;
(2) the transaction agreement or agreements and all related agreements;
(3) any collateral agreements related to the principal transaction, including leases, management contracts, and service contracts;
(4) all expert or consultant reports or valuations conducted in evaluating the transaction, including any valuation of the assets that are subject to the transaction prepared within three years preceding the anticipated transaction completion date and any reports of financial or economic analysis conducted in anticipation of the transaction;
(5) the results of any projections or modeling of health care utilization or financial impacts related to the transaction, including but not limited to copies of reports by appraisers, accountants, investment bankers, actuaries, and other experts;
(6) for a transaction described in subdivision 1, paragraph (j), clauses (1), (2), (4), or (7) to (9), a financial and economic analysis and report prepared by an independent expert or consultant on the effects of the transaction;
(7) for a transaction described in subdivision 1, paragraph (j), clauses (1), (2), (4), or (7) to (9), an impact analysis report prepared by an independent expert or consultant on the effects of the transaction on communities and the workforce, including any changes in availability or accessibility of services;
(8) all documents reflecting the purposes of or restrictions on any related nonprofit entity's charitable assets;
(9) copies of all filings submitted to federal regulators, including any filing the entities submitted to the Federal Trade Commission under United States Code, title 15, section 18a, in connection with the transaction;
(10) a certification sworn under oath by each board member and chief executive officer for any nonprofit entity involved in the transaction containing the following: an explanation of how the completed transaction is in the public interest, addressing the factors in subdivision 5, paragraph (a); a disclosure of each declarant's compensation and benefits relating to the transaction for the three years following the transaction's anticipated completion date; and a disclosure of any conflicts of interest;
(11) audited and unaudited financial statements from all entities involved in the transaction and tax filings for all entities involved in the transaction covering the preceding five fiscal years; and
(12) any other information or documents relevant to evaluating the transaction that are requested by the attorney general or commissioner.
(e) The attorney general may extend the notice and waiting period required under paragraph (b) for an additional 90 days by notifying the health care entity in writing of the extension.
(f) The attorney general may waive all or any part of the waiting period required under paragraph (b). The attorney general may waive all or any part of the disclosure requirements under paragraph (c) and submission requirements under paragraph (d), including requirements for disclosure or submission to the commissioner.
(g) The attorney general or the commissioner may hold public listening sessions or forums to obtain input on the transaction from providers or community members who may be impacted by the transaction.
(h) The attorney general or the commissioner may bring an action in district court to compel compliance with the notice, waiting period, disclosure, and submission requirements in this subdivision.
§
Subd. 3. Prohibited transactions.
No health care entity may enter into a transaction that will:
(1) substantially lessen competition; or
(2) tend to create a monopoly or monopsony.
§
Subd. 4. Additional requirements for nonprofit health care entities.
A health care entity that is incorporated under chapter 317A or organized under section
Minn. Stat. § 147A.35
147A.35 PHYSICIAN ASSISTANT LICENSURE COMPACT.
The physician assistant (PA) licensure compact is enacted into law and entered into with all other jurisdictions legally joining in it in the form substantially specified in this section.
ARTICLE I
TITLE
This statute shall be known and cited as the physician assistant licensure compact.
ARTICLE II
DEFINITIONS
As used in this compact, and except as otherwise provided, the following terms have the meanings given them.
(a) "Adverse action" means any administrative, civil, equitable, or criminal action permitted by a state's laws that is imposed by a licensing board or other authority against a PA license, license application, or compact privilege such as license denial, censure, revocation, suspension, probation, monitoring of the licensee, or restriction on the licensee's practice.
(b) "Charter participating states" means the states that enacted the compact prior to the commission convening.
(c) "Compact privilege" means the authorization granted by a remote state to allow a licensee from another participating state to practice as a PA to provide medical services or other licensed activities to a patient located in the remote state under the remote state's laws and regulations.
(d) "Conviction" means a finding by a court that an individual is guilty of a felony or misdemeanor offense through adjudication or entry of a plea of guilt or no contest to the charge by the offender.
(e) "Criminal background check" means the submission of fingerprints or other biometric-based information for a license applicant for the purpose of obtaining that applicant's criminal history record information, as defined in Code of Federal Regulations, title 28, part 20, subpart 20.3, clause (d), from the state's criminal history record repository, as defined in Code of Federal Regulations, title 28, part 20, subpart 20.3, clause (f).
(f) "Data system" means the repository of information about licensees, including but not limited to license status and adverse action, that is created and administered under the terms of this compact.
(g) "Executive committee" means a group of directors and ex officio individuals elected or appointed pursuant to article VII, paragraph (f), clause (2).
(h) "Impaired practitioner" means a PA whose practice is adversely affected by a health-related condition that impacts the PA's ability to practice.
(i) "Investigative information" means information, records, and documents received or generated by a licensing board pursuant to an investigation.
(j) "Jurisprudence requirement" means the assessment of an individual's knowledge of the laws and rules governing the practice of a PA in a state.
(k) "License" means current authorization by a state, other than authorization pursuant to a compact privilege, for a PA to provide medical services, which would be unlawful without current authorization.
(l) "Licensee" means an individual who holds a license from a state to provide medical services as a PA.
(m) "Licensing board" means any state entity authorized to license and otherwise regulate PAs.
(n) "Medical services" means health care services provided for the diagnosis, prevention, treatment, cure, or relief of a health condition, injury, or disease, as defined by a state's laws and regulations.
(o) "Model compact" means the model for the PA licensure compact on file with the Council of State Governments or other entity as designated by the commission.
(p) "Participating state" means a state that has enacted this compact.
(q) "PA" means an individual who is licensed as a physician assistant in a state. For purposes of this compact, any other title or status adopted by a state to replace the term "physician assistant" shall be deemed synonymous with "physician assistant" and shall confer the same rights and responsibilities to the licensee under the provisions of this compact at the time of its enactment.
(r) "PA Licensure Compact Commission" or "compact commission" or "commission" means the national administrative body created pursuant to article VII, paragraph (a).
(s) "Qualifying license" means an unrestricted license issued by a participating state to provide medical services as a PA.
(t) "Remote state" means a participating state where a licensee who is not licensed as a PA is exercising or seeking to exercise the compact privilege.
(u) "Rule" means a regulation promulgated by an entity that has the force and effect of law.
(v) "Significant investigative information" means investigative information that a licensing board, after an inquiry or investigation that includes notification and an opportunity for the PA to respond if required by state law, has reason to believe is not groundless and, if proven true, would indicate more than a minor infraction.
(w) "State" means any state, commonwealth, district, or territory of the United States.
ARTICLE III
STATE PARTICIPATION IN THE COMPACT
(a) To participate in this compact, a participating state must:
(1) license PAs;
(2) participate in the commission's data system;
(3) have a mechanism in place for receiving and investigating complaints against licensees and license applicants;
(4) notify the commission, in compliance with the terms of this compact and commission rules, of any adverse action against the licensee or license applicant and the existence of significant investigative information regarding a licensee or license applicant;
(5) fully implement a criminal background check requirement, within a time frame established by commission rule, by its licensing board receiving the results of a criminal background check and reporting to the commission whether the license applicant has been granted a license;
(6) fully comply with the rules of the compact commission;
(7) utilize a recognized national examination such as the National Commission on Certification of Physician Assistants (NCCPA) physician assistant national certifying examination as a requirement for PA licensure; and
(8) grant the compact privilege to a holder of a qualifying license in a participating state.
(b) Nothing in this compact prohibits a participating state from charging a fee for granting the compact privilege.
ARTICLE IV
COMPACT PRIVILEGE
(a) To exercise the compact privilege, a licensee must:
(1) have graduated from a PA program accredited by the Accreditation Review Commission on Education for the Physician Assistant, Inc. or other programs authorized by commission rule;
(2) hold current NCCPA certification;
(3) have no felony or misdemeanor convictions;
(4) have never had a controlled substance license, permit, or registration suspended or revoked by a state or by the United States Drug Enforcement Administration;
(5) have a unique identifier as determined by commission rule;
(6) hold a qualifying license;
(7) have had no revocation of a license or limitation or restriction due to an adverse action on any currently held license;
(8) if a licensee has had a limitation or restriction on a license or compact privilege due to an adverse action, two years must have elapsed from the date on which the license or compact privilege is no longer limited or restricted due to the adverse action;
(9) if a compact privilege has been revoked or is limited or restricted in a participating state for conduct that would not be a basis for disciplinary action in a participating state in which the licensee is practicing or applying to practice under a compact privilege, that participating state shall have the discretion not to consider such action as an adverse action requiring the denial or removal of a compact privilege in that state;
(10) notify the compact commission that the licensee is seeking the compact privilege in a remote state;
(11) meet any jurisprudence requirement of a remote state in which the licensee is seeking to practice under the compact privilege and pay any fees applicable to satisfying the jurisprudence requirement; and
(12) report to the commission any adverse action taken by any nonparticipating state within 30 days after the date the action is taken.
(b) The compact privilege is valid until the expiration or revocation of the qualifying license unless terminated pursuant to an adverse action. The licensee must also comply with all of the requirements of paragraph (a) to maintain the compact privilege in a remote state. If the participating state takes adverse action against a qualifying license, the licensee shall lose the compact privilege in any remote state in which the licensee has a compact privilege until all of the following occur:
(1) the license is no longer limited or restricted; and
(2) two years have elapsed from the date on which the license is no longer limited or restricted due to the adverse action.
(c) Once a restricted or limited license satisfies the requirements of paragraph (b), the licensee must meet the requirements of paragraph (a) to obtain a compact privilege in any remote state.
(d) For each remote state in which a PA seeks authority to prescribe controlled substances, the PA shall satisfy all requirements imposed by such state in granting or renewing such authority.
ARTICLE V
DESIGNATION OF THE STATE FROM WHICH LICENSEE IS APPLYING FOR COMPACT PRIVILEGE
Upon a licensee's application for a compact privilege, the licensee must identify to the commission the participating state from which the licensee is applying, in accordance with applicable rules adopted by the commission, and subject to the following requirements:
(1) the licensee must provide the commission with the address of the licensee's primary residence and thereafter shall immediately report to the commission any change in the address of the licensee's primary residence; and
(2) the licensee must consent to accept service of process by mail at the licensee's primary residence on file with the commission with respect to any action brought against the licensee by the commission or a participating state, including a subpoena, with respect to any action brought or investigation conducted by the commission or a participating state.
ARTICLE VI
ADVERSE ACTIONS
(a) A participating state in which a licensee is licensed shall have exclusive power to impose adverse action against the qualifying license issued by that participating state.
(b) In addition to the other powers conferred by state law, a remote state shall have the authority, in accordance with existing state due process law, to do the following:
(1) take adverse action against a PA's compact privilege in the state to remove a licensee's compact privilege or take other action necessary under applicable law to protect the health and safety of its citizens; and
(2) issue subpoenas for both hearings and investigations that require the attendance and testimony of witnesses and the production of evidence. Subpoenas issued by a licensing board in a participating state for the attendance and testimony of witnesses or the production of evidence from another participating state shall be enforced in the latter state by any court of competent jurisdiction, according to the practice and procedure of that court applicable to subpoenas issued in proceedings pending before it. The issuing authority shall pay any witness fees, travel expenses, mileage, and other fees required by the service statutes of the state in which the witnesses or evidence are located.
(c) Notwithstanding paragraph (b), clause (1), subpoenas may not be issued by a participating state to gather evidence of conduct in another state that is lawful in that other state, for the purpose of taking adverse action against a licensee's compact privilege or application for a compact privilege in that participating state.
(d) Nothing in this compact authorizes a participating state to impose discipline against a PA's compact privilege or to deny an application for a compact privilege in that participating state for the individual's otherwise lawful practice in another state.
(e) For purposes of taking adverse action, the participating state which issued the qualifying license shall give the same priority and effect to reported conduct received from any other participating state as it would if the conduct had occurred within the participating state which issued the qualifying license. In so doing, that participating state shall apply its own state laws to determine appropriate action.
(f) A participating state, if otherwise permitted by state law, may recover from the affected PA the costs of investigations and disposition of cases resulting from any adverse action taken against that PA.
(g) A participating state may take adverse action based on the factual findings of a remote state, provided that the participating state follows its own procedures for taking the adverse action.
(h) Joint investigations:
(1) in addition to the authority granted to a participating state by its respective state PA laws and regulations or other applicable state law, any participating state may participate with other participating states in joint investigations of licensees; and
(2) participating states shall share any investigative, litigation, or compliance materials in furtherance of any joint or individual investigation initiated under this compact.
(i) If an adverse action is taken against a PA's qualifying license, the PA's compact privilege in all remote states shall be deactivated until two years have elapsed after all restrictions have been removed from the state license. All disciplinary orders by the participating state which issued the qualifying license that impose adverse action against a PA's license shall include a statement that the PA's compact privilege is deactivated in all participating states during the pendency of the order.
(j) If any participating state takes adverse action, it promptly shall notify the administrator of the data system.
ARTICLE VII
ESTABLISHMENT OF THE PA LICENSURE COMPACT COMMISSION
(a) The participating states hereby create and establish a joint government agency and national administrative body known as the PA Licensure Compact Commission. The commission is an instrumentality of the compact states acting jointly, and is not an instrumentality of any one state. The commission shall come into existence on or after the effective date of the compact as set forth in article XI, paragraph (a).
(b) Membership, voting, and meetings:
(1) each participating state shall have and be limited to one delegate selected by that participating state's licensing board or, if the state has more than one licensing board, selected collectively by the participating state's licensing boards;
(2) the delegate shall be:
(i) a current PA, physician, or public member of a licensing board or PA council or committee; or
(ii) an administrator of a licensing board;
(3) any delegate may be removed or suspended from office as provided by the laws of the state from which the delegate is appointed;
(4) the participating state board shall fill any vacancy occurring in the commission within 60 days;
(5) each delegate shall be entitled to one vote on all matters voted on by the commission and shall otherwise have an opportunity to participate in the business and affairs of the commission;
(6) a delegate shall vote in person or by such other means as provided in the bylaws. The bylaws may provide for delegates' participation in meetings by telecommunications, video conference, or other means of communication;
(7) the commission shall meet at least once during each calendar year. Additional meetings shall be held as set forth in this compact and the bylaws; and
(8) the commission shall establish by rule a term of office for delegates.
(c) The commission shall have the following powers and duties:
(1) establish a code of ethics for the commission;
(2) establish the fiscal year of the commission;
(3) establish fees;
(4) establish bylaws;
(5) maintain its financial records in accordance with the bylaws;
(6) meet and take such actions as are consistent with the provisions of this compact and the bylaws;
(7) promulgate rules to facilitate and coordinate implementation and administration of this compact. The rules shall have the force and effect of law and shall be binding in all participating states;
(8) bring and prosecute legal proceedings or actions in the name of the commission, provided that the standing of any state licensing board to sue or be sued under applicable law shall not be affected;
(9) purchase and maintain insurance and bonds;
(10) borrow, accept, or contract for services of personnel, including but not limited to employees of a participating state;
(11) hire employees and engage contractors, elect or appoint officers, fix compensation, define duties, grant such individuals appropriate authority to carry out the purposes of this compact, and establish the commission's personnel policies and programs relating to conflicts of interest, qualifications of personnel, and other related personnel matters;
(12) accept any and all appropriate donations and grants of money, equipment, supplies, materials, and services, and receive, utilize, and dispose of the same, provided that at all times the commission shall avoid any appearance of impropriety or conflict of interest;
(13) lease, purchase, accept appropriate gifts or donations of, or otherwise to own, hold, improve, or use, any property, real, personal, or mixed, provided that at all times the commission shall avoid any appearance of impropriety;
(14) sell, convey, mortgage, pledge, lease, exchange, abandon, or otherwise dispose of any property real, personal, or mixed;
(15) establish a budget and make expenditures;
(16) borrow money;
(17) appoint committees, including standing committees composed of members, state regulators, state legislators or their representatives, and consumer representatives, and such other interested persons as may be designated in this compact and the bylaws;
(18) provide and receive information from, and cooperate with, law enforcement agencies;
(19) elect a chair, vice chair, secretary, and treasurer and such other officers of the commission as provided in the commission's bylaws;
(20) reserve for itself, in addition to those reserved exclusively to the commission under the compact, powers that the executive committee may not exercise;
(21) approve or disapprove a state's participation in the compact based upon its determination as to whether the state's compact legislation departs in a material manner from the model compact language;
(22) prepare and provide to the participating states an annual report; and
(23) perform such other functions as may be necessary or appropriate to achieve the purposes of this compact consistent with the state regulation of PA licensure and practice.
(d) Meetings of the commission:
(1) all meetings of the commission that are not closed pursuant to this paragraph shall be open to the public. Notice of public meetings shall be posted on the commission's website at least 30 days prior to the public meeting;
(2) notwithstanding clause (1), the commission may convene a public meeting by providing at least 24 hours' prior notice on the commission's website, and any other means as provided in the commission's rules, for any of the reasons it may dispense with notice of proposed rulemaking under article IX, paragraph (l);
(3) the commission may convene in a closed, nonpublic meeting or nonpublic part of a public meeting to receive legal advice or to discuss:
(i) noncompliance of a participating state with its obligations under this compact;
(ii) the employment, compensation, discipline, or other matters, practices, or procedures related to specific employees, or other matters related to the commission's internal personnel practices and procedures;
(iii) current, threatened, or reasonably anticipated litigation;
(iv) negotiation of contracts for the purchase, lease, or sale of goods, services, or real estate;
(v) accusing any person of a crime or formally censuring any person;
(vi) disclosure of trade secrets or commercial or financial information that is privileged or confidential;
(vii) disclosure of information of a personal nature where disclosure would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy;
(viii) disclosure of investigative records compiled for law enforcement purposes;
(ix) disclosure of information related to any investigative reports prepared by or on behalf of, or for use of, the commission or other committee charged with responsibility of investigation or determination of compliance issues pursuant to this compact;
(x) legal advice; or
(xi) matters specifically exempted from disclosure by federal or participating states' statutes;
(4) if a meeting, or portion of a meeting, is closed pursuant to clause (3), the chair of the meeting or the chair's designee shall certify that the meeting or portion of the meeting may be closed and shall reference each relevant exempting provision; and
(5) the commission shall keep minutes that fully and clearly describe all matters discussed in a meeting and shall provide a full and accurate summary of actions taken, including a description of the views expressed. All documents considered in connection with an action shall be identified in such minutes. All minutes and documents of a closed meeting shall remain under seal, subject to release by a majority vote of the commission or order of a court of competent jurisdiction.
(e) Financing of the commission:
(1) the commission shall pay, or provide for the payment of, the reasonable expenses of its establishment, organization, and ongoing activities;
(2) the commission may accept any and all appropriate revenue sources, donations, and grants of money, equipment, supplies, materials, and services;
(3) the commission may levy on and collect an annual assessment from each participating state and may impose compact privilege fees on licensees of participating states to whom a compact privilege is granted, to cover the cost of the operations and activities of the commission and its staff. The cost of the operations and activities of the commission and its staff must be in a total amount sufficient to cover its annual budget as approved by the commission each year for which revenue is not provided by other sources. The aggregate annual assessment amount levied on participating states shall be allocated based upon a formula to be determined by commission rule:
(i) a compact privilege expires when the licensee's qualifying license in the participating state from which the licensee applied for the compact privilege expires; and
(ii) if the licensee terminates the qualifying license through which the licensee applied for the compact privilege before its scheduled expiration, and the licensee has a qualifying license in another participating state, the licensee shall inform the commission that it is changing the participating state through which it applies for a compact privilege to the other participating state and pay to the commission any compact privilege fee required by commission rule;
(4) the commission shall not incur obligations of any kind prior to securing the funds adequate to meet the same, nor shall the commission pledge the credit of any of the participating states, except by and with the authority of the participating state; and
(5) the commission shall keep accurate accounts of all receipts and disbursements. The receipts and disbursements of the commission shall be subject to the financial review and accounting procedures established under its bylaws. All receipts and disbursements of funds handled by the commission shall be subject to an annual financial review by a certified or licensed public accountant, and the report of the financial review shall be included in and become part of the annual report of the commission.
(f) The executive committee:
(1) the executive committee shall have the power to act on behalf of the commission according to the terms of this compact and commission rules;
(2) the executive committee shall be composed of nine members as follows:
(i) seven voting members who are elected by the commission from the current membership of the commission;
(ii) one ex officio, nonvoting member from a recognized national PA professional association; and
(iii) one ex officio, nonvoting member from a recognized national PA certification organization;
(3) the ex officio members will be selected by their respective organizations;
(4) the commission may remove any member of the executive committee as provided in its bylaws;
(5) the executive committee shall meet at least annually;
(6) the executive committee shall have the following duties and responsibilities:
(i) recommend to the entire commission changes to the commission's rules or bylaws, changes to this compact legislation, fees paid by compact participating states such as annual dues, and any commission compact fee charged to licensees for the compact privilege;
(ii) ensure compact administration services are appropriately provided, contractual or otherwise;
(iii) prepare and recommend the budget;
(iv) maintain financial records on behalf of the commission;
(v) monitor compact compliance of participating states and provide compliance reports to the commission;
(vi) establish additional committees as necessary;
(vii) exercise the powers and duties of the commission during the interim between commission meetings, except for issuing proposed rulemaking or adopting commission rules or bylaws, or exercising any other powers and duties exclusively reserved to the commission by the commission's rules; and
(viii) perform other duties as provided in commission's rules or bylaws;
(7) all meetings of the executive committee at which it votes or plans to vote on matters in exercising the powers and duties of the commission shall be open to the public, and public notice of such meetings shall be given as public meetings of the commission are given; and
(8) the executive committee may convene in a closed, nonpublic meeting for the same reasons that the commission may convene in a nonpublic meeting as set forth in paragraph (d), clause (3), and shall announce the closed meeting as the commission is required to under paragraph (d), clause (4), and keep minutes of the closed meeting as the commission is required to under paragraph (d), clause (5).
(g) Qualified immunity, defense, and indemnification:
(1) the members, officers, executive director, employees, and representatives of the commission shall be immune from suit and liability, both personally and in their official capacity, for any claim for damage to or loss of property or personal injury or other civil liability caused by or arising out of any actual or alleged act, error, or omission that occurred, or that the person against whom the claim is made had a reasonable basis for believing occurred, within the scope of commission employment, duties, or responsibilities, provided that nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to protect any such person from suit or liability for any damage, loss, injury, or liability caused by the intentional or willful or wanton misconduct of that person. The procurement of insurance of any type by the commission shall not in any way compromise or limit the immunity granted hereunder;
(2) the commission shall defend any member, officer, executive director, employee, or representative of the commission in any civil action seeking to impose liability arising out of any actual or alleged act, error, or omission that occurred within the scope of commission employment, duties, or responsibilities, or that the person against whom the claim is made had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of commission employment, duties, or responsibilities, provided that nothing herein shall be construed to prohibit that person from retaining their own counsel at their own expense, and provided further that the actual or alleged act, error, or omission did not result from that person's intentional or willful or wanton misconduct;
(3) the commission shall indemnify and hold harmless any member, officer, executive director, employee, or representative of the commission for the amount of any settlement or judgment obtained against that person arising out of any actual or alleged act, error, or omission that occurred within the scope of commission employment, duties, or responsibilities, or that such person had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of commission employment, duties, or responsibilities, provided that the actual or alleged act, error, or omission did not result from the intentional or willful or wanton misconduct of that person;
(4) except as provided under paragraph (i), venue is proper and judicial proceedings by or against the commission shall be brought solely and exclusively in a court of competent jurisdiction where the principal office of the commission is located. The commission may waive venue and jurisdictional defenses in any proceedings as authorized by commission rules;
(5) nothing herein shall be construed as a limitation on the liability of any licensee for professional malpractice or misconduct, which shall be governed solely by any other applicable state laws;
(6) nothing herein shall be construed to designate the venue or jurisdiction to bring actions for alleged acts of malpractice, professional misconduct, negligence, or other such civil action pertaining to the practice of a PA. All such matters shall be determined exclusively by state law other than this compact;
(7) nothing in this compact shall be interpreted to waive or otherwise abrogate a participating state's state action immunity or state action affirmative defense with respect to antitrust claims under the federal Sherman Act, Clayton Act, or any other state or federal antitrust or anticompetitive law or regulation; and
(8) nothing in this compact shall be construed to be a waiver of sovereign immunity by the participating states or by the commission.
(h) Notwithstanding paragraph (g), clause (1), the liability of the executive director, employees, or representatives of the interstate commission, acting within the scope of their employment or duties, may not exceed the limits of liability set forth under the constitution and laws of this state for state officials, employees, and agents. This paragraph expressly incorporates section
Minn. Stat. § 148.645
148.645 OCCUPATIONAL THERAPY LICENSURE COMPACT.
ARTICLE I
TITLE
This statute shall be known and cited as the occupational therapist licensure compact.
ARTICLE II
DEFINITIONS
As used in this compact, and except as otherwise provided, the following definitions shall apply:
(A) "Active duty military" means full-time duty status in the active uniformed service of the United States, including members of the National Guard and Reserve on active duty orders pursuant to United States Code, title 10, sections 1209 and 1211.
(B) "Adverse action" means any administrative, civil, equitable, or criminal action permitted by a state's laws which is imposed by a licensing board or other authority against an occupational therapist or occupational therapy assistant, including actions against an individual's license or compact privilege such as censure, revocation, suspension, probation, monitoring of the licensee, or restriction on the licensee's practice.
(C) "Alternative program" means a nondisciplinary monitoring process approved by an occupational therapy licensing board.
(D) "Compact privilege" means the authorization, which is equivalent to a license, granted by a remote state to allow a licensee from another member state to practice as an occupational therapist or practice as an occupational therapy assistant in the remote state under its laws and rules. The practice of occupational therapy occurs in the member state where the patient or client is located at the time of the patient or client encounter.
(E) "Continuing competence" or "continuing education" means a requirement, as a condition of license renewal, to provide evidence of participation in, and completion of, educational and professional activities relevant to practice or area of work.
(F) "Current significant investigative information" means investigative information that a licensing board, after an inquiry or investigation that includes notification and an opportunity for the occupational therapist or occupational therapy assistant to respond, if required by state law, has reason to believe is not groundless and, if proven true, would indicate more than a minor infraction.
(G) "Data system" means a repository of information about licensees, including but not limited to license status, investigative information, compact privileges, and adverse actions.
(H) "Encumbered license" means a license in which an adverse action restricts the practice of occupational therapy by the licensee or said adverse action has been reported to the National Practitioners Data Bank (NPDB).
(I) "Executive committee" means a group of directors elected or appointed to act on behalf of, and within the powers granted to them by, the commission.
(J) "Home state" means the member state that is the licensee's primary state of residence.
(K) "Impaired practitioner" means an individual whose professional practice is adversely affected by substance abuse, addiction, or other health-related conditions.
(L) "Investigative information" means information, records, or documents received or generated by an occupational therapy licensing board pursuant to an investigation.
(M) "Jurisprudence requirement" means the assessment of an individual's knowledge of the laws and rules governing the practice of occupational therapy in a state.
(N) "Licensee" means an individual who currently holds an authorization from the state to practice as an occupational therapist or as an occupational therapy assistant.
(O) "Member state" means a state that has enacted the compact.
(P) "Occupational therapist" means an individual who is licensed by a state to practice occupational therapy.
(Q) "Occupational therapy assistant" means an individual who is licensed by a state to assist in the practice of occupational therapy.
(R) "Occupational therapy," "occupational therapy practice," and "the practice of occupational therapy" mean the care and services provided by an occupational therapist or an occupational therapy assistant as set forth in the member state's statutes and regulations.
(S) "Occupational therapy compact commission" or "commission" means the national administrative body whose membership consists of all states that have enacted the compact.
(T) "Occupational therapy licensing board" or "licensing board" means the agency of a state that is authorized to license and regulate occupational therapists and occupational therapy assistants.
(U) "Primary state of residence" means the state, also known as the home state, in which an occupational therapist or occupational therapy assistant who is not active duty military declares a primary residence for legal purposes as verified by driver's license, federal income tax return, lease, deed, mortgage, or voter registration or other verifying documentation as further defined by commission rules.
(V) "Remote state" means a member state other than the home state where a licensee is exercising or seeking to exercise the compact privilege.
(W) "Rule" means a regulation promulgated by the commission that has the force of law.
(X) "State" means any state, commonwealth, district, or territory of the United States of America that regulates the practice of occupational therapy.
(Y) "Single-state license" means an occupational therapist or occupational therapy assistant license issued by a member state that authorizes practice only within the issuing state and does not include a compact privilege in any other member state.
(Z) "Telehealth" means the application of telecommunication technology to deliver occupational therapy services for assessment, intervention, or consultation.
ARTICLE III
STATE PARTICIPATION IN THE COMPACT
(A) To participate in the compact, a member state shall:
(1) license occupational therapists and occupational therapy assistants;
(2) participate fully in the commission's data system, including but not limited to using the commission's unique identifier as defined in rules of the commission;
(3) have a mechanism in place for receiving and investigating complaints about licensees;
(4) notify the commission, in compliance with the terms of the compact and rules, of any adverse action or the availability of investigative information regarding a licensee;
(5) implement or utilize procedures for considering the criminal history records of applicants for an initial compact privilege. These procedures shall include the submission of fingerprints or other biometric-based information by applicants for the purpose of obtaining an applicant's criminal history record information from the Federal Bureau of Investigation and the agency responsible for retaining that state's criminal records;
(i) A member state shall, within a time frame established by the commission, require a criminal background check for a licensee seeking or applying for a compact privilege whose primary state of residence is that member state by receiving the results of the Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal record search, and shall use the results in making licensure decisions.
(ii) Communication between a member state, the commission, and among member states regarding the verification of eligibility for licensure through the compact shall not include any information received from the Federal Bureau of Investigation relating to a federal criminal records check performed by a member state under Public Law 92-544;
(6) comply with the rules of the commission;
(7) utilize only a recognized national examination as a requirement for licensure pursuant to the rules of the commission; and
(8) have continuing competence or education requirements as a condition for license renewal.
(B) A member state shall grant the compact privilege to a licensee holding a valid unencumbered license in another member state in accordance with the terms of the compact and rules.
(C) Member states may charge a fee for granting a compact privilege.
(D) A member state shall provide for the state's delegate to attend all occupational therapy compact commission meetings.
(E) Individuals not residing in a member state shall continue to be able to apply for a member state's single-state license as provided under the laws of each member state. However, the single-state license granted to these individuals shall not be recognized as granting the compact privilege in any other member state.
(F) Nothing in this compact shall affect the requirements established by a member state for the issuance of a single-state license.
ARTICLE IV
COMPACT PRIVILEGE
(A) To exercise the compact privilege under the terms and provisions of the compact, the licensee shall:
(1) hold a license in the home state;
(2) have a valid United States Social Security number or national practitioner identification number;
(3) have no encumbrance on any state license;
(4) be eligible for a compact privilege in any member state in accordance with Article IV, (D), (F), (G), and (H);
(5) have paid all fines and completed all requirements resulting from any adverse action against any license or compact privilege, and two years have elapsed from the date of such completion;
(6) notify the commission that the licensee is seeking the compact privilege within a remote state or states;
(7) pay any applicable fees, including any state fee, for the compact privilege;
(8) complete a criminal background check in accordance with Article III, (A)(5). The licensee shall be responsible for the payment of any fee associated with the completion of a criminal background check;
(9) meet any jurisprudence requirements established by the remote state or states in which the licensee is seeking a compact privilege; and
(10) report to the commission adverse action taken by any nonmember state within 30 days from the date the adverse action is taken.
(B) The compact privilege is valid until the expiration date of the home state license. The licensee must comply with the requirements of Article IV, (A), to maintain the compact privilege in the remote state.
(C) A licensee providing occupational therapy in a remote state under the compact privilege shall function within the laws and regulations of the remote state.
(D) Occupational therapy assistants practicing in a remote state shall be supervised by an occupational therapist licensed or holding a compact privilege in that remote state.
(E) A licensee providing occupational therapy in a remote state is subject to that state's regulatory authority. A remote state may, in accordance with due process and that state's laws, remove a licensee's compact privilege in the remote state for a specific period of time, impose fines, or take any other necessary actions to protect the health and safety of its citizens. The licensee may be ineligible for a compact privilege in any state until the specific time for removal has passed and all fines are paid.
(F) If a home state license is encumbered, the licensee shall lose the compact privilege in any remote state until the following occur:
(1) the home state license is no longer encumbered; and
(2) two years have elapsed from the date on which the home state license is no longer encumbered in accordance with Article IV, (F)(1).
(G) Once an encumbered license in the home state is restored to good standing, the licensee must meet the requirements of Article IV, (A), to obtain a compact privilege in any remote state.
(H) If a licensee's compact privilege in any remote state is removed, the individual may lose the compact privilege in any other remote state until the following occur:
(1) the specific period of time for which the compact privilege was removed has ended;
(2) all fines have been paid and all conditions have been met;
(3) two years have elapsed from the date of completing requirements for Article IV, (H)(1) and (2); and
(4) the compact privileges are reinstated by the commission and the compact data system is updated to reflect reinstatement.
(I) If a licensee's compact privilege in any remote state is removed due to an erroneous charge, privileges shall be restored through the compact data system.
(J) Once the requirements of Article IV, (H), have been met, the licensee must meet the requirements in Article IV, (A), to obtain a compact privilege in a remote state.
ARTICLE V
OBTAINING A NEW HOME STATE LICENSE BY VIRTUE OF COMPACT PRIVILEGE
(A) An occupational therapist or occupational therapy assistant may hold a home state license, which allows for compact privileges in member states, in only one member state at a time.
(B) If an occupational therapist or occupational therapy assistant changes their primary state of residence by moving between two member states:
(1) the occupational therapist or occupational therapy assistant shall file an application for obtaining a new home state license by virtue of a compact privilege, pay all applicable fees, and notify the current and new home state in accordance with applicable rules adopted by the commission;
(2) upon receipt of an application for obtaining a new home state license by virtue of compact privilege, the new home state shall verify that the occupational therapist or occupational therapy assistant meets the pertinent criteria outlined in Article IV via the data system, without need for primary source verification except for:
(i) an FBI fingerprint-based criminal background check if not previously performed or updated pursuant to applicable rules adopted by the commission in accordance with Public Law 92-544;
(ii) other criminal background checks as required by the new home state; and
(iii) submission of any requisite jurisprudence requirements of the new home state;
(3) the former home state shall convert the former home state license into a compact privilege once the new home state has activated the new home state license in accordance with applicable rules adopted by the commission;
(4) notwithstanding any other provision of this compact, if the occupational therapist or occupational therapy assistant cannot meet the criteria in Article IV, the new home state shall apply its requirements for issuing a new single-state license; and
(5) the occupational therapist or the occupational therapy assistant shall pay all applicable fees to the new home state in order to be issued a new home state license.
(C) If an occupational therapist or occupational therapy assistant changes their primary state of residence by moving from a member state to a nonmember state, or from a nonmember state to a member state, the state criteria shall apply for issuance of a single-state license in the new state.
(D) Nothing in this compact shall interfere with a licensee's ability to hold a single-state license in multiple states; however, for the purposes of this compact, a licensee shall have only one home state license.
(E) Nothing in this compact shall affect the requirements established by a member state for the issuance of a single-state license.
ARTICLE VI
ACTIVE DUTY MILITARY PERSONNEL OR THEIR SPOUSES
Active duty military personnel, or their spouses, shall designate a home state where the individual has a current license in good standing. The individual may retain the home state designation during the period the service member is on active duty. Subsequent to designating a home state, the individual shall only change their home state through application for licensure in the new state or through the process described in Article V.
ARTICLE VII
ADVERSE ACTIONS
(A) A home state shall have exclusive power to impose adverse action against an occupational therapist's or occupational therapy assistant's license issued by the home state.
(B) In addition to the other powers conferred by state law, a remote state shall have the authority, in accordance with existing state due process law, to:
(1) take adverse action against an occupational therapist's or occupational therapy assistant's compact privilege within that member state; and
(2) issue subpoenas for both hearings and investigations that require the attendance and testimony of witnesses as well as the production of evidence. Subpoenas issued by a licensing board in a member state for the attendance and testimony of witnesses or the production of evidence from another member state shall be enforced in the latter state by any court of competent jurisdiction, according to the practice and procedure of that court applicable to subpoenas issued in proceedings pending before that court. The issuing authority shall pay any witness fees, travel expenses, mileage, and other fees required by the service statutes of the state in which the witnesses or evidence are located.
(C) For purposes of taking adverse action, the home state shall give the same priority and effect to reported conduct received from a member state as it would if the conduct had occurred within the home state. In so doing, the home state shall apply its own state laws to determine appropriate action.
(D) The home state shall complete any pending investigations of an occupational therapist or occupational therapy assistant who changes their primary state of residence during the course of the investigations. The home state, where the investigations were initiated, shall also have the authority to take appropriate action and shall promptly report the conclusions of the investigations to the compact commission data system. The occupational therapy compact commission data system administrator shall promptly notify the new home state of any adverse actions.
(E) A member state, if otherwise permitted by state law, may recover from the affected occupational therapist or occupational therapy assistant the costs of investigations and disposition of cases resulting from any adverse action taken against that occupational therapist or occupational therapy assistant.
(F) A member state may take adverse action based on the factual findings of the remote state, provided that the member state follows its own procedures for taking the adverse action.
(G) Joint Investigations:
(1) In addition to the authority granted to a member state by its respective state occupational therapy laws and regulations or other applicable state law, any member state may participate with other member states in joint investigations of licensees.
(2) Member states shall share any investigative, litigation, or compliance materials in furtherance of any joint or individual investigation initiated under the compact.
(H) If an adverse action is taken by the home state against an occupational therapist's or occupational therapy assistant's license, the occupational therapist's or occupational therapy assistant's compact privilege in all other member states shall be deactivated until all encumbrances have been removed from the state license. All home state disciplinary orders that impose adverse action against an occupational therapist's or occupational therapy assistant's license shall include a statement that the occupational therapist's or occupational therapy assistant's compact privilege is deactivated in all member states during the pendency of the order.
(I) If a member state takes adverse action, the member state shall promptly notify the administrator of the data system. The administrator of the data system shall promptly notify the home state of any adverse actions by remote states.
(J) Nothing in this compact shall override a member state's decision that participation in an alternative program may be used in lieu of adverse action.
ARTICLE VIII
ESTABLISHMENT OF THE OCCUPATIONAL THERAPY COMPACT COMMISSION
(A) The compact member states hereby create and establish a joint public agency known as the occupational therapy compact commission:
(1) The commission is an instrumentality of the compact states.
(2) Except as provided under paragraph (I), venue is proper and judicial proceedings by or against the commission shall be brought solely and exclusively in a court of competent jurisdiction where the principal office of the commission is located. The commission may waive venue and jurisdictional defenses to the extent it adopts or consents to participate in alternative dispute resolution proceedings.
(3) Nothing in this compact shall be construed to be a waiver of sovereign immunity.
(B) Membership, Voting, and Meetings:
(1) Each member state shall have and be limited to one delegate selected by that member state's licensing board.
(2) The delegate shall be either:
(i) a current member of the licensing board who is an occupational therapist, occupational therapy assistant, or public member; or
(ii) an administrator of the licensing board.
(3) Any delegate may be removed or suspended from office as provided by the law of the state from which the delegate is appointed.
(4) The member state board shall fill any vacancy occurring in the commission within 90 days.
(5) Each delegate shall be entitled to one vote with regard to the promulgation of rules and creation of bylaws and shall otherwise have an opportunity to participate in the business and affairs of the commission. A delegate shall vote in person or by such other means as provided in the bylaws. The bylaws may provide for delegates' participation in meetings by telephone or other means of communication.
(6) The commission shall meet at least once during each calendar year. Additional meetings shall be held as set forth in the bylaws.
(7) The commission shall establish by rule a term of office for delegates.
(C) The commission shall have the following powers and duties:
(1) establish a code of ethics for the commission;
(2) establish the fiscal year of the commission;
(3) establish bylaws;
(4) maintain its financial records in accordance with the bylaws;
(5) meet and take such actions as are consistent with the provisions of this compact and the bylaws;
(6) promulgate uniform rules to facilitate and coordinate implementation and administration of this compact. The rules shall have the force and effect of law and shall be binding in all member states;
(7) bring and prosecute legal proceedings or actions in the name of the commission, provided that the standing of any state occupational therapy licensing board to sue or be sued under applicable law shall not be affected;
(8) purchase and maintain insurance and bonds;
(9) borrow, accept, or contract for services of personnel, including but not limited to employees of a member state;
(10) hire employees, elect or appoint officers, fix compensation, define duties, grant such individuals appropriate authority to carry out the purposes of the compact, and establish the commission's personnel policies and programs relating to conflicts of interest, qualifications of personnel, and other related personnel matters;
(11) accept any and all appropriate donations and grants of money, equipment, supplies, materials, and services, and receive, utilize, and dispose of the same; provided that at all times the commission shall avoid any appearance of impropriety or conflict of interest;
(12) lease, purchase, accept appropriate gifts or donations of, or otherwise own, hold, improve, or use any property, real, personal, or mixed; provided that at all times the commission shall avoid any appearance of impropriety;
(13) sell, convey, mortgage, pledge, lease, exchange, abandon, or otherwise dispose of any property real, personal, or mixed;
(14) establish a budget and make expenditures;
(15) borrow money;
(16) appoint committees, including standing committees composed of members, state regulators, state legislators or their representatives, and consumer representatives, and other interested persons as may be designated in this compact and the bylaws;
(17) provide and receive information from, and cooperate with, law enforcement agencies;
(18) establish and elect an executive committee; and
(19) perform other functions as may be necessary or appropriate to achieve the purposes of this compact consistent with the state regulation of occupational therapy licensure and practice.
(D) The Executive Committee:
(1) The executive committee shall have the power to act on behalf of the commission according to the terms of this compact.
(2) The executive committee shall be composed of nine members:
(i) seven voting members who are elected by the commission from the current membership of the commission;
(ii) one ex-officio, nonvoting member from a recognized national occupational therapy professional association; and
(iii) one ex-officio, nonvoting member from a recognized national occupational therapy certification organization.
(3) The ex-officio members will be selected by their respective organizations.
(4) The commission may remove any member of the executive committee as provided in the bylaws.
(5) The executive committee shall meet at least annually.
(6) The executive committee shall have the following duties and responsibilities:
(i) recommend to the entire commission changes to the rules or bylaws, changes to this compact legislation, fees paid by compact member states such as annual dues, and any commission compact fee charged to licensees for the compact privilege;
(ii) ensure compact administration services are appropriately provided, contractual or otherwise;
(iii) prepare and recommend the budget;
(iv) maintain financial records on behalf of the commission;
(v) monitor compact compliance of member states and provide compliance reports to the commission;
(vi) establish additional committees as necessary; and
(vii) perform other duties as provided in rules or bylaws.
(E) Meetings of the Commission:
(1) All meetings shall be open to the public, and public notice of meetings shall be given in the same manner as required under the rulemaking provisions in Article X.
(2) The commission or the executive committee or other committees of the commission may convene in a closed, nonpublic meeting if the commission or executive committee or other committees of the commission must discuss:
(i) noncompliance of a member state with its obligations under the compact;
(ii) the employment, compensation, discipline, or other matters, practices, or procedures related to specific employees or other matters related to the commission's internal personnel practices and procedures;
(iii) current, threatened, or reasonably anticipated litigation;
(iv) negotiation of contracts for the purchase, lease, or sale of goods, services, or real estate;
(v) accusing any person of a crime or formally censuring any person;
(vi) disclosure of trade secrets or commercial or financial information that is privileged or confidential;
(vii) disclosure of information of a personal nature where disclosure would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy;
(viii) disclosure of investigative records compiled for law enforcement purposes;
(ix) disclosure of information related to any investigative reports prepared by or on behalf of or for use of the commission or other committee charged with responsibility of investigation or determination of compliance issues pursuant to the compact; or
(x) matters specifically exempted from disclosure by federal or member state statute.
(3) If a meeting, or portion of a meeting, is closed pursuant to this provision, the commission's legal counsel or designee shall certify that the meeting may be closed and shall reference each relevant exempting provision.
(4) The commission shall keep minutes that fully and clearly describe all matters discussed in a meeting and shall provide a full and accurate summary of actions taken, and the reasons therefore, including a description of the views expressed. All documents considered in connection with an action shall be identified in such minutes. All minutes and documents of a closed meeting shall remain under seal, subject to release by a majority vote of the commission or order of a court of competent jurisdiction.
(F) Financing of the Commission:
(1) The commission shall pay, or provide for the payment of, the reasonable expenses of its establishment, organization, and ongoing activities.
(2) The commission may accept any and all appropriate revenue sources, donations, and grants of money, equipment, supplies, materials, and services.
(3) The commission may levy on and collect an annual assessment from each member state or impose fees on other parties to cover the cost of the operations and activities of the commission and its staff, which must be in a total amount sufficient to cover its annual budget as approved by the commission each year for which revenue is not provided by other sources. The aggregate annual assessment amount shall be allocated based upon a formula to be determined by the commission, which shall promulgate a rule binding upon all member states.
(4) The commission shall not incur obligations of any kind prior to securing the funds adequate to meet the same; nor shall the commission pledge the credit of any of the member states, except by and with the authority of the member state.
(5) The commission shall keep accurate accounts of all receipts and disbursements. The receipts and disbursements of the commission shall be subject to the audit and accounting procedures established under its bylaws. However, all receipts and disbursements of funds handled by the commission shall be audited yearly by a certified or licensed public accountant, and the report of the audit shall be included in and become part of the annual report of the commission.
(G) Qualified Immunity, Defense, and Indemnification:
(1) The members, officers, executive director, employees, and representatives of the commission shall be immune from suit and liability, either personally or in their official capacity, for any claim for damage to or loss of property or personal injury or other civil liability caused by or arising out of any actual or alleged act, error, or omission that occurred, or that the person against whom the claim is made had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of commission employment, duties, or responsibilities; provided that nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to protect any such person from suit or liability for any damage, loss, injury, or liability caused by the intentional or willful or wanton misconduct of that person.
(2) The commission shall defend any member, officer, executive director, employee, or representative of the commission in any civil action seeking to impose liability arising out of any actual or alleged act, error, or omission that occurred within the scope of commission employment, duties, or responsibilities, or that the person against whom the claim is made had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of commission employment, duties, or responsibilities; provided that nothing herein shall be construed to prohibit that person from retaining their own counsel; and provided further, that the actual or alleged act, error, or omission did not result from that person's intentional or willful or wanton misconduct.
(3) The commission shall indemnify and hold harmless any member, officer, executive director, employee, or representative of the commission for the amount of any settlement or judgment obtained against that person arising out of any actual or alleged act, error, or omission that occurred within the scope of commission employment, duties, or responsibilities, or that such person had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of commission employment, duties, or responsibilities; provided that the actual or alleged act, error, or omission did not result from the intentional or willful or wanton misconduct of that person.
(H) Notwithstanding paragraph (G), clause (1), the liability of the executive director, employees, or representatives of the interstate commission, acting within the scope of their employment or duties, may not exceed the limits of liability set forth under the constitution and laws of this state for state officials, employees, and agents. This paragraph expressly incorporates section
Minn. Stat. § 148.699
148.699 PHYSICAL THERAPY LICENSURE COMPACT.
The physical therapy licensure compact is enacted into law and entered into with all other jurisdictions legally joining in the compact in the form substantially specified in this section.
ARTICLE I
TITLE
This statute shall be known and cited as the physical therapy licensure compact.
ARTICLE II
DEFINITIONS
As used in this compact, and except as otherwise provided, the following terms have the meanings given them.
(a) "Active duty military" means full-time duty status in the active uniformed service of the United States, including members of the National Guard and Reserve on active duty orders pursuant to United States Code, title 10, chapters 1209 and 1211.
(b) "Adverse action" means disciplinary action taken by a physical therapy licensing board based upon misconduct, unacceptable performance, or a combination of both.
(c) "Alternative program" means a nondisciplinary monitoring or practice remediation process approved by a physical therapy licensing board. Alternative program includes but is not limited to substance abuse issues.
(d) "Compact privilege" means the authorization granted by a remote state to allow a licensee from another member state to practice as a physical therapist or work as a physical therapist assistant in the remote state under its laws and rules. The practice of physical therapy occurs in the member state where the patient or client is located at the time of the patient or client encounter.
(e) "Continuing competence" means a requirement, as a condition of license renewal, to provide evidence of participation in, or completion of, educational and professional activities relevant to practice or area of work.
(f) "Data system" means a repository of information about licensees, including examination, licensure, investigative, compact privilege, and adverse action.
(g) "Encumbered license" means a license that a physical therapy licensing board has limited in any way.
(h) "Executive board" means a group of directors elected or appointed to act on behalf of, and within the powers granted to them by, the commission.
(i) "Home state" means the member state that is the licensee's primary state of residence.
(j) "Investigative information" means information, records, and documents received or generated by a physical therapy licensing board pursuant to an investigation.
(k) "Jurisprudence requirement" means the assessment of an individual's knowledge of the laws and rules governing the practice of physical therapy in a state.
(l) "Licensee" means an individual who currently holds an authorization from the state to practice as a physical therapist or to work as a physical therapist assistant.
(m) "Member state" means a state that has enacted the compact.
(n) "Party state" means any member state in which a licensee holds a current license or compact privilege or is applying for a license or compact privilege.
(o) "Physical therapist" means an individual who is licensed by a state to practice physical therapy.
(p) "Physical therapist assistant" means an individual who is licensed or certified by a state and who assists the physical therapist in selected components of physical therapy.
(q) "Physical therapy," "physical therapy practice," or "the practice of physical therapy" means the care and services provided by or under the direction and supervision of a licensed physical therapist.
(r) "Physical Therapy Compact Commission" or "commission" means the national administrative body whose membership consists of all states that have enacted the compact.
(s) "Physical therapy licensing board" or "licensing board" means the agency of a state that is responsible for the licensing and regulation of physical therapists and physical therapist assistants.
(t) "Remote state" means a member state other than the home state where a licensee is exercising or seeking to exercise the compact privilege.
(u) "Rule" means a regulation, principle, or directive promulgated by the commission that has the force of law.
(v) "State" means any state, commonwealth, district, or territory of the United States that regulates the practice of physical therapy.
ARTICLE III
STATE PARTICIPATION IN THE COMPACT
(a) To participate in the compact, a state must:
(1) participate fully in the commission's data system, including using the commission's unique identifier as defined in rules;
(2) have a mechanism in place for receiving and investigating complaints about licensees;
(3) notify the commission, in compliance with the terms of the compact and rules, of any adverse action or the availability of investigative information regarding a licensee;
(4) fully implement a criminal background check requirement, within a time frame established by rule, by receiving the results of the Federal Bureau of Investigation record search on criminal background checks and use the results in making licensure decisions in accordance with paragraph (b);
(5) comply with the rules of the commission;
(6) utilize a recognized national examination as a requirement for licensure pursuant to the rules of the commission; and
(7) have continuing competence requirements as a condition for license renewal.
(b) Upon adoption of this compact, the member state shall have the authority to obtain biometric-based information from each physical therapy licensure applicant and submit this information to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for a criminal background check in accordance with United States Code, title 28, section 534, and United States Code, title 42, section 14616.
(c) A member state shall grant the compact privilege to a licensee holding a valid unencumbered license in another member state in accordance with the terms of the compact and rules.
(d) Member states may charge a fee for granting a compact privilege.
ARTICLE IV
COMPACT PRIVILEGE
(a) To exercise the compact privilege under the terms and provisions of the compact, the licensee shall:
(1) hold a license in the home state;
(2) have no encumbrance on any state license;
(3) be eligible for a compact privilege in any member state in accordance with paragraphs (d), (g), and (h);
(4) have not had any adverse action against any license or compact privilege within the previous two years;
(5) notify the commission that the licensee is seeking the compact privilege within a remote state or states;
(6) pay any applicable fees, including any state fee, for the compact privilege;
(7) meet any jurisprudence requirements established by the remote state or states in which the licensee is seeking a compact privilege; and
(8) report to the commission adverse action taken by any nonmember state within 30 days from the date the adverse action is taken.
(b) The compact privilege is valid until the expiration date of the home license. The licensee must comply with the requirements of paragraph (a) to maintain the compact privilege in the remote state.
(c) A licensee providing physical therapy in a remote state under the compact privilege shall function within the laws and regulations of the remote state.
(d) A licensee providing physical therapy in a remote state is subject to that state's regulatory authority. A remote state may, in accordance with due process and that state's laws, remove a licensee's compact privilege in the remote state for a specific period of time, impose fines, or take any other necessary actions to protect the health and safety of its citizens. The licensee is not eligible for a compact privilege in any state until the specific time for removal has passed and all fines are paid.
(e) If a home state license is encumbered, the licensee shall lose the compact privilege in any remote state until the following occur:
(1) the home state license is no longer encumbered; and
(2) two years have elapsed from the date of the adverse action.
(f) Once an encumbered license in the home state is restored to good standing, the licensee must meet the requirements of paragraph (a) to obtain a compact privilege in any remote state.
(g) If a licensee's compact privilege in any remote state is removed, the individual shall lose the compact privilege in any remote state until the following occur:
(1) the specific period of time for which the compact privilege was removed has ended;
(2) all fines have been paid; and
(3) two years have elapsed from the date of the adverse action.
(h) Once the requirements of paragraph (g) have been met, the licensee must meet the requirements in paragraph (a) to obtain a compact privilege in a remote state.
ARTICLE V
ACTIVE DUTY MILITARY PERSONNEL OR THEIR SPOUSES
A licensee who is active duty military or is the spouse of an individual who is active duty military may designate one of the following as the home state:
(1) home of record;
(2) permanent change of station (PCS) state; or
(3) state of current residence if different than the PCS state or home of record.
ARTICLE VI
ADVERSE ACTIONS
(a) A home state shall have exclusive power to impose adverse action against a license issued by the home state.
(b) A home state may take adverse action based on the investigative information of a remote state, so long as the home state follows its own procedures for imposing adverse action.
(c) Nothing in this compact shall override a member state's decision that participation in an alternative program may be used in lieu of adverse action and that such participation shall remain nonpublic if required by the member state's laws. Member states must require licensees who enter any alternative programs in lieu of discipline to agree not to practice in any other member state during the term of the alternative program without prior authorization from such other member state.
(d) Any member state may investigate actual or alleged violations of the statutes and rules authorizing the practice of physical therapy in any other member state in which a physical therapist or physical therapist assistant holds a license or compact privilege.
(e) A remote state shall have the authority to:
(1) take adverse actions as set forth in article IV, paragraph (d), against a licensee's compact privilege in the state;
(2) issue subpoenas for both hearings and investigations that require the attendance and testimony of witnesses and the production of evidence. Subpoenas issued by a physical therapy licensing board in a party state for the attendance and testimony of witnesses, or the production of evidence from another party state, shall be enforced in the latter state by any court of competent jurisdiction, according to the practice and procedure of that court applicable to subpoenas issued in proceedings pending before it. The issuing authority shall pay any witness fees, travel expenses, mileage, and other fees required by the service statutes of the state where the witnesses or evidence are located; and
(3) if otherwise permitted by state law, recover from the licensee the costs of investigations and disposition of cases resulting from any adverse action taken against that licensee.
(f) In addition to the authority granted to a member state by its respective physical therapy practice act or other applicable state law, a member state may participate with other member states in joint investigations of licensees.
(g) Member states shall share any investigative, litigation, or compliance materials in furtherance of any joint or individual investigation initiated under the compact.
ARTICLE VII
ESTABLISHMENT OF THE PHYSICAL THERAPY COMPACT COMMISSION
(a) The compact member states hereby create and establish a joint public agency known as the Physical Therapy Compact Commission:
(1) the commission is an instrumentality of the compact states;
(2) except as provided under paragraph (h), venue is proper and judicial proceedings by or against the commission shall be brought solely and exclusively in a court of competent jurisdiction where the principal office of the commission is located. The commission may waive venue and jurisdictional defenses to the extent it adopts or consents to participate in alternative dispute resolution proceedings; and
(3) nothing in this compact shall be construed to be a waiver of sovereign immunity.
(b) Membership, voting, and meetings:
(1) each member state shall have and be limited to one delegate selected by that member state's licensing board;
(2) the delegate shall be a current member of the licensing board who is a physical therapist, physical therapist assistant, public member, or the board administrator;
(3) each delegate shall be entitled to one vote with regard to the promulgation of rules and creation of bylaws and shall otherwise have an opportunity to participate in the business and affairs of the commission;
(4) a delegate shall vote in person or by such other means as provided in the bylaws. The bylaws may provide for delegates' participation in meetings by telephone or other means of communication;
(5) any delegate may be removed or suspended from office as provided by the laws of the state from which the delegate is appointed;
(6) the member state board shall fill any vacancy occurring in the commission;
(7) the commission shall meet at least once during each calendar year. Additional meetings shall be held as set forth in the bylaws;
(8) all meetings shall be open to the public and public notice of meetings shall be given in the same manner as required under the rulemaking provisions in article IX;
(9) the commission or the executive board or other committees of the commission may convene in a closed, nonpublic meeting if the commission or executive board or other committees of the commission must discuss:
(i) noncompliance of a member state with its obligations under the compact;
(ii) the employment, compensation, discipline, or other matters, practices, or procedures related to specific employees or other matters related to the commission's internal personnel practices and procedures;
(iii) current, threatened, or reasonably anticipated litigation;
(iv) negotiation of contracts for the purchase, lease, or sale of goods, services, or real estate;
(v) accusing any person of a crime or formally censuring any person;
(vi) disclosure of trade secrets or commercial or financial information that is privileged or confidential;
(vii) disclosure of information of a personal nature where disclosure would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy;
(viii) disclosure of investigative records compiled for law enforcement purposes;
(ix) disclosure of information related to any investigative reports prepared by or on behalf of or for use of the commission or other committee charged with responsibility of investigation or determination of compliance issues pursuant to the compact; or
(x) matters specifically exempted from disclosure by federal or member state statute;
(10) if a meeting, or portion of a meeting, is closed pursuant to this provision, the commission's legal counsel or designee shall certify that the meeting may be closed and shall reference each relevant exempting provision; and
(11) the commission shall keep minutes that fully and clearly describe all matters discussed in a meeting and shall provide a full and accurate summary of actions taken and the reasons therefore, including a description of the views expressed. All documents considered in connection with an action shall be identified in such minutes. All minutes and documents of a closed meeting shall remain under seal, subject to release by a majority vote of the commission or order of a court of competent jurisdiction.
(c) The commission shall have the following powers and duties:
(1) establish the fiscal year of the commission;
(2) establish bylaws;
(3) maintain its financial records in accordance with the bylaws;
(4) meet and take such actions as are consistent with the provisions of this compact and the bylaws;
(5) promulgate uniform rules to facilitate and coordinate implementation and administration of this compact. The rules shall have the force and effect of law and shall be binding in all member states;
(6) bring and prosecute legal proceedings or actions in the name of the commission, provided that the standing of any state physical therapy licensing board to sue or be sued under applicable law shall not be affected;
(7) purchase and maintain insurance and bonds;
(8) borrow, accept, or contract for services of personnel, including but not limited to employees of a member state;
(9) hire employees; elect or appoint officers; fix compensation; define duties; grant such individuals appropriate authority to carry out the purposes of the compact; and establish the commission's personnel policies and programs relating to conflicts of interest, qualifications of personnel, and other related personnel matters;
(10) accept any and all appropriate donations and grants of money, equipment, supplies, materials, and services and receive, utilize, and dispose of the same, provided that at all times the commission shall avoid any appearance of impropriety or conflict of interest;
(11) lease; purchase; accept appropriate gifts or donations of; or otherwise to own, hold, improve, or use any property, real, personal, or mixed, provided that at all times the commission shall avoid any appearance of impropriety;
(12) sell, convey, mortgage, pledge, lease, exchange, abandon, or otherwise dispose of any property real, personal, or mixed;
(13) establish a budget and make expenditures;
(14) borrow money;
(15) appoint committees, including standing committees composed of members, state regulators, state legislators or their representatives, consumer representatives, and such other interested persons as may be designated in this compact and the bylaws;
(16) provide and receive information from, and cooperate with, law enforcement agencies;
(17) establish and elect an executive board; and
(18) perform such other functions as may be necessary or appropriate to achieve the purposes of this compact consistent with the state regulation of physical therapy licensure and practice.
(d) The executive board:
(1) the executive board shall have the power to act on behalf of the commission according to the terms of this compact;
(2) the executive board shall be composed of nine members as follows:
(i) seven voting members who are elected by the commission from the current membership of the commission;
(ii) one ex officio, nonvoting member from the recognized national physical therapy professional association; and
(iii) one ex officio, nonvoting member from the recognized membership organization of the physical therapy licensing boards;
(3) the ex officio members must be selected by their respective organizations;
(4) the commission may remove any member of the executive board as provided in the bylaws;
(5) the executive board shall meet at least annually; and
(6) the executive board shall have the following duties and responsibilities:
(i) recommend to the entire commission changes to the rules or bylaws, changes to this compact legislation, fees paid by compact member states such as annual dues, and any commission compact fee charged to licensees for the compact privilege;
(ii) ensure compact administration services are appropriately provided, contractual or otherwise;
(iii) prepare and recommend the budget;
(iv) maintain financial records on behalf of the commission;
(v) monitor compact compliance of member states and provide compliance reports to the commission;
(vi) establish additional committees as necessary; and
(vii) other duties as provided in rules or bylaws.
(e) Financing of the commission:
(1) the commission shall pay, or provide for the payment of, the reasonable expenses of the commission's establishment, organization, and ongoing activities;
(2) the commission may accept any and all appropriate revenue sources, donations, and grants of money, equipment, supplies, materials, and services;
(3) the commission may levy on and collect an annual assessment from each member state or impose fees on other parties to cover the cost of the operations and activities of the commission and the commission's staff, which must be in a total amount sufficient to cover its annual budget as approved each year for which revenue is not provided by other sources. The aggregate annual assessment amount shall be allocated based upon a formula to be determined by the commission, which shall promulgate a rule binding upon all member states;
(4) the commission shall not incur obligations of any kind prior to securing the funds adequate to meet the same; nor shall the commission pledge the credit of any of the member states, except by and with the authority of the member state; and
(5) the commission shall keep accurate accounts of all receipts and disbursements. The receipts and disbursements of the commission shall be subject to the audit and accounting procedures established under the commission's bylaws. However, all receipts and disbursements of funds handled by the commission shall be audited yearly by a certified or licensed public accountant and the report of the audit shall be included in and become part of the annual report of the commission.
(f) Qualified immunity, defense, and indemnification:
(1) the members, officers, executive director, employees, and representatives of the commission shall be immune from suit and liability, either personally or in their official capacity, for any claim for damage to or loss of property or personal injury or other civil liability caused by or arising out of any actual or alleged act, error, or omission that occurred, or that the person against whom the claim is made had a reasonable basis for believing occurred, within the scope of commission employment, duties, or responsibilities, provided that nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to protect any such person from suit or liability for any damage, loss, injury, or liability caused by the intentional or willful or wanton misconduct of that person;
(2) the commission shall defend any member, officer, executive director, employee, or representative of the commission in any civil action seeking to impose liability arising out of any actual or alleged act, error, or omission that occurred within the scope of commission employment, duties, or responsibilities, or that the person against whom the claim is made had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of commission employment, duties, or responsibilities, provided that nothing herein shall be construed to prohibit that person from retaining his or her own counsel, and provided further that the actual or alleged act, error, or omission did not result from the intentional or willful or wanton misconduct of that person; and
(3) the commission shall indemnify and hold harmless any member, officer, executive director, employee, or representative of the commission for the amount of any settlement or judgment obtained against that person arising out of any actual or alleged act, error, or omission that occurred within the scope of commission employment, duties, or responsibilities, or that such person had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of commission employment, duties, or responsibilities, provided that the actual or alleged act, error, or omission did not result from the intentional or willful or wanton misconduct of that person.
(g) Notwithstanding paragraph (f), clause (1), the liability of the executive director, employees, or representatives of the interstate commission, acting within the scope of their employment or duties, may not exceed the limits of liability set forth under the constitution and laws of this state for state officials, employees, and agents. This paragraph expressly incorporates section
Minn. Stat. § 148.9051
148.9051 PSYCHOLOGY INTERJURISDICTIONAL COMPACT (PSYPACT).
The psychology interjurisdictional compact is enacted into law and entered into with all other jurisdictions legally joining in it in the form substantially specified in this section.
ARTICLE I
PURPOSE
Whereas, states license psychologists, in order to protect the public through verification of education, training, and experience and ensure accountability for professional practice;
Whereas, this compact is intended to regulate the day to day practice of telepsychology by psychologists across state boundaries in the performance of their psychological practice as assigned by an appropriate authority;
Whereas, this compact is intended to regulate the temporary in-person, face-to-face practice of psychology by psychologists across state boundaries for 30 days within a calendar year in the performance of their psychological practice as assigned by an appropriate authority;
Whereas, this compact is intended to authorize state psychology regulatory authorities to afford legal recognition, in a manner consistent with the terms of the compact, to psychologists licensed in another state;
Whereas, this compact recognizes that states have a vested interest in protecting the public's health and safety through their licensing and regulation of psychologists and that such state regulation will best protect public health and safety;
Whereas, this compact does not apply when a psychologist is licensed in both the home and receiving states; and
Whereas, this compact does not apply to permanent in-person, face-to-face practice; it does allow for authorization of temporary psychological practice.
Consistent with these principles, this compact is designed to achieve the following purposes and objectives:
(1) increase public access to professional psychological services by allowing for telepsychological practice across state lines as well as temporary in-person, face-to-face services into a state where the psychologist is not licensed to practice psychology;
(2) enhance the states' ability to protect the public's health and safety, especially client and patient safety;
(3) encourage the cooperation of compact states in the areas of psychology licensure and regulation;
(4) facilitate the exchange of information between compact states regarding psychologist licensure, adverse actions, and disciplinary history;
(5) promote compliance with the laws governing psychological practice in each compact state; and
(6) invest all compact states with the authority to hold licensed psychologists accountable through the mutual recognition of compact state licenses.
ARTICLE II
DEFINITIONS
As used in this compact, the following terms have the meanings given them.
A. "Adverse action" means any action taken by a state psychology regulatory authority which finds a violation of a statute or regulation that is identified by the state psychology regulatory authority as discipline and is a matter of public record.
B. "Association of State and Provincial Psychology Boards" or "ASPPB" means the recognized membership organization composed of state and provincial psychology regulatory authorities responsible for the licensure and registration of psychologists throughout the United States and Canada.
C. "Authority to practice interjurisdictional telepsychology" means a licensed psychologist's authority to practice telepsychology, within the limits authorized under this compact, in another compact state.
D. "Bylaws" means those bylaws established by the Psychology Interjurisdictional Compact Commission pursuant to Article X for its governance or for directing and controlling its actions and conduct.
E. "Client" and "patient" mean the recipient of psychological services, including psychological services that are delivered in the context of health care, corporate, supervision, or consulting services.
F. "Commissioner" means the voting representative appointed by each state psychology regulatory authority pursuant to Article X.
G. "Compact state" means a state, the District of Columbia, or a United States territory that has enacted this compact legislation and which has not withdrawn pursuant to Article XIII, section C, or been terminated pursuant to Article XII, section B.
H. "Coordinated Licensure Information System" also referred to as "coordinated database" means an integrated process for collecting, storing, and sharing information on psychologists' licensure and enforcement activities related to psychology licensure laws, which is administered by the recognized membership organization composed of state and provincial psychology regulatory authorities.
I. "Confidentiality" means data or information is not made available or disclosed to unauthorized persons or processes.
J. "Day" means any part of a day in which psychological work is performed.
K. "Distant state" means the compact state where a psychologist is physically present to provide temporary in-person, face-to-face psychological services, not through the use of telecommunications technologies.
L. "E.Passport" means a certificate issued by the ASPPB that promotes the standardization in the criteria of interjurisdictional telepsychology practice and facilitates the process for licensed psychologists to provide telepsychological services across state lines.
M. "Executive Board" means a group of directors elected or appointed to act on behalf of and within the powers granted to them by the commission.
N. "Home state" means a compact state where a psychologist is licensed to practice psychology. If the psychologist is licensed in more than one compact state and is practicing under the authorization to practice interjurisdictional telepsychology, the home state is the compact state where the psychologist is physically present when the telepsychological services are delivered. If the psychologist is licensed in more than one compact state and is practicing under the temporary authorization to practice, the home state is any compact state where the psychologist is licensed.
O. "Identity history summary" means a summary of information retained by the FBI, or other designee with similar authority, in connection with arrests and, in some instances, federal employment, naturalization, or military service.
P. "In-person, face-to-face" means interactions in which the psychologist and the client or patient are in the same physical space and does not include interactions that may occur through the use of telecommunication technologies.
Q. "Interjurisdictional Practice Certificate" or "IPC" means a certificate issued by ASPPB that grants temporary authority to practice based on notification to the state psychology regulatory authority of the intention to practice temporarily and the verification of the psychologist's qualifications for such practice.
R. "License" means authorization by a state psychology regulatory authority to engage in the independent practice of psychology, which would be unlawful without the authorization.
S. "Noncompact state" means any state which is not at the time a compact state.
T. "Psychologist" means an individual licensed for the independent practice of psychology.
U. "Psychology Interjurisdictional Compact Commission" also referred to as "commission" means the national administration of which all compact states are members.
V. "Receiving state" means a compact state where the client or patient is physically located when the telepsychological services are delivered.
W. "Rule" means a written statement by the Psychology Interjurisdictional Compact Commission that is promulgated pursuant to Article XI and is of general applicability and implements, interprets, or prescribes a policy or provision of the compact, or an organizational, procedural, or practice requirement of the commission, and that has the force and effect of a statutory law in a compact state, and that includes the amendment, repeal, or suspension of an existing rule.
X. "Significant investigatory information" means:
(1) investigative information that a state psychology regulatory authority, after a preliminary inquiry that includes notification and an opportunity to respond if required by state law, has reason to believe, if proven true, would indicate more than a violation of state statute or ethics code and that would be considered more substantial than a minor infraction; or
(2) investigative information that indicates the psychologist represents an immediate threat to public health and safety regardless of whether the psychologist has been notified and had an opportunity to respond.
Y. "State" means a state, commonwealth, territory, or possession of the United States; or the District of Columbia.
Z. "State psychology regulatory authority" means the board, office, or other agency with the legislative mandate to license and regulate the practice of psychology.
AA. "Telepsychology" means the provision of psychological services using telecommunication technologies.
BB. "Temporary authorization to practice" means a licensed psychologist's authority to conduct temporary in-person, face-to-face practice, within the limits authorized under this compact, in another compact state.
CC. "Temporary in-person, face-to-face practice" means a psychologist is physically present, and not through the use of telecommunications technologies, in the distant state to provide for the practice of psychology for 30 days within a calendar year and is based on notification to the distant state.
ARTICLE III
HOME STATE LICENSURE
A. The home state shall be a compact state where a psychologist is licensed to practice psychology.
B. A psychologist may hold one or more compact state licenses at a time. If the psychologist is licensed in more than one compact state, the home state is the compact state where the psychologist is physically present when the services are delivered as authorized by the authority to practice interjurisdictional telepsychology under the terms of this compact.
C. Any compact state may require a psychologist not previously licensed in a compact state to obtain and retain a license to be authorized to practice in the compact state under circumstances not authorized by the authority to practice interjurisdictional telepsychology under the terms of this compact.
D. Any compact state may require a psychologist to obtain and retain a license to be authorized to practice in a compact state under circumstances not authorized by temporary authorization to practice under the terms of this compact.
E. A home state's license authorizes a psychologist to practice in a receiving state under the authority to practice interjurisdictional telepsychology only if the compact state:
(1) currently requires the psychologist to hold an active E.Passport;
(2) has a mechanism in place for receiving and investigating complaints about licensed individuals;
(3) notifies the commission, in compliance with the terms herein, of any adverse action or significant investigatory information regarding a licensed individual;
(4) requires an identity history summary of all applicants at initial licensure, including the use of the results of fingerprints or other biometric data checks compliant with the requirements of the FBI or other designee with similar authority, no later than ten years after activation of the compact; and
(5) complies with the bylaws and rules of the commission.
F. A home state's license grants temporary authorization to practice to a psychologist in a distant state only if the compact state:
(1) currently requires the psychologist to hold an active IPC;
(2) has a mechanism in place for receiving and investigating complaints about licensed individuals;
(3) notifies the commission, in compliance with the terms herein, of any adverse action or significant investigatory information regarding a licensed individual;
(4) requires an identity history summary of all applicants at initial licensure, including the use of the results of fingerprints or other biometric data checks compliant with the requirements of the FBI or other designee with similar authority, no later than ten years after activation of the compact; and
(5) complies with the bylaws and rules of the commission.
ARTICLE IV
COMPACT PRIVILEGE TO PRACTICE TELEPSYCHOLOGY
A. Compact states shall recognize the right of a psychologist, licensed in a compact state in conformance with Article III, to practice telepsychology in other compact states (receiving states) in which the psychologist is not licensed, under the authority to practice interjurisdictional telepsychology as provided in the compact.
B. To exercise the authority to practice interjurisdictional telepsychology under the terms and provisions of this compact, a psychologist licensed to practice in a compact state must:
(1) hold a graduate degree in psychology from an institute of higher education that was, at the time the degree was awarded:
(a) regionally accredited by an accrediting body recognized by the U.S. Department of Education to grant graduate degrees, or authorized by Provincial Statute or Royal Charter to grant doctoral degrees; or
(b) a foreign college or university deemed to be equivalent to item (a) by a foreign credential evaluation service that is a member of the National Association of Credential Evaluation Services (NACES) or by a recognized foreign credential evaluation service;
(2) hold a graduate degree in psychology that meets the following criteria:
(a) the program, wherever it may be administratively housed, must be clearly identified and labeled as a psychology program. Such a program must specify in pertinent institutional catalogues and brochures its intent to educate and train professional psychologists;
(b) the psychology program must stand as a recognizable, coherent, organizational entity within the institution;
(c) there must be a clear authority and primary responsibility for the core and specialty areas whether or not the program cuts across administrative lines;
(d) the program must consist of an integrated, organized sequence of study;
(e) there must be an identifiable psychology faculty sufficient in size and breadth to carry out its responsibilities;
(f) the designated director of the program must be a psychologist and a member of the core faculty;
(g) the program must have an identifiable body of students who are matriculated in that program for a degree;
(h) the program must include supervised practicum, internship, or field training appropriate to the practice of psychology;
(i) the curriculum shall encompass a minimum of three academic years of full-time graduate study for doctoral degrees and a minimum of one academic year of full-time graduate study for a master's degree; and
(j) the program includes an acceptable residency as defined by the rules of the commission;
(3) possess a current, full, and unrestricted license to practice psychology in a home state which is a compact state;
(4) have no history of adverse action that violates the rules of the commission;
(5) have no criminal record history reported on an identity history summary that violates the rules of the commission;
(6) possess a current, active E.Passport;
(7) provide attestations in regard to areas of intended practice, conformity with standards of practice, competence in telepsychology technology; criminal background; and knowledge and adherence to legal requirements in the home and receiving states, and provide a release of information to allow for primary source verification in a manner specified by the commission; and
(8) meet other criteria as defined by the rules of the commission.
C. The home state maintains authority over the license of any psychologist practicing into a receiving state under the authority to practice interjurisdictional telepsychology.
D. A psychologist practicing into a receiving state under the authority to practice interjurisdictional telepsychology will be subject to the receiving state's scope of practice. A receiving state may, in accordance with that state's due process law, limit or revoke a psychologist's authority to practice interjurisdictional telepsychology in the receiving state and may take any other necessary actions under the receiving state's applicable law to protect the health and safety of the receiving state's citizens. If a receiving state takes action, the state shall promptly notify the home state and the commission.
E. If a psychologist's license in any home state, another compact state, or any authority to practice interjurisdictional telepsychology in any receiving state, is restricted, suspended, or otherwise limited, the E.Passport shall be revoked and therefore the psychologist shall not be eligible to practice telepsychology in a compact state under the authority to practice interjurisdictional telepsychology.
ARTICLE V
COMPACT TEMPORARY AUTHORIZATION TO PRACTICE
A. Compact states shall also recognize the right of a psychologist, licensed in a compact state in conformance with Article III, to practice temporarily in other compact states or distant states in which the psychologist is not licensed, as provided in the compact.
B. To exercise the temporary authorization to practice under the terms and provisions of this compact, a psychologist licensed to practice in a compact state must:
(1) hold a graduate degree in psychology from an institute of higher education that was, at the time the degree was awarded:
(a) regionally accredited by an accrediting body recognized by the U.S. Department of Education to grant graduate degrees, or authorized by Provincial Statute or Royal Charter to grant doctoral degrees; or
(b) a foreign college or university deemed to be equivalent to item (a) by a foreign credential evaluation service that is a member of the National Association of Credential Evaluation Services (NACES) or by a recognized foreign credential evaluation service;
(2) hold a graduate degree in psychology that meets the following criteria:
(a) the program, wherever it may be administratively housed, must be clearly identified and labeled as a psychology program. Such a program must specify in pertinent institutional catalogues and brochures its intent to educate and train professional psychologists;
(b) the psychology program must stand as a recognizable, coherent, organizational entity within the institution;
(c) there must be a clear authority and primary responsibility for the core and specialty areas whether or not the program cuts across administrative lines;
(d) the program must consist of an integrated, organized sequence of study;
(e) there must be an identifiable psychology faculty sufficient in size and breadth to carry out its responsibilities;
(f) the designated director of the program must be a psychologist and a member of the core faculty;
(g) the program must have an identifiable body of students who are matriculated in that program for a degree;
(h) the program must include supervised practicum, internship, or field training appropriate to the practice of psychology;
(i) the curriculum shall encompass a minimum of three academic years of full-time graduate study for doctoral degrees and a minimum of one academic year of full-time graduate study for a master's degree; and
(j) the program includes an acceptable residency as defined by the rules of the commission;
(3) possess a current, full, and unrestricted license to practice psychology in a home state which is a compact state;
(4) have no history of adverse action that violate the rules of the commission;
(5) have no criminal record history that violates the rules of the commission;
(6) possess a current, active IPC;
(7) provide attestations in regard to areas of intended practice and work experience and provide a release of information to allow for primary source verification in a manner specified by the commission; and
(8) meet other criteria as defined by the rules of the commission.
C. A psychologist practicing into a distant state under the temporary authorization to practice shall practice within the scope of practice authorized by the distant state.
D. A psychologist practicing in a distant state under the temporary authorization to practice will be subject to the distant state's authority and law. A distant state may, in accordance with that state's due process law, limit or revoke a psychologist's temporary authorization to practice in the distant state and may take any other necessary actions under the distant state's applicable law to protect the health and safety of the distant state's citizens. If a distant state takes action, the state shall promptly notify the home state and the commission.
E. If a psychologist's license in any home state, another compact state, or any temporary authorization to practice in any distant state, is restricted, suspended, or otherwise limited, the IPC shall be revoked and the psychologist shall not be eligible to practice in a compact state under the temporary authorization to practice.
ARTICLE VI
CONDITIONS OF TELEPSYCHOLOGY PRACTICE IN A RECEIVING STATE
A psychologist may practice in a receiving state under the authority to practice interjurisdictional telepsychology only in the performance of the scope of practice for psychology as assigned by an appropriate state psychology regulatory authority, as defined in the rules of the commission, and under the following circumstances:
(1) the psychologist initiates a client or patient contact in a home state via telecommunications technologies with a client or patient in a receiving state; and
(2) according to other conditions regarding telepsychology as determined by rules promulgated by the commission.
ARTICLE VII
ADVERSE ACTIONS
A. A home state shall have the power to impose adverse action against a psychologist's license issued by the home state. A distant state shall have the power to take adverse action on a psychologist's temporary authorization to practice within that distant state.
B. A receiving state may take adverse action on a psychologist's authority to practice interjurisdictional telepsychology within that receiving state. A home state may take adverse action against a psychologist based on an adverse action taken by a distant state regarding temporary in-person, face-to-face practice.
C. If a home state takes adverse action against a psychologist's license, that psychologist's authority to practice interjurisdictional telepsychology is terminated and the E.Passport is revoked. Furthermore, that psychologist's temporary authorization to practice is terminated and the IPC is revoked.
(1) All home state disciplinary orders which impose adverse action shall be reported to the commission in accordance with the rules promulgated by the commission. A compact state shall report adverse actions in accordance with the rules of the commission.
(2) In the event discipline is reported on a psychologist, the psychologist will not be eligible for telepsychology or temporary in-person, face-to-face practice in accordance with the rules of the commission.
(3) Other actions may be imposed as determined by the rules promulgated by the commission.
D. A home state's psychology regulatory authority shall investigate and take appropriate action with respect to reported inappropriate conduct engaged in by a licensee which occurred in a receiving state as it would if such conduct had occurred by a licensee within the home state. In such cases, the home state's law shall control in determining any adverse action against a psychologist's license.
E. A distant state's psychology regulatory authority shall investigate and take appropriate action with respect to reported inappropriate conduct engaged in by a psychologist practicing under temporary authorization to practice which occurred in that distant state as it would if such conduct had occurred by a licensee within the home state. In such cases, the distant state's law shall control in determining any adverse action against a psychologist's temporary authorization to practice.
F. Nothing in this compact shall override a compact state's decision that a psychologist's participation in an alternative program may be used in lieu of adverse action and that such participation shall remain nonpublic if required by the compact state's law. Compact states must require psychologists who enter any alternative programs to not provide telepsychology services under the authority to practice interjurisdictional telepsychology or provide temporary psychological services under the temporary authorization to practice in any other compact state during the term of the alternative program.
G. No other judicial or administrative remedies shall be available to a psychologist in the event a compact state imposes an adverse action pursuant to paragraph C.
ARTICLE VIII
ADDITIONAL AUTHORITIES INVESTED IN A COMPACT STATE'S PSYCHOLOGY REGULATORY AUTHORITY
A. In addition to any other powers granted under state law, a compact state's psychology regulatory authority shall have the authority under this compact to:
(1) issue subpoenas, for both hearings and investigations, which require the attendance and testimony of witnesses and the production of evidence. Subpoenas issued by a compact state's psychology regulatory authority for the attendance and testimony of witnesses, and the production of evidence from another compact state shall be enforced in the latter state by any court of competent jurisdiction, according to that court's practice and procedure in considering subpoenas issued in its own proceedings. The issuing state psychology regulatory authority shall pay any witness fees, travel expenses, mileage, and other fees required by the service statutes of the state where the witnesses or evidence are located; and
(2) issue cease and desist or injunctive relief orders to revoke a psychologist's authority to practice interjurisdictional telepsychology or temporary authorization to practice.
B. During the course of any investigation, a psychologist may not change the psychologist's home state licensure. A home state psychology regulatory authority is authorized to complete any pending investigations of a psychologist and to take any actions appropriate under its law. The home state psychology regulatory authority shall promptly report the conclusions of such investigations to the commission. Once an investigation has been completed, and pending the outcome of the investigation, the psychologist may change the psychologist's home state licensure. The commission shall promptly notify the new home state of any such decisions as provided in the rules of the commission. All information provided to the commission or distributed by compact states pursuant to the psychologist shall be confidential, filed under seal, and used for investigatory or disciplinary matters. The commission may create additional rules for mandated or discretionary sharing of information by compact states.
ARTICLE IX
COORDINATED LICENSURE INFORMATION SYSTEM
A. The commission shall provide for the development and maintenance of a coordinated licensure information system, coordinated database, and reporting system containing licensure and disciplinary action information on all psychologists to whom this compact is applicable in all compact states as defined by the rules of the commission.
B. Notwithstanding any other provision of state law to the contrary, a compact state shall submit a uniform data set to the coordinated database on all licensees as required by the rules of the commission, including:
(1) identifying information;
(2) licensure data;
(3) significant investigatory information;
(4) adverse actions against a psychologist's license;
(5) an indicator that a psychologist's authority to practice interjurisdictional telepsychology and temporary authorization to practice is revoked;
(6) nonconfidential information related to alternative program participation information;
(7) any denial of application for licensure and the reasons for the denial; and
(8) other information which may facilitate the administration of this compact, as determined by the rules of the commission.
C. The coordinated database administrator shall promptly notify all compact states of any adverse action taken against or significant investigative information on any licensee in a compact state.
D. Compact states reporting information to the coordinated database may designate information that may not be shared with the public without the express permission of the compact state reporting the information.
E. Any information submitted to the coordinated database that is subsequently required to be expunged by the law of the compact state reporting the information shall be removed from the coordinated database.
ARTICLE X
ESTABLISHMENT OF THE PSYCHOLOGY INTERJURISDICTIONAL COMPACT COMMISSION
A. The compact states hereby create and establish a joint public agency known as the Psychology Interjurisdictional Compact Commission.
(1) The commission is a body politic and an instrumentality of the compact states.
(2) Venue is proper and judicial proceedings by or against the commission shall be brought solely and exclusively in a court of competent jurisdiction where the principal office of the commission is located. The commission may waive venue and jurisdictional defenses to the extent it adopts or consents to participate in alternative dispute resolution proceedings.
(3) Nothing in this compact shall be construed to be a waiver of sovereign immunity.
B. Membership, voting, and meetings:
(1) The commission shall consist of one voting representative appointed by each compact state who shall serve as that state's commissioner. The state psychology regulatory authority shall appoint its delegate. This delegate shall be empowered to act on behalf of the compact state. This delegate shall be limited to:
(a) executive director, executive secretary, or similar executive;
(b) current member of the state psychology regulatory authority of a compact state; or
(c) designee empowered with the appropriate delegate authority to act on behalf of the compact state.
(2) Any commissioner may be removed or suspended from office as provided by the law of the state from which the commissioner is appointed. Any vacancy occurring in the commission shall be filled in accordance with the laws of the compact state in which the vacancy exists.
(3) Each commissioner shall be entitled to one vote with regard to the promulgation of rules and creation of bylaws and shall otherwise have an opportunity to participate in the business and affairs of the commission. A commissioner shall vote in person or by other means as provided in the bylaws. The bylaws may provide for commissioners' participation in meetings by telephone or other means of communication.
(4) The commission shall meet at least once during each calendar year. Additional meetings shall be held as set forth in the bylaws.
(5) All meetings shall be open to the public, and public notice of meetings shall be given in the same manner as required under the rulemaking provisions in Article XI.
(6) The commission may convene in a closed, nonpublic meeting if the commission must discuss:
(a) non-compliance of a compact state with its obligations under the compact;
(b) employment, compensation, discipline, or other personnel matters, practices or procedures related to specific employees, or other matters related to the commission's internal personnel practices and procedures;
(c) current, threatened, or reasonably anticipated litigation against the commission;
(d) negotiation of contracts for the purchase or sale of goods, services, or real estate;
(e) accusation against any person of a crime or formally censuring any person;
(f) disclosure of trade secrets or commercial or financial information which is privileged or confidential;
(g) disclosure of information of a personal nature where disclosure would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy;
(h) disclosure of investigatory records compiled for law enforcement purposes;
(i) disclosure of information related to any investigatory reports prepared by or on behalf of or for use of the commission or other committee charged with responsibility for investigation or determination of compliance issues pursuant to the compact; or
(j) matters specifically exempted from disclosure by federal and state statute.
(7) If a meeting, or portion of a meeting, is closed pursuant to this provision, the commission's legal counsel or designee shall certify that the meeting may be closed and shall reference each relevant exempting provision. The commission shall keep minutes which fully and clearly describe all matters discussed in a meeting and shall provide a full and accurate summary of actions taken by any person participating in the meeting and the reasons therefore, including a description of the views expressed. All documents considered in connection with an action shall be identified in such minutes. All minutes and documents of a closed meeting shall remain under seal, subject to release only by a majority vote of the commission or order of a court of competent jurisdiction.
C. The commission shall, by a majority vote of the commissioners, prescribe bylaws and rules to govern its conduct as may be necessary or appropriate to carry out the purposes and exercise the powers of the compact, including but not limited to:
(1) establishing the fiscal year of the commission;
(2) providing reasonable standards and procedures:
(a) for the establishment and meetings of other committees; and
(b) governing any general or specific delegation of any authority or function of the commission;
(3) providing reasonable procedures for calling and conducting meetings of the commission, ensuring reasonable advance notice of all meetings and providing an opportunity for attendance of such meetings by interested parties, with enumerated exceptions designed to protect the public's interest, the privacy of individuals of such proceedings, and proprietary information, including trade secrets. The commission may meet in closed session only after a majority of the commissioners vote to close a meeting to the public in whole or in part. As soon as practicable, the commission must make public a copy of the vote to close the meeting revealing the vote of each commissioner with no proxy votes allowed;
(4) establishing the titles, duties, authority, and reasonable procedures for the election of the officers of the commission;
(5) providing reasonable standards and procedures for the establishment of the personnel policies and programs of the commission. Notwithstanding any civil service or other similar law of any compact state, the bylaws shall exclusively govern the personnel policies and programs of the commission;
(6) promulgating a code of ethics to address permissible and prohibited activities of commission members and employees;
(7) providing a mechanism for concluding the operations of the commission and the equitable disposition of any surplus funds that may exist after the termination of the compact after the payment and reserving of all of its debts and obligations;
(8) the commission shall publish its bylaws in a convenient form and file a copy thereof and a copy of any amendment thereto, with the appropriate agency or officer in each of the compact states;
(9) the commission shall maintain its financial records in accordance with the bylaws; and
(10) the commission shall meet and take such actions as are consistent with the provisions of this compact and the bylaws.
D. The commission shall have the following powers:
(1) the authority to promulgate uniform rules to facilitate and coordinate implementation and administration of this compact. The rules shall have the force and effect of law and shall be binding in all compact states;
(2) to bring and prosecute legal proceedings or actions in the name of the commission, provided that the standing of any state psychology regulatory authority or other regulatory body responsible for psychology licensure to sue or be sued under applicable law shall not be affected;
(3) to purchase and maintain insurance and bonds;
(4) to borrow, accept, or contract for services of personnel, including but not limited to employees of a compact state;
(5) to hire employees, elect or appoint officers, fix compensation, define duties, grant such individuals appropriate authority to carry out the purposes of the compact, and establish the commission's personnel policies and programs relating to conflicts of interest, qualifications of personnel, and other related personnel matters;
(6) to accept any and all appropriate donations and grants of money; donations of equipment, supplies, materials, and services; and receive, utilize, and dispose of the same provided that at all times the commission shall strive to avoid any appearance of impropriety or conflict of interest;
(7) to lease, purchase, accept appropriate gifts or donations of, or otherwise to own, hold, improve, or use any property, real, personal, or mixed; provided that at all times the commission shall strive to avoid any appearance of impropriety;
(8) to sell, convey, mortgage, pledge, lease, exchange, abandon, or otherwise dispose of any property, real, personal, or mixed;
(9) to establish a budget and make expenditures;
(10) to borrow money;
(11) to appoint committees, including advisory committees comprised of members, state regulators, state legislators or their representatives, and consumer representatives, and such other interested persons as may be designated in this compact and the bylaws;
(12) to provide and receive information from, and to cooperate with, law enforcement agencies;
(13) to adopt and use an official seal; and
(14) to perform such other functions as may be necessary or appropriate to achieve the purposes of this compact consistent with the state regulation of psychology licensure, temporary in-person, face-to-face practice, and telepsychology practice.
E. The Executive Board:
The elected officers shall serve as the Executive Board, which shall have the power to act on behalf of the commission according to the terms of this compact.
(1) The Executive Board shall be comprised of six members:
(a) five voting members who are elected by the commission from the current membership of the commission; and
(b) one ex-officio, nonvoting member from the recognized membership organization composed of state and provincial psychology regulatory authorities.
(2) The ex-officio member must have served as staff or member on a state psychology regulatory authority and will be selected by its respective organization.
(3) The commission may remove any member of the Executive Board as provided in the bylaws.
(4) The Executive Board shall meet at least annually.
(5) The Executive Board shall have the following duties and responsibilities:
(a) recommend to the entire commission changes to the rules or bylaws, changes to this compact legislation, fees paid by compact states such as annual dues, and any other applicable fees;
(b) ensure compact administration services are appropriately provided, contractual or otherwise;
(c) prepare and recommend the budget;
(d) maintain financial records on behalf of the commission;
(e) monitor compact compliance of member states and provide compliance reports to the commission;
(f) establish additional committees as necessary; and
(g) other duties as provided in rules or bylaws.
F. Financing of the commission:
(1) The commission shall pay, or provide for the payment of the reasonable expenses of its establishment, organization, and ongoing activities.
(2) The commission may accept any and all appropriate revenue sources including donations and grants of money, and donations of equipment, supplies, materials, and services.
(3) The commission may levy on and collect an annual assessment from each compact state or impose fees on other parties to cover the cost of the operations and activities of the commission and its staff which must be in a total amount sufficient to cover its annual budget as approved each year for which revenue is not provided by other sources. The aggregate annual assessment amount shall be allocated based upon a formula to be determined by the commission which shall promulgate a rule binding upon all compact states.
(4) The commission shall not incur obligations of any kind prior to securing the funds adequate to meet the same; nor shall the commission pledge the credit of any of the compact states, except by and with the authority of the compact state.
(5) The commission shall keep accurate accounts of all receipts and disbursements. The receipts and disbursements of the commission shall be subject to the audit and accounting procedures established under its bylaws. However, all receipts and disbursements of funds handled by the commission shall be audited yearly by a certified or licensed public accountant and the report of the audit shall be included in and become part of the annual report of the commission.
G. Qualified immunity, defense, and indemnification:
(1) The members, officers, executive director, employees, and representatives of the commission shall be immune from suit and liability, either personally or in their official capacity, for any claim for damage to or loss of property or personal injury or other civil liability caused by or arising out of any actual or alleged act, error, or omission that occurred, or that the person against whom the claim is made had a reasonable basis for believing occurred, within the scope of commission employment, duties, or responsibilities; provided that nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to protect any such person from suit and liability for any damage, loss, injury, or liability caused by the intentional, willful, or wanton misconduct of that person.
(2) The commission shall defend any member, officer, executive director, employee, or representative of the commission in any civil action seeking to impose liability arising out of any actual or alleged act, error, or omission that occurred within the scope of commission employment, duties, or responsibilities, or that the person against whom the claim is made had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of commission employment, duties, or responsibilities; provided that nothing herein shall be construed to prohibit that person from retaining his or her own counsel; and provided further, that the actual or alleged act, error, or omission did not result from that person's intentional, willful, or wanton misconduct.
(3) The commission shall indemnify and hold harmless any member, officer, executive director, employee, or representative of the commission for the amount of any settlement or judgment obtained against that person arising out of any actual or alleged act, error, or omission that occurred within the scope of commission employment, duties, or responsibilities, or that such person had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of commission employment, duties, or responsibilities; provided that the actual or alleged act, error, or omission did not result from the intentional, willful, or wanton misconduct of that person.
ARTICLE XI
RULEMAKING
A. The commission shall exercise its rulemaking powers pursuant to the criteria set forth in this article and the rules adopted thereunder. Rules and amendments shall become binding as of the date specified in each rule or amendment.
B. If a majority of the legislatures of the compact states rejects a rule, by enactment of a statute or resolution in the same manner used to adopt the compact, then such rule shall have no further force and effect in any compact state.
C. Rules or amendments to the rules shall be adopted at a regular or special meeting of the commission.
D. Prior to promulgation and adoption of a final rule or rules by the commission, and at least 60 days in advance of the meeting at which the rule will be considered and voted upon, the commission shall file a notice of proposed rulemaking:
(1) on the website of the commission; and
(2) on the website of each compact state's psychology regulatory authority or the publication in which each state would otherwise publish proposed rules.
E. The notice of proposed rulemaking shall include:
(1) the proposed time, date, and location of the meeting in which the rule will be considered and voted upon;
(2) the text of the proposed rule or amendment and the reason for the proposed rule;
(3) a request for comments on the proposed rule from any interested person; and
(4) the manner in which interested persons may submit notice to the commission of their intention to attend the public hearing and any written comments.
F. Prior to adoption of a proposed rule, the commission shall allow persons to submit written data, facts, opinions, and arguments, which shall be made available to the public.
G. The commission shall grant an opportunity for a public hearing before it adopts a rule or amendment if a hearing is requested by:
(1) at least 25 persons who submit comments independently of each other;
(2) a governmental subdivision or agency; or
(3) a duly appointed person in an association that has at least 25 members.
H. If a hearing is held on the proposed rule or amendment, the commission shall publish the place, time, and date of the scheduled public hearing.
(1) All persons wishing to be heard at the hearing shall notify the executive director of the commission or other designated member in writing of their desire to appear and testify at the hearing not less than five business days before the scheduled date of the hearing.
(2) Hearings shall be conducted in a manner providing each person who wishes to comment a fair and reasonable opportunity to comment orally or in writing.
(3) No transcript of the hearing is required, unless a written request for a transcript is made, in which case the person requesting the transcript shall bear the cost of producing the transcript. A recording may be made in lieu of a transcript under the same terms and conditions as a transcript. This subsection shall not preclude the commission from making a transcript or recording of the hearing if it so chooses.
(4) Nothing in this section shall be construed as requiring a separate hearing on each rule. Rules may be grouped for the convenience of the commission at hearings required by this section.
I. Following the scheduled hearing date, or by the close of business on the scheduled hearing date if the hearing was not held, the commission shall consider all written and oral comments received.
J. The commission shall, by majority vote of all members, take final action on the proposed rule and shall determine the effective date of the
Minn. Stat. § 148B.75
148B.75 LICENSED PROFESSIONAL COUNSELOR INTERSTATE COMPACT.
The licensed professional counselor interstate compact is enacted into law and entered into with all other jurisdictions legally joining in it, in the form substantially specified in this section.
ARTICLE I
TITLE
This statute shall be known and cited as the professional counselors licensure compact.
ARTICLE II
DEFINITIONS
(a) As used in this compact, and except as otherwise provided, the following definitions shall apply.
(b) "Active duty military" means full-time duty status in the active uniformed service of the United States, including members of the national guard and reserve on active duty orders pursuant to United States Code, title 10, chapters 1209 and 1211.
(c) "Adverse action" means any administrative, civil, equitable, or criminal action permitted by a state's laws which is imposed by a licensing board or other authority against a licensed professional counselor, including actions against an individual's license or privilege to practice such as revocation, suspension, probation, monitoring of the licensee, limitation on the licensee's practice, or any other encumbrance on licensure affecting a licensed professional counselor's authorization to practice, including issuance of a cease and desist action.
(d) "Alternative program" means a non-disciplinary monitoring or practice remediation process approved by a professional counseling licensing board to address impaired practitioners.
(e) "Continuing competence" and "continuing education" means a requirement, as a condition of license renewal, to provide evidence of participation in, or completion of, educational and professional activities relevant to practice or area of work.
(f) "Counseling compact commission" or "commission" means the national administrative body whose membership consists of all states that have enacted the compact.
(g) "Current significant investigative information" means:
(1) investigative information that a licensing board, after a preliminary inquiry that includes notification and an opportunity for the licensed professional counselor to respond, if required by state law, has reason to believe is not groundless and, if proved true, would indicate more than a minor infraction; or
(2) investigative information that indicates that the licensed professional counselor represents an immediate threat to public health and safety regardless of whether the licensed professional counselor has been notified and had an opportunity to respond.
(h) "Data system" means a repository of information about licensees, including but not limited to continuing education, examination, licensure, investigative, privilege to practice, and adverse action information.
(i) "Encumbered license" means a license in which an adverse action restricts the practice of licensed professional counseling by the licensee and said adverse action has been reported to the National Practitioners Data Bank (NPDB).
(j) "Encumbrance" means a revocation or suspension of, or any limitation on, the full and unrestricted practice of licensed professional counseling by a licensing board.
(k) "Executive committee" means a group of directors elected or appointed to act on behalf of, and within the powers granted to them by, the commission.
(l) "Home state" means the member state that is the licensee's primary state of residence.
(m) "Impaired practitioner" means an individual who has a condition that may impair their ability to practice as a licensed professional counselor without some type of intervention and may include but is not limited to alcohol and drug dependence, mental health impairment, and neurological or physical impairment.
(n) "Investigative information" means information, records, and documents received or generated by a professional counseling licensing board pursuant to an investigation.
(o) "Jurisprudence requirement," if required by a member state, means the assessment of an individual's knowledge of the laws and rules governing the practice of professional counseling in a state.
(p) "Licensed professional counselor" means a counselor licensed by a member state, regardless of the title used by that state, to independently assess, diagnose, and treat behavioral health conditions.
(q) "Licensee" means an individual who currently holds an authorization from the state to practice as a licensed professional counselor.
(r) "Licensing board" means the agency of a state, or equivalent, that is responsible for the licensing and regulation of licensed professional counselors.
(s) "Member state" means a state that has enacted the compact.
(t) "Privilege to practice" means a legal authorization, which is equivalent to a license, permitting the practice of professional counseling in a remote state.
(u) "Professional counseling" means the assessment, diagnosis, and treatment of behavioral health conditions by a licensed professional counselor.
(v) "Remote state" means a member state other than the home state, where a licensee is exercising or seeking to exercise the privilege to practice.
(w) "Rule" means a regulation promulgated by the commission that has the force of law.
(x) "Single state license" means a licensed professional counselor license issued by a member state that authorizes practice only within the issuing state and does not include a privilege to practice in any other member state.
(y) "State" means any state, commonwealth, district, or territory of the United States that regulates the practice of professional counseling.
(z) "Telehealth" means the application of telecommunication technology to deliver professional counseling services remotely to assess, diagnose, and treat behavioral health conditions.
(aa) "Unencumbered license" means a license that authorizes a licensed professional counselor to engage in the full and unrestricted practice of professional counseling.
ARTICLE III
STATE PARTICIPATION IN THE COMPACT
(a) To participate in the compact, a state must currently:
(1) license and regulate licensed professional counselors;
(2) require licensees to pass a nationally recognized exam approved by the commission;
(3) require licensees to have a 60 semester-hour or 90 quarter-hour master's degree in counseling or 60 semester-hours or 90 quarter-hours of graduate coursework including the following topic areas:
(i) professional counseling orientation and ethical practice;
(ii) social and cultural diversity;
(iii) human growth and development;
(iv) career development;
(v) counseling and helping relationships;
(vi) group counseling and group work;
(vii) diagnosis and treatment; assessment and testing;
(viii) research and program evaluation; and
(ix) other areas as determined by the commission;
(4) require licensees to complete a supervised postgraduate professional experience as defined by the commission; and
(5) have a mechanism in place for receiving and investigating complaints about licensees.
(b) A member state shall:
(1) participate fully in the commission's data system, including using the commission's unique identifier as defined in rules;
(2) notify the commission, in compliance with the terms of the compact and rules, of any adverse action or the availability of investigative information regarding a licensee;
(3) implement or utilize procedures for considering the criminal history records of applicants for an initial privilege to practice. These procedures shall include the submission of fingerprints or other biometric-based information by applicants for the purpose of obtaining an applicant's criminal history record information from the Federal Bureau of Investigation and the agency responsible for retaining that state's criminal records;
(i) a member state must fully implement a criminal background check requirement, within a time frame established by rule, by receiving the results of the Federal Bureau of Investigation record search and shall use the results in making licensure decisions; and
(ii) communication between a member state, the commission, and among member states regarding the verification of eligibility for licensure through the compact shall not include any information received from the Federal Bureau of Investigation relating to a federal criminal records check performed by a member state under Public Law 92-544;
(4) comply with the rules of the commission;
(5) require an applicant to obtain or retain a license in the home state and meet the home state's qualifications for licensure or renewal of licensure, as well as all other applicable state laws;
(6) grant the privilege to practice to a licensee holding a valid unencumbered license in another member state in accordance with the terms of the compact and rules; and
(7) provide for the attendance of the state's commissioner to the counseling compact commission meetings.
(c) Member states may charge a fee for granting the privilege to practice.
(d) Individuals not residing in a member state shall continue to be able to apply for a member state's single state license as provided under the laws of each member state. However, the single state license granted to these individuals shall not be recognized as granting a privilege to practice professional counseling in any other member state.
(e) Nothing in this compact shall affect the requirements established by a member state for the issuance of a single state license.
(f) A license issued to a licensed professional counselor by a home state to a resident in that state shall be recognized by each member state as authorizing a licensed professional counselor to practice professional counseling, under a privilege to practice, in each member state.
ARTICLE IV
PRIVILEGE TO PRACTICE
(a) To exercise the privilege to practice under the terms and provisions of the compact, the licensee shall:
(1) hold a license in the home state;
(2) have a valid United States Social Security number or national practitioner identifier;
(3) be eligible for a privilege to practice in any member state in accordance with this article, paragraphs (d), (g), and (h);
(4) have not had any encumbrance or restriction against any license or privilege to practice within the previous two years;
(5) notify the commission that the licensee is seeking the privilege to practice within a remote state(s);
(6) pay any applicable fees, including any state fee, for the privilege to practice;
(7) meet any continuing competence or education requirements established by the home state;
(8) meet any jurisprudence requirements established by the remote state in which the licensee is seeking a privilege to practice; and
(9) report to the commission any adverse action, encumbrance, or restriction on license taken by any nonmember state within 30 days from the date the action is taken.
(b) The privilege to practice is valid until the expiration date of the home state license. The licensee must comply with the requirements of this article, paragraph (a), to maintain the privilege to practice in the remote state.
(c) A licensee providing professional counseling in a remote state under the privilege to practice shall adhere to the laws and regulations of the remote state.
(d) A licensee providing professional counseling services in a remote state is subject to that state's regulatory authority. A remote state may, in accordance with due process and that state's laws, remove a licensee's privilege to practice in the remote state for a specific period of time, impose fines, or take any other necessary actions to protect the health and safety of its citizens. The licensee may be ineligible for a privilege to practice in any member state until the specific time for removal has passed and all fines are paid.
(e) If a home state license is encumbered, the licensee shall lose the privilege to practice in any remote state until the following occur:
(1) the home state license is no longer encumbered; and
(2) have not had any encumbrance or restriction against any license or privilege to practice within the previous two years.
(f) Once an encumbered license in the home state is restored to good standing, the licensee must meet the requirements of this article, paragraph (a), to obtain a privilege to practice in any remote state.
(g) If a licensee's privilege to practice in any remote state is removed, the individual may lose the privilege to practice in all other remote states until the following occur:
(1) the specific period of time for which the privilege to practice was removed has ended;
(2) all fines have been paid; and
(3) have not had any encumbrance or restriction against any license or privilege to practice within the previous two years.
(h) Once the requirements of this article, paragraph (g), have been met, the licensee must meet the requirements in this article, paragraph (a), to obtain a privilege to practice in a remote state.
ARTICLE V
OBTAINING A NEW HOME STATE LICENSE BASED ON A PRIVILEGE TO PRACTICE
(a) A licensed professional counselor may hold a home state license, which allows for a privilege to practice in other member states, in only one member state at a time.
(b) If a licensed professional counselor changes primary state of residence by moving between two member states:
(1) the licensed professional counselor shall file an application for obtaining a new home state license based on a privilege to practice, pay all applicable fees, and notify the current and new home state in accordance with applicable rules adopted by the commission;
(2) upon receipt of an application for obtaining a new home state license by virtue of a privilege to practice, the new home state shall verify that the licensed professional counselor meets the pertinent criteria outlined in article IV via the data system, without need for primary source verification, except for:
(i) a Federal Bureau of Investigation fingerprint-based criminal background check if not previously performed or updated pursuant to applicable rules adopted by the commission in accordance with Public Law 92-544;
(ii) other criminal background checks as required by the new home state; and
(iii) completion of any requisite jurisprudence requirements of the new home state;
(3) the former home state shall convert the former home state license into a privilege to practice once the new home state has activated the new home state license in accordance with applicable rules adopted by the commission;
(4) notwithstanding any other provision of this compact, if the licensed professional counselor cannot meet the criteria in article VI, the new home state may apply its requirements for issuing a new single state license; and
(5) the licensed professional counselor shall pay all applicable fees to the new home state in order to be issued a new home state license.
(c) If a licensed professional counselor changes primary state of residence by moving from a member state to a nonmember state, or from a nonmember state to a member state, the state criteria shall apply for issuance of a single state license in the new state.
(d) Nothing in this compact shall interfere with a licensee's ability to hold a single state license in multiple states, however, for the purposes of this compact, a licensee shall have only one home state license.
(e) Nothing in this compact shall affect the requirements established by a member state for the issuance of a single state license.
ARTICLE VI
ACTIVE DUTY MILITARY PERSONNEL OR THEIR SPOUSES
Active duty military personnel, or their spouse, shall designate a home state where the individual has a current license in good standing. The individual may retain the home state designation during the period the service member is on active duty. Subsequent to designating a home state, the individual shall only change their home state through application for licensure in the new state or through the process outlined in article V.
ARTICLE VII
COMPACT PRIVILEGE TO PRACTICE TELEHEALTH
(a) Member states shall recognize the right of a licensed professional counselor, licensed by a home state in accordance with article III and under rules promulgated by the commission, to practice professional counseling in any member state via telehealth under a privilege to practice as provided in the compact and rules promulgated by the commission.
(b) A licensee providing professional counseling services in a remote state under the privilege to practice shall adhere to the laws and regulations of the remote state.
ARTICLE VIII
ADVERSE ACTIONS
(a) In addition to the other powers conferred by state law, a remote state shall have the authority, in accordance with existing state due process law, to:
(1) take adverse action against a licensed professional counselor's privilege to practice within that member state; and
(2) issue subpoenas for both hearings and investigations that require the attendance and testimony of witnesses as well as the production of evidence. Subpoenas issued by a licensing board in a member state for the attendance and testimony of witnesses or the production of evidence from another member state shall be enforced in the latter state by any court of competent jurisdiction according to the practice and procedure of that court applicable to subpoenas issued in proceedings pending before it. The issuing authority shall pay any witness fees, travel expenses, mileage, and other fees required by the service statutes of the state in which the witnesses or evidence are located.
(b) Only the home state shall have the power to take adverse action against a licensed professional counselor's license issued by the home state.
(c) For purposes of taking adverse action, the home state shall give the same priority and effect to reported conduct received from a member state as it would if the conduct had occurred within the home state. In so doing, the home state shall apply its own state laws to determine appropriate action.
(d) The home state shall complete any pending investigations of a licensed professional counselor who changes primary state of residence during the course of the investigations. The home state shall also have the authority to take appropriate action and shall promptly report the conclusions of the investigations to the administrator of the data system. The administrator of the coordinated licensure information system shall promptly notify the new home state of any adverse actions.
(e) A member state, if otherwise permitted by state law, may recover from the affected licensed professional counselor the costs of investigations and dispositions of cases resulting from any adverse action taken against that licensed professional counselor.
(f) A member state may take adverse action based on the factual findings of the remote state, provided that the member state follows its own procedures for taking the adverse action.
(g) Joint investigations:
(1) in addition to the authority granted to a member state by its respective professional counseling practice act or other applicable state law, any member state may participate with other member states in joint investigations of licensees; and
(2) member states shall share any investigative, litigation, or compliance materials in furtherance of any joint or individual investigation initiated under the compact.
(h) If adverse action is taken by the home state against the license of a licensed professional counselor, the licensed professional counselor's privilege to practice in all other member states shall be deactivated until all encumbrances have been removed from the state license. All home state disciplinary orders that impose adverse action against the license of a licensed professional counselor shall include a statement that the licensed professional counselor's privilege to practice is deactivated in all member states during the pendency of the order.
(i) If a member state takes adverse action, it shall promptly notify the administrator of the data system. The administrator of the data system shall promptly notify the home state of any adverse actions by remote states.
(j) Nothing in this compact shall override a member state's decision that participation in an alternative program may be used in lieu of adverse action.
ARTICLE IX
ESTABLISHMENT OF COUNSELING COMPACT COMMISSION
(a) The compact member states hereby create and establish a joint public agency known as the counseling compact commission:
(1) the commission is an instrumentality of the compact states;
(2) except as provided under paragraph (i), venue is proper and judicial proceedings by or against the commission shall be brought solely and exclusively in a court of competent jurisdiction where the principal office of the commission is located. The commission may waive venue and jurisdictional defenses to the extent it adopts or consents to participate in alternative dispute resolution proceedings; and
(3) nothing in this compact shall be construed to be a waiver of sovereign immunity.
(b) Membership, voting, and meetings:
(1) each member state shall have and be limited to one delegate selected by that member state's licensing board;
(2) the delegate shall be either:
(i) a current member of the licensing board at the time of appointment who is a licensed professional counselor or public member; or
(ii) an administrator of the licensing board;
(3) any delegate may be removed or suspended from office as provided by the law of the state from which the delegate is appointed;
(4) the member state licensing board shall fill any vacancy occurring on the commission within 60 days;
(5) each delegate shall be entitled to one vote with regard to the promulgation of rules and creation of bylaws and shall otherwise have an opportunity to participate in the business and affairs of the commission;
(6) a delegate shall vote in person or by such other means as provided in the bylaws. The bylaws may provide for delegates' participation in meetings by telephone or other means of communication;
(7) the commission shall meet at least once during each calendar year. Additional meetings shall be held as set forth in the bylaws; and
(8) the commission shall by rule establish a term of office for delegates and may by rule establish term limits.
(c) The commission shall have the following powers and duties:
(1) establish the fiscal year of the commission;
(2) establish bylaws;
(3) maintain its financial records in accordance with the bylaws;
(4) meet and take such actions as are consistent with the provisions of this compact and the bylaws;
(5) promulgate rules which shall be binding to the extent and in the manner provided for in the compact;
(6) bring and prosecute legal proceedings or actions in the name of the commission, provided that the standing of any state licensing board to sue or be sued under applicable law shall not be affected;
(7) purchase and maintain insurance and bonds;
(8) borrow, accept, or contract for services of personnel, including but not limited to employees of a member state;
(9) hire employees, elect or appoint officers, fix compensation, define duties, grant such individuals appropriate authority to carry out the purposes of the compact, and establish the commission's personnel policies and programs relating to conflicts of interest, qualifications of personnel, and other related personnel matters;
(10) accept any and all appropriate donations and grants of money, equipment, supplies, materials, and services and to receive, utilize, and dispose of the same; provided that at all times the commission shall avoid any appearance of impropriety and conflict of interest;
(11) lease, purchase, accept appropriate gifts or donations of, or otherwise to own, hold, improve, or use any property, real, personal, or mixed; provided that at all times the commission shall avoid any appearance of impropriety;
(12) sell convey, mortgage, pledge, lease, exchange, abandon, or otherwise dispose of any property real, personal, or mixed;
(13) establish a budget and make expenditures;
(14) borrow money;
(15) appoint committees, including standing committees composed of members, state regulators, state legislators or their representatives, and consumer representatives, and such other interested persons as may be designated in this compact and the bylaws;
(16) provide and receive information from, and cooperate with, law enforcement agencies;
(17) establish and elect an executive committee; and
(18) perform such other functions as may be necessary or appropriate to achieve the purposes of this compact consistent with the state regulation of professional counseling licensure and practice.
(d) The executive committee:
(1) the executive committee shall have the power to act on behalf of the commission according to the terms of this compact;
(2) the executive committee shall be composed of up to eleven members:
(i) seven voting members who are elected by the commission from the current membership of the commission;
(ii) up to four ex-officio, nonvoting members from four recognized national professional counselor organizations; and
(iii) the ex-officio members will be selected by their respective organizations;
(3) the commission may remove any member of the executive committee as provided in the bylaws;
(4) the executive committee shall meet at least annually; and
(5) the executive committee shall have the following duties and responsibilities:
(i) recommend to the entire commission changes to the rules or bylaws, changes to this compact legislation, fees paid by compact member states such as annual dues, and any commission compact fee charged to licensees for the privilege to practice;
(ii) ensure compact administration services are appropriately provided, contractual or otherwise;
(iii) prepare and recommend the budget;
(iv) maintain financial records on behalf of the commission;
(v) monitor compact compliance of member states and provide compliance reports to the commission;
(vi) establish additional committees as necessary; and
(vii) other duties as provided in rules or bylaws.
(e) Meetings of the commission:
(1) all meetings shall be open to the public, and public notice of meetings shall be given in the same manner as required under the rulemaking provisions in article XI;
(2) the commission or the executive committee or other committees of the commission may convene in a closed, non-public meeting if the commission or executive committee or other committees of the commission must discuss:
(i) non-compliance of a member state with its obligations under the compact;
(ii) the employment, compensation, discipline, or other matters, practices, or procedures related to specific employees or other matters related to the commission's internal personnel practices and procedures;
(iii) current, threatened, or reasonably anticipated litigation;
(iv) negotiation of contracts for the purchase, lease, or sale of goods, services, or real estate;
(v) accusing any person of a crime or formally censuring any person;
(vi) disclosure of trade secrets or commercial or financial information that is privileged or confidential;
(vii) disclosure of information of a personal nature where disclosure would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy;
(viii) disclosure of investigative records compiled for law enforcement purposes;
(ix) disclosure of information related to any investigative reports prepared by or on behalf of or for use of the commission or other committee charged with responsibility of investigation or determination of compliance issues pursuant to the compact; or
(x) matters specifically exempted from disclosure by federal or member state statute;
(3) if a meeting, or portion of a meeting, is closed pursuant to this provision, the commission's legal counsel or designee shall certify that the meeting may be closed and shall reference each relevant exempting provision; and
(4) the commission shall keep minutes that fully and clearly describe all matters discussed in a meeting and shall provide a full and accurate summary of actions taken and the reasons therefore, including a description of the views expressed. All documents considered in connection with an action shall be identified in such minutes. All minutes and documents of a closed meeting shall remain under seal, subject to release by a majority vote of the commission or order of a court of competent jurisdiction.
(f) Financing of the commission:
(i) the commission shall pay, or provide for the payment of, the reasonable expenses of its establishment, organization, and ongoing activities;
(ii) the commission may accept any and all appropriate revenue sources, donations, and grants of money, equipment, supplies, materials, and services;
(iii) the commission may levy on and collect an annual assessment from each member state or impose fees on other parties to cover the cost of the operations and activities of the commission and its staff, which must be in a total amount sufficient to cover its annual budget as approved each year for which revenue is not provided by other sources. The aggregate annual assessment amount shall be allocated based upon a formula to be determined by the commission, which shall promulgate a rule binding upon all member states;
(iv) the commission shall not incur obligations of any kind prior to securing the funds adequate to meet the same; nor shall the commission pledge the credit of any of the member states, except by and with the authority of the member state; and
(v) the commission shall keep accurate accounts of all receipts and disbursements. The receipts and disbursements of the commission shall be subject to the audit and accounting procedures established under its bylaws. However, all receipts and disbursements of funds handled by the commission shall be audited yearly by a certified or licensed public accountant, and the report of the audit shall be included in and become part of the annual report of the commission.
(g) Qualified immunity, defense, and indemnification:
(1) the members, officers, executive director, employees, and representatives of the commission shall be immune from suit and liability, either personally or in their official capacity, for any claim for damage to or loss of property or personal injury or other civil liability caused by or arising out of any actual or alleged act, error, or omission that occurred, or that the person against whom the claim is made had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of commission employment, duties, or responsibilities; provided that nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to protect any such person from suit or liability for any damage, loss, injury, or liability caused by the intentional or willful or wanton misconduct of that person;
(2) the commission shall defend any member, officer, executive director, employee, or representative of the commission in any civil action seeking to impose liability arising out of any actual or alleged act, error, or omission that occurred within the scope of commission employment, duties, or responsibilities, or that the person against whom the claim is made had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of commission employment, duties, or responsibilities; provided that nothing herein shall be construed to prohibit that person from retaining his or her own counsel; and provided further, that the actual or alleged act, error, or omission did not result from that person's intentional or willful or wanton misconduct; and
(3) the commission shall indemnify and hold harmless any member, officer, executive director, employee, or representative of the commission for the amount of any settlement or judgment obtained against that person arising out of any actual or alleged act, error, or omission that occurred within the scope of commission employment, duties, or responsibilities, or that such person had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of commission employment, duties, or responsibilities, provided that the actual or alleged act, error, or omission did not result from the intentional or willful or wanton misconduct of that person.
(h) Notwithstanding paragraph (g), clause (1), the liability of the executive director, employees, or representatives of the interstate commission, acting within the scope of their employment or duties, may not exceed the limits of liability set forth under the constitution and laws of this state for state officials, employees, and agents. This paragraph expressly incorporates section
Minn. Stat. § 15.001
15.001 ]
ARTICLE 1 APPLICABILITY, DEFINITIONS AND OTHER GENERAL PROVISIONS
515B.1-101 SHORT TITLE.
Sections 515B.1-101 through 515B.4-118 may be cited as the "Minnesota Common Interest Ownership Act."
History:
1993 c 222 art 1 s 1
515B.1-102 APPLICABILITY.
(a) Except as provided in this section, this chapter, and not chapters 515 and 515A , applies to all common interest communities created within this state on and after June 1, 1994.
(b) The applicability of this chapter to common interest communities created prior to June 1, 1994, shall be as follows:
(1) This chapter shall apply to condominiums created under chapter 515A with respect to events and circumstances occurring on and after June 1, 1994; provided (i) that this chapter shall not invalidate the declarations, bylaws or condominium plats of those condominiums, and (ii) that chapter 515A , and not this chapter, shall govern all rights and obligations of a declarant of a condominium created under chapter 515A , and the rights and claims of unit owners against that declarant.
(2) The following sections in this chapter apply to condominiums created under chapter 515 : 515B.1-104 (Variation by Agreement); 515B.1-105 (Separate Titles and Taxation); 515B.1-106 (Applicability of Local Requirements); 515B.1-107 (Eminent Domain); 515B.1-108 (This Chapter Prevails; Supplemental Law); 515B.1-109 (Construction Against Implicit Repeal); 515B.1-112 (Unconscionable Agreement or Term of Contract); 515B.1-113 (Obligation of Good Faith); 515B.1-114 (Remedies to be Liberally Administered); 515B.1-115 (Notice); 515B.1-116 (Recording); 515B.2-103 (Construction and Validity of Declaration and Bylaws); 515B.2-104 (Description of Units); 515B.2-108 (d) (Allocation of Interests); 515B.2-109 (f) (Common Elements and Limited Common Elements); 515B.2-112 (Subdivision, Combination, or Conversion of Units); 515B.2-113 (Alteration of Units); 515B.2-114 (Relocation of Boundaries Between Adjoining Units); 515B.2-115 (Minor Variations in Boundaries); 515B.2-118 (Amendment of Declaration); 515B.2-119 (Termination of Common Interest Community); 515B.3-102 (Powers of Unit Owners' Association); 515B.3-103 (a), (b), and (g) (Board of Directors, Officers, and Declarant Control); 515B.3-107 (Upkeep of Common Interest Community); 515B.3-108 (Meetings); 515B.3-109 (Quorums); 515B.3-110 (Voting; Proxies); 515B.3-111 (Tort and Contract Liability); 515B.3-112 (Conveyance of, or Creation of Security Interests in, Common Elements); 515B.3-113 (Insurance); 515B.3-114 (Replacement Reserves); 515B.3-115 (c), (e), (f), (g), (h), and (i) (Assessments for Common Expenses); 515B.3-116 (Lien for Assessments); 515B.3-117 (Other Liens); 515B.3-118 (Association Records); 515B.3-119 (Association as Trustee); 515B.3-121 (Accounting Controls); 515B.4-107 (Resale of Units); 515B.4-108 (Purchaser's Right to Cancel Resale); and 515B.4-116 (Rights of Action; Attorney's Fees). Section 515B.1-103 (Definitions) shall apply to the extent necessary in construing any of the sections referenced in this section. Sections 515B.1-105 , 515B.1-106 , 515B.1-107 , 515B.1-116 , 515B.2-103 , 515B.2-104 , 515B.2-118 , 515B.3-102 , 515B.3-110 , 515B.3-111 , 515B.3-113 , 515B.3-116 , 515B.3-117 , 515B.3-118 , 515B.3-121 , 515B.4-107 , 515B.4-108 , and 515B.4-116 apply only with respect to events and circumstances occurring on and after June 1, 1994. All other sections referenced in this section apply only with respect to events and circumstances occurring after July 31, 1999. A section referenced in this section does not invalidate the declarations, bylaws or condominium plats of condominiums created before August 1, 1999. But all sections referenced in this section prevail over the declarations, bylaws, CIC plats, rules and regulations under them, of condominiums created before August 1, 1999, except to the extent that this chapter defers to the declarations, bylaws, CIC plats, or rules and regulations issued under them.
(3) This chapter shall not apply to cooperatives and planned communities created prior to June 1, 1994, or to planned communities that were created on or after June 1, 1994, and before August 1, 2006, and that consist of more than two but fewer than 13 units; except by election pursuant to subsection (d), and except that sections 515B.1-116 , subsections (a), (c), (d), and (e), 515B.4-107 , and 515B.4-108 , apply to all planned communities and cooperatives regardless of when they are created, unless they are exempt under subsection (e).
(c) This chapter shall not invalidate any amendment to the declaration, bylaws or condominium plat of any condominium created under chapter 515 or 515A if the amendment was recorded before June 1, 1994. Any amendment recorded on or after June 1, 1994, shall be adopted in conformity with the procedures and requirements specified by those instruments and by this chapter. If the amendment grants to any person any rights, powers or privileges permitted by this chapter, all correlative obligations, liabilities and restrictions contained in this chapter shall also apply to that person.
(d) Any condominium created under chapter 515 , any planned community or cooperative which would be exempt from this chapter under subsection (e), or any planned community or cooperative created prior to June 1, 1994, or any planned community that was created on or after June 1, 1994, and prior to August 1, 2006, and that consists of more than two but fewer than 13 units, may elect to be subject to this chapter, as follows:
(1) The election shall be accomplished by recording a declaration or amended declaration, and a new or amended CIC plat where required, and by approving bylaws or amended bylaws, which conform to the requirements of this chapter, and which, in the case of amendments, are adopted in conformity with the procedures and requirements specified by the existing declaration and bylaws of the common interest community, and by any applicable statutes.
(2) In a condominium, the preexisting condominium plat shall be the CIC plat and an amended CIC plat shall be required only if the amended declaration or bylaws contain provisions inconsistent with the preexisting condominium plat. The condominium's CIC number shall be the apartment ownership number or condominium number originally assigned to it by the recording officer. In a cooperative in which the unit owners' interests are characterized as real estate, a CIC plat shall be required. In a planned community, the preexisting plat or registered land survey recorded pursuant to chapter 505 , 508 , or 508A , or the part of the plat or registered land survey upon which the common interest community is located, shall be the CIC plat.
(3) The amendment shall comply with section 515B.2-118 (a)(3) and (c); except that the unanimous consent of the unit owners shall not be required for (i) a clarification of the unit boundary description if the clarified boundary description is substantially consistent with the preexisting CIC plat, or (ii) changes from common elements to limited common elements that occur by operation of section 515B.2-109 (c) and (d).
(4) Except as permitted by paragraph (3), no declarant, affiliate of declarant, association, master association nor unit owner may acquire, increase, waive, reduce or revoke any previously existing warranty rights or causes of action that one of said persons has against any other of said persons by reason of exercising the right of election under this subsection.
(5) A common interest community which elects to be subject to this chapter may, as a part of the election process, change its form of ownership by complying with section 515B.2-123 .
(e) Except as otherwise provided in this subsection, this chapter shall not apply, except by election pursuant to subsection (d), to the following:
(1) a planned community which consists of two units, which utilizes a CIC plat complying with section 515B.2-110 (d)(1) and (2), or section 515B.2-1101 (d)(1) and (2), which is not subject to any rights to subdivide or convert units or to add additional real estate, and which is not subject to a master association;
(2) a common interest community that consists solely of platted lots or other separate parcels of real estate designed or utilized for detached single family dwellings or agricultural purposes, with or without common property, where no association or master association has an obligation to maintain any building containing a dwelling or any agricultural building located or to be located on such platted lots or parcels; except that section 515B.4-101 (e) shall apply to the sale of such platted lots or parcels of real estate if the common interest community is or will be subject to a master declaration;
(3) a cooperative where, at the time of creation of the cooperative, the unit owners' interests in the dwellings as described in the declaration consist solely of proprietary leases having an unexpired term of fewer than 20 years, including renewal options;
(4) planned communities utilizing a CIC plat complying with section 515B.2-110 (d)(1) and (2), or section 515B.2-1101 (d)(1) and (2), and cooperatives, which are limited by the declaration to nonresidential uses; or
(5) real estate subject only to an instrument or instruments filed primarily for the purpose of creating or modifying rights with respect to access, utilities, parking, ditches, drainage, or irrigation.
(f) Section 515B.4-101 (e) applies to any platted lot or other parcel of real estate that is subject to a master declaration and is not subject to or is exempt from this chapter.
(g) Section 515B.1-106 and section 515B.2-118 , subsections (a)(5), (a)(7), and (d), shall apply to all common interest communities.
(h) Sections 515B.1-103 (33a), 515B.2-110 , 515B.3-105 , 515B.3-115 , 515B.4-102 , and 515B.4-115 apply only to common interest communities created before August 1, 2010. Sections 515B.1-103 (33b), 515B.2-1101 , 515B.3-1051 , 515B.3-1151 , 515B.4-1021 , and 515B.4-1151 apply only to common interest communities created on or after August 1, 2010.
(i) Section 515B.3-114 applies to common interest communities only for the association's fiscal years commencing before January 1, 2012. Section 515B.3-1141 applies to common interest communities only for the association's fiscal years commencing on or after January 1, 2012.
(j) Section 515B.3-104 applies only to transfers of special declarant rights that are effective before August 1, 2010. Section 515B.3-1041 , subsections (a) through (i), apply only to transfers of special declarant rights that are effective on or after August 1, 2010. Section 515B.3-1041 , subsections (j) and (k), apply only to special declarant rights reserved in a declaration that is first recorded on or after August 1, 2010.
History:
1993 c 222 art 1 s 2 ; 1994 c 388 art 4 s 1 ; 1995 c 92 s 4 ; 1999 c 11 art 2 s 1 ; 2000 c 260 s 72 ; 2000 c 320 s 3 ; 2001 c 7 s 82 ; 2005 c 121 s 1 ; 2006 c 221 s 7 ; 2010 c 267 art 1 s 1 ; 2010 c 382 s 78 ; 2011 c 76 art 1 s 59 ; 2011 c 116 art 2 s 1 ; 2012 c 187 art 1 s 68 ; 2018 c 117 s 1 ; 2020 c 86 art 3 s 1
515B.1-103 DEFINITIONS.
In the declaration and bylaws, unless specifically provided otherwise or the context otherwise requires, and in this chapter:
(1) "Additional real estate" means real estate that may be added to a flexible common interest community.
(2) "Affiliate of a declarant" means any person who controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with a declarant.
(A) A person "controls" a declarant if the person (i) is a general partner, officer, director, or employer of the declarant, (ii) directly or indirectly or acting in concert with one or more other persons, or through one or more subsidiaries, owns, controls, holds with power to vote, or holds proxies representing, more than 20 percent of the voting interest in the declarant, (iii) controls in any manner the election of a majority of the directors of the declarant, or (iv) has contributed more than 20 percent of the capital of the declarant.
(B) A person "is controlled by" a declarant if the declarant (i) is a general partner, officer, director, or employer of the person, (ii) directly or indirectly or acting in concert with one or more other persons, or through one or more subsidiaries, owns, controls, holds with power to vote, or holds proxies representing, more than 20 percent of the voting interest in the person, (iii) controls in any manner the election of a majority of the directors of the person, or (iv) has contributed more than 20 percent of the capital of the person.
(C) Control does not exist if the powers described in this subsection are held solely as a security interest and have not been exercised.
(3) "Allocated interests" means the following interests allocated to each unit: (i) in a condominium, the undivided interest in the common elements, the common expense liability, and votes in the association; (ii) in a cooperative, the common expense liability and the ownership interest and votes in the association; and (iii) in a planned community, the common expense liability and votes in the association.
(4) "Association" means the unit owners' association organized under section 515B.3-101 .
(5) "Board" means the body, regardless of name, designated in the articles of incorporation, bylaws or declaration to act on behalf of the association, or on behalf of a master association when so identified.
(6) "CIC plat" means a common interest community plat described in section 515B.2-110 .
(7) "Common elements" means all portions of the common interest community other than the units.
(8) "Common expenses" means expenditures made or liabilities incurred by or on behalf of the association, or master association when so identified, together with any allocations to reserves.
(9) "Common expense liability" means the liability for common expenses allocated to each unit pursuant to section 515B.2-108 .
(10) "Common interest community" or "CIC" means contiguous or noncontiguous real estate within Minnesota that is subject to an instrument which obligates persons owning a separately described parcel of the real estate, or occupying a part of the real estate pursuant to a proprietary lease, by reason of their ownership or occupancy, to pay for (i) real estate taxes levied against; (ii) insurance premiums payable with respect to; (iii) maintenance of; or (iv) construction, maintenance, repair or replacement of improvements located on, one or more parcels or parts of the real estate other than the parcel or part that the person owns or occupies. Real estate which satisfies the definition of a common interest community is a common interest community whether or not it is subject to this chapter. Real estate subject to a master declaration, regardless of when the master declaration was recorded, shall not collectively constitute a separate common interest community unless so stated in the master declaration.
(11) "Condominium" means a common interest community in which (i) portions of the real estate are designated as units, (ii) the remainder of the real estate is designated for common ownership solely by the owners of the units, and (iii) undivided interests in the common elements are vested in the unit owners.
(11a) "Construction defect claim" means a civil action or an arbitration proceeding based on any legal theory including, but not limited to, claims under chapter 327A for damages, indemnity, or contribution brought against a development party to assert a claim, counterclaim, cross-claim, or third-party claim for damages or loss to, or the loss of use of, real or personal property caused by a defect in the initial design or construction of an improvement to real property that is part of a common interest community, including an improvement that is constructed on additional real estate pursuant to section 515B.2-111 . "Construction defect claim" does not include claims related to subsequent maintenance, repairs, alterations, or modifications to, or the addition of, improvements that are part of the common interest community, and that are contracted for by the association or a unit owner.
(12) "Conversion property" means real estate on which is located a building that at any time within two years before creation of the common interest community was occupied, in whole or in part, for (i) residential use or (ii) for residential rental purposes by persons other than purchasers and persons who occupy with the consent of purchasers.
(13) "Cooperative" means a common interest community in which the real estate is owned by an association, each of whose members is entitled to a proprietary lease by virtue of the member's ownership interest in the association.
(14) "Dealer" means a person in the business of selling units for the person's own account.
(15) "Declarant" means:
(i) if the common interest community has been created, (A) any person who has executed a declaration, or a supplemental declaration or amendment to a declaration adding additional real estate, except secured parties, a spouse holding only an inchoate interest, persons whose interests in the real estate will not be transferred to unit owners, or, in the case of a leasehold common interest community, a lessor who possesses no special declarant rights and who is not an affiliate of a declarant who possesses special declarant rights, or (B) any person who reserves, or succeeds under section 515B.3-104 to any special declarant rights;
(ii) any person or persons acting in concert who have offered prior to creation of the common interest community to transfer their interest in a unit to be created and not previously transferred; or
(iii) if (A) a unit has been restricted to nonresidential use and sold to a purchaser who has agreed to modify or waive, in whole or in part, sections 515B.4-101 to 515B.4-118 , and (B) the restriction expires or is modified or terminated such that residential use of the unit is permitted, the unit owner at the time the restriction expires or is so modified or terminated is a declarant with respect to that unit and any improvements subject to use rights by a purchaser of the unit.
(16) "Declaration" means any instrument, however denominated, that creates a common interest community.
(16a) "Development party" means an architect, contractor, construction manager, subcontractor, developer, declarant, engineer, or private inspector performing or furnishing the design, supervision, inspection, construction, coordination, or observation of the construction of any improvement to real property that is part of a common interest community, or any of the person's affiliates, officers, directors, shareholders, members, or employees.
(17) "Dispose" or "disposition" means a voluntary transfer to a purchaser of any legal or equitable interest in the common interest community, but the term does not include the transfer or release of a security interest.
(18) "Flexible common interest community" means a common interest community to which additional real estate may be added.
(19) "Leasehold common interest community" means a common interest community in which all or a portion of the real estate is subject to a lease the expiration or termination of which will terminate the common interest community or reduce its size.
(20) "Limited common element" means a portion of the common elements allocated by the declaration or by operation of section 515B.2-109 (c) or (d) for the exclusive use of one or more but fewer than all of the units.
(21) "Master association" means an entity created on or after June 1, 1994, that directly or indirectly exercises any of the powers set forth in section 515B.3-102 on behalf of one or more members described in section 515B.2-121 (b), (i), (ii) or (iii), whether or not it also exercises those powers on behalf of one or more property owners' associations described in section 515B.2-121 (b)(iv). A person (i) hired by an association to perform maintenance, repair, accounting, bookkeeping or management services, or (ii) granted authority under an instrument recorded primarily for the purpose of creating rights or obligations with respect to utilities, access, drainage, or recreational amenities, is not, solely by reason of that relationship, a master association.
(22) "Master declaration" means a written instrument, however named, (i) recorded on or after June 1, 1994, and (ii) complying with section 515B.2-121 , subsection (e).
(23) "Master developer" means a person who is designated in the master declaration as a master developer or, in the absence of such a designation, the owner or owners of the real estate subject to the master declaration at the time the master declaration is recorded, except (i) secured parties and (ii) a spouse holding only an inchoate interest. A master developer is not a declarant unless the master declaration states that the real estate subject to the master declaration collectively is or collectively will be a separate common interest community.
(24) "Period of declarant control" means the time period provided for in section 515B.3-103 (c) during which the declarant may appoint and remove officers and directors of the association.
(25) "Person" means an individual, corporation, limited liability company, partnership, trustee under a trust, personal representative, guardian, conservator, government, governmental subdivision or agency, or other legal or commercial entity capable of holding title to real estate.
(26) "Planned community" means a common interest community that is not a condominium or a cooperative. A condominium or cooperative may be a part of a planned community.
(27) "Proprietary lease" means an agreement with a cooperative association whereby a member of the association is entitled to exclusive possession of a unit in the cooperative.
(28) "Purchaser" means a person, other than a declarant, who by means of a voluntary transfer acquires a legal or equitable interest in a unit other than (i) a leasehold interest of less than 20 years, including renewal options, or (ii) a security interest.
(29) "Real estate" means any fee simple, leasehold or other estate or interest in, over, or under land, including structures, fixtures, and other improvements and interests that by custom, usage, or law pass with a conveyance of land though not described in the contract of sale or instrument of conveyance. "Real estate" may include spaces with or without upper or lower boundaries, or spaces without physical boundaries.
(30) "Residential use" means use as a dwelling, whether primary, secondary or seasonal, but not (i) transient use such as hotels or motels, (ii) use for residential rental purposes if the individual dwellings are not separate units or if the individual dwellings are not located on separate parcels of real estate. For purposes of this chapter, a unit is restricted to nonresidential use if the unit is subject to a restriction that prohibits residential use as defined in this section whether or not the restriction also prohibits the uses described in this paragraph.
(31) "Secured party" means the person owning a security interest as defined in paragraph (32).
(32) "Security interest" means a perfected interest in real estate or personal property, created by contract or conveyance, which secures payment or performance of an obligation. The term includes a mortgagee's interest in a mortgage, a vendor's interest in a contract for deed, a lessor's interest in a lease intended as security, a holder's interest in a sheriff's certificate of sale during the period of redemption, an assignee's interest in an assignment of leases or rents intended as security, in a cooperative, a lender's interest in a member's ownership interest in the association, a pledgee's interest in the pledge of an ownership interest, or any other interest intended as security for an obligation under a written agreement.
(33a) This definition of special declarant rights applies only to common interest communities created before August 1, 2010. "Special declarant rights" means rights reserved in the declaration for the benefit of a declarant to:
(i) complete improvements indicated on the CIC plat, planned by the declarant consistent with the disclosure statement or authorized by the municipality in which the CIC is located;
(ii) add additional real estate to a common interest community;
(iii) subdivide or combine units, or convert units into common elements, limited common elements, or units;
(iv) maintain sales offices, management offices, signs advertising the common interest community, and models;
(v) use easements through the common elements for the purpose of making improvements within the common interest community or any additional real estate;
(vi) create a master association and provide for the exercise of authority by the master association over the common interest community or its unit owners;
(vii) merge or consolidate a common interest community with another common interest community of the same form of ownership; or
(viii) appoint or remove any officer or director of the association, or the master association where applicable, during any period of declarant control.
(33b) This definition of special declarant rights applies only to common interest communities created on or after August 1, 2010. "Special declarant rights" means rights reserved in the declaration for the benefit of a declarant and expressly identified in the declaration as special declarant rights. Such special declarant rights may include but are not limited to the following:
(i) to complete improvements indicated on the CIC plat, planned by the declarant consistent with the disclosure statement or authorized by the municipality in which the common interest community is located, and to have and use easements for itself and its employees, agents, and contractors through the common elements for such purposes;
(ii) to add additional real estate to a common interest community;
(iii) to subdivide or combine units, or convert units into common elements, limited common elements and/or units, pursuant to section 515B.2-112 ;
(iv) to maintain and use sales offices, management offices, signs advertising the common interest community, and models, and to have and use easements for itself and its employees, agents, and invitees through the common elements for such purposes;
(v) to appoint or remove any officer or director of the association during any period of declarant control;
(vi) to utilize an alternate common expense plan as provided in section 515B.3-115 (a)(2);
(vii) to grant common element licenses as provided in section 515B.2-109 (e); or
(viii) to review, and approve or disapprove, the exterior design, materials, size, site location, and other exterior features of buildings and other structures, landscaping and other exterior improvements, located within the common interest community, and any modifications or alterations thereto.
Special declarant rights shall not be reserved or utilized for the purpose of evading any limitation or obligation imposed on declarants by this chapter.
(34) "Time share" means a right to occupy a unit or any of several units during three or more separate time periods over a period of at least three years, including renewal options, whether or not coupled with a fee title interest in the common interest community or a specified portion thereof.
(35) "Unit" means a portion of a common interest community the boundaries of which are described in the common interest community's declaration and which is intended for separate ownership, or separate occupancy pursuant to a proprietary lease.
(36) "Unit identifier" means English letters or Arabic numerals, or a combination thereof, which identify only one unit in a common interest community and which meet the requirements of section 515B.2-104 .
(37) "Unit owner" means a declarant or other person who owns a unit, a lessee under a proprietary lease, or a lessee of a unit in a leasehold common interest community whose lease expires simultaneously with any lease the expiration or termination of which will remove the unit from the common interest community, but does not include a secured party. In a common interest community, the declarant is the unit owner of a unit until that unit has been conveyed to another person.
History:
1993 c 222 art 1 s 3 ; 1994 c 388 art 4 s 2 ; 1995 c 92 s 5 ; 1999 c 11 art 2 s 2 ; 2000 c 260 s 73 ; 2005 c 121 s 2 ; 2010 c 267 art 1 s 2 ; 2011 c 116 art 2 s 2 ; 2017 c 87 s 1 ; 2017 c 99 s 3 ; 2018 c 117 s 2
515B.1-104 VARIATION BY AGREEMENT.
The provisions of this chapter may not be varied by agreement, and rights conferred by it may not be waived, except as expressly provided in this chapter. A declarant may not act under a power of attorney, or use any other device, to evade the limitations or prohibitions of this chapter or the declaration.
History:
1993 c 222 art 1 s 4
515B.1-105 SEPARATE TITLES AND TAXATION.
(a) In a cooperative:
(1) The unit owners' interests in units and their allocated interests are wholly personal property, unless the declaration provides that the interests are wholly real estate. The characterization of these interests as real or personal property shall not affect whether homestead exemptions or classifications apply.
(2) The ownership interest in a unit which may be sold, conveyed, voluntarily or involuntarily encumbered, or otherwise transferred by a unit owner, is the right to possession of that unit under a proprietary lease coupled with the allocated interests of that unit, and the association's interest in that unit is not affected by the transaction.
(b) In a condominium or planned community:
(1) Each unit, and its allocated interest in the common elements, constitutes a separate parcel of real estate.
(2) If there is any unit owner other than a declarant, each unit shall be separately taxed and assessed, and no separate tax or assessment may be rendered against any common elements.
(c) A unit used for residential purposes together with not more than three units used for vehicular parking, and their common element interests, shall be treated as one parcel of real estate in determining whether homestead exemptions or classifications apply.
History:
1993 c 222 art 1 s 5 ; 1994 c 388 art 4 s 3 ; 1997 c 84 art 1 s 5
515B.1-106 APPLICABILITY OF LOCAL REQUIREMENTS.
(a) Except as provided in subsections (b) and (c), a zoning, subdivision, building code, or other real estate use law, ordinance, charter provision, or regulation may not directly or indirectly prohibit the common interest community form of ownership or impose any requirement upon a common interest community, upon the creation or disposition of a common interest community or upon any part of the common interest community conversion process which it would not impose upon a physically similar development under a different form of ownership. Otherwise, no provision of this chapter invalidates or modifies any provision of any zoning, subdivision, building code, or other real estate use law, ordinance, charter provision, or regulation.
(b) Subsection (a) shall not apply to any ordinance, rule, regulation, charter provision or contract provision relating to the financing of housing construction, rehabilitation, or purchases provided by or through a housing finance program established and operated pursuant to state or federal law by a state or local agency or local unit of government.
(c) A statutory or home rule charter city, pursuant to an ordinance or charter provision establishing standards to be applied uniformly within its jurisdiction, may prohibit or impose reasonable conditions upon the conversion of buildings occupied wholly or partially for (i) residential use or (ii) residential rental purposes to the common interest community form of ownership only if there exists within the city a significant shortage of suitable rental dwellings available to low and moderate income individuals or families or to establish or maintain the city's eligibility for any federal or state program providing direct or indirect financial assistance for housing to the city. Prior to the adoption of an ordinance pursuant to the authority granted in this subsection, the city shall conduct a public hearing. Any ordinance or charter provision adopted pursuant to this subsection shall not apply to any existing or proposed conversion common interest community (i) for which a bona fide loan commitment for a consideration has been issued by a lender and is in effect on the date of adoption of the ordinance or charter provision, or (ii) for which a notice of conversion or intent to convert required by section 515B.4-111 , containing a termination of tenancy, has been given to at least 75 percent of the tenants and subtenants in possession prior to the date of adoption of the ordinance or charter provision.
(d) For purposes of providing marketable title, a statement in the declaration that the common interest community is not subject to an ordinance or that any conditions required under an ordinance have been complied with shall be prima facie evidence that the common interest community was not created in violation of the ordinance.
(e) A violation of an ordinance or charter provision adopted pursuant to the provisions of subsection (b) or (c) shall not affect the validity of a common interest community. This subsection shall not be construed to in any way limit the power of a city to enforce the provisions of an ordinance or charter provision adopted pursuant to subsection (b) or (c).
(f) Any ordinance or charter provision enacted hereunder that prohibits the conversion of buildings to the common interest community form of ownership shall not be effective for a period exceeding 18 months.
History:
1993 c 222 art 1 s 6 ; 2005 c 121 s 3 ; 2006 c 221 s 8 ; 2018 c 117 s 3
515B.1-107 EMINENT DOMAIN.
(a) If a unit is acquired by eminent domain, or if part of a unit is acquired by eminent domain leaving the unit owner with a remnant which may not practically or lawfully be used for any material purpose permitted by the declaration, the award shall compensate the unit owner and secured party in the unit as their interests may appear, whether or not any common element interest is acquired. Upon acquisition, unless the order or final certificate otherwise provides, that unit's allocated interests are automatically reallocated among the remaining units in proportion to their respective allocated interests prior to the taking, and the association shall promptly prepare, execute, and record an amendment to the declaration reflecting the reallocations. Any remnant of a unit remaining after part of a unit is taken under this subsection is thereafter a common element.
(b) Except as provided in subsection (a), if part of a unit is acquired by eminent domain, the award shall compensate the unit owner and secured party for the reduction in value of the unit and its interest in the common elements, whether or not any common elements are acquired. Upon acquisition, unless the order or final certificate otherwise provides, (i) that unit's allocated interests are reduced in proportion to the reduction in the size of the unit, or on any other basis specified in the declaration and (ii) the portion of the allocated interests divested from the partially acquired unit are automatically reallocated to that unit and to the remaining units in proportion to the respective allocated interests of those units before the taking, with the partially acquired unit participating in the reallocation on the basis of its reduced allocated interests.
(c) If part of the common elements is acquired by eminent domain, the portion of the award attributable to the common elements taken shall be paid to the association. In an eminent domain proceeding which seeks to acquire a part of the common elements, jurisdiction may be acquired by service of process upon the association. Unless the declaration provides otherwise, any portion of the award attributable to the acquisition of a limited common element shall be equally divided among the owners of the units to which that limited common element was allocated at the time of acquisition and their secured parties, as their interests may appear or as provided by the declaration.
(d) In any eminent domain proceeding the units shall be treated as separate parcels of real estate for valuation purposes, regardless of the number of units subject to the proceeding.
(e) Any distribution to a unit owner from the proceeds of an eminent domain award shall be subject to any limitations imposed by the declaration or bylaws.
(f) The court order or final certificate containing the final awards shall be recorded in every county in which any portion of the common interest community is located.
History:
1993 c 222 art 1 s 7 ; 2005 c 121 s 4 ; 2010 c 267 art 1 s 3
515B.1-108 THIS CHAPTER PREVAILS; SUPPLEMENTAL LAW.
The principles of law and equity, including the law of corporations, the law of real property, the law relative to capacity to contract, principal and agent, eminent domain, estoppel, fraud, misrepresentation, duress, coercion, mistake, receivership, substantial performance, or other validating or invalidating cause supplement the provisions of this chapter, except to the extent inconsistent with this chapter.
History:
1993 c 222 art 1 s 8
515B.1-109 CONSTRUCTION AGAINST IMPLICIT REPEAL.
This chapter being a general act intended as a unified coverage of its subject matter, no part of it shall be construed to be impliedly repealed by subsequent legislation if that construction can reasonably be avoided.
History:
1993 c 222 art 1 s 9
515B.1-110 MS 1994 [Repealed, 1996 c 310 s 1 ]
515B.1-1105 VACATION OF ABUTTING PUBLICLY DEDICATED PROPERTY.
(a) When, by operation or presumption of law, all or any portion of vacated property, such as a street, alley, right-of-way, or other publicly dedicated area, accrues to property subject to a declaration, such portion of the vacated property shall, by operation of law and without any corresponding amendment to the declaration or the CIC plat, become subject to all of the terms and conditions of the declaration. Except as otherwise provided in an amendment to the declaration that is adopted in accordance with section 515B.2-118 and the declaration:
(1) if the vacated property accrues to one or more units in a condominium or a planned community, title to the vacated property shall vest in the owner or owners of the unit or the units, but the interests allocated to the units pursuant to section 515B.2-108 and the declaration shall not change as a result thereof;
(2) if the vacated property accrues to common elements in a condominium, title to the vacated property shall vest in the unit owners in accordance with their allocated interests and the vacated property shall be treated as a part of the common elements; and
(3) if the vacated property accrues to common elements in a cooperative or planned community, title to the vacated property shall vest in the association and the vacated property shall be treated as a part of the common elements.
(b) At any time after the vacation the association may, but is not obligated to, amend the declaration or CIC plat to confirm the inclusion of the vacated property in the common interest community in accordance with section 515B.2-118 and the declaration.
History:
2010 c 267 art 1 s 4
515B.1-111 MS 1994 [Repealed, 1996 c 310 s 1 ]
515B.1-112 UNCONSCIONABLE AGREEMENT OR TERM OF CONTRACT.
(a) The court, upon finding as a matter of law that a contract or contract clause was unconscionable at the time the contract was made, may refuse to enforce the contract, enforce the remainder of the contract without the unconscionable clause, or limit the application of any unconscionable clause in order to avoid an unconscionable result. For purposes of this section, a contract includes a declaration, master declaration, the articles of incorporation and bylaws of an association or master association, and a proprietary lease.
(b) Whenever it is claimed, or appears to the court, that a contract or any contract clause is or may be unconscionable, the parties, in order to aid the court in making the determination, shall be afforded a reasonable opportunity to present evidence as to:
(1) the commercial setting of the negotiations;
(2) whether a party has knowingly taken advantage of the inability of the other party reasonably to protect the other party's interests by reason of physical or mental infirmity, illiteracy, inability to understand the language of the agreement, or similar factors;
(3) the effect and purpose of the contract or clause; and
(4) if a sale, any gross disparity, at the time of contracting, between the amount charged for the property and the value of that property measured by the price at which similar property was readily obtainable in similar transaction, provided, that this factor shall not, of itself, render the contract unconscionable.
History:
1993 c 222 art 1 s 12 ; 2010 c 267 art 1 s 5
515B.1-113 OBLIGATION OF GOOD FAITH.
Every contract or duty governed by this chapter imposes an obligation of good faith in its performance or enforcement.
History:
1993 c 222 art 1 s 13
515B.1-114 REMEDIES TO BE LIBERALLY ADMINISTERED.
(a) The remedies provided by this chapter shall be liberally administered to the end that the aggrieved party is put in as good a position as if the other party had fully performed. However, consequential, special, or punitive damages may not be awarded except as specifically provided in this chapter or by other rule of law.
(b) Any right or obligation declared by this chapter is enforceable by judicial proceeding, unless the provision declaring it provides otherwise.
History:
1993 c 222 art 1 s 14
515B.1-115 NOTICE.
Except as otherwise stated in this chapter all notices required by this chapter shall be in writing and shall be effective (i) upon hand delivery, (ii) upon mailing if properly addressed with postage prepaid and deposited in the United States mail, or (iii) when given in compliance with section 515B.3-110 (c), with respect to matters covered by that section.
History:
1993 c 222 art 1 s 15 ; 2010 c 267 art 1 s 6
515B.1-116 RECORDING.
(a) A declaration, bylaws, a supplemental declaration, any amendment to a declaration, supplemental declaration, or bylaws, and any other instrument affecting a common interest community shall be entitled to be recorded. In those counties which have a tract index, the county recorder shall enter the declaration in the tract index for each unit or other tract affected. The county recorder shall not enter the declaration in the tract index for lands described as additional real estate, unless such lands are added to the common interest community pursuant to section 515B.2-111 . The registrar of titles shall file the declaration in accordance with section
Minn. Stat. § 15.16
15.16 TRANSFER OF LANDS BETWEEN DEPARTMENTS.
§
Subdivision 1. Agreement.
To facilitate the transfer of the control of state-owned lands between state departments and agencies of government and to avoid the necessity of condemning state lands by a department or agency of government of the state, a department or agency of the state government of Minnesota may acquire the control of state lands for public purposes from the department or agency of state government having those lands under its control and supervision, upon terms and conditions that are mutually agreed upon by the heads of the interested state departments or agencies.
§
Subd. 2. Executive Council to determine terms.
If the heads of the departments or agencies acting under subdivision 1 are unable to agree on the terms and conditions of a transfer of control of state lands, the Executive Council, upon application of a state department or agency having the power to acquire lands for public purposes, shall determine the terms and conditions and may order the transfer of the control of state lands to the department or agency requesting the transfer.
§
Subd. 3. Commissioner of management and budget to transfer funds.
The commissioner of management and budget is authorized and directed to transfer funds between state departments and agencies to effect the terms and conditions to transfer the control of real estate as provided in this section.
§
Subd. 4. Attorney general to prescribe form of transfer.
The transfer of control of real estate as provided under this section must be made on transfer documents prescribed by the attorney general, and the transfer documents must be permanently filed in the office of the commissioner of management and budget.
§
Subd. 5. Obtaining recommendation.
No control of state-owned lands may be transferred between state departments or agencies without the departments or agencies first consulting the chairs of the senate Finance Committee and house of representatives Ways and Means Committee and obtaining their recommendations. The recommendations are advisory only. Failure to obtain a prompt recommendation is deemed a negative recommendation.
History:
1941 c 387 s 1 -4; 1973 c 492 s 14 ; 1973 c 720 s 52 ; 1983 c 301 s 65 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1990 c 506 art 2 s 3 ; 2003 c 112 art 2 s 50 ; 2004 c 284 art 2 s 3 ; 2009 c 101 art 2 s 109
Minn. Stat. § 150A.051
150A.051 DENTIST AND DENTAL HYGIENIST COMPACT.
The dentist and dental hygienist compact is enacted into law and entered into with all other jurisdictions legally joining in the compact in the form substantially specified in this section.
ARTICLE I
TITLE
This statute shall be known and cited as the dentist and dental hygienist compact.
ARTICLE II
DEFINITIONS
As used in this compact, unless the context requires otherwise, the following definitions shall apply:
(A) "Active military member" means any person with full-time duty status in the armed forces of the United States including members of the National Guard and Reserve.
(B) "Adverse action" means disciplinary action or encumbrance imposed on a license or compact privilege by a state licensing authority.
(C) "Alternative program" means a nondisciplinary monitoring or practice remediation process applicable to a dentist or dental hygienist approved by a state licensing authority of a participating state in which the dentist or dental hygienist is licensed. This includes but is not limited to programs to which licensees with substance abuse or addiction issues are referred in lieu of adverse action.
(D) "Clinical assessment" means examination or process, required for licensure as a dentist or dental hygienist as applicable, that provides evidence of clinical competence in dentistry or dental hygiene.
(E) "Commissioner" means the individual appointed by a participating state to serve as the member of the commission for that participating state.
(F) "Compact" means this dentist and dental hygienist compact.
(G) "Compact privilege" means the authorization granted by a remote state to allow a licensee from a participating state to practice as a dentist or dental hygienist in a remote state.
(H) "Continuing professional development" means a requirement as a condition of license renewal to provide evidence of successful participation in educational or professional activities relevant to practice or area of work.
(I) "Criminal background check" means the submission of fingerprints or other biometric-based information for a license applicant for the purpose of obtaining that applicant's criminal history record information, as defined in Code of Federal Regulations, title 28, section 20.3(d), from the Federal Bureau of Investigation and the state's criminal history record repository as defined in Code of Federal Regulations, title 28, section 20.3(f).
(J) "Data system" means the commission's repository of information about licensees, including but not limited to examination, licensure, investigative, compact privilege, adverse action, and alternative program.
(K) "Dental hygienist" means an individual who is licensed by a state licensing authority to practice dental hygiene.
(L) "Dentist" means an individual who is licensed by a state licensing authority to practice dentistry.
(M) "Dentist and dental hygienist compact commission" or "commission" means a joint government agency established by this compact comprised of each state that has enacted the compact and a national administrative body comprised of a commissioner from each state that has enacted the compact.
(N) "Encumbered license" means a license that a state licensing authority has limited in any way other than through an alternative program.
(O) "Executive board" means the chair, vice chair, secretary, and treasurer and any other commissioners as may be determined by commission rule or bylaw.
(P) "Jurisprudence requirement" means the assessment of an individual's knowledge of the laws and rules governing the practice of dentistry or dental hygiene, as applicable, in a state.
(Q) "License" means current authorization by a state, other than authorization pursuant to a compact privilege, or other privilege, for an individual to practice as a dentist or dental hygienist in that state.
(R) "Licensee" means an individual who holds an unrestricted license from a participating state to practice as a dentist or dental hygienist in that state.
(S) "Model compact" means the model for the dentist and dental hygienist compact on file with the council of state governments or other entity as designated by the commission.
(T) "Participating state" means a state that has enacted the compact and been admitted to the commission in accordance with the provisions herein and commission rules.
(U) "Qualifying license" means a license that is not an encumbered license issued by a participating state to practice dentistry or dental hygiene.
(V) "Remote state" means a participating state where a licensee who is not licensed as a dentist or dental hygienist is exercising or seeking to exercise the compact privilege.
(W) "Rule" means a regulation promulgated by an entity that has the force of law.
(X) "Scope of practice" means the procedures, actions, and processes a dentist or dental hygienist licensed in a state is permitted to undertake in that state and the circumstances under which the licensee is permitted to undertake those procedures, actions, and processes. Such procedures, actions, and processes and the circumstances under which they may be undertaken may be established through means, including but not limited to statute, regulations, case law, and other processes available to the state licensing authority or other government agency.
(Y) "Significant investigative information" means information, records, and documents received or generated by a state licensing authority pursuant to an investigation for which a determination has been made that there is probable cause to believe that the licensee has violated a statute or regulation that is considered more than a minor infraction for which the state licensing authority could pursue adverse action against the licensee.
(Z) "State" means any state, commonwealth, district, or territory of the United States of America that regulates the practices of dentistry and dental hygiene.
(AA) "State licensing authority" means an agency or other entity of a state that is responsible for the licensing and regulation of dentists or dental hygienists.
ARTICLE III
STATE PARTICIPATION IN THE COMPACT
(A) In order to join the compact and thereafter continue as a participating state, a state must:
(1) enact a compact that is not materially different from the model compact as determined in accordance with commission rules;
(2) participate fully in the commission's data system;
(3) have a mechanism in place for receiving and investigating complaints about its licensees and license applicants;
(4) notify the commission, in compliance with the terms of the compact and commission rules, of any adverse action or the availability of significant investigative information regarding a licensee and license applicant;
(5) fully implement a criminal background check requirement, within a time frame established by commission rule, by receiving the results of a qualifying criminal background check;
(6) comply with the commission rules applicable to a participating state;
(7) accept the national board examinations of the joint commission on national dental examinations or another examination accepted by commission rule as a licensure examination;
(8) accept for licensure that applicants for a dentist license graduate from a predoctoral dental education program accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation, or another accrediting agency recognized by the United States Department of Education for the accreditation of dentistry and dental hygiene education programs, leading to the Doctor of Dental Surgery (D.D.S.) or Doctor of Dental Medicine (D.M.D.) degree;
(9) accept for licensure that applicants for a dental hygienist license graduate from a dental hygiene education program accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation or another accrediting agency recognized by the United States Department of Education for the accreditation of dentistry and dental hygiene education programs;
(10) require for licensure that applicants successfully complete a clinical assessment;
(11) have continuing professional development requirements as a condition for license renewal; and
(12) pay a participation fee to the commission as established by commission rule.
(B) Providing alternative pathways for an individual to obtain an unrestricted license does not disqualify a state from participating in the compact.
(C) When conducting a criminal background check, the state licensing authority shall:
(1) consider that information in making a licensure decision;
(2) maintain documentation of completion of the criminal background check and background check information to the extent allowed by state and federal law; and
(3) report to the commission whether it has completed the criminal background check and whether the individual was granted or denied a license.
(D) A licensee of a participating state who has a qualifying license in that state and does not hold an encumbered license in any other participating state, shall be issued a compact privilege in a remote state in accordance with the terms of the compact and commission rules. If a remote state has a jurisprudence requirement a compact privilege will not be issued to the licensee unless the licensee has satisfied the jurisprudence requirement.
ARTICLE IV
COMPACT PRIVILEGE
(A) To obtain and exercise the compact privilege under the terms and provisions of the compact, the licensee shall:
(1) have a qualifying license as a dentist or dental hygienist in a participating state;
(2) be eligible for a compact privilege in any remote state in accordance with (D), (G), and (H) of this article;
(3) submit to an application process whenever the licensee is seeking a compact privilege;
(4) pay any applicable commission and remote state fees for a compact privilege in the remote state;
(5) meet any jurisprudence requirement established by a remote state in which the licensee is seeking a compact privilege;
(6) have passed a National Board Examination of the Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations or another examination accepted by commission rule;
(7) for a dentist, have graduated from a predoctoral dental education program accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation, or another accrediting agency recognized by the United States Department of Education for the accreditation of dentistry and dental hygiene education programs, leading to the Doctor of Dental Surgery (D.D.S.) or Doctor of Dental Medicine (D.M.D.) degree;
(8) for a dental hygienist, have graduated from a dental hygiene education program accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation or another accrediting agency recognized by the United States Department of Education for the accreditation of dentistry and dental hygiene education programs;
(9) have successfully completed a clinical assessment for licensure;
(10) report to the commission adverse action taken by any nonparticipating state when applying for a compact privilege and, otherwise, within 30 days from the date the adverse action is taken;
(11) report to the commission when applying for a compact privilege the address of the licensee's primary residence and thereafter immediately report to the commission any change in the address of the licensee's primary residence; and
(12) consent to accept service of process by mail at the licensee's primary residence on record with the commission with respect to any action brought against the licensee by the commission or a participating state, and consent to accept service of a subpoena by mail at the licensee's primary residence on record with the commission with respect to any action brought or investigation conducted by the commission or a participating state.
(B) The licensee must comply with the requirements of (A) of this article to maintain the compact privilege in the remote state. If those requirements are met, the compact privilege will continue as long as the licensee maintains a qualifying license in the state through which the licensee applied for the compact privilege and pays any applicable compact privilege renewal fees.
(C) A licensee providing dentistry or dental hygiene in a remote state under the compact privilege shall function within the scope of practice authorized by the remote state for a dentist or dental hygienist licensed in that state.
(D) A licensee providing dentistry or dental hygiene pursuant to a compact privilege in a remote state is subject to that state's regulatory authority. A remote state may, in accordance with due process and that state's laws, by adverse action revoke or remove a licensee's compact privilege in the remote state for a specific period of time and impose fines or take any other necessary actions to protect the health and safety of its citizens. If a remote state imposes an adverse action against a compact privilege that limits the compact privilege, that adverse action applies to all compact privileges in all remote states. A licensee whose compact privilege in a remote state is removed for a specified period of time is not eligible for a compact privilege in any other remote state until the specific time for removal of the compact privilege has passed and all encumbrance requirements are satisfied.
(E) If a license in a participating state is an encumbered license, the licensee shall lose the compact privilege in a remote state and shall not be eligible for a compact privilege in any remote state until the license is no longer encumbered.
(F) Once an encumbered license in a participating state is restored to good standing, the licensee must meet the requirements of (A) of this article to obtain a compact privilege in a remote state.
(G) If a licensee's compact privilege in a remote state is removed by the remote state, the individual shall lose or be ineligible for the compact privilege in any remote state until the following occur:
(1) the specific period of time for which the compact privilege was removed has ended; and
(2) all conditions for removal of the compact privilege have been satisfied.
(H) Once the requirements of (G) of this article have been met, the licensee must meet the requirements in (A) of this article to obtain a compact privilege in a remote state.
ARTICLE V
ACTIVE MILITARY MEMBER OR THEIR SPOUSES
An active military member and their spouse shall not be required to pay to the commission for a compact privilege the fee otherwise charged by the commission. If a remote state chooses to charge a fee for a compact privilege, it may choose to charge a reduced fee or no fee to an active military member and their spouse for a compact privilege.
ARTICLE VI
ADVERSE ACTIONS
(A) A participating state in which a licensee is licensed shall have exclusive authority to impose adverse action against the qualifying license issued by that participating state.
(B) A participating state may take adverse action based on the significant investigative information of a remote state, so long as the participating state follows its own procedures for imposing adverse action.
(C) Nothing in this compact shall override a participating state's decision that participation in an alternative program may be used in lieu of adverse action and that such participation shall remain nonpublic if required by the participating state's laws. Participating states must require licensees who enter any alternative program in lieu of discipline to agree not to practice pursuant to a compact privilege in any other participating state during the term of the alternative program without prior authorization from such other participating state.
(D) Any participating state in which a licensee is applying to practice or is practicing pursuant to a compact privilege may investigate actual or alleged violations of the statutes and regulations authorizing the practice of dentistry or dental hygiene in any other participating state in which the dentist or dental hygienist holds a license or compact privilege.
(E) A remote state shall have the authority to:
(1) take adverse actions as set forth in article IV, (D), against a licensee's compact privilege in the state;
(2) in furtherance of its rights and responsibilities under the compact and the commission's rules issue subpoenas for both hearings and investigations that require the attendance and testimony of witnesses, and the production of evidence. Subpoenas issued by a state licensing authority in a participating state for the attendance and testimony of witnesses, or the production of evidence from another participating state, shall be enforced in the latter state by any court of competent jurisdiction, according to the practice and procedure of that court applicable to subpoenas issued in proceedings pending before it. The issuing authority shall pay any witness fees, travel expenses, mileage, and other fees required by the service statutes of the state where the witnesses or evidence are located; and
(3) if otherwise permitted by state law, recover from the licensee the costs of investigations and disposition of cases resulting from any adverse action taken against that licensee.
(F) Joint Investigations:
(1) In addition to the authority granted to a participating state by its dentist or dental hygienist licensure act or other applicable state law, a participating state may jointly investigate licensees with other participating states.
(2) Participating states shall share any significant investigative information, litigation, or compliance materials in furtherance of any joint or individual investigation initiated under the compact.
(G) Authority to Continue Investigation:
(1) After a licensee's compact privilege in a remote state is terminated, the remote state may continue an investigation of the licensee that began when the licensee had a compact privilege in that remote state.
(2) If the investigation yields what would be significant investigative information had the licensee continued to have a compact privilege in that remote state, the remote state shall report the presence of such information to the data system as required by article VIII, (B), (6), as if it was significant investigative information.
ARTICLE VII
ESTABLISHMENT AND OPERATION OF THE COMMISSION
(A) The compact participating states hereby create and establish a joint government agency whose membership consists of all participating states that have enacted the compact. The commission is an instrumentality of the participating states acting jointly and not an instrumentality of any one state. The commission shall come into existence on or after the effective date of the compact as set forth in article XI, (A).
(B) Participation, Voting, and Meetings:
(1) Each participating state shall have and be limited to one commissioner selected by that participating state's state licensing authority or, if the state has more than one state licensing authority, selected collectively by the state licensing authorities.
(2) The commissioner shall be a member or designee of such authority or authorities.
(3) The commission may by rule or bylaw establish a term of office for commissioners and may by rule or bylaw establish term limits.
(4) The commission may recommend to a state licensing authority or authorities, as applicable, removal or suspension of an individual as the state's commissioner.
(5) A participating state's state licensing authority or authorities, as applicable, shall fill any vacancy of its commissioner on the commission within 60 days of the vacancy.
(6) Each commissioner shall be entitled to one vote on all matters that are voted upon by the commission.
(7) The commission shall meet at least once during each calendar year. Additional meetings may be held as set forth in the bylaws. The commission may meet by telecommunication, video conference, or other similar electronic means.
(C) The commission shall have the following powers:
(1) establish the fiscal year of the commission;
(2) establish a code of conduct and conflict of interest policies;
(3) adopt rules and bylaws;
(4) maintain its financial records in accordance with the bylaws;
(5) meet and take such actions as are consistent with the provisions of this compact, the commission's rules, and the bylaws;
(6) initiate and conclude legal proceedings or actions in the name of the commission, provided that the standing of any state licensing authority to sue or be sued under applicable law shall not be affected;
(7) maintain and certify records and information provided to a participating state as the authenticated business records of the commission, and designate a person to do so on the commission's behalf;
(8) purchase and maintain insurance and bonds;
(9) borrow, accept, or contract for services of personnel, including but not limited to employees of a participating state;
(10) conduct an annual financial review;
(11) hire employees, elect or appoint officers, fix compensation, define duties, grant such individuals appropriate authority to carry out the purposes of the compact, and establish the commission's personnel policies and programs relating to conflicts of interest, qualifications of personnel, and other related personnel matters;
(12) as set forth in the commission rules, charge a fee to a licensee for the grant of a compact privilege in a remote state and thereafter, as may be established by commission rule, charge the licensee a compact privilege renewal fee for each renewal period in which that licensee exercises or intends to exercise the compact privilege in that remote state. Nothing herein shall be construed to prevent a remote state from charging a licensee a fee for a compact privilege or renewals of a compact privilege, or a fee for the jurisprudence requirement if the remote state imposes such a requirement for the grant of a compact privilege;
(13) accept any and all appropriate gifts, donations, grants of money, other sources of revenue, equipment, supplies, materials, and services, and receive, utilize, and dispose of the same; provided that at all times the commission shall avoid any appearance of impropriety and conflict of interest;
(14) lease, purchase, retain, own, hold, improve, or use any property real, personal, or mixed, or any undivided interest therein;
(15) sell, convey, mortgage, pledge, lease, exchange, abandon, or otherwise dispose of any property real, personal, or mixed;
(16) establish a budget and make expenditures;
(17) borrow money;
(18) appoint committees, including standing committees, which may be composed of members, state regulators, state legislators or their representatives, and consumer representatives, and such other interested persons as may be designated in this compact and the bylaws;
(19) provide and receive information from, and cooperate with, law enforcement agencies;
(20) elect a chair, vice chair, secretary, and treasurer and such other officers of the commission as provided in the commission's bylaws;
(21) establish and elect an executive board;
(22) adopt and provide to the participating states an annual report;
(23) determine whether a state's enacted compact is materially different from the model compact language such that the state would not qualify for participation in the compact; and
(24) perform such other functions as may be necessary or appropriate to achieve the purposes of this compact.
(D) Meetings of the Commission:
(1) All meetings of the commission that are not closed pursuant to (D)(4) of this article shall be open to the public. Notice of public meetings shall be posted on the commission's website at least 30 days prior to the public meeting.
(2) Notwithstanding (D)(1) of this article, the commission may convene an emergency public meeting by providing at least 24 hours prior notice on the commission's website, and any other means as provided in the commission's rules, for any of the reasons it may dispense with notice of proposed rulemaking under article IX, (L). The commission's legal counsel shall certify that one of the reasons justifying an emergency public meeting has been met.
(3) Notice of all commission meetings shall provide the time, date, and location of the meeting, and if the meeting is to be held or accessible via telecommunication, video conference, or other electronic means, the notice shall include the mechanism for access to the meeting through such means.
(4) The commission may convene in a closed, nonpublic meeting for the commission to receive legal advice or to discuss:
(i) noncompliance of a participating state with its obligations under the compact;
(ii) the employment, compensation, discipline, or other matters, practices, or procedures related to specific employees or other matters related to the commission's internal personnel practices and procedures;
(iii) current or threatened discipline of a licensee or compact privilege holder by the commission or by a participating state's licensing authority;
(iv) current, threatened, or reasonably anticipated litigation;
(v) negotiation of contracts for the purchase, lease, or sale of goods, services, or real estate;
(vi) accusing any person of a crime or formally censuring any person;
(vii) trade secrets or commercial or financial information that is privileged or confidential;
(viii) information of a personal nature where disclosure would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy;
(ix) investigative records compiled for law enforcement purposes;
(x) information related to any investigative reports prepared by or on behalf of or for use of the commission or other committee charged with responsibility of investigation or determination of compliance issues pursuant to the compact;
(xi) legal advice;
(xii) matters specifically exempted from disclosure to the public by federal or participating state law; and
(xiii) other matters as promulgated by the commission by rule.
(5) If a meeting, or portion of a meeting, is closed, the presiding officer shall state that the meeting will be closed and reference each relevant exempting provision, and such reference shall be recorded in the minutes.
(6) The commission shall keep minutes that fully and clearly describe all matters discussed in a meeting and shall provide a full and accurate summary of actions taken, and the reasons therefore, including a description of the views expressed. All documents considered in connection with an action shall be identified in such minutes. All minutes and documents of a closed meeting shall remain under seal, subject to release only by a majority vote of the commission or order of a court of competent jurisdiction.
(E) Financing of the Commission:
(1) The commission shall pay, or provide for the payment of, the reasonable expenses of its establishment, organization, and ongoing activities.
(2) The commission may accept any and all appropriate sources of revenue, donations, and grants of money, equipment, supplies, materials, and services.
(3) The commission may levy on and collect an annual assessment from each participating state and impose fees on licensees of participating states when a compact privilege is granted to cover the cost of the operations and activities of the commission and its staff, which must be in a total amount sufficient to cover its annual budget as approved each fiscal year for which sufficient revenue is not provided by other sources. The aggregate annual assessment amount for participating states shall be allocated based upon a formula that the commission shall promulgate by rule.
(4) The commission shall not incur obligations of any kind prior to securing the funds adequate to meet the same; nor shall the commission pledge the credit of any participating state, except by and with the authority of the participating state.
(5) The commission shall keep accurate accounts of all receipts and disbursements. The receipts and disbursements of the commission shall be subject to the financial review and accounting procedures established under the commission's bylaws. All receipts and disbursements of funds handled by the commission shall be subject to an annual financial review by a certified or licensed public accountant, and the report of the financial review shall be included in and become part of the annual report of the commission.
(F) The Executive Board:
(1) The executive board shall have the power to act on behalf of the commission according to the terms of this compact. The powers, duties, and responsibilities of the executive board shall include:
(i) overseeing the day-to-day activities of the administration of the compact including compliance with the provisions of the compact and the commission's rules and bylaws;
(ii) recommending to the commission changes to the rules or bylaws, changes to this compact legislation, fees charged to compact participating states, fees charged to licensees, and other fees;
(iii) ensuring compact administration services are appropriately provided, including by contract;
(iv) preparing and recommending the budget;
(v) maintaining financial records on behalf of the commission;
(vi) monitoring compact compliance of participating states and providing compliance reports to the commission;
(vii) establishing additional committees as necessary;
(viii) exercising the powers and duties of the commission during the interim between commission meetings, except for adopting or amending rules, adopting or amending bylaws, and exercising any other powers and duties expressly reserved to the commission by rule or bylaw; and
(ix) other duties as provided in the rules or bylaws of the commission.
(2) The executive board shall be composed of up to seven members:
(i) the chair, vice chair, secretary, and treasurer of the commission and any other members of the commission who serve on the executive board shall be voting members of the executive board; and
(ii) other than the chair, vice chair, secretary, and treasurer, the commission may elect up to three voting members from the current membership of the commission.
(3) The commission may remove any member of the executive board as provided in the commission's bylaws.
(4) The executive board shall meet at least annually.
(i) An executive board meeting at which it takes or intends to take formal action on a matter shall be open to the public, except that the executive board may meet in a closed, nonpublic session of a public meeting when dealing with any of the matters covered under (D)(4) of this article.
(ii) The executive board shall give five business days' notice of its public meetings, posted on its website and as it may otherwise determine to provide notice to persons with an interest in the public matters the executive board intends to address at those meetings.
(5) The executive board may hold an emergency meeting when acting for the commission to:
(i) meet an imminent threat to public health, safety, or welfare;
(ii) prevent a loss of commission or participating state funds; or
(iii) protect public health and safety.
(G) Qualified Immunity, Defense, and Indemnification:
(1) The members, officers, executive director, employees, and representatives of the commission shall be immune from suit and liability, both personally and in their official capacity, for any claim for damage to or loss of property or personal injury or other civil liability caused by or arising out of any actual or alleged act, error, or omission that occurred, or that the person against whom the claim is made had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of commission employment, duties, or responsibilities; provided that nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to protect any such person from suit or liability for any damage, loss, injury, or liability caused by the intentional or willful or wanton misconduct of that person. The procurement of insurance of any type by the commission shall not in any way compromise or limit the immunity granted hereunder.
(2) The commission shall defend any member, officer, executive director, employee, or representative of the commission in any civil action seeking to impose liability arising out of any actual or alleged act, error, or omission that occurred within the scope of commission employment, duties, or responsibilities, or as determined by the commission that the person against whom the claim is made had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of commission employment, duties, or responsibilities; provided that nothing herein shall be construed to prohibit that person from retaining their own counsel at their own expense; and provided further that the actual or alleged act, error, or omission did not result from that person's intentional or willful or wanton misconduct.
(3) Notwithstanding (G)(1) of this article, should any member, officer, executive director, employee, or representative of the commission be held liable for the amount of any settlement or judgment arising out of any actual or alleged act, error, or omission that occurred within the scope of that individual's employment, duties, or responsibilities for the commission, or that the person to whom that individual is liable had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of the individual's employment, duties, or responsibilities for the commission, the commission shall indemnify and hold harmless such individual; provided that the actual or alleged act, error, or omission did not result from the intentional or willful or wanton misconduct of the individual.
(4) Nothing herein shall be construed as a limitation on the liability of any licensee for professional malpractice or misconduct, which shall be governed solely by any other applicable state laws.
(5) Nothing in this compact shall be interpreted to waive or otherwise abrogate a participating state's state action immunity or state action affirmative defense with respect to antitrust claims under the Sherman Act, Clayton Act, or any other state or federal antitrust or anticompetitive law or regulation.
(6) Nothing in this compact shall be construed to be a waiver of sovereign immunity by the participating states or by the commission.
(H) Notwithstanding paragraph (G), clause (1), of this article, the liability of the executive director, employees, or representatives of the interstate commission, acting within the scope of their employment or duties, may not exceed the limits of liability set forth under the constitution and laws of this state for state officials, employees, and agents. This paragraph expressly incorporates section
Minn. Stat. § 156.145
156.145 ;
(3) type of provider network, designating either narrow network, broad network, narrow tiered network, or broad tiered network;
(4) agent or broker commissions paid as part of the premium, as requested by the proposal, displayed in dollars per member per month;
(5) total premium dollars in the first 12-month period of the quote, not including commissions;
(6) total premium dollars, per member per month, not including commissions; and
(7) number of expected members used for the premium quote calculation.
(e) All initial proposals shall be sealed upon receipt until they are all opened no less than 90 days prior to the plan's renewal date in the presence of up to three representatives selected by the exclusive representative of the largest group of employees. Section 13.591, subdivision 3 , paragraph (b), applies to data in the proposals. The representatives of the exclusive representative must maintain the data according to this classification and are subject to the remedies and penalties under sections
Minn. Stat. § 15D.17
15D.17 CONFLICT OF INTEREST.
Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary it shall not be or constitute a conflict of interest for a trustee, director, officer or employee of any participating institution, financial institution, investment banking firm, brokerage firm, commercial bank or trust company, architecture firm, insurance company, construction company, or any other firm, person or corporation to serve as a member of the authority, provided the trustee, director, officer or employee shall abstain from deliberation, action and vote by the authority in each instance where the business affiliation of any trustee, director, officer or employee is involved.
History:
1971 c 868 s 17 ; 1973 c 758 s 8 ; 1Sp2025 c 3 art 7 s 26 ,30
Minn. Stat. § 161.23
161.23 , in excess of what is needed for highway purposes may be conveyed and quitclaimed for public purposes to any political subdivision, Indian tribal government, or agency of the state upon the terms and conditions as may be agreed upon between the commissioner and the political subdivision, Indian tribal government, or agency.
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Subd. 1a. Periodic review.
(a) The commissioner is encouraged to examine all real property owned by the state and under the custodial control of the department to decide whether any real property may be suitable for sale or some other means of disposal.
(b) The commissioner may not sell or otherwise dispose of property under this subdivision unless: (1) an analysis, which must consider any relevant nonmotorized transportation plans or in the absence of such plans, demographic and development factors affecting the region, demonstrates that (i) the property or a portion of it is not reasonably suitable for bicycle or pedestrian facilities, and (ii) there is not a likelihood of bicycle or pedestrian facility development involving the property; or (2) the use of the property for bicycle or pedestrian facilities is protected by deed restriction, easement, agreement, or other means.
(c) The commissioner shall report the findings under paragraph (a) to the house of representatives and senate committees with jurisdiction over transportation policy and finance by March 1 of each odd-numbered year. The report may be submitted electronically.
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Subd. 2. Reconveyance; remainder owned by vendor or surviving spouse.
If the lands were part of a larger tract and the remainder of the tract is still owned by the person or the person's surviving spouse from whom the lands were acquired, or if the lands constituted an entire tract, the lands must first be offered for reconveyance to the previous owner or the owner's surviving spouse. When lands are offered for reconveyance, the amount of money to be repaid for those lands must be the appraised current market value of the lands to be reconveyed. The offer must be made by certified mail addressed to the person at the person's last known address. The person or the person's surviving spouse shall have 60 days from the date of mailing the offer to accept and to tender to the commissioner the required sum of money.
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Subd. 3. Conveyance; remainder not owned by vendor or surviving spouse.
If the lands were part of a larger tract and the remainder of the tract is no longer owned by the person or the person's surviving spouse from whom the lands were acquired, the lands shall be offered for conveyance to the person owning the remaining tract in the same manner and on the same terms as provided in subdivision 2.
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Subd. 4. Conveyance; remainder divided into smaller tracts.
If the lands were part of a larger tract and if the tract has been platted or divided into smaller tracts and sold, the commissioner may offer the lands to the owners of the smaller tracts or lots abutting upon the lands in the same manner and on the same terms as provided in subdivision 2, or the commissioner may proceed to sell the lands to the highest responsible bidder as provided in subdivisions 5 and 6.
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Subd. 5. Conveyance to highest bidder in certain cases.
If the larger tract has been platted into lots or divided into smaller tracts and the commissioner elects to proceed under this subdivision, the lands constituted an entire tract and the person from whom the lands were acquired and the person's spouse are deceased, or the offers as provided for are not accepted and the amount of money not tendered within the time prescribed, the lands may be sold and conveyed to the owner of the land abutting upon the lands in the same manner and under the same terms provided under subdivision 2, or the commissioner may sell the lands to the highest responsible bidder upon three weeks' published notice of such sale in a newspaper or other periodical of general circulation in the general area where the lands are located. All bids may be rejected and new bids received upon like advertisement.
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Subd. 6. Public auction.
In lieu of the advertisement for sale and conveyance to the highest responsible bidder, such lands may be offered for sale and sold at public auction to the highest responsible bidder. Such sale shall be made after publication of notice thereof in a newspaper of general circulation in the area where the property is located for at least two successive weeks and such other advertising as the commissioner may direct. If the sale is made at public auction a duly licensed auctioneer may be retained to conduct such sale, the auctioneer's fees for such service to be paid from the proceeds, and there is appropriated from such proceeds an amount sufficient to pay such fees.
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Subd. 6a. Services of licensed real estate broker.
If the lands are withdrawn from sale under subdivision 6b, the commissioner may retain the services of a licensed real estate broker to find a buyer. The sale price may be negotiated by the broker, but must not be less than 80 percent of the appraised market value as determined by the commissioner. The broker's fee must be established by prior agreement between the commissioner and the broker, and must not exceed ten percent of the sale price for sales of $10,000 or more. The broker's fee must be paid to the broker from the proceeds of the sale.
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Subd. 6b. Unsold lands.
If lands remain unsold after being offered for sale to the highest bidder, the commissioner may offer the remaining lands to any person who agrees to pay at least 80 percent of the minimum bid established for the public sale. Any offers less than 100 percent of the minimum bid must be approved by the commissioner prior to a sale. The sale must continue until all eligible lands have been sold or the commissioner withdraws the remaining lands from sale. The lands to be sold must be listed on the department's Unsold Property Inventory list.
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Subd. 7. Gravel or borrow pit; amount of repayment.
In all cases as hereinbefore specified, if the lands to be reconveyed were acquired for gravel or borrow pit purposes and the commissioner has determined that all materials suitable or needed for trunk highway purposes have been removed from such pit, the amount to be repaid therefor need not be at least the amount paid for such pit by the state, but in no event shall the amount to be so repaid to the state therefor be less than the estimated market value thereof. In all other respects the procedures for the reconveyance of gravel or borrow pits shall be the same as the procedures for the reconveyance of other lands as provided in this section.
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Subd. 8. Restrictive clauses in deed.
The deed may contain restrictive clauses limiting the use of the lands or the estate conveyed when the commissioner determines that such restrictions are reasonably necessary in the interest of safety and convenient public travel.
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Subd. 9. Receipts paid into trunk highway fund.
Moneys received from the sale of such lands and properties less any fees paid under subdivision 6a, must be paid into the trunk highway fund.
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Subd. 10.
MS 1965 [Repealed, 1967 c 214 s 6 ]
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Subd. 11. Airspace and subsurface areas.
Nothing contained in this section shall apply to the lease or other agreement for the use of air space above and the subsurface area below the right-of-way of any trunk highway or the surface of any trunk highway right-of-way as provided in section 161.433, subdivision 1 .
History:
1959 c 500 art 2 s 44 ; 1961 c 263 s 1 ; 1961 c 567 s 3 subd 1; 1963 c 467 s 2 ; 1967 c 214 s 3 ; 1967 c 790 s 1 -3; 1978 c 674 s 60 ; 1980 c 533 s 10 ; 1983 c 143 s 8 -10; 1984 c 654 art 3 s 58 ; 1986 c 444 ; 2010 c 226 s 1 ; 2013 c 127 s 9 ; 2014 c 287 s 4 ; 1Sp2017 c 3 art 3 s 28 -30; 1Sp2021 c 5 art 4 s 23 ,24
Minn. Stat. § 161.43
161.43 RELINQUISHMENT OF HIGHWAY EASEMENT.
The commissioner of transportation may relinquish and quitclaim to the fee owner an easement or portion of an easement owned but no longer needed by the Transportation Department for trunk highway purposes, upon payment to the Transportation Department of an amount of money equal to the appraised current market value of the easement. If the fee owner refuses to pay the required amount, or if after diligent search the fee owner cannot be found, the commissioner may convey the easement to an agency or to a political subdivision of the state upon terms and conditions agreed upon, or the commissioner may acquire the fee title to the land underlying the easement in the manner provided in section 161.20, subdivision 2 . After acquisition of the fee title, the lands may be sold to the highest responsible bidder upon three weeks' published notice of the sale in a newspaper or other periodical of general circulation in the county where the land is located. All bids may be rejected and new bids received upon like publication. If the lands remain unsold after being offered for sale to the highest bidder, the commissioner may retain the services of a licensed real estate broker to find a buyer. The sale price may be negotiated by the broker, but must not be less than 90 percent of the appraised market value as determined by the commissioner. The broker's fee must be established by prior agreement between the commissioner and the broker, and must not exceed ten percent of the sale price for sales of $10,000 or more. The broker's fee must be paid to the broker from the proceeds of the sale.
History:
1959 c 500 art 2 s 43 ; 1971 c 276 s 1 ; 1976 c 166 s 7 ; 1980 c 533 s 8 ; 1983 c 143 s 6 ; 1984 c 654 art 3 s 57
Minn. Stat. § 161.433
161.433 USE OF HIGHWAY AIRSPACE AND SUBSURFACE.
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Subdivision 1. Lease or permit, conditions and restrictions.
The commissioner of transportation may lease or otherwise permit the use of the airspace above and subsurface area below the surface of the right-of-way of any trunk highway, including the surface of the right-of-way above and below the airspace or subsurface areas, where the land is owned in fee by the state for trunk highway purposes when the use will not impair or interfere with the use and safety of the highway. The lease, permit, or other agreement may contain such restrictive clauses as the commissioner deems necessary in the interest of safety and convenience of public travel and other highway purposes. No lease, permit, or other agreement shall be for a period in excess of 99 years. Vehicular access to such airspace, subsurface, or surface areas shall not be allowed directly from the highway where such access would violate the provisions of United States Code, title 23, or would interfere in any way with the free flow of traffic on the highway. Any lease, permit, or other agreement shall have the approval of the appropriate federal agency when required.
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Subd. 2. Consideration for use.
The consideration paid for the use of airspace or subsurface areas shall be determined by the commissioner, but in no event shall it be less than a fair rental rate, and shall include costs for the erection and maintenance of any facilities or other costs occasioned by that use. All moneys received shall be paid into the trunk highway fund. This subdivision does not apply to real estate leased for the purpose of providing commercial and public service advertising pursuant to agreements as provided in sections
Minn. Stat. § 163.13
163.13 PETITION FOR HIGHWAY OR PORTAGE.
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Subdivision 1. Contents of petition.
Any person who owns real estate in a county may petition the county board to establish, alter, or vacate a county highway or portage. The petition shall set forth the beginning, course, and termination of the highway or portage with reasonable definiteness. It shall be filed with the county auditor and shall be considered at the next regular county board meeting. The board shall hear all interested persons at that meeting or at such continued meetings as the board deems necessary.
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Subd. 2. Resolution of county board, procedure.
After investigating the matters contained in the petition, and after hearing all interested persons, the board, by resolution, shall make its determination. If it determines to grant the petition it shall proceed as provided in section
Minn. Stat. § 168A.151
168A.151 .
(i) "Leasing motor vehicles" means furnishing a motor vehicle for a fee under a bailor-bailee relationship where no incidences of ownership are intended to be transferred other than the right to use the vehicle for a stated period of time.
(j) "Motor vehicle" has the meaning given it in section 168.002, subdivision 18 , and also includes a park trailer as defined in section 168.002, subdivision 23 .
(k) "Motor vehicle broker" means a person who arranges the sale of a motor vehicle between a buyer and a seller, or the lease of a motor vehicle between a lessee and a lessor, for which service the broker receives a fee.
(l) "New motor vehicle" means a motor vehicle other than described in paragraph (n).
(m) "Registration year" means the 12-month period for which a dealer license is issued.
(n) "Used motor vehicle" means a motor vehicle for which title has been transferred from the person who first acquired it from the manufacturer, distributor, or dealer. A new motor vehicle will not be considered a used motor vehicle until it has been placed in actual operation and not held for resale by an owner who has been granted a certificate of title on the motor vehicle and has registered the motor vehicle in accordance with this chapter and chapters 168A and 297B, or the laws of the residence of the owner.
(o) "Wholesaling motor vehicles" means selling new or used motor vehicles to dealers for resale to the public.
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Subd. 1a. Dealer license categories.
(a) No person shall engage in the business of selling new motor vehicles or shall offer to sell, solicit, deliver, or advertise the sale of new motor vehicles without first acquiring a new motor vehicle dealer license.
(b) No person shall engage in the business of selling used motor vehicles or shall offer to sell, solicit, deliver, or advertise the sale of used motor vehicles without first acquiring a used motor vehicle dealer license.
(c) No person shall engage in the business of buying or otherwise acquiring vehicles; or offering to buy or otherwise acquire, or soliciting or advertising the buying or acquiring of, vehicles for processing and selling the metal for remelting without first acquiring a scrap metal processor license.
(d) No person shall be primarily engaged in the business of buying or otherwise acquiring vehicles for the purpose of dismantling the vehicles and selling used parts and the remaining scrap metals without first acquiring a used vehicle parts dealer license.
(e) No person shall engage in the business of storing and displaying, offering to store or display, or soliciting or advertising the storing or displaying, for sale, of damaged or junked vehicles as an agent or escrow agent of an insurance company without first acquiring a vehicle salvage pool license.
(f) No person shall engage in the business of leasing motor vehicles or shall offer to lease, solicit or advertise to lease motor vehicles without first acquiring a motor vehicle lessor license.
(g) No person shall engage in the business of wholesaling motor vehicles to dealers for resale or shall offer to sell, solicit or advertise the sale of motor vehicles to dealers for resale without first acquiring a motor vehicle wholesaler license.
(h) No person shall engage in the business of auctioning motor vehicles for more than one owner at an auction or shall offer to sell, solicit or advertise the sale of motor vehicles at auction without first acquiring a motor vehicle auctioneer license.
(i) No person shall engage in the business of brokering motor vehicles without first acquiring a motor vehicle broker's license.
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Subd. 2. New motor vehicle dealer.
(a) A new motor vehicle dealer licensee may sell, broker, wholesale, or auction and solicit and advertise the sale, brokerage, wholesale, or auction of new motor vehicles covered by the franchise and any used motor vehicles, and may lease and solicit and advertise the lease of new motor vehicles and any used motor vehicles. New motor vehicle dealer sales or leases may be either for consumer use at retail or for resale to a dealer. A new motor vehicle dealer may engage in the business of buying or otherwise acquiring vehicles for dismantling the vehicles and selling used parts and remaining scrap materials under chapter 168A, except that a new motor vehicle dealer may not purchase a junked vehicle from a salvage pool, insurance company, or its agent unless the dealer is also licensed as a used vehicle parts dealer or licensed as a scrap metal processor. Nothing in this subdivision requires an applicant for a dealer license who proposes to deal in: (1) new and unused motor vehicle bodies; or (2) type A, B, or C motor homes as defined in section 168.002, subdivision 17 , to have a bona fide contract or franchise in effect with either the first-stage manufacturer of the motor home or the manufacturer or distributor of any motor vehicle chassis upon which the new and unused motor vehicle body is mounted. The modification or conversion of a new van-type vehicle into a multipurpose passenger vehicle which is not a motor home does not constitute dealing in new or unused motor vehicle bodies, and a person engaged in the business of selling these van-type vehicles must have a bona fide contract or franchise with the appropriate manufacturer under subdivision 10. A van converter or modifier who owns these modified or converted van-type vehicles may sell them at wholesale to new motor vehicle dealers having a bona fide contract or franchise with the first-stage manufacturer of the vehicles.
(b) The requirements pertaining to franchises do not apply to persons who remodel or convert motor vehicles for medical purposes. For purposes of this subdivision, "medical purpose" means certification by a licensed physician that remodeling or conversion of a motor vehicle is necessary to enable a disabled person to use the vehicle.
(c) A new motor vehicle dealer shall not deliver a manufacturer's or importer's certificate of origin for a passenger automobile, pickup truck, or van requiring a certificate of title according to chapter 168A to any person in conjunction with the sale of a vehicle except to the department, another new motor vehicle dealer licensed to sell the same line or make, or a person whose primary business is picking up and delivering motor vehicle title documents.
(d) If a new motor vehicle dealer agrees to sell or lease a new motor vehicle using the services of a motor vehicle broker, the new motor vehicle dealer may not refuse to deliver possession of the vehicle to the buyer or lessee. This paragraph does not require delivery unless all arrangements have been properly completed for payment, insurance required by law, titling, transfer, and registration of the new vehicle and any trade-in vehicle. Delivery may take place at or away from the dealership.
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Subd. 2a. Dealer training; electric vehicles.
(a) A new motor vehicle dealer licensed under this chapter that operates under an agreement or franchise from a manufacturer and sells electric vehicles must maintain at least one employee who is certified as having completed a training course offered by a Minnesota motor vehicle dealership association that addresses at least the following elements:
(1) fundamentals of electric vehicles;
(2) electric vehicle charging options and costs;
(3) publicly available electric vehicle incentives;
(4) projected maintenance and fueling costs for electric vehicles;
(5) reduced tailpipe emissions, including greenhouse gas emissions, produced by electric vehicles;
(6) the impacts of Minnesota's cold climate on electric vehicle operation; and
(7) best practices to sell electric vehicles.
(b) For the purposes of this section, "electric vehicle" has the meaning given in section 169.011, subdivision 26a , paragraphs (a) and (b), clause (3).
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Subd. 3. Used motor vehicle dealer.
A used motor vehicle dealer licensee may sell, lease, broker, wholesale, or auction and solicit and advertise the sale, lease, brokerage, wholesale, or auction of any used motor vehicles for consumer use at retail or for resale to a dealer. A used motor vehicle dealer may engage in the business of buying or otherwise acquiring vehicles for dismantling the vehicles and selling used parts and remaining scrap materials under chapter 168A, except that a used motor vehicle dealer may not acquire a junked vehicle from a salvage pool, insurance company, or its agent, unless the dealer is also licensed as a used vehicle parts dealer or licensed as a scrap metal processor.
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Subd. 3a. Scrap metal processor.
A scrap metal processor licensee may buy or otherwise acquire vehicles and solicit and advertise the buying or acquiring of vehicles for processing and selling the metal for remelting. A scrap metal processor licensee may not acquire a junked vehicle for the purpose of dismantling and selling used vehicle parts and remaining scrap materials unless the scrap metal processor is also licensed as a used vehicle parts dealer.
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Subd. 3b.
MS 2000 [Repealed by amendment, 2002 c 371 art 1 s 9 ]
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Subd. 3c. Vehicle salvage pool.
A vehicle salvage pool licensee may store and display and may solicit and advertise the storing and displaying, for sale, of damaged or junked vehicles as an agent or escrow agent of an insurance company. A vehicle salvage pool licensee shall not sell junked vehicles to any party other than a licensed used parts dealer or a licensed scrap metal processor.
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Subd. 3d. Used vehicle parts dealer.
A used vehicle parts dealer licensee may sell, solicit, or advertise the sale of used parts and the remaining scrap metals, but is prohibited from selling any new or used motor vehicles for use at retail or for resale to a dealer.
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Subd. 4. Motor vehicle lessor.
A motor vehicle lessor licensee may lease or rent either by the hour, day, or longer period for a fee and may solicit and advertise the lease or rental of motor vehicles. A motor vehicle lessor having leased motor vehicles, may sell the vehicles upon their return to the lessor after termination or expiration of the lease without obtaining a used motor vehicle dealer license.
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Subd. 4a. Limited used vehicle license.
(a) A limited used vehicle license shall be provided to a nonprofit charitable organization that qualifies for tax exemption under section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code whose primary business in the transfer of vehicles is to raise funds for the corporation, who acquires vehicles for sale through donation, and who uses a licensed motor vehicle auctioneer to sell vehicles to individuals, or who sells and reassigns vehicles to a licensed motor vehicle dealer. This license does not apply to educational institutions whose primary purpose is to train students in the repair, maintenance, and sale of motor vehicles. A limited used vehicle license allows the organization to accept assignment of vehicles without the requirement to transfer title as provided in section
Minn. Stat. § 16A.013
16A.013 GIFTS; ACCEPTANCE.
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Subdivision 1. Procedure.
The commissioner of management and budget is authorized to receive and accept, on behalf of the state, any gift, bequest, devise, or endowment which may be made by any person, by will, deed, gift, or otherwise, to or for the benefit of the state, or any of its departments or agencies, or to or in aid, or for the benefit, support, or maintenance of any educational, charitable, or other institution maintained in whole or in part by the state, or for the benefit of students, employees, or inmates thereof, or for any proper state purpose or function, and the money, property, or funds constituting such gift, bequest, devise, or endowment. No such gift, bequest, devise, or endowment shall be so accepted unless the commissioner of management and budget determines that it is for the interest of the state to accept it, and approve of and direct the acceptance. If a gift, bequest, devise, or endowment is money or other negotiable instruments, then the deposit of it does not constitute acceptance. In the event that the money or other negotiable instruments are deposited but not approved, the amount deposited must be refunded. When, in order to effect the purpose for which any gift, bequest, devise, or endowment has been accepted, it is necessary to sell property so received, the commissioner of management and budget, upon request of the authority in charge of the agency, department, or institution concerned, may sell it at a price which shall be fixed by the State Board of Investment.
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Subd. 2. Charitable trusts; administration.
When a charitable trust is created by will or otherwise for the benefit of the state or any of its departments or agencies or to or in aid, or for the benefit, support or maintenance of any educational, charitable, or other institution maintained in whole or in part by the state, or for the benefit of students, employees, or inmates thereof and any officer or employee of the state or any of its departments or agencies is named in the trust instrument as trustee, it shall be presumed that such trust is a gift to be administered under this section and the courts shall construe the instrument creating the trust accordingly.
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Subd. 3. Gift subject to contract.
Whenever the gift, bequest, devise, or endowment referred to in subdivisions 1 and 2 consists of real property, or an interest therein, which is subject to a contract for the conveyance thereof made by the donor or a predecessor in interest with another, or of the vendor's interest, or some portion thereof, in such a contract for conveyance, the commissioner of management and budget is authorized, on behalf of and in the name of the state of Minnesota, upon receipt from the vendee under such contract for conveyance, or the vendee's personal representatives or assigns, of such amounts as are due the state or the department, agency, or institution involved, to execute a deed conveying to such vendee, or the vendee's personal representatives or assigns, all the right, title, and interest of the state of Minnesota in and to the real property involved.
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Subd. 4. Termination of contract.
In case of default by the purchaser, or the purchaser's personal representatives or assigns, in the conditions of any such contract for the conveyance of real estate, the commissioner of management and budget is authorized, in the name of the state of Minnesota, to terminate such contract under and pursuant to the provisions of Minnesota Statutes 1941, section
Minn. Stat. § 16A.14
16A.14 ALLOTMENT AND ENCUMBRANCE SYSTEM.
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Subdivision 1. Less than fiscal year.
The commissioner may set an allotment period shorter than and not extending beyond the fiscal year.
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Subd. 1a. Permanent improvements.
Subdivision 1 does not apply for allotments of appropriations for permanent improvements, including acquisition of real property.
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Subd. 2. Application.
The allotment and encumbrance system applies to all appropriations and funds except as provided in subdivisions 2a, 2b, and 2c.
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Subd. 2a. Exceptions.
The allotment and encumbrance system does not apply to:
(1) appropriations for the courts or the legislature;
(2) payment of unemployment benefits; and
(3) transactions within the defined contribution funds administered by the Minnesota State Retirement System.
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Subd. 2b. Impractical allotments.
With permanent improvement contracts and transactions for the acquisition of real estate, equipment, repair, rehabilitation, appurtenances or utility systems to be used for public purposes, the commissioner may do away with periodic allotments as impractical and make rules to ensure the proper application and encumbering of funds.
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Subd. 2c. Contingent funds.
Contingent appropriations for the governor and the attorney general are not subject to allotment. They are subject to the prescriptions in this chapter relating to spending and encumbering of funds.
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Subd. 3. Spending plan.
An appropriation to an agency may not be made available for spending in the next allotment period until the agency has met all the requirements related to the policies and procedures of the Minnesota accounting and procurement system. A spending plan shall be submitted by July 31 to the commissioner on the commissioner's form. The spending plan must certify that: the amount required for each activity is accurate and is consistent with legislative intent; revenue estimates are reasonable; and the plan is structurally balanced, with all legal restrictions on spending having been met for the purpose for which money is to be spent.
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Subd. 4. Approval.
The commissioner shall approve the estimated amount for expenditure if the spending plan is within the amount and purpose of the appropriation. In doing so, the commissioner must keep in mind the probable needs of the agency for the rest of the term of the appropriation, and whether there is a need for the appropriation in the next allotment period. Otherwise the commissioner shall modify the spending plan and the allotment to conform with the appropriation and the future needs of the agency. The commissioner shall act promptly on a spending plan. The commissioner shall notify an agency of its allotments at least five days before an allotment period. Allotments to an agency for an appropriation term may not exceed the amount appropriated for that term.
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Subd. 5. Modification.
After approval, the commissioner may modify a spending plan for cause. An agency may apply for and must be notified of the modification. The modification may not result in a deficit or an undue reduction of funds to meet future agency needs.
History:
1976 c 166 s 7 ; 1976 c 231 s 8 ; 1984 c 628 art 2 s 1 ; art 6 s 1; 1984 c 654 art 2 s 61 ; 1994 c 488 s 8 ; 1999 c 107 s 66 ; 2000 c 343 s 4 ; 2003 c 112 art 1 s 8 ; 2018 c 211 art 9 s 3
Minn. Stat. § 16B.24
16B.24 any portion of the facilities not required for the direct use of the retirement plan boards.
(c) The boards shall formulate, adopt, and periodically revise a written working agreement that sets forth the nature of each retirement system's ownership interest, the duties and obligations of each system toward the construction, operation, and maintenance costs of its facilities, and identifies one retirement fund to serve as manager for operating and maintenance purposes. The boards may contract with independent third parties for maintenance-related activities, services, and supplies, and may use the services of the Department of Administration where the boards determine that it is economically feasible to do so. If the boards cannot agree or cannot resolve a dispute about the operations or maintenance of the facilities, they may request the commissioner of administration to appoint a representative from the department's real estate management division to serve as arbitrator of the dispute with authority to issue a written resolution of the dispute.
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Subd. 4. Revenue bonds.
(a) The commissioner of management and budget may issue bonds for the purpose of refunding bonds issued under Minnesota Statutes 2001, section 356.89, subdivision 4 . The bonds may be sold and issued on terms and in a manner the commissioner of management and budget determines to be in the best interests of the state.
(b) The proceeds of the bonds must be credited to a bond proceeds account in the pension building fund which the commissioner of management and budget must create in the state treasury.
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Subd. 5. Security.
(a) The boards may pledge any or all assets of the retirement fund or funds administered by the boards as security for the bonds.
(b) The bonds and the interest on them must be paid solely from and secured by the assets of the boards pledged and appropriated for these purposes to the debt service fund created in subdivision 6 and any investment income on the fund and any reserve established for this purpose.
(c) The bonds are not public debt, and the full faith, credit, and taxing powers of the state are not pledged for their payment. The bonds and the interest on them must not be paid, directly or indirectly, in whole or in part, from a tax of statewide application on any class of property, income, transaction, or privilege.
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Subd. 6. Debt service fund.
There is established in the state treasury a separate and special pension building debt service fund. Money in the funds managed by the boards is appropriated to the boards for transfer to the pension building debt service fund. Money appropriated and transferred to the fund and investment income on it on hand or required to be transferred to the fund must be used and is irrevocably appropriated to pay when due the principal of and interest on the bonds referenced in subdivision 4.
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Subd. 7. Covenants; agreements.
The covenants and agreements entered into by the commissioner of management and budget for the construction of the pension building that were not inconsistent with Minnesota Statutes 2001, section
Minn. Stat. § 16C.05
16C.05 do not apply to certificates of deposit and collateralization agreements executed by the state board under paragraph (a), clause (2).
(c) In addition to investments authorized by paragraph (a), clause (4), the state board is authorized to purchase from the Minnesota Housing Finance Agency all or any part of a pool of residential mortgages, not in default, that has previously been financed by the issuance of bonds or notes of the agency. The state board may also enter into a commitment with the agency, at the time of any issue of bonds or notes, to purchase at a specified future date, not exceeding 12 years from the date of the issue, the amount of mortgage loans then outstanding and not in default that have been made or purchased from the proceeds of the bonds or notes. The state board may charge reasonable fees for any such commitment and may agree to purchase the mortgage loans at a price sufficient to produce a yield to the state board comparable, in its judgment, to the yield available on similar mortgage loans at the date of the bonds or notes. The state board may also enter into agreements with the agency for the investment of any portion of the funds of the agency. The agreement must cover the period of the investment, withdrawal privileges, and any guaranteed rate of return.
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Subd. 5. Corporate stocks.
The state board is authorized to invest funds in stocks or convertible issues of any corporation organized under the laws of the United States or any of its states, the Dominion of Canada or any of its provinces, or any corporation listed on an exchange that is regulated by an agency of the United States or of the Canadian national government.
An investment in any corporation must not exceed five percent of the total outstanding shares of that corporation, except that the state board may hold up to 20 percent of the shares of a real estate investment trust and up to 20 percent of the shares of a closed-end mutual fund.
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Subd. 5a. Asset mix limitations.
The aggregate value of investments under subdivision 5, plus the aggregate value of all investments under subdivision 6, must not exceed 85 percent of the market value of a fund.
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Subd. 6. Other investments.
(a) In addition to the investments authorized in subdivisions 1 to 5, and subject to the provisions in paragraph (b), the state board is authorized to invest funds in:
(1) equity and debt investment businesses through participation in limited partnerships, trusts, private placements, limited liability corporations, limited liability companies, limited liability partnerships, and corporations;
(2) real estate ownership interests or loans secured by mortgages or deeds of trust or shares of real estate investment trusts through investment in limited partnerships, bank-sponsored collective funds, trusts, mortgage participation agreements, and insurance company commingled accounts;
(3) resource investments through limited partnerships, trusts, private placements, limited liability corporations, limited liability companies, limited liability partnerships, and corporations;
(4) investment vehicles that are co-investments or separate accounts;
(5) liquid alternatives;
(6) bank loans; and
(7) international securities.
(b) The investments authorized in paragraph (a) must conform to the following clauses:
(1) the aggregate value of all investments made under paragraph (a), clauses (1) to (4), may not exceed 35 percent of the market value of the fund for which the state board is investing;
(2) there must be at least four unrelated owners of the investment other than the state board for investments made under paragraph (a), clause (1), (2), or (3);
(3) state board participation in an investment vehicle is limited to 20 percent thereof for investments made under paragraph (a), clause (1), (2), or (3); and
(4) state board participation in an investment vehicle does not include a general partnership interest or other interest involving general liability. The state board may not participate in any investment vehicle in a manner which creates general liability.
(c) All financial, business, or proprietary data collected, created, received, or maintained by the state board in connection with investments authorized by paragraph (a), clauses (1) to (6), are nonpublic data under section 13.02, subdivision 9 . As used in this paragraph, "financial, business, or proprietary data" means data, as determined by the responsible authority for the state board, that is of a financial, business, or proprietary nature, the release of which could cause competitive harm to the state board, the legal entity in which the state board has invested or has considered an investment, the managing entity of an investment, or a portfolio company in which the legal entity holds an interest. As used in this section, "business data" is data described in section 13.591, subdivision 1 . Regardless of whether they could be considered financial, business, or proprietary data, the following data received, prepared, used, or retained by the state board in connection with investments authorized by paragraph (a), clauses (1) to (6), are public at all times:
(1) the name and industry group classification of the legal entity in which the state board has invested or in which the state board has considered an investment;
(2) the state board commitment amount, if any;
(3) the funded amount of the state board's commitment to date, if any;
(4) the market value of the investment by the state board;
(5) the state board's internal rate of return for the investment, including expenditures and receipts used in the calculation of the investment's internal rate of return; and
(6) the age of the investment in years.
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Subd. 7. Appropriation.
There is annually appropriated to the state board, from the assets of the funds for which the state board invests relating to authorized investments under subdivision 6, paragraph (a), sums sufficient to pay the costs for the management of these assets by private management firms.
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Subd. 8. Contracts.
Section 16C.05, subdivision 8 , paragraph (a), clauses (2) and (5), do not apply to contracts entered into by the State Board of Investment related to an investment under this section.
History:
1980 c 607 art 14 s 22 ; 1981 c 208 s 3 -6,9; 1982 c 587 s 2 ; 1983 c 216 art 1 s 5 ; 1983 c 324 s 7 -9; 1984 c 382 s 1 ; 1984 c 383 s 2 ,3; 1985 c 224 s 3 -5; 1987 c 72 s 1 ; 1987 c 372 art 8 s 2 -6; 1988 c 453 s 7 ,8; 1991 c 47 s 1 ; 1991 c 206 s 1 ; 1992 c 539 s 9 ; 1992 c 587 art 2 s 2 ; 1992 c 592 s 2 ; 1993 c 300 s 6 ,7; 1994 c 604 art 1 s 7 -11; 1995 c 122 s 1 ; 1998 c 386 art 2 s 8 ; 2000 c 392 s 1 ,2; 2005 c 156 art 2 s 7 ; 2005 c 163 s 2 ; 2009 c 86 art 1 s 90 ; 2012 c 286 art 10 s 3 ; 2013 c 111 art 1 s 1 ; 2020 c 108 art 1 s 1 ,2; 2025 c 39 art 2 s 14
Minn. Stat. § 16C.16
16C.16 ; and chapter 14, except section 14.386, paragraph (a) , clauses (1) and (3). Section 14.386, paragraph (b) , does not apply to the board's actions.
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Subd. 5c. Financial report.
The board shall employ a certified public accountant to audit and examine its financial records each year. The board shall submit to the legislative auditor a report of the accountant's examination or audit. The legislative auditor shall review the report and may make additional examinations if these would be in the public interest. The working papers of the certified public accountant relating to the board must be made available to the legislative auditor on request.
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Subd. 6. Lands.
Lands necessary for any of the purposes enumerated in this section may be acquired by eminent domain proceedings under the authority of chapter 117.
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Subd. 7. Rules.
The board may enact rules governing the efficient protection of the Minnesota Zoological Garden and the related facilities and the conduct of persons entering therein. Notwithstanding subdivision 5b, rules shall become effective in the manner provided by law for the promulgation of rules by state departments and agencies. The violation of a rule promulgated by the board under this section is a petty misdemeanor. The board may specify that violation of a designated rule shall be sufficient cause for ejection from the grounds of the zoological garden.
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Subd. 8.
[Repealed, 1973 c 207 s 6 ]
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Subd. 9. Federal laws and regulations.
The board shall comply with all federal laws and any rules or regulations prescribed by any agency of the federal government, relating to the quarantine, transportation, examination, habitation, care, and treatment of wild animals. The Department of Natural Resources may prescribe rules supplemental to such federal regulations, relating to the transportation, examination, care, and treatment of wild animals native to this state held or proposed to be acquired by the board and may inspect all such wild animals as often and at such times as it shall deem necessary.
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Subd. 10. Wild animal exemption.
(a) The board shall not be subject to the provisions of chapters 17, 35, 97A, 97B, and 97C, and section 343.21, subdivision 8 , relating to purchase, barter, sale, possession, breeding, or transporting wild animals, but must comply with paragraph (b).
(b) The board must request a permit from the Board of Animal Health for any exemption from the provisions of chapter 35 or rules adopted thereunder and from the Department of Natural Resources for any exemption from the provisions of chapter 97A, 97B, or 97C or rules adopted thereunder.
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Subd. 11. Operation.
The board shall have all powers necessary or convenient to discharge the duties imposed upon it by law, and to operate the zoological garden in the manner which will best serve the public.
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Subd. 12. Report.
The board shall report to the legislature by September 15 of each year on the activities of the board and the operation of the zoological garden. The report must summarize the activities of the board and the Minnesota Zoological Garden over the preceding fiscal year ending June 30. The report must be submitted together with the financial report required by subdivision 5c.
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Subd. 13. Real estate acquisition.
The board may acquire by gift, purchase, or condemnation any real estate, not previously acquired and conveyed to the state by the county of Dakota, necessary to complete the zoo site as described in Laws 1975, chapter 382, section 12 or to meet United States Department of Agriculture certification requirements. Funds from the Minnesota Zoological Garden building account may be expended for the acquisitions.
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Subd. 14. Animals.
The board may sell or exchange animals determined by it to be superfluous to zoo operations, subject to all state and federal regulations.
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Subd. 15. Advertising.
The board may provide for promotional and advertising programs which may be developed and implemented either by zoological garden personnel or by contract with outside personnel and which shall be paid for out of funds other than bond revenues.
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Subd. 16. Lease-purchase; installment purchase.
The board may acquire by lease-purchase or installment purchase contract, transportation systems, facilities and equipment that it determines will substantially enhance the public's opportunity to view, study, or derive information concerning the animals to be located in the zoological garden, and will increase attendance at the garden. The contracts may provide for: (1) the payment of money over a 12-year period, or over a longer period not exceeding 25 years if approved by the board; (2) the payment of money from any funds of the board not pledged or appropriated for another purpose; (3) indemnification of the lessor or seller for damage to property or injury to persons due primarily to the actions of the board or its employees; (4) the transfer of title to the property to the board upon execution of the contract or upon payment of specified amounts; (5) the reservation to the lessor or seller of a security interest in the property; and (6) any other terms that the board determines to be commercially reasonable. Property so acquired by the board, and its purchase or use by the board, or by any nonprofit corporation having a concession from the board requiring its purchase, shall not be subject to taxation by the state or its political subdivisions. Each contract shall be subject to the provisions of chapter 16C, relating to competitive bidding, provided that, notwithstanding subdivision 5b, the board is not required to readvertise for competitive proposals for any transportation system, facilities and equipment heretofore selected from competitive proposals.
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Subd. 17. Additional powers.
(a) The board may establish a schedule of charges for admission to or the use of the Minnesota Zoological Garden or any related facility. Notwithstanding section
Minn. Stat. § 17.5
17.5
January 1, 1994
15
Nothing in this paragraph limits the ability of a company to invest in noninvestment grade obligations as provided under subdivision 12.
(g) Obligations for the payment of money under the following conditions: (1) The obligation must be secured, either solely or in conjunction with other security, by an assignment of a lease or leases on property, real or personal; (2) the lease or leases must be nonterminable by the lessee or lessees upon foreclosure of any lien upon the leased property; (3) the rents payable under the lease or leases must be sufficient to amortize at least 90 percent of the obligation during the primary term of the lease; and (4) the lessee or lessees under the lease or leases, or a governmental entity or business entity, organized under the laws of the United States or any state thereof, or the Dominion of Canada, or any province thereof, that has assumed or guaranteed any lessee's performance thereunder, must be a governmental entity or business entity whose obligations would qualify as an investment under subdivision 2 or paragraph (e) or (f). A company may acquire leases assumed or guaranteed by a noninvestment grade lessee unless the value of the lease, when added to the other noninvestment grade obligations owned by the company, exceeds 15 percent of the company's admitted assets.
(h) A company may sell call options against stocks or other securities owned by the company and may purchase call options in a closing transaction against a call option previously written by the company. In addition to the authority granted by paragraph (c), to the extent and on the terms and conditions the commissioner determines to be consistent with the purposes of this chapter, a company may purchase or sell other exchange-traded call options, and may sell or purchase exchange-traded put options.
(i) A company may not invest in a security or other obligation authorized under this subdivision if the investment, valued at cost at the date of purchase, causes the company's aggregate investment in any one business entity to exceed two percent of the company's admitted assets.
(j) For nonprofit health service plan corporations regulated under chapter 62C, and for health maintenance organizations regulated under chapter 62D, a company may invest in commercial paper rated in one of the two highest rating categories by at least one nationally recognized statistical rating organization, or rated in one of the two highest categories established by the Securities Valuation Office of the National Association of Insurance Commissioners, if the investment, valued at cost at the date of purchase, does not cause the company's aggregate investment in any one business entity to exceed six percent of the company's admitted assets.
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Subd. 7. Transportation equipment obligations.
Equipment trust obligations or certificates which are adequately secured or other adequately secured instruments evidencing an interest in transportation equipment purchased, leased, or under contract for purchase or lease by a corporation incorporated in the United States or in Canada or by a receiver or trustee of such corporation and a right to receive determined portions of rental, purchase or other fixed obligatory payments for the use or purchase of such transportation equipment.
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Subd. 8. Asset backed arrangements.
Investments in asset backed arrangements that meet the definitions and credit criteria provided in this subdivision. For purposes of this subdivision, "asset backed arrangement" means a loan participation or loan to or equity investment in a business entity that has as its primary business activity the acquisition and holding of financial assets for the benefit of its debt and equity holders.
In order to qualify for investment under this subdivision:
(a) the investment in the asset backed arrangement must be secured by or represent an undivided interest in a single financial asset or a pool of financial assets; and
(b) either (1) at least 90 percent of the dollar value of the financial assets held under the asset backed arrangement qualifies for direct investment under this section; (2) the investment in the asset backed arrangement is rated in one of the four highest rating categories by at least one nationally recognized statistical rating organization; or (3) the investment in the asset backed arrangement is rated in one of the two highest categories established by the Securities Valuation Office of the National Association of Insurance Commissioners.
Examples of asset backed arrangements authorized by this subdivision include, but are not limited to: general and limited partnership interests; participations under unit investment trusts such as collateralized mortgage obligations and collateralized bond obligations; shares in, or obligations of, corporations formed for holding investment assets, and contractual participation interests in a loan or group of loans.
A company may not invest in an asset backed arrangement if the investment causes the company's aggregate investment in the financial assets held under the asset backed arrangement to exceed any of the concentration limits contained in this section.
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Subd. 9. Obligations of trustees and receivers.
Certificates, notes, or other obligations issued by trustees or receivers of any institution created or existing under the laws of the United States or of any state, district, or territory thereof, which, or the assets of which, are being administered under the direction of any court having jurisdiction if such obligation is adequately secured as to principal and interest; the amount invested in the securities mentioned in this subdivision shall not, at any time, exceed 25 percent of the unassigned surplus and capital of the company.
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Subd. 9a. Hedging.
A domestic life insurance company may enter into financial transactions solely for the purpose of reducing the risk associated with assets and liabilities that the company has acquired or incurred or has legally contracted to acquire or incur, and not for speculative or other purposes. For purposes of this subdivision, "financial transactions" include, but are not limited to, futures, options to buy or sell fixed income securities, repurchase and reverse repurchase agreements, and interest rate swaps, caps, and floors. This authority is in addition to any other authority of the insurer.
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Subd. 10. Real estate sales contracts.
Real estate sales contracts to which the company is not an original party, involving unencumbered real property situated in the United States, having a value of at least 50 percent more than the amount of the unpaid balance of the contract, same to be assigned or otherwise transferred to the company or to a trustee or nominee of its choosing. No improvement shall be included in estimating the value unless the same shall be insured against fire by policies payable to and held by the company or a trustee or nominee for its benefit. The foregoing provisions of this subdivision shall not apply to real estate sales contracts to which the company is an original party and shall not prohibit the company from holding such contracts as an investment.
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Subd. 11. Policy loans.
Loans on the security of insurance policies issued by itself to an amount not exceeding the loan value thereof; and loans on the pledge of any of the securities eligible for investment under the provisions of subdivisions 2 to 10, with the exception of noninvestment grade obligations as defined in subdivision 6, paragraph (f), but not exceeding 95 percent of the value of securities enumerated in subdivisions 2, 3, and 4 and 80 percent of the value of stocks and other securities; in case of securities enumerated in subdivisions 3, 5, and 10 "value" means principal amount unpaid thereon and in case of other securities market value thereof; in case of securities enumerated in subdivisions 3 and 10 the pledge agreement shall require principal payments by the pledgor at least equal to and concurrent with principal payments on the pledged security; in loans authorized by this subdivision, except as otherwise provided by law in regard to policy loans, the company shall reserve the right at any time to declare the indebtedness due and payable when in excess of such proportions of value or, in case of pledge of securities other than those enumerated in subdivisions 3 and 10, upon depreciation of security. In the case of securities enumerated in subdivision 8, the provision of this subdivision must be applied in accordance with the type of security subject to the asset backed arrangement.
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Subd. 12. Additional investments.
Investments of any kind, without regard to the categories, conditions, standards, or other limitations set forth in the foregoing subdivisions and section 61A.31, subdivision 3 , except that the prohibitions in clause (d) of subdivision 3 remains applicable, may be made by a domestic life insurance company in an amount not to exceed the lesser of the following:
(1) five percent of the company's total admitted assets as of the end of the preceding calendar year; or
(2) fifty percent of the amount by which its capital and surplus as of the end of the preceding calendar year exceeds $675,000. Except as provided in section
Minn. Stat. § 17.985
17.985 PASSING ON THE FARM CENTER.
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Subdivision 1. Purpose; objectives.
The Passing on the Farm Center is established as a part of Southwest Technical College in Granite Falls to assist individuals beginning farming and family farming operations. The center shall also assist in facilitating the transition of farming operations from established farmers to beginning farmers by creating and maintaining an information base inventorying land and facilities available for acquisition and bringing them together to increase the number of family farming operations in this state. The objectives of the center include, but are not limited to, the following:
(1) using the services of a certified public accountant, real estate agents, and attorneys to provide education in estate planning and farm transfer programs for interested retiring farmers;
(2) assessing needs of beginning farmers and retiring farmers in order to identify program and service opportunities including developing statewide apprenticeship programs between beginning and retiring farmers; and
(3) developing, coordinating, and delivering statewide through Southwest Technical College in Granite Falls and other entities, as appropriate, targeted education to beginning farmers and retiring farm families.
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Subd. 2. Programs and services.
Programs and services provided by the center must include, but are not limited to, the development of skills and knowledge in farm estate planning and other topics related to intergenerational farm transfer. The center shall develop and distribute a detailed questionnaire for interested retired farmers and landowners and beginning farmers for the purpose of connecting them with each other and to develop computerized lists. The center shall coordinate to the extent practicable with agricultural information centers.
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Subd. 3. Annual report.
The center shall submit a report annually to the legislature on or before February 1. The report shall include, but is not limited to, recommendations for methods by which more individuals may be encouraged to enter agriculture.
History:
1995 c 220 s 41
ENTRY INTO FARM ANIMAL FACILITIES
Minn. Stat. § 171.0605
171.0605 EVIDENCE OF IDENTITY AND LAWFUL PRESENCE.
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Subdivision 1. Scope and application.
This section applies only to driver's licenses and Minnesota identification cards that meet all requirements of the REAL ID Act. Except as otherwise provided under this section, the requirements of Minnesota Rules, chapter 7410, or successor rules, apply.
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Subd. 2. Evidence; identity; date of birth.
(a) Only the following is satisfactory evidence of an applicant's identity and date of birth under section 171.06, subdivision 3 , paragraph (b):
(1) a driver's license or identification card that:
(i) complies with all requirements of the REAL ID Act;
(ii) is not designated as temporary or limited term; and
(iii) is current or has been expired for five years or less;
(2) a valid, unexpired United States passport, including a passport booklet or passport card, issued by the United States Department of State;
(3) a certified copy of a birth certificate issued by a government bureau of vital statistics or equivalent agency in the applicant's state of birth, which must bear the raised or authorized seal of the issuing government entity;
(4) a consular report of birth abroad, certification of report of birth, or certification of birth abroad, issued by the United States Department of State, Form FS-240, Form DS-1350, or Form FS-545;
(5) a valid, unexpired permanent resident card issued by the United States Department of Homeland Security or the former Immigration and Naturalization Service of the United States Department of Justice, Form I-551. If the Form I-551 validity period has been automatically extended by the United States Department of Homeland Security, it is deemed unexpired, regardless of the expiration date listed;
(6) a foreign passport with an unexpired temporary I-551 stamp or a temporary I-551 printed notation on a machine-readable immigrant visa with a United States Department of Homeland Security admission stamp within the validity period;
(7) a United States Department of Homeland Security Form I-94 or Form I-94A with a photograph and an unexpired temporary I-551 stamp;
(8) a United States Department of State Form DS-232 with a United States Department of Homeland Security admission stamp and validity period;
(9) a certificate of naturalization issued by the United States Department of Homeland Security, Form N-550 or Form N-570;
(10) a certificate of citizenship issued by the United States Department of Homeland Security, Form N-560 or Form N-561;
(11) an unexpired employment authorization document issued by the United States Department of Homeland Security, Form I-766 or Form I-688B. If the Form I-766 validity period has been automatically extended by the United States Department of Homeland Security, it is deemed unexpired, regardless of the expiration date listed;
(12) a valid, unexpired passport issued by a foreign country and a valid, unexpired United States visa accompanied by documentation of the applicant's most recent lawful admittance into the United States; or
(13) a document as designated by the United States Department of Homeland Security under Code of Federal Regulations, title 6, part 37.11 (c)(1)(x).
(b) A document under paragraph (a) must be legible and unaltered.
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Subd. 3. Evidence; lawful status.
Only a form of documentation identified under subdivision 2, paragraph (a), clauses (2) to (13), or a document issued by a federal agency that demonstrates the applicant's lawful status are satisfactory evidence of an applicant's lawful status under section 171.06, subdivision 3 , paragraph (b), clause (2).
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Subd. 4.
MS 2022 [Repealed, 2024 c 104 art 1 s 110 ]
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Subd. 5. Evidence; residence in Minnesota.
(a) Submission of two forms of documentation from the following is satisfactory evidence of an applicant's principal residence address in Minnesota under section 171.06, subdivision 3 , paragraph (b):
(1) a home utility services bill issued no more than 12 months before the application;
(2) a home utility services hook-up work order issued no more than 12 months before the application;
(3) United States bank or financial information issued no more than 12 months before the application, with account numbers redacted, including:
(i) a bank account statement;
(ii) a credit card or debit card statement;
(iii) a brokerage account statement;
(iv) a money market account statement;
(v) a Health Savings Account statement; or
(vi) a retirement account statement;
(4) a certified transcript from a United States high school, if issued no more than 180 days before the application;
(5) a certified transcript from a Minnesota college or university, if issued no more than 180 days before the application;
(6) a student summary report from a United States high school signed by a school principal or designated authority and issued no more than 180 days before the application;
(7) an employment pay stub issued no more than 12 months before the application that lists the employer's name and address;
(8) a Minnesota unemployment insurance benefit statement issued no more than 12 months before the application;
(9) a statement from an assisted living facility licensed under chapter 144G, nursing home licensed under chapter 144A, or a boarding care facility licensed under sections
Minn. Stat. § 174.285
174.285 MINNESOTA COUNCIL ON TRANSPORTATION ACCESS.
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Subdivision 1. Council established.
A Minnesota Council on Transportation Access is established to study, evaluate, oversee, and make recommendations to improve the coordination, availability, accessibility, efficiency, cost-effectiveness, and safety of transportation services provided to the transit public. "Transit public" means those persons who utilize public transit and those who, because of mental or physical disability, income status, or age are unable to transport themselves and are dependent upon others for transportation services.
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Subd. 2. Duties of council.
In order to accomplish the purposes in subdivision 1, the council, following consultation with the legislative committees or divisions with jurisdiction over transportation policy and budget, or with appropriate legislative transportation subcommittees, shall adopt a biennial work plan that must incorporate the following activities:
(1) compile information on existing transportation alternatives for the transit public, and serve as a clearinghouse for information on services, funding sources, innovations, and coordination efforts;
(2) identify best practices and strategies that have been successful in Minnesota and in other states for coordination of local, regional, state, and federal funding and services;
(3) recommend statewide objectives for providing public transportation services for the transit public;
(4) identify barriers prohibiting coordination and accessibility of public transportation services and aggressively pursue the elimination of those barriers;
(5) recommend policies and procedures for coordinating local, regional, state, and federal funding and services for the transit public;
(6) identify stakeholders in providing services for the transit public, and seek input from them concerning barriers and appropriate strategies;
(7) recommend guidelines for developing transportation coordination plans throughout the state;
(8) encourage all state agencies participating in the council to purchase trips within the coordinated system;
(9) facilitate the creation and operation of transportation brokerages to match riders to the appropriate service, promote shared dispatching, compile and disseminate information on transportation options, and promote regional communication;
(10) encourage volunteer driver programs and recommend legislation to address liability and insurance issues;
(11) recommend minimum performance standards for delivery of services;
(12) identify methods to eliminate fraud and abuse in special transportation services;
(13) develop a standard method for addressing liability insurance requirements for transportation services purchased, provided, or coordinated;
(14) design and develop a contracting template for providing coordinated transportation services;
(15) recommend an interagency uniform contracting and billing and accounting system for providing coordinated transportation services;
(16) encourage the design and development of training programs for coordinated transportation services;
(17) encourage the use of public school transportation vehicles for the transit public;
(18) develop an allocation methodology that equitably distributes transportation funds to compensate units of government and all entities that provide coordinated transportation services;
(19) identify policies and necessary legislation to facilitate vehicle sharing; and
(20) advocate aggressively for eliminating barriers to coordination, implementing coordination strategies, enacting necessary legislation, and appropriating resources to achieve the council's objectives.
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Subd. 3. Coordination with legislative committees.
The council shall coordinate its meeting schedule and activities pursuant to its work plan, to the extent practicable, with legislative committees and divisions with jurisdiction over transportation budget and policy, or with appropriate subcommittees. The chair of the council shall act as a liaison with the chairs and ranking minority members of the legislative transportation committees, divisions, and appropriate subcommittees in carrying out these duties.
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Subd. 4. Membership.
(a) The council is composed of the following 14 members:
(1) one representative from the Office of the Governor;
(2) one representative from the Council on Disability;
(3) one representative from the Minnesota Public Transit Association;
(4) the commissioner of transportation or a designee;
(5) the commissioner of human services or a designee;
(6) the commissioner of health or a designee;
(7) the chair of the Metropolitan Council or a designee;
(8) the commissioner of education or a designee;
(9) the commissioner of veterans affairs or a designee;
(10) one representative from the Board on Aging;
(11) the commissioner of employment and economic development or a designee;
(12) the commissioner of commerce or a designee;
(13) the commissioner of management and budget or a designee; and
(14) the commissioner of children, youth, and families or a designee.
(b) All appointments required by paragraph (a) must be completed by August 1, 2010.
(c) The commissioner of transportation or a designee shall convene the first meeting of the council within two weeks after the members have been appointed to the council. The members shall elect a chair from their membership at the first meeting.
(d) The Department of Transportation and the Department of Human Services shall provide necessary staff support for the council.
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Subd. 5. Report.
By January 15 of each year, the council shall report its findings, recommendations, and activities to the governor's office and to the chairs and ranking minority members of the legislative committees with jurisdiction over transportation, health, and human services, and to the legislature as provided under section
Minn. Stat. § 176.129
176.129 .
(d) "Gross premiums" for nonadmitted insurance includes any payment made as consideration for an insurance contract for such insurance, including premium deposits, assessments, fees, and any other compensation given in consideration for a contract of insurance. Gross premiums does not include the stamping fee, as provided under section 60A.2085, subdivision 7 , nor the operating assessment, as provided under section 60A.208, subdivision 8 .
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Subd. 10. Health maintenance organization.
"Health maintenance organization" has the meaning given in section 62D.02, subdivision 4 .
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Subd. 10a. Home state.
"Home state" means the state in which an insured maintains its principal place of business, or in the case of an individual, the individual's principal residence; or if 100 percent of the insured risk is located out of the state, the state to which the greatest percentage of the insured's taxable premium for that insurance contract is allocated. If more than one insured from an affiliated group are named insureds on a single nonadmitted insurance contract, the term home state means the home state of the member of the affiliated group that has the largest percentage of premium attributed to it under that insurance contract.
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Subd. 10b. Independently procured insurance.
"Independently procured insurance" means insurance procured directly by an insured from a nonadmitted insurer.
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Subd. 10c. Nonadmitted insurance.
"Nonadmitted insurance" means any property and casualty insurance permitted to be placed directly or through a surplus lines broker with a nonadmitted insurer.
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Subd. 10d. Nonadmitted insurance premium tax.
"Nonadmitted insurance premium tax" means, with respect to surplus lines or independently procured insurance coverage, any tax, fee, assessment, or other charge imposed directly or indirectly by a government entity.
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Subd. 10e. Nonadmitted insurer.
"Nonadmitted insurer" means an insurer not licensed to engage in the business of insurance in Minnesota, but does not include a risk retention group as the term is defined in section 2(a)(4) of the Liability Risk Retention Act of 1986, United States Code, title 15, section 3901(a)(4).
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Subd. 11. Nonprofit health service plan corporation.
"Nonprofit health service plan corporation" has the meaning given in section 62C.02, subdivision 6 .
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Subd. 12. Insurance.
"Insurance" means the same as that term is defined in section 60A.02, subdivision 3 .
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Subd. 13. Insurance agent or insurance agency.
"Insurance agent" or "insurance agency" has the meaning given in section 60A.02, subdivision 7 .
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Subd. 13a. Reinsurance.
"Reinsurance" is insurance whereby an insurance company, for a consideration, agrees to indemnify another insurance company as defined under section
Minn. Stat. § 181.145
181.145 , who resides or works in this state.
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Subd. 16. Employer.
"Employer" means a person who has one or more employees.
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Subd. 17. Employment agency.
"Employment agency" means a person or persons who, or an agency which regularly undertakes, with or without compensation, to procure employees or opportunities for employment.
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Subd. 18. Familial status.
"Familial status" means the condition of one or more minors having legal status or custody with (1) the minor's parent or parents or the minor's legal guardian or guardians or (2) the designee of the parent or parents or guardian or guardians with the written permission of the parent or parents or guardian or guardians. Familial status also means residing with and caring for one or more individuals who lack the ability to meet essential requirements for physical health, safety, or self-care because the individual or individuals are unable to receive and evaluate information or make or communicate decisions. The protections afforded against discrimination on the basis of family status apply to any person who is pregnant or is in the process of securing legal custody of an individual who has not attained the age of majority.
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Subd. 19. Fixed route system.
"Fixed route system" means a system of providing public transportation on which a vehicle is operated along a prescribed route according to a fixed schedule.
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Subd. 20. Historic or antiquated rail passenger car.
"Historic or antiquated rail passenger car" means a rail passenger car:
(1) that is at least 30 years old at the time of its use for transporting individuals;
(2) the manufacturer of which is no longer in the business of manufacturing rail passenger cars; or
(3) that has consequential association with events or persons significant to the past or embodies, or is being restored to embody, the distinctive characteristics of a type of rail passenger car used in the past or to represent a time period that has passed.
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Subd. 21. Human rights investigative data.
"Human rights investigative data" means written documents issued or gathered by the department for the purpose of investigating and prosecuting alleged or suspected discrimination.
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Subd. 22. Labor organization.
"Labor organization" means any organization that exists wholly or partly for one or more of the following purposes:
(1) collective bargaining;
(2) dealing with employers concerning grievances, terms or conditions of employment; or
(3) mutual aid or protection of employees.
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Subd. 23. Local commission.
"Local commission" means an agency of a city, county, or group of counties created pursuant to law, resolution of a county board, city charter, or municipal ordinance for the purpose of dealing with discrimination on the basis of race, color, creed, religion, national origin, sex, gender identity, age, disability, marital status, status with regard to public assistance, sexual orientation, or familial status.
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Subd. 24. Marital status.
"Marital status" means whether a person is single, married, remarried, divorced, separated, or a surviving spouse and, in employment cases, includes protection against discrimination on the basis of the identity, situation, actions, or beliefs of a spouse or former spouse.
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Subd. 25. National origin.
"National origin" means the place of birth of an individual or of any of the individual's lineal ancestors.
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Subd. 26. Open case file.
"Open case file" means a file containing human rights investigative data in which no order or other decision resolving the alleged or suspected discrimination has been made or issued by the commissioner, a hearing officer, or a court, or a file in which an order or other decision has been issued but the time for any reconsideration or appeal of the order or decision has either not yet expired or the reconsideration or appeal is then pending.
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Subd. 27. Operates.
"Operates," when used with respect to a demand responsive or fixed route system, includes the operation of the system by a person under a contractual or other arrangement or relationship with a public or private entity.
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Subd. 28. Over-the-road bus.
"Over-the-road bus" means a bus characterized by an elevated passenger deck located over a baggage compartment.
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Subd. 29. Party in interest.
"Party in interest" means the complainant, respondent, or commissioner.
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Subd. 30. Person.
"Person" includes partnership, association, corporation, legal representative, trustee, trustee in bankruptcy, receiver, and the state and its departments, agencies, and political subdivisions.
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Subd. 31. Physical access.
"Physical access" means (1) the absence of physical obstacles that limit a disabled person's opportunity for full and equal use of or benefit from goods, services, and privileges; or, when necessary, (2) the use of methods to overcome the discriminatory effect of physical obstacles. The methods may include redesign of equipment, assignment of aides, or use of alternate accessible locations.
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Subd. 32. Private entity.
"Private entity" means an entity other than a public service.
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Subd. 33. Program access.
"Program access" means (1) the use of auxiliary aids or services to ensure full and equal use of or benefit from goods, services, and privileges; and (2) the absence of criteria or methods of administration that directly, indirectly, or through contractual or other arrangements, have the effect of subjecting qualified disabled persons to discrimination on the basis of disability, or have the effect of defeating or impairing the accomplishment of the objectives of the program.
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Subd. 34. Place of public accommodation.
"Place of public accommodation" means a business, accommodation, refreshment, entertainment, recreation, or transportation facility of any kind, whether licensed or not, whose goods, services, facilities, privileges, advantages or accommodations are extended, offered, sold, or otherwise made available to the public.
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Subd. 35. Public service.
"Public service" means any public facility, department, agency, board or commission, owned, operated or managed by or on behalf of the state of Minnesota, or any subdivision thereof, including any county, city, town, township, or independent district in the state.
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Subd. 36. Qualified disabled person.
"Qualified disabled person" means:
(1) with respect to employment, a disabled person who, with reasonable accommodation, can perform the essential functions required of all applicants for the job in question; and
(2) with respect to public services, a person with a disability who, with or without reasonable modifications to rules, policies, or practices, removal of architectural, communications, or transportation barriers, or the provision of auxiliary aids and services, meets the essential eligibility requirements for receipt of services and for participation in programs and activities provided by the public service.
For the purposes of this subdivision, "disability" excludes any condition resulting from alcohol or drug abuse which prevents a person from performing the essential functions of the job in question or constitutes a direct threat to property or the safety of others.
If a respondent contends that the person is not a qualified disabled person, the burden is on the respondent to prove that it was reasonable to conclude the disabled person, with reasonable accommodation, could not have met the requirements of the job or that the selected person was demonstrably better able to perform the job.
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Subd. 36a. Race.
"Race" is inclusive of traits associated with race, including but not limited to hair texture and hair styles such as braids, locs, and twists.
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Subd. 37. Rail passenger car.
"Rail passenger car" means, with respect to intercity or commuter rail transportation, single- and bi-level coach cars, dining cars, sleeping cars, lounge cars, restroom cars, and food service cars.
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Subd. 38. Real estate broker or salesperson.
"Real estate broker or salesperson" means, respectively, a real estate broker as defined by section
Minn. Stat. § 214.35
214.35 .
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Subd. 8. Private detective license.
Certain data on applicants for licensure as private detectives are classified under section 326.3382, subdivision 3 .
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Subd. 9. Board of Accountancy.
Data relating to disciplinary proceedings involving licensees of the Board of Accountancy are classified under section 326A.08, subdivision 2 .
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Subd. 10. Real estate appraisers.
Data relating to disciplinary actions involving real estate appraisers are classified under section 82B.20, subdivision 4 .
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Subd. 11. Peace officer database.
Section 626.8457, subdivision 3 , governs data sharing between law enforcement agencies and the Peace Officer Standards and Training Board for purposes of administering the peace officer database required by section 626.845, subdivision 3.
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Subd. 12. Cannabis businesses.
Data submitted to the Office of Cannabis Management for a cannabis business license or a hemp business license and data relating to investigations and disciplinary proceedings involving cannabis businesses and hemp businesses licensed by the Office of Cannabis Management are classified under section
Minn. Stat. § 221.60
221.60 REGISTRATION OF INTERSTATE CARRIER.
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Subdivision 1. Registration required.
A foreign or domestic motor carrier, motor private carrier, leasing company, broker, or freight forwarder, as defined in United States Code, title 49, section 13102, may operate in interstate commerce in Minnesota only if it first complies with the Unified Carrier Registration Agreement authorized by United States Code, title 49, section 14504a, enacted pursuant to the Unified Carrier Registration Act of 2005, and the rules, regulations, and directives adopted thereunder, including registering with a base state and paying all required fees.
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Subd. 2.
[Repealed, 2008 c 287 art 1 s 126 ]
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Subd. 3.
[Repealed, 2008 c 287 art 1 s 126 ]
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Subd. 3a.
[Repealed, 2008 c 287 art 1 s 126 ]
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Subd. 4.
[Repealed, 2008 c 287 art 1 s 126 ]
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Subd. 5.
[Repealed, 2008 c 287 art 1 s 126 ]
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Subd. 6.
[Repealed, 2008 c 287 art 1 s 126 ]
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Subd. 7. Commissioner's authority.
The commissioner of transportation is authorized to take all necessary actions to enter into the Unified Carrier Registration Agreement in accordance with United States Code, title 49, section 14504a, and shall implement and administer the agreement and the rules and regulations adopted thereunder, including directives of the Unified Carrier Registration Plan board of directors as authorized by United States Code, title 49, section 14504a, subsection (d)(2).
History:
1985 c 299 s 27 ; 1987 c 393 art 2 s 8 ; 1989 c 318 s 16 ; 1992 c 578 s 46 ; 2003 c 2 art 4 s 8 ; 2008 c 287 art 1 s 85 ,86
Minn. Stat. § 237.163
237.163 and any local right-of-way ordinance adopted under those statutes, a person operating a cable communications system shall restore the real estate, and any landscaping or improvements thereon, to the condition they were in prior to entry within 30 days of completing the installation of the cables and related cable communications system components upon that real estate and to make changes to the cables or related cable communication systems components. Changing technology has caused and will continue to cause over time the development of new cable communications services requiring changing uses of existing utility easements. Restoration which cannot be completed during the winter months must be accomplished as promptly as weather conditions permit.
History:
1983 c 329 s 9 ; 1985 c 248 s 70 ; 2004 c 261 art 7 s 22 ,23,28
Minn. Stat. § 238.35
238.35 USE OF EXISTING EASEMENT; RESTRICTIONS.
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Subdivision 1. Legislative findings.
There is a long-standing legislative policy in the state of Minnesota to provide for the dedication or other provision of easements and public rights-of-way required by public utilities and cable communications systems. Except for applicable governmental rules, these easements do not include any limitation on the type, number, or size of cables or related cable communication system components. There is a public understanding and acceptance of the need of public utilities and cable communications systems to have the ability to use existing utility easements and public rights-of-way in order to provide new and improved cable communications services made possible by technological developments and to make changes to the cables or related cable communication systems components. Changing technology has caused and will continue to cause over time the development of new cable communications services requiring changing uses of existing utility easements and public rights-of-way. Cable communications systems have a need to use existing utility easements and public rights-of-way in order to deliver their services to the public. The addition of cable communications system components does not constitute an unanticipated or added burden on the real estate subject to the easements or public rights-of-way.
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Subd. 2. Utility easement defined.
For purposes of this section, the term "utility easement" includes all utility easements or general purpose easements dedicated on a recorded plat to the public or to the state or to any political subdivision thereof; all deeded easements to the public or to the state or to any political subdivision thereof which are for general or utility purposes; all easements acquired by condemnation or prescription by the state or any political subdivision thereof which are for general or utility purposes; and all easements in favor of any public service corporation for telephone or electric transmission purposes.
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Subd. 3. Authorization to use existing utility easement.
The state or any county, city, township, agency, or political subdivision thereof, or any individual, partnership, venture, or corporation which is licensed, franchised, or authorized thereby to establish and operate a cable communications system may utilize any existing utility easement in accordance with the provisions of this section to install, maintain, and remove cable communications system components without the payment of additional compensation to the owners or occupants of the real estate subject to the easement, other than the owner of the utility easement or its successors or assigns.
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Subd. 4. Restrictions on use.
(a) As a condition of using any utility easement, a cable communications system is subject to any burdens, duties, or obligations specified in the easement of the grantee of the easement.
(b) Subject to any applicable rights and obligations of sections
Minn. Stat. § 243.88
243.88 PRIVATE INDUSTRY ON GROUNDS OF CORRECTIONAL INSTITUTIONS.
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Subdivision 1. Lease correctional buildings.
Notwithstanding the provisions of any law to the contrary, the commissioner of administration, with the approval of the governor, may lease one or more buildings or portions thereof on the grounds of any state adult correctional institution, together with the real estate needed for reasonable access to and egress from the leased buildings, for a term not to exceed 20 years, to a private corporation for the purpose of establishing and operating a factory for the manufacture and processing of goods, wares or merchandise, or any other business or commercial enterprise deemed by the commissioner of corrections to be consistent with the proper training and rehabilitation of inmates.
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Subd. 2. Private industry employment.
Any corporation operating a factory or other business or commercial enterprise under this section may employ selected inmates of the correctional institution upon whose grounds it operates and persons conditionally released subject to the provisions of section
Minn. Stat. § 245A.13
245A.13 INVOLUNTARY RECEIVERSHIP FOR RESIDENTIAL OR NONRESIDENTIAL PROGRAMS.
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Subdivision 1. Application.
(a) In addition to any other remedy provided by law, the commissioner may petition the district court in Ramsey County for an order directing the controlling individuals of a residential or nonresidential program licensed or certified by the commissioner to show cause why the commissioner should not be appointed receiver to operate the program. The petition to the district court must contain proof by affidavit that one or more of the following circumstances exists:
(1) the commissioner has commenced proceedings to suspend or revoke the program's license or refused to renew the program's license;
(2) there is a threat of imminent abandonment by the program or its controlling individuals;
(3) the program has shown a pattern of failure to meet ongoing financial obligations such as failing to pay for food, pharmaceuticals, personnel costs, or required insurance;
(4) the health, safety, or rights of the residents or persons receiving care from the program appear to be in jeopardy due to the manner in which the program may close, the program's financial condition, or violations of federal or state law or rules committed by the program; or
(5) the commissioner has notified the program or its controlling individuals that the program's federal Medicare or Medicaid provider agreement will be terminated, revoked, canceled, or not renewed.
(b) If the license holder, applicant, or controlling individual operates more than one program, the commissioner's petition must specify and be limited to the program for which it seeks receivership.
(c) The order to show cause must be personally served on the program through its authorized agent or, in the event the authorized agent cannot be located, on any controlling individual for the program.
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Subd. 2. Appointment of receiver.
(a) If the court finds that involuntary receivership is necessary as a means of protecting the health, safety, or rights of persons being served by the program, the court shall appoint the commissioner as receiver to operate the program. The commissioner as receiver may contract with another entity or group to act as the managing agent during the receivership period. The managing agent will be responsible for the day-to-day operations of the program subject at all times to the review and approval of the commissioner. A managing agent shall not:
(1) be the license holder or controlling individual of the program;
(2) have a financial interest in the program at the time of the receivership;
(3) be otherwise affiliated with the program; or
(4) have had a licensed program that has been ordered into receivership.
(b) Notwithstanding state contracting requirements in chapter 16C, the commissioner shall establish and maintain a list of qualified persons or entities with experience in delivering services and with winding down programs under chapter 245A, 245D, or 245G, or other service types licensed by the commissioner. The list shall be a resource for selecting a managing agent, and the commissioner may update the list at any time.
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Subd. 3. Powers and duties of receiver.
(a) A receiver appointed pursuant to this section shall, within 18 months after the receivership order, determine whether to close the program or to make other provisions with the intent to keep the program open. If the receiver determines that program closure is appropriate, the commissioner shall provide for the orderly transfer of individuals served by the program to other programs or make other provisions to protect the health, safety, and rights of individuals served by the program.
(b) During the receivership, the receiver or the managing agent shall correct or eliminate deficiencies in the program that the commissioner determines endanger the health, safety, or welfare of the persons being served by the program unless the correction or elimination of deficiencies at a residential program involves major alteration in the structure of the physical plant. If the correction or elimination of the deficiencies at a residential program requires major alterations in the structure of the physical plant, the receiver shall take actions designed to result in the immediate transfer of persons served by the residential program. During the period of the receivership, the receiver and the managing agent shall operate the residential or nonresidential program in a manner designed to preserve the health, safety, rights, adequate care, and supervision of the persons served by the program.
(c) The receiver or the managing agent may make contracts and incur lawful expenses.
(d) The receiver or the managing agent shall use the building, fixtures, furnishings, and any accompanying consumable goods in the provision of care and services to the clients during the receivership period. The receiver shall take action as is reasonably necessary to protect or conserve the tangible assets or property during receivership.
(e) The receiver or the managing agent shall collect incoming payments from all sources and apply them to the cost incurred in the performance of the functions of the receivership, including the fee set under subdivision 4. No security interest in any real or personal property comprising the program or contained within it, or in any fixture of the physical plant, shall be impaired or diminished in priority by the receiver or the managing agent.
(f) The receiver has authority to hire, direct, manage, and discharge any employees of the program, including management-level staff for the program.
(g) The commissioner, as the receiver appointed by the court, may hire a managing agent to work on the commissioner's behalf to operate the program during the receivership. The managing agent is entitled to a reasonable fee. The receiver and managing agent shall be liable only in an official capacity for injury to persons and property by reason of the conditions of the program. The receiver and managing agent shall not be personally liable, except for gross negligence or intentional acts. The commissioner shall assist the managing agent in carrying out the managing agent's duties.
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Subd. 3a. Liability.
The provisions contained in section 245A.12, subdivision 6 , shall also apply to receiverships ordered according to this section.
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Subd. 3b. Liability for financial obligations.
The provisions contained in section 245A.12, subdivision 7 , also apply to receiverships ordered according to this section.
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Subd. 3c. Physical plant of the program.
Occupation of the physical plant under an involuntary receivership shall be governed by paragraphs (a) and (b).
(a) The physical plant owned by a controlling individual of the program or related party must be made available for the use of the program throughout the receivership period. The court shall determine a fair monthly rental for the physical plant, taking into account all relevant factors necessary to meet required arm's-length obligations of controlling individuals such as mortgage payments, real estate taxes, and special assessments. The rental fee must be paid by the receiver to the appropriate controlling individuals or related parties for each month that the receivership remains in effect. No payment made to a controlling individual or related party by the receiver or the managing agent or any state agency during a period of the receivership shall include any allowance for profit or be based on any formula that includes an allowance for profit.
(b) If the owner of the physical plant of a program is not a related party, the court shall order the controlling individual to continue as the lessee of the property during the receivership period. Rental payments during the receivership period shall be made to the owner of the physical plant by the commissioner or the managing agent on behalf of the controlling individual.
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Subd. 4. Fee.
A receiver appointed under an involuntary receivership or the managing agent is entitled to a reasonable fee as determined by the court.
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Subd. 5. Termination.
An involuntary receivership terminates 18 months after the date on which it was ordered or at any other time designated by the court or when any of the following events occurs:
(1) the commissioner determines that the program's license or certification application should be granted or should not be suspended or revoked;
(2) a new license or certification is granted to the program;
(3) the commissioner determines that all persons residing in a residential program have been provided with alternative residential programs or that all persons receiving services in a nonresidential program have been referred to other programs; or
(4) the court determines that the receivership is no longer necessary because the conditions which gave rise to the receivership no longer exist.
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Subd. 6. Emergency procedure.
(a) If it appears from the petition filed under subdivision 1, from an affidavit or affidavits filed with the petition, or from testimony of witnesses under oath if the court determines it necessary, that there is probable cause to believe that an emergency exists in a residential or nonresidential program, the court shall issue a temporary order for appointment of a receiver within two days after receipt of the petition.
(b) Notice of the petition must be served on the authorized agent of the program that is subject to the receivership petition or, if the authorized agent is not immediately available for service, on at least one of the controlling individuals for the program. A hearing on the petition must be held within five days after notice is served unless the authorized agent or other controlling individual consents to a later date. After the hearing, the court may continue, modify, or terminate the temporary order.
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Subd. 7. Rate recommendation.
For any program receiving Medicaid funds and ordered into receivership, the commissioner of human services may review rates of a residential or nonresidential program that has needs or deficiencies documented by the Department of Health; the Department of Children, Youth, and Families; or the Department of Human Services. If the commissioner of human services determines that a review of the rate established under sections
Minn. Stat. § 256.26
256.26 , either by conveyance in settlement of the lien held by the state, or by foreclosure of such lien, it shall be the duty of the county board to manage and lease the real estate while the state continues to own it.
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Subd. 2. Management.
While the state owns such real estate, if the county board by resolution stating the price to be paid in cash shall recommend the sale and conveyance thereof, and transmit a copy of such resolution to the state agency, the state agency shall make an order approving the sale for the price recommended and transmit a copy thereof to the county auditor, in the county where the land is situated. Thereupon, when the purchase price is paid by the purchaser to the treasurer of such county, the chair of the county board shall execute a deed in the name of the state, which shall be attested by the county auditor, conveying such land to the purchaser.
History:
1945 c 172 s 1 ,2; 1Sp1981 c 4 art 1 s 124 ; 1986 c 444
Minn. Stat. § 256B.0756
256B.0756 shall continue to be exempt from competitive bid.
(c) The commissioner shall use past performance data as a factor in selecting vendors and shall consider this information, along with competitive bid and other information, in determining whether to contract with a managed care plan under this subdivision. Where possible, the assessment of past performance in serving persons on public programs shall be based on encounter data submitted to the commissioner. The commissioner shall evaluate past performance based on both the health outcomes of care and success rates in securing participation in recommended preventive and early diagnostic care. Data provided by managed care plans must be provided in a uniform manner as specified by the commissioner and must include only data on medical assistance and MinnesotaCare enrollees. The data submitted must include health outcome measures on reducing the incidence of low birth weight established by the managed care plan under subdivision 32.
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Subd. 34. Supplemental recovery program.
The commissioner shall conduct a supplemental recovery program for third-party liabilities identified through coordination of benefits not recovered by managed care plans and county-based purchasing plans for state public health programs. Any third-party liability identified through coordination of benefits and recovered by the commissioner more than eight months after the date a managed care plan or county-based purchasing plan adjudicates a health care claim shall be retained by the commissioner and deposited in the general fund. The commissioner shall establish a mechanism, including a reconciliation process, for managed care plans and county-based purchasing plans to coordinate third-party liability collections efforts resulting from coordination of benefits under this subdivision with the commissioner to ensure there is no duplication of efforts. The coordination mechanism must be consistent with the reporting requirements in subdivision 9c. The commissioner shall share accurate and timely third-party liability data with managed care plans and county-based purchasing plans.
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Subd. 35. Statewide procurement.
(a) For calendar year 2015, the commissioner may extend a demonstration provider's contract under this section for a sixth year after the most recent procurement. For calendar year 2015, section 16B.98, subdivision 5 , paragraph (b), and section 16C.05, subdivision 2 , paragraph (b), shall not apply to contracts under this section.
(b) For calendar year 2016 contracts under this section, the commissioner shall procure through a statewide procurement, which includes all 87 counties, demonstration providers, and participating entities as defined in section 256L.01, subdivision 7 . The commissioner shall publish a request for proposals by January 5, 2015. As part of the procurement process, the commissioner shall:
(1) seek each individual county's input;
(2) organize counties into regional groups, and consider single counties for the largest and most diverse counties; and
(3) seek regional and county input regarding the respondent's ability to fully and adequately deliver required health care services, offer an adequate provider network, provide care coordination with county services, and serve special populations, including enrollees with language and cultural needs.
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Subd. 36. Enrollee support system.
(a) The commissioner shall establish an enrollee support system that provides support to an enrollee before and during enrollment in a managed care plan.
(b) The enrollee support system must:
(1) provide access to counseling for each potential enrollee on choosing a managed care plan;
(2) assist an enrollee in understanding enrollment in a managed care plan;
(3) provide an access point for complaints regarding enrollment, covered services, and other related matters;
(4) provide information on an enrollee's grievance and appeal rights within the managed care organization and the state's fair hearing process, including an enrollee's rights and responsibilities; and
(5) provide assistance to an enrollee, upon request, in navigating the grievance and appeals process within the managed care organization and in appealing adverse benefit determinations made by the managed care organization to the state's fair hearing process after the managed care organization's internal appeals process has been exhausted. Assistance does not include providing representation to an enrollee at the state's fair hearing, but may include a referral to appropriate legal representation sources.
(c) Outreach to enrollees through the support system must be accessible to an enrollee through multiple formats, including telephone, Internet, in-person, and, if requested, through auxiliary aids and services.
(d) The commissioner may designate enrollment brokers to assist enrollees on selecting a managed care organization and providing necessary enrollment information. For purposes of this subdivision, "enrollment broker" means an individual or entity that performs choice counseling or enrollment activities in accordance with Code of Federal Regulations, part 42, section 438.810, or both.
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Subd. 37. Networks.
(a) The commissioner shall ensure that a managed care organization's network providers are enrolled with the commissioner as medical assistance providers, and that the providers comply with the provider disclosure, screening, and enrollment requirements in Code of Federal Regulations, part 42, section 455. A provider that has a network provider contract with the managed care organization is not required to provide services to a medical assistance or MinnesotaCare recipient who is receiving services through the fee-for-service system.
(b) A managed care organization may enter into a network provider contract with a provider that is not a medical assistance provider for a period of up to 120 days pending the outcome of the medical assistance provider enrollment process. A managed care organization must terminate the contract upon notification that the provider cannot be enrolled as a medical assistance provider or upon expiration of the 120-day period if notification has not been received within that period. The managed care organization must notify each affected enrollee of the provider contract termination.
(c) For purposes of this subdivision, "network provider" means any provider, group of providers, entity with a network provider agreement with the managed care organization, or subcontractor that receives payments from the managed care organization either directly or indirectly to provide services under a managed care contract between the commissioner and the managed care organization.
History:
1983 c 312 art 5 s 27 ; 1984 c 654 art 5 s 58 ; 1987 c 403 art 2 s 95 -101; 1988 c 689 art 2 s 182 ,183,268; 1989 c 209 art 1 s 23 ; 1989 c 282 art 3 s 87 -90; 1990 c 426 art 1 s 29 ; 1990 c 568 art 3 s 83 ,84; 1991 c 292 art 7 s 25 ; 1994 c 529 s 11 ; 1995 c 207 art 6 s 90 -102; art 7 s 41; 1995 c 234 art 6 s 40 ,41; 1996 c 451 art 2 s 33 -37; art 5 s 32; 1997 c 203 art 2 s 26 ; art 4 s 48-55; 1998 c 407 art 3 s 17 ; art 4 s 44-48; 1999 c 159 s 53 ; 1999 c 245 art 2 s 38 ; art 3 s 37,38; art 4 s 70-75; 2000 c 340 s 12 ,13; 2000 c 353 s 1 ; 2000 c 488 art 9 s 24 -26; 2001 c 161 s 49 ; 2001 c 203 s 14 ; 1Sp2001 c 9 art 2 s 49 -52; 2002 c 220 art 15 s 15 -19; 2002 c 275 s 5 ; 2002 c 281 s 1 ; 2002 c 375 art 2 s 43 ; 2002 c 379 art 1 s 113 ; 2003 c 47 s 3 -5; 2003 c 101 s 1 ; 1Sp2003 c 14 art 12 s 56 -65; 2004 c 228 art 1 s 75 ; 2004 c 268 s 14 ; 2004 c 288 art 3 s 26 ; art 5 s 9; 2005 c 56 s 1 ; 1Sp2005 c 4 art 7 s 46 ; art 8 s 51; 2006 c 282 art 20 s 28 -30; 2007 c 147 art 7 s 60 ; art 8 s 24-26; 2008 c 326 art 1 s 35 -38; 2008 c 363 art 15 s 14 ; art 17 s 14; 2008 c 364 s 2 -6; 2009 c 79 art 5 s 46 -49; art 8 s 72; 2009 c 159 s 105 ; 2009 c 173 art 3 s 15 ; 2010 c 200 art 1 s 10 ; 2010 c 310 art 13 s 2 ; art 15 s 1; 1Sp2010 c 1 art 15 s 9 ; art 16 s 21-23, 45; art 17 s 13; 1Sp2011 c 9 art 6 s 61 -65; art 9 s 2; 1Sp2011 c 11 art 3 s 12 ; 2012 c 187 art 1 s 39 ; 2012 c 216 art 13 s 15 ,16; 2012 c 247 art 1 s 12 -16; 2013 c 108 art 2 s 39 ,44; art 6 s 20-24; art 7 s 48; art 15 s 3,4; 2013 c 125 art 1 s 107 ; 2014 c 262 art 2 s 3 -15; 2014 c 275 art 1 s 66 ; 2014 c 291 art 9 s 3 ; art 10 s 5; 2014 c 312 art 24 s 39 ; 2015 c 71 art 11 s 33 -37; 2015 c 78 art 6 s 31 ; 2016 c 158 art 1 s 131 ; 2017 c 40 art 1 s 121 ; 1Sp2017 c 6 art 4 s 48 ; art 15 s 2,3; 2018 c 182 art 1 s 52 ; 2019 c 54 art 2 s 38 ; 1Sp2019 c 9 art 7 s 34 ,35; 2020 c 115 art 3 s 31 ; 2021 c 30 art 13 s 57 ; 1Sp2021 c 7 art 1 s 18 -20; art 13 s 48; 2022 c 55 art 1 s 136 ,137; 2022 c 98 art 2 s 11 ; art 14 s 24; 2023 c 57 art 2 s 62 ; 2023 c 70 art 1 s 30 -32; 2024 c 80 art 6 s 4 ; 2024 c 108 art 3 s 4 ; art 6 s 4; 2024 c 115 art 16 s 43 ; 2024 c 125 art 3 s 13 ; 2024 c 127 art 48 s 13 ; art 57 s 66; 2025 c 38 art 8 s 68 ; 1Sp2025 c 3 art 4 s 7 ,8; art 8 s 24; 1Sp2025 c 9 art 9 s 6
NOTE: The amendments to subdivision 4 by Laws 2024, chapter 125, article 3, section 13; and Laws 2024, chapter 127, article 48, section 13, are effective January 1, 2026, or upon federal approval, whichever is later. The commissioner of human services shall notify the revisor of statutes when federal approval is obtained. Laws 2024, chapter 125, article 3, section 13; and Laws 2024, chapter 127, article 48, section 13, the effective dates.
NOTE: Subdivision 6i, as added by Laws 2025, First Special Session chapter 3, article 4, section 8, is effective upon federal approval. The commissioner of human services shall notify the revisor of statutes when federal approval is obtained. Laws 2025, First Special Session chapter 3, article 4, section 8, the effective date.
Minn. Stat. § 256B.0913
256B.0913 .
History:
1975 c 347 s 58 ; 1982 c 621 s 2 ; 1982 c 641 art 1 s 19 ; 1983 c 180 s 19 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1987 c 325 s 2 ; 1Sp2003 c 14 art 2 s 52
524.3-806 ALLOWANCE OF CLAIMS.
(a) As to claims presented in the manner described in section 524.3-804 within the time limit prescribed or permitted in section 524.3-803 , the personal representative may mail a notice to any claimant stating that the claim has been disallowed. If, after allowing or disallowing a claim, the personal representative changes the decision concerning the claim, the personal representative shall notify the claimant. Without order of the court for cause shown, the personal representative may not change a disallowance of a claim after the time for the claimant to file a petition for allowance or to commence a proceeding on the claim has run and the claim has been barred. Every claim which is disallowed in whole or in part by the personal representative is barred so far as not allowed unless the claimant files a petition for allowance in the court or commences a proceeding against the personal representative not later than two months after the mailing of the notice of disallowance or partial allowance if the notice warns the claimant of the impending bar. Failure of the personal representative to mail notice to a claimant of action on the claim for two months after the time for original presentation of the claim has expired has the effect of a notice of allowance, except that upon petition of the personal representative and upon notice to the claimant, the court at any time before payment of such claim may for cause shown permit the personal representative to disallow such claim. Any claim in excess of $3,000 for personal services rendered by an individual to the decedent including compensation of persons attending the decedent during a last illness, and any claim of the personal representative which arose before the death of the decedent or in which the personal representative has an interest in excess of $3,000 may be allowed only in compliance with subsection (b).
(b) Upon the petition of the personal representative or of a claimant in a proceeding for the purpose, the court may allow in whole or in part any claim or claims presented to the personal representative or filed with the court administrator in due time and not barred by subsection (a) of this section. Notice in this proceeding shall be given to the claimant, the personal representative and those other persons interested in the estate as the court may direct by order entered at the time the proceeding is commenced.
(c) A judgment in a proceeding in another court against a personal representative to enforce a claim against a decedent's estate is an allowance of the claim.
(d) Unless otherwise provided in any judgment in another court entered against the personal representative, allowed claims bear interest at the legal rate for the period commencing 60 days after the time for original presentation of the claim has expired unless based on a contract making a provision for interest, in which case they bear interest in accordance with that provision. Notwithstanding the preceding sentence, claims that have been disallowed pursuant to clause (a) and are subsequently allowed by the personal representative or reduced to judgment shall bear interest at the legal rate from the latter of the following dates:
(1) 60 days after the time for original presentation of the claim; or
(2) the date the claim is allowed or the date judgment is entered.
History:
1975 c 347 s 58 ; 1976 c 161 s 8 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1Sp1986 c 3 art 1 s 82
524.3-807 PAYMENT OF CLAIMS.
(a) Upon the expiration of the earliest of the time limitations provided in section 524.3-803 for the presentation of claims, the personal representative shall proceed to pay the claims allowed against the estate in the order of priority prescribed, after making provision for family maintenance and statutory allowances, for claims already presented which have not yet been allowed or whose allowance has been appealed, and for unbarred claims which may yet be presented, including costs and expenses of administration. By petition to the court in a proceeding for the purpose, or by appropriate motion if the administration is supervised, a claimant whose claim has been allowed but not paid as provided herein may secure an order directing the personal representative to pay the claim to the extent that funds of the estate are available for the payment.
(b) The personal representative at any time may pay any just claim which has not been barred, with or without formal presentation, but the personal representative is personally liable to any other claimant whose claim is allowed and who is injured by such payment if
(1) the payment was made before the expiration of the time limit stated in subsection (a) and the personal representative failed to require the payee to give adequate security for the refund of any of the payment necessary to pay other claimants; or
(2) the payment was made, due to the negligence or willful fault of the personal representative, in such manner as to deprive the injured claimant of the claimant's priority.
History:
1975 c 347 s 58 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1989 c 163 s 4
524.3-808 INDIVIDUAL LIABILITY OF PERSONAL REPRESENTATIVE.
(a) Unless otherwise provided in the contract, a personal representative is not individually liable on a contract properly entered into in a fiduciary capacity in the course of administration of the estate unless the personal representative fails to reveal the representative capacity and identify the estate in the contract.
(b) A personal representative is individually liable for obligations arising from ownership or control of the estate or for torts committed in the course of administration of the estate only if the personal representative is personally at fault.
(c) Claims based on contracts entered into by a personal representative in a fiduciary capacity, on obligations arising from ownership or control of the estate or on torts committed in the course of estate administration may be asserted against the estate by proceeding against the personal representative in the fiduciary capacity, whether or not the personal representative is individually liable therefor.
(d) Issues of liability as between the estate and the personal representative individually may be determined in a proceeding for accounting, surcharge or indemnification or other appropriate proceeding.
History:
1975 c 347 s 58 ; 1986 c 444
524.3-809 SECURED CLAIMS.
Payment of a secured claim is upon the basis of the amount allowed if the creditor surrenders the security; otherwise payment is upon the basis of one of the following:
(1) if the creditor exhausts the security before receiving payment, unless precluded by other law, upon the amount of the claim allowed less the fair value of the security; or
(2) if the creditor does not have the right to exhaust the security or has not done so, upon the amount of the claim allowed less the value of the security determined by converting it into money according to the terms of the agreement pursuant to which the security was delivered to the creditor, or by the creditor and personal representative by agreement, arbitration, compromise or litigation.
History:
1975 c 347 s 58 ; 1986 c 444
524.3-810 CLAIMS NOT DUE AND CONTINGENT OR UNLIQUIDATED CLAIMS.
(a) If a claim which will become due at a future time or a contingent or unliquidated claim becomes due or certain before the distribution of the estate, and if the claim has been allowed or established by a proceeding, it is paid in the same manner as presently due and absolute claims of the same class.
(b) In other cases the personal representative or, on petition of the personal representative or the claimant in a special proceeding for the purpose, the court may provide for payment as follows:
(1) if the claimant consents, the claimant may be paid the present or agreed value of the claim, taking any uncertainty into account;
(2) arrangement for future payment, or possible payment, on the happening of the contingency or on liquidation may be made by creating a trust, giving a mortgage, obtaining a bond or security from a distributee, or otherwise.
History:
1975 c 347 s 58 ; 1986 c 444
524.3-811 COUNTERCLAIMS.
In allowing a claim the personal representative may deduct any counterclaim which the estate has against the claimant. In determining a claim against an estate a court shall reduce the amount allowed by the amount of any counterclaims and, if the counterclaims exceed the claim, render a judgment against the claimant in the amount of the excess. A counterclaim, liquidated or unliquidated, may arise from a transaction other than that upon which the claim is based. A counterclaim may give rise to relief exceeding in amount or different in kind from that sought in the claim.
History:
1975 c 347 s 58
524.3-812 EXECUTION AND LEVIES PROHIBITED.
No execution may issue upon nor may any levy be made against any property of the estate under any judgment against a decedent or a personal representative, but this section shall not be construed to prevent the enforcement of mortgages, pledges or liens upon real or personal property in an appropriate proceeding.
History:
1975 c 347 s 58
524.3-813 COMPROMISE OF CLAIMS.
When a claim against the estate has been presented in any manner, the personal representative may, if it appears for the best interest of the estate, compromise the claim, whether due or not due, absolute or contingent, liquidated or unliquidated.
History:
1975 c 347 s 58
524.3-814 ENCUMBERED ASSETS.
If any assets of the estate are encumbered by mortgage, pledge, lien, or other security interest, the personal representative may pay the encumbrance or any part thereof, renew or extend any obligation secured by the encumbrance or convey or transfer the assets to the creditor in satisfaction of the lien, in whole or in part, whether or not the holder of the encumbrance has filed a claim, if it appears to be for the best interest of the estate. Payment of an encumbrance does not increase the share of the distributee entitled to the encumbered assets unless the distributee is entitled to exoneration.
History:
1975 c 347 s 58 ; 1986 c 444
524.3-815 ADMINISTRATION IN MORE THAN ONE STATE; DUTY OF PERSONAL REPRESENTATIVE.
(a) All assets of estates being administered in this state are subject to all claims, allowances and charges existing or established against the personal representative wherever appointed.
(b) If the estate either in this state or as a whole is insufficient to cover all family exemptions and allowances determined by the law of the decedent's domicile, prior charges and claims, after satisfaction of the exemptions, allowances and charges, each claimant whose claim has been allowed either in this state or elsewhere in administrations of which the personal representative is aware, is entitled to receive payment of an equal proportion of the claim. If a preference or security in regard to a claim is allowed in another jurisdiction but not in this state, the creditor so benefited is to receive dividends from local assets only upon the balance of the claim after deducting the amount of the benefit.
(c) In case the family exemptions and allowances, prior charges and claims of the entire estate exceed the total value of the portions of the estate being administered separately and this state is not the state of the decedent's last domicile, the claims allowed in this state shall be paid their proportion if local assets are adequate for the purpose, and the balance of local assets shall be transferred to the domiciliary personal representative. If local assets are not sufficient to pay all claims allowed in this state the amount to which they are entitled, local assets shall be marshalled so that each claim allowed in this state is paid its proportion as far as possible, after taking into account all dividends on claims allowed in this state from assets in other jurisdictions.
History:
1975 c 347 s 58 ; 1986 c 444
524.3-816 FINAL DISTRIBUTION TO DOMICILIARY REPRESENTATIVE.
Real estate (excluding a vendor's interest in a contract for conveyance) located in this state with regard to which the decedent died intestate and the proceeds of the sale, mortgage or lease of any such real estate available for distribution, shall pass according to the laws of this state. All other assets included in the estate of a nonresident decedent being administered by a personal representative appointed in this state shall, if there is a personal representative of the decedent's domicile willing to receive it, be distributed to the domiciliary personal representative for the benefit of the successors of the decedent unless (1) by virtue of the decedent's will, if any, the successors are identified pursuant to the local law of this state without reference to the local law of the decedent's domicile; (2) the personal representative of this state, after reasonable inquiry, is unaware of the existence or identity of a domiciliary personal representative; or (3) the court orders otherwise in a proceeding for a closing order under section 524.3-1001 or incident to the closing of a supervised administration. In other cases, distribution of the estate of a decedent shall be made in accordance with the other parts of this article.
History:
1975 c 347 s 58
524.3-817 JOINT CONTRACT CLAIMS.
When two or more persons are indebted on any joint contract or upon a judgment on a joint contract, and one of them dies, the estate shall be liable therefor, and the amount thereof may be allowed the same as though the contract had been joint and several or the judgment had been against the decedent alone, but without prejudice to right to contribution.
History:
1975 c 347 s 58 ; 1986 c 444
Part 9 SPECIAL PROVISIONS RELATING TO DISTRIBUTION
524.3-901 SUCCESSORS' RIGHTS IF NO ADMINISTRATION.
In the absence of administration, the heirs and devisees are entitled to the estate in accordance with the terms of a probated will or the laws of intestate succession. Devisees may establish title by the probated will to devised property. Persons entitled to property pursuant to sections 524.2-402 , 524.2-403 ,
Minn. Stat. § 256B.5014
256B.5014 REPORTING REQUIREMENTS.
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Subdivision 1. Financial reporting.
All facilities shall maintain financial records and shall provide annual income and expense reports to the commissioner of human services on a form prescribed by the commissioner no later than April 30 of each year in order to receive medical assistance payments. The reports for the reporting year ending December 31 must include:
(1) salaries and related expenses, including program salaries, administrative salaries, other salaries, payroll taxes, and fringe benefits;
(2) general operating expenses, including supplies, training, repairs, purchased services and consultants, utilities, food, licenses and fees, real estate taxes, insurance, and working capital interest;
(3) property related costs, including depreciation, capital debt interest, rent, and leases; and
(4) total annual resident days.
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Subd. 2. Labor market reporting.
All intermediate care facilities shall comply with the labor market reporting requirements described in section 256B.4912, subdivision 1a .
History:
1999 c 245 art 3 s 35 ; 1Sp2019 c 9 art 5 s 69
Minn. Stat. § 256D.35
256D.35 , or the person who is blind and the spouse of the person who is blind;
(2) any person who is permanently and totally disabled or by the person with a disability and the spouse of the person with a disability; or
(3) the surviving spouse of a veteran who was permanently and totally disabled homesteading a property classified under this paragraph for taxes payable in 2008.
Property is classified and assessed under clause (2) only if the government agency or income-providing source certifies, upon the request of the homestead occupant, that the homestead occupant satisfies the disability requirements of this paragraph, and that the property is not eligible for the valuation exclusion under subdivision 34.
Property is classified and assessed under paragraph (b) only if the commissioner of revenue or the county assessor certifies that the homestead occupant satisfies the requirements of this paragraph.
Permanently and totally disabled for the purpose of this subdivision means a condition which is permanent in nature and totally incapacitates the person from working at an occupation which brings the person an income. The first $50,000 market value of class 1b property has a net classification rate of 0.45 percent of its market value. The remaining market value of class 1b property is classified as class 1a property, class 2a property, or class 4d(2) property, whichever is appropriate.
(c) Class 1c property is commercial use real and personal property that abuts public water as defined in section 103G.005, subdivision 15 , or abuts a state trail administered by the Department of Natural Resources, and is devoted to temporary and seasonal residential occupancy for recreational purposes but not devoted to commercial purposes for more than 250 days in the year preceding the year of assessment, and that includes a portion used as a homestead by the owner, which includes a dwelling occupied as a homestead by a shareholder of a corporation that owns the resort, a partner in a partnership that owns the resort, or a member of a limited liability company that owns the resort even if the title to the homestead is held by the corporation, partnership, or limited liability company. For purposes of this paragraph, property is devoted to a commercial purpose on a specific day if any portion of the property, excluding the portion used exclusively as a homestead, is used for residential occupancy and a fee is charged for residential occupancy. Class 1c property must contain three or more rental units. A "rental unit" is defined as a cabin, condominium, townhouse, sleeping room, or individual camping site equipped with water and electrical hookups for recreational vehicles. Class 1c property must provide recreational activities such as the rental of ice fishing houses, boats and motors, snowmobiles, downhill or cross-country ski equipment; provide marina services, launch services, or guide services; or sell bait and fishing tackle. Any unit in which the right to use the property is transferred to an individual or entity by deeded interest, or the sale of shares or stock, no longer qualifies for class 1c even though it may remain available for rent. A camping pad offered for rent by a property that otherwise qualifies for class 1c is also class 1c, regardless of the term of the rental agreement, as long as the use of the camping pad does not exceed 250 days. If the same owner owns two separate parcels that are located in the same township, and one of those properties is classified as a class 1c property and the other would be eligible to be classified as a class 1c property if it was used as the homestead of the owner, both properties will be assessed as a single class 1c property; for purposes of this sentence, properties are deemed to be owned by the same owner if each of them is owned by a limited liability company, and both limited liability companies have the same membership. The portion of the property used as a homestead is class 1a property under paragraph (a). The remainder of the property is classified as follows: the first $600,000 of market value is tier I, the next $1,700,000 of market value is tier II, and any remaining market value is tier III. The classification rates for class 1c are: tier I, 0.50 percent; tier II, 1.0 percent; and tier III, 1.25 percent. Owners of real and personal property devoted to temporary and seasonal residential occupancy for recreation purposes in which all or a portion of the property was devoted to commercial purposes for not more than 250 days in the year preceding the year of assessment desiring classification as class 1c, must submit a declaration to the assessor designating the cabins or units occupied for 250 days or less in the year preceding the year of assessment by January 15 of the assessment year. Those cabins or units and a proportionate share of the land on which they are located must be designated as class 1c as otherwise provided. The remainder of the cabins or units and a proportionate share of the land on which they are located must be designated as class 3a commercial. The owner of property desiring designation as class 1c property must provide guest registers or other records demonstrating that the units for which class 1c designation is sought were not occupied for more than 250 days in the year preceding the assessment if so requested. The portion of a property operated as a (1) restaurant, (2) bar, (3) gift shop, (4) conference center or meeting room, and (5) other nonresidential facility operated on a commercial basis not directly related to temporary and seasonal residential occupancy for recreation purposes does not qualify for class 1c.
(d) Class 1d property includes structures that meet all of the following criteria:
(1) the structure is located on property that is classified as agricultural property under section 273.13, subdivision 23 ;
(2) the structure is occupied exclusively by seasonal farm workers during the time when they work on that farm, and the occupants are not charged rent for the privilege of occupying the property, provided that use of the structure for storage of farm equipment and produce does not disqualify the property from classification under this paragraph;
(3) the structure meets all applicable health and safety requirements for the appropriate season; and
(4) the structure is not salable as residential property because it does not comply with local ordinances relating to location in relation to streets or roads.
The market value of class 1d property has the same classification rates as class 1a property under paragraph (a).
§
Subd. 23. Class 2.
(a) An agricultural homestead consists of class 2a agricultural land that is homesteaded, along with any class 2b rural vacant land that is contiguous to the class 2a land under the same ownership. The market value of the house and garage and immediately surrounding one acre of land has the same classification rates as class 1a or 1b property under subdivision 22. The value of the remaining land including improvements up to the first tier valuation limit of agricultural homestead property has a classification rate of 0.5 percent of market value. The remaining property over the first tier has a classification rate of one percent of market value. For purposes of this subdivision, the "first tier valuation limit of agricultural homestead property" and "first tier" means the limit certified under section 273.11, subdivision 23 .
(b) Class 2a agricultural land consists of parcels of property, or portions thereof, that are agricultural land and buildings. Class 2a property has a classification rate of one percent of market value, unless it is part of an agricultural homestead under paragraph (a). Class 2a property must also include any property that would otherwise be classified as 2b, but is interspersed with class 2a property, including but not limited to sloughs, wooded wind shelters, acreage abutting ditches, ravines, rock piles, land subject to a setback requirement, and other similar land that is impractical for the assessor to value separately from the rest of the property or that is unlikely to be able to be sold separately from the rest of the property.
An assessor may classify the part of a parcel described in this subdivision that is used for agricultural purposes as class 2a and the remainder in the class appropriate to its use.
(c) Class 2b rural vacant land consists of parcels of property, or portions thereof, that are unplatted real estate, rural in character and not used for agricultural purposes, including land used for growing trees for timber, lumber, and wood and wood products, that is not improved with a structure. The presence of a minor, ancillary nonresidential structure as defined by the commissioner of revenue does not disqualify the property from classification under this paragraph. Any parcel of 20 acres or more improved with a structure that is not a minor, ancillary nonresidential structure must be split-classified, and ten acres must be assigned to the split parcel containing the structure. If a parcel of 20 acres or more is enrolled in the sustainable forest management incentive program under chapter 290C, the number of acres assigned to the split parcel improved with a structure that is not a minor, ancillary nonresidential structure must equal three acres or the number of acres excluded from the sustainable forest incentive act covenant due to the structure, whichever is greater. Class 2b property has a classification rate of one percent of market value unless it is part of an agricultural homestead under paragraph (a), or qualifies as class 2c under paragraph (d).
(d) Class 2c managed forest land consists of no less than 20 and no more than 1,920 acres statewide per taxpayer that is being managed under a forest management plan that meets the requirements of chapter 290C, but is not enrolled in the sustainable forest resource management incentive program. It has a classification rate of .65 percent, provided that the owner of the property must apply to the assessor in order for the property to initially qualify for the reduced rate and provide the information required by the assessor to verify that the property qualifies for the reduced rate. If the assessor receives the application and information before May 1 in an assessment year, the property qualifies beginning with that assessment year. If the assessor receives the application and information after April 30 in an assessment year, the property may not qualify until the next assessment year. The commissioner of natural resources must concur that the land is qualified. The commissioner of natural resources shall annually provide county assessors verification information on a timely basis. The presence of a minor, ancillary nonresidential structure as defined by the commissioner of revenue does not disqualify the property from classification under this paragraph.
(e) Agricultural land as used in this section means:
(1) contiguous acreage of ten acres or more, used during the preceding year for agricultural purposes; or
(2) contiguous acreage used during the preceding year for an intensive livestock or poultry confinement operation, provided that land used only for pasturing or grazing does not qualify under this clause.
"Agricultural purposes" as used in this section means the raising, cultivation, drying, or storage of agricultural products for sale, or the storage of machinery or equipment used in support of agricultural production by the same farm entity. For a property to be classified as agricultural based only on the drying or storage of agricultural products, the products being dried or stored must have been produced by the same farm entity as the entity operating the drying or storage facility. "Agricultural purposes" also includes (i) enrollment in a local conservation program or the Reinvest in Minnesota program under sections
Minn. Stat. § 268A.01
268A.01 , or (iii) a minor child on the date the notice is given. This demand must be in writing, contain reasonable proof of qualification, and be given to the declarant within 30 days after the notice of conversion is delivered or mailed.
(4) The notice shall be contained in an envelope upon which the following shall be boldly printed: "Notice of Conversion."
(b) Notwithstanding subsection (a), an occupant may be required to vacate a unit upon less than 120 days' notice by reason of nonpayment of rent, utilities or other monetary obligations, violations of law, waste, or conduct that disturbs other occupants' peaceful enjoyment of the premises. The terms of the tenancy may not be altered during the notice period, except that the holder of the lessee's interest or other party in possession may vacate and terminate the tenancy upon one month's written notice to the declarant. Nothing in this section prevents the unit owner and any occupant from agreeing to a right of occupancy on a month-to-month basis beyond the 120-day notice period, or to an earlier termination of the right of occupancy.
(c) No repair work or remodeling may be commenced or undertaken in the occupied units or common areas of the building during the notice period, unless reasonable precautions are taken to ensure the safety and security of the occupants.
(d) For 60 days after delivery or mailing of the notice described in subsection (a), the holder of the lessee's interest in the unit on the date the notice is mailed or delivered shall have an option to purchase that unit on the terms set forth in the purchase agreement attached to the notice. The purchase agreement shall contain no terms or provisions which violate any state or federal law relating to discrimination in housing. If the holder of the lessee's interest fails to sign a binding purchase agreement for the unit during that 60-day period, the unit owner may not offer to dispose of an interest in that unit during the following 180 days at a price or on terms more favorable to the offeree than the price or terms offered to the holder. This subsection and subsection (a)(2) do not apply to any unit in a conversion property if that unit will be restricted exclusively to nonresidential use or if the boundaries of the converted unit do not substantially conform to the boundaries of the residential unit before conversion.
(e) If a unit owner, in violation of subsection (b), conveys a unit to a purchaser for value who has no knowledge of the violation, the recording of the deed conveying the unit or, in a cooperative, the conveyance of the right to possession of the unit, extinguishes any right a holder of a lessee's interest who is not in possession of the unit may have under subsection (d) to purchase that unit, but the conveyance does not affect the right of the holder to recover damages from the unit owner for a violation of subsection (d).
(f) If a notice described in subsection (a) specifies a date by which a unit or proposed unit must be vacated or otherwise complies with the provisions of chapter 504B , the notice also constitutes a notice to vacate specified by that statute.
(g) An occupant residing in space in a conversion property shall not have any of the rights set out in this section or under any municipal ordinance if the holder of the lessee's interest in the space received written notice of intent to convert to a common interest community (i) before signing a lease or a lease renewal or before occupying the space and (ii) less than two years before the common interest community is created.
(h) A notice of intent to convert to a common interest community shall identify the conversion property by both legal description and street address and state that (i) the declarant intends to convert the property to a planned community, condominium, or cooperative form of common interest community, specifying the intended form, and (ii) persons entering into leases subsequent to the receipt of the notice of intent to convert will not have the rights available to an occupant or a person holding the lessee's interest under this section.
(i) Nothing in this section permits a unit owner to terminate a lease in violation of its terms.
(j) Failure to give notice as required by subsection (a) is a defense to an action for possession.
History:
1993 c 222 art 4 s 11 ; 1999 c 11 art 2 s 30 ; 1999 c 199 art 2 s 31 ; 2005 c 121 s 41 ; 2010 c 267 art 4 s 9 ; 2018 c 117 s 5
515B.4-112 EXPRESS WARRANTIES.
(a) Express warranties made by a declarant or an affiliate of a declarant to a purchaser of a unit, if reasonably relied upon by the purchaser, are created as follows:
(1) Any affirmation of fact or promise which relates to the unit; use of the unit; rights appurtenant to the unit; improvements to the common interest community that would directly benefit the purchaser or the unit; or the right to use or have the benefit of facilities which are not a part of the common interest community, creates an express warranty that the unit and related rights and uses will conform to the affirmation or promise.
(2) Any model or description of the physical characteristics of a unit or the common interest community, including plans and specifications of or for a unit or other improvements located in the common interest community, creates an express warranty that the unit and the common interest community will conform to the model or description. A notice prominently displayed on a model or included in a description shall prevent a purchaser from reasonably relying upon the model or description to the extent of the disclaimer set forth in the notice.
(3) Any description of the quantity or extent of the real estate comprising the common interest community, including plats or surveys, creates an express warranty that the common interest community will conform to the description, subject to customary tolerances.
(b) Neither the form of the word "warranty" or "guaranty," nor a specific intention to make a warranty, are necessary to create an express warranty of quality, but a statement purporting to be merely an opinion or commendation of the real estate or its value does not create a warranty.
(c) Any conveyance of a unit transfers to the purchaser all express warranties.
History:
1993 c 222 art 4 s 12
515B.4-113 IMPLIED WARRANTIES.
(a) A declarant warrants to a purchaser that a unit will be in at least as good condition at the earlier of the time of the conveyance or delivery of possession as it was at the time of contracting, reasonable wear and tear excepted.
(b) A declarant warrants to a purchaser that:
(1) a unit and the common elements in the common interest community are suitable for the ordinary uses of real estate of its type; and
(2) any improvements subject to use rights by the purchaser, made or contracted for by the declarant, or made by any person in contemplation of the creation of the common interest community, will be (i) free from defective materials and (ii) constructed in accordance with applicable law, according to sound engineering and construction standards, and in a workmanlike manner.
(c) In addition, a declarant warrants to a purchaser of a unit which under the declaration is available for residential use that the residential use will not violate applicable law at the earlier of the time of conveyance or delivery of possession.
(d) Warranties imposed by this section may be excluded or modified only as specified in section 515B.4-114 .
(e) For purposes of this section, improvements made or contracted for by an affiliate of a declarant are made or contracted for by the declarant.
(f) Any conveyance of a unit transfers to the purchaser all implied warranties.
(g) This section does not in any manner abrogate the provisions of chapter 327A relating to statutory warranties for housing, or affect any other cause of action under a statute or the common law.
(h) A development party shall not have liability under this section for loss or damage caused by the failure of the association or a unit owner to comply with obligations imposed by section 515B.3-107 , unless the loss or damage is caused by failure to comply with section 515B.3-107 while the declarant controlled the board.
History:
1993 c 222 art 4 s 13 ; 2017 c 87 s 5
515B.4-114 EXCLUSION OR CHANGE OF IMPLIED WARRANTIES.
(a) With respect to a unit available for residential use, no general disclaimer of implied warranties is effective, but a declarant may disclaim liability in an instrument separate from the purchase agreement signed by the purchaser for a specified defect or specified failure to comply with applicable law, if the defect or failure entered into and became a part of the basis of the bargain.
(b) With respect to a unit restricted to nonresidential use, implied warranties:
(1) may be excluded or modified by agreement of the parties; and
(2) are excluded by expression of disclaimer, such as "as is," "with all faults," or other language that in common understanding calls the purchaser's attention to the exclusion of warranties.
History:
1993 c 222 art 4 s 14
515B.4-115 STATUTE OF LIMITATIONS FOR WARRANTIES; CIC CREATED BEFORE AUGUST 1, 2010.
(a) A judicial proceeding for breach of an obligation arising under section 515B.4-101 (e) or 515B.4-106 (d), shall be commenced within six months after the conveyance of the unit or other parcel of real estate.
(b) A judicial proceeding for breach of an obligation arising under section 515B.4-112 or 515B.4-113 shall be commenced within six years after the cause of action accrues, but the parties may agree to reduce the period of limitation to not less than two years. An agreement reducing the period of limitation shall be binding on the purchaser's assigns. With respect to a unit that may be occupied for residential use, an agreement to reduce the period of limitation must be evidenced by an instrument separate from the purchase agreement signed by the purchaser.
(c) Subject to subsection (d), a cause of action under section 515B.4-112 or 515B.4-113 , regardless of the purchasers' lack of knowledge of the breach, accrues:
(1) as to a unit, at the earlier of the time of conveyance of the unit by the declarant to a bona fide purchaser of the unit other than an affiliate of a declarant, or the time the purchaser enters into possession of the unit; and
(2) as to each common element, the latest of (i) the time the common element is completed, (ii) the time the first unit in the common interest community is conveyed to a bona fide purchaser, or if the common element is located on property that is additional real estate at the time the first unit therein is conveyed to a bona fide purchaser; or (iii) the termination of the period of declarant control.
(d) If a warranty explicitly extends to future performance or duration of any improvement or component of the common interest community, the cause of action accrues at the time the breach is discovered or at the end of the period for which the warranty explicitly extends, whichever is earlier.
(e) This section applies only to common interest communities created before August 1, 2010.
History:
1993 c 222 art 4 s 15 ; 1999 c 11 art 2 s 31 ; 2005 c 121 s 42 ; 2010 c 267 art 4 s 10 ; 2011 c 116 art 2 s 20
515B.4-1151 STATUTE OF LIMITATIONS FOR WARRANTIES; CIC CREATED ON OR AFTER AUGUST 1, 2010, AND BEFORE AUGUST 1, 2011.
(a) A judicial proceeding for breach of an obligation arising under section 515B.4-101 (e) or 515B.4-106 (d) shall be commenced within 12 months after the conveyance of the unit or other parcel of real estate.
(b) A judicial proceeding for breach of an obligation arising under section 515B.4-112 or 515B.4-113 shall be commenced within six years after the cause of action accrues, but the parties may agree to reduce the period of limitation to not less than two years. An agreement reducing the period of limitation signed by one purchaser of a unit shall be binding on any copurchasers of the unit, and successor purchasers' successors and assigns. With respect to a unit that may be occupied for residential use, an agreement to reduce the period of limitation must be evidenced by an instrument separate from the purchase agreement signed by a purchaser of the unit.
(c) Subject to subsection (d), a cause of action under section 515B.4-112 or 515B.4-113 , regardless of the purchaser's lack of knowledge of the breach, accrues:
(1) as to a unit, at the earlier of the time of conveyance of any interest in the unit by a declarant to a bona fide purchaser, other than an affiliate of a declarant, or the time a purchaser enters into possession of the unit. As to a unit subject to time shares, a cause of action accrues upon the earlier of the conveyance of the unit or the conveyance of the first time share interest in the unit to a purchaser; and
(2) as to each common element, the latest of (i) the time the common element is completed; (ii) the time the first interest in a unit in the common interest community is conveyed to a bona fide purchaser, or, if the common element is located on property that was additional real estate, at the time the first interest in a unit created thereon is conveyed to a bona fide purchaser; or (iii) the termination of the period of declarant control.
(d) If a warranty explicitly extends to future performance or duration of any improvement or component of the common interest community, the cause of action accrues at the time the breach is discovered or at the end of the period for which the warranty explicitly extends, whichever is earlier.
(e) This section applies only to common interest communities created on or after August 1, 2010, and before August 1, 2011.
History:
2011 c 116 art 2 s 21
515B.4-1152 STATUTE OF LIMITATIONS FOR WARRANTIES; CIC CREATED ON OR AFTER AUGUST 1, 2011.
(a) A judicial proceeding for breach of an obligation arising under section 515B.4-101 (e) or 515B.4-106 (d) shall be commenced within 12 months after the conveyance of the unit or other parcel of real estate.
(b) A judicial proceeding for breach of an obligation arising under section 515B.4-112 or 515B.4-113 shall be commenced within six years after the cause of action accrues, but the parties may agree to reduce the period of limitation to not less than two years. An agreement reducing the period of limitation signed by one purchaser of a unit shall be binding on any copurchasers of the unit. If an agreement reducing the period of limitations is recorded in compliance with applicable law, the agreement is binding on the purchaser's and copurchaser's successors in title to the unit. With respect to a unit that may be occupied for residential use, an agreement to reduce the period of limitation must be evidenced by an instrument separate from the purchase agreement signed by a purchaser of the unit.
(c) Subject to subsection (d), a cause of action under section 515B.4-112 or 515B.4-113 , regardless of the purchaser's lack of knowledge of the breach, accrues:
(1) as to a unit, at the earlier of the time of conveyance of any interest in the unit by a declarant to a bona fide purchaser, other than an affiliate of a declarant, or the time a purchaser enters into possession of the unit. As to a unit subject to time shares, a cause of action accrues upon the earlier of the conveyance of the unit or the conveyance of the first time share interest in the unit to a purchaser; and
(2) as to each common element, the latest of (i) the time the common element is completed; (ii) the time the first interest in a unit in the common interest community is conveyed to a bona fide purchaser, or, if the common element is located on property that was additional real estate, at the time the first interest in a unit created thereon is conveyed to a bona fide purchaser; or (iii) the termination of the period of declarant control.
(d) If a warranty explicitly extends to future performance or duration of any improvement or component of the common interest community, the cause of action accrues at the time the breach is discovered or at the end of the period for which the warranty explicitly extends, whichever is earlier.
(e) This section applies only to common interest communities created on or after August 1, 2011.
History:
2011 c 116 art 2 s 22
515B.4-116 RIGHTS OF ACTION; ATTORNEY'S FEES.
(a) In addition to any other rights to recover damages, attorney's fees, costs or expenses, whether authorized by this chapter or otherwise, if a declarant, an association, or any other person violates any provision of this chapter, or any provision of the declaration, bylaws, or rules and regulations any person or class of persons adversely affected by the failure to comply has a claim for appropriate relief. Subject to the requirements of section 515B.3-102 , the association shall have standing to pursue claims on behalf of the unit owners of two or more units.
(b) The court may award reasonable attorney's fees and costs of litigation to the prevailing party. Punitive damages may be awarded for a willful failure to comply.
(c) As a condition precedent to any construction defect claim, the parties to the claim must submit the matter to mediation before a mutually agreeable neutral third party. For the purposes of this section, mediation has the meaning given under the General Rules of Practice, rule 114.02 (7). If the parties are not able to agree on a neutral third-party mediator from the roster maintained by the Minnesota Supreme Court, the parties may petition the district court in the jurisdiction in which the common interest community is located to appoint a mediator. The applicable statute of limitations and statute of repose for an action based on breach of a warranty imposed by this section, or any other action in contract, tort, or other law for any injury to real or personal property or bodily injury or wrongful death arising out of the alleged construction defect, is tolled from the date that any party makes a written demand for mediation under this section until the latest of the following:
(1) five business days after mediation is completed; or
(2) 180 days.
Notwithstanding the foregoing, mediation shall not be required prior to commencement of a construction defect claim if the parties have completed home warranty dispute resolution under section
Minn. Stat. § 27.01
27.01 DEFINITIONS.
§
Subdivision 1.
[Repealed, 1996 c 310 s 1 ]
§
Subd. 2. Perishable farm products.
"Perishable farm products" means:
(1) produce, including fresh fruits, vegetables, and mushrooms;
(2) milk and cream and products manufactured from milk and cream; and
(3) poultry and poultry products, including eggs.
§
Subd. 3.
[Repealed, 1996 c 310 s 1 ]
§
Subd. 4. Voluntary extension of credit.
The term "voluntary extension of credit" means a written agreement between a seller and a buyer wherein the time of payment for the purchase price of perishable farm products is extended beyond a due date.
§
Subd. 5. Due date.
(a) "Due date" means 30 days from the date of delivery of perishable farm products by a seller to a buyer if the due date is not specified in the contract. For purposes of this definition a signed invoice with a due date is a contract.
(b) If perishable farm products are consigned, "due date" means 30 days from the date the sale is made by the broker or handler, except as to milk processing plants, where the due date means 15 days following the monthly day of accounting subsequent to deliveries following the date fixed by each milk processing plant for that accounting.
§
Subd. 6.
[Repealed, 1996 c 310 s 1 ]
§
Subd. 7. Commissioner.
"Commissioner" means the commissioner of agriculture.
§
Subd. 8. Farm products dealer.
(a) "Farm products dealer," "dealer of farm products," or "dealer" means any person operating as a retail food handler, wholesale food handler, wholesale food processor or manufacturer, or food broker who buys from or contracts with a seller for production or sale of perishable farm products for resale.
(b) "Farm products dealer," "dealer of farm products," or "dealer" does not include:
(1) a truck owner and operator who regularly engages in the business of transporting freight, including perishable farm products, for a transportation fee only, and who does not purchase, contract to purchase, or sell perishable farm products;
(2) a marketing cooperative association in which substantially all of the voting stock is held by patrons who patronize the association and in which at least 75 percent of the business of the association is transacted with member or stockholder patrons;
(3) a person who purchases perishable farm products and pays in cash, including lawful money of the United States, a cashier's check, a certified check, or a bank draft; or
(4) a person who handles and deals in only canned, packaged, or processed perishable farm products that are no longer perishable as determined by the commissioner by rule.
§
Subd. 9.
[Repealed, 1996 c 310 s 1 ]
§
Subd. 10. Seller.
"Seller" means a farmer or perishable farm products supplier, whether the person is the owner of the perishable farm products or produces it for another person who holds title to it.
§
Subd. 11. Person.
"Person" has the meaning given in section 34A.01, subdivision 10 .
§
Subd. 12. Miscellaneous terms.
"Retail food handler," "wholesale food handler," "wholesale food processor or manufacturer," and "food broker" have the meanings given in section
Minn. Stat. § 27.03
27.03 DEALER REGULATION.
§
Subdivision 1.
MS 2018 [Repealed, 2020 c 89 art 1 s 21 ]
§
Subd. 2.
[Repealed, 1986 c 322 s 4 ]
§
Subd. 3. Brokers.
(a) A farm products dealer operating as a broker, upon negotiating the sale of perishable farm products, must issue to both buyer and seller a written memorandum of sale before the close of the next business day showing the price, date of delivery, quality, and other details of the transaction.
(b) The memorandum required in paragraph (a) must have an individual identifying number printed upon it. Numbers must be organized and printed on the memoranda so that each memorandum can be identified and accounted for sequentially. Unused or damaged memoranda must be retained by the broker for accounting purposes.
(c) A dealer operating as a broker may not alter the terms of a transaction specified on the original memorandum of sale required in paragraph (a) without the consent of both parties to the transaction. Upon making a change, the broker is required to issue a clearly marked corrected memorandum of sale indicating the date and time when the adjustment or change was made. The broker shall transmit the corrected memorandum to both the buyer and seller before the close of the next business day.
§
Subd. 4. Payments for perishable farm products.
If there is a contract between a seller and a farm products dealer to buy perishable farm products, the farm products dealer must pay for the perishable farm products delivered to the farm products dealer at the time and in the manner specified in the contract with the seller. If the due date is not set by the contract, the farm products dealer must pay for the perishable farm products within 30 days after delivery or taking possession of the perishable farm products. A payment received after the due date must include payment of 12 percent annual interest prorated for the number of days past the due date.
History:
(6240-18 1/2b) 1931 c 394 s 3 ; 1975 c 227 s 5 ; 1985 c 233 s 4 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1990 c 530 s 6 -8; 2020 c 89 art 1 s 3 ,4
Minn. Stat. § 270.072
270.072 TAXATION AND ASSESSMENT OF FLIGHT PROPERTY.
§
Subdivision 1. Tax on real estate.
All real property of an airline company and all personal property thereof except flight property shall be taxed as otherwise provided by law.
§
Subd. 2. Assessment of flight property.
Flight property that is owned by, or is leased, loaned, or otherwise made available to an airline company operating in Minnesota shall be assessed and appraised annually by the commissioner with reference to its value on January 2 of the assessment year in the manner prescribed by sections
Minn. Stat. § 270C.7103
270C.7103 REDEMPTION OF PROPERTY.
§
Subdivision 1. Before sale.
Any person whose property has been levied upon shall have the right to pay the amount due, together with the expenses of the proceeding, if any, to the commissioner at any time prior to the sale thereof, and upon payment the commissioner shall restore the property to the person, and all further proceedings in connection with the levy on the property shall cease from the time of payment.
§
Subd. 2. Redemption of real estate after sale.
The owners of any real property sold as provided in this section, their heirs, executors, or administrators, or any person having any interest therein, or a lien thereon, or any person in their behalf, shall be permitted to redeem the property sold, or any particular tract of the property, at any time within six months, or in case the real property sold exceeds ten acres in size, at any time within 12 months, after the sale thereof. The property or tract of property shall be permitted to be redeemed upon payment to the purchaser (or if not found in the county in which the property to be redeemed is situated, then to the commissioner, for the use of the purchaser, or the purchaser's heirs or assigns) of the amount paid by the purchaser together with interest at the rate of 20 percent per annum.
§
Subd. 3. Record.
When any lands sold are redeemed as provided in this section, the commissioner shall cause entry of the fact to be made upon the record required by section
Minn. Stat. § 270C.94
270C.94 .
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Subd. 6. Solar, wind, methane gas systems.
For purposes of property taxation, the market value of real and personal property installed prior to January 1, 1984, which is a solar, wind, or agriculturally derived methane gas system used as a heating, cooling, or electric power source of a building or structure shall be excluded from the market value of that building or structure if the property is not used to provide energy for sale.
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Subd. 6a. Fire-safety sprinkler systems.
For purposes of property taxation, the market value of automatic fire-safety sprinkler systems installed in existing buildings after January 1, 1992, meeting the standards of the Minnesota Fire Code shall be excluded from the market value of (1) existing multifamily residential real estate containing four or more units and used or held for use by the owner or by the tenants or lessees of the owner as a residence and (2) existing real estate containing four or more contiguous residential units for use by customers of the owner, such as hotels, motels, and lodging houses and (3) existing office buildings or mixed use commercial-residential buildings, in which at least one story capable of occupancy is at least 75 feet above the ground. The market value exclusion under this section shall expire if the property is sold.
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Subd. 7.
MS 1983 Supp [Repealed, 1984 c 502 art 3 s 36 ]
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Subd. 8. Limited equity cooperative apartments.
For the purposes of this subdivision, the terms defined in this subdivision have the meanings given them.
A "limited equity cooperative" is a corporation organized under chapter 308A, 308B, or 308C, which has as its primary purpose the provision of housing and related services to its members which meets one of the following criteria with respect to the income of its members: (1) a minimum of 75 percent of members must have incomes at or less than 90 percent of area median income, (2) a minimum of 40 percent of members must have incomes at or less than 60 percent of area median income, or (3) a minimum of 20 percent of members must have incomes at or less than 50 percent of area median income. For purposes of this clause, "member income" shall mean the income of a member existing at the time the member acquires cooperative membership, and median income shall mean the St. Paul-Minneapolis metropolitan area median income as determined by the United States Department of Housing and Urban Development. It must also meet the following requirements:
(a) The articles of incorporation set the sale price of occupancy entitling cooperative shares or memberships at no more than a transfer value determined as provided in the articles. That value may not exceed the sum of the following:
(1) the consideration paid for the membership or shares by the first occupant of the unit, as shown in the records of the corporation;
(2) the fair market value, as shown in the records of the corporation, of any improvements to the real property that were installed at the sole expense of the member with the prior approval of the board of directors;
(3) accumulated interest, or an inflation allowance not to exceed the greater of a ten percent annual noncompounded increase on the consideration paid for the membership or share by the first occupant of the unit, or the amount that would have been paid on that consideration if interest had been paid on it at the rate of the percentage increase in the revised Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers for the Minneapolis-St. Paul metropolitan area prepared by the United States Department of Labor, provided that the amount determined pursuant to this clause may not exceed $500 for each year or fraction of a year the membership or share was owned; plus
(4) real property capital contributions shown in the records of the corporation to have been paid by the transferor member and previous holders of the same membership, or of separate memberships that had entitled occupancy to the unit of the member involved. These contributions include contributions to a corporate reserve account the use of which is restricted to real property improvements or acquisitions, contributions to the corporation which are used for real property improvements or acquisitions, and the amount of principal amortized by the corporation on its indebtedness due to the financing of real property acquisition or improvement or the averaging of principal paid by the corporation over the term of its real property-related indebtedness.
(b) The articles of incorporation require that the board of directors limit the purchase price of stock or membership interests for new member-occupants or resident shareholders to an amount which does not exceed the transfer value for the membership or stock as defined in clause (a).
(c) The articles of incorporation require that the total distribution out of capital to a member shall not exceed that transfer value.
(d) The articles of incorporation require that upon liquidation of the corporation any assets remaining after retirement of corporate debts and distribution to members will be conveyed to a charitable organization described in section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code or a public agency.
A "limited equity cooperative apartment" is a dwelling unit owned by a limited equity cooperative.
"Occupancy entitling cooperative share or membership" is the ownership interest in a cooperative organization which entitles the holder to an exclusive right to occupy a dwelling unit owned or leased by the cooperative.
For purposes of taxation, the assessor shall value a unit owned by a limited equity cooperative at the lesser of its market value or the value determined by capitalizing the net operating income of a comparable apartment operated on a rental basis at the capitalization rate used in valuing comparable buildings that are not limited equity cooperatives. If a cooperative fails to operate in accordance with the provisions of clauses (a) to (d), the property shall be subject to additional property taxes in the amount of the difference between the taxes determined in accordance with this subdivision for the last ten years that the property had been assessed pursuant to this subdivision and the amount that would have been paid if the provisions of this subdivision had not applied to it. The additional taxes, plus interest at the rate specified in section
Minn. Stat. § 272.01
272.01 PROPERTY SUBJECT TO TAXATION.
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Subdivision 1. Generally taxable.
All real and personal property in this state is taxable, except Indian lands and such other property as is by law exempt from taxation.
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Subd. 2. Exempt property used by private entity for profit.
(a) When any real or personal property which is exempt from ad valorem taxes, and taxes in lieu thereof, is leased, loaned, or otherwise made available and used by a private individual, association, or corporation in connection with a business conducted for profit, there shall be imposed a tax, for the privilege of so using or possessing such real or personal property, in the same amount and to the same extent as though the lessee or user was the owner of such property.
(b) The tax imposed by this subdivision shall not apply to:
(1) property leased or used as a concession in or relative to the use in whole or part of a public park, market, fairgrounds, port authority, economic development authority established under chapter 469, municipal auditorium, municipal parking facility, municipal museum, or municipal stadium;
(2) property of an airport owned by a city, town, county, or group thereof which is:
(i) leased to or used by any person or entity including a fixed base operator; and
(ii) used as a hangar for the storage or repair of aircraft or to provide aviation goods, services, or facilities to the airport or general public;
the exception from taxation provided in this clause does not apply to:
(i) property located at an airport owned or operated by the Metropolitan Airports Commission or by a city of over 50,000 population according to the most recent federal census or such a city's airport authority; or
(ii) hangars leased by a private individual, association, or corporation in connection with a business conducted for profit other than an aviation-related business;
(3) property constituting or used as a public pedestrian ramp or concourse in connection with a public airport;
(4) property constituting or used as a passenger check-in area or ticket sale counter, boarding area, or luggage claim area in connection with a public airport but not the airports owned or operated by the Metropolitan Airports Commission or cities of over 50,000 population or an airport authority therein. Real estate owned by a municipality in connection with the operation of a public airport and leased or used for agricultural purposes is not exempt;
(5) property leased, loaned, or otherwise made available to a private individual, corporation, or association under a cooperative farming agreement made pursuant to section
Minn. Stat. § 272.02
272.02 , and contiguous property used for hospital purposes, without regard to whether the property has been platted or subdivided. The market value of class 4a property has a classification rate of 1.25 percent.
(b) Class 4b includes:
(1) residential real estate containing less than four units, including property rented as a short-term rental property for more than 14 days in the preceding year, that does not qualify as class 4bb, other than seasonal residential recreational property;
(2) manufactured homes not classified under any other provision;
(3) a dwelling, garage, and surrounding one acre of property on a nonhomestead farm classified under subdivision 23, paragraph (b) containing two or three units; and
(4) unimproved property that is classified residential as determined under subdivision 33.
For the purposes of this paragraph, "short-term rental property" means nonhomestead residential real estate rented for periods of less than 30 consecutive days.
The market value of class 4b property has a classification rate of 1.25 percent.
(c) Class 4bb includes:
(1) nonhomestead residential real estate containing one unit, other than seasonal residential recreational property;
(2) a single family dwelling, garage, and surrounding one acre of property on a nonhomestead farm classified under subdivision 23, paragraph (b); and
(3) a condominium-type storage unit having an individual property identification number that is not used for a commercial purpose.
Class 4bb property has the same classification rates as class 1a property under subdivision 22.
Property that has been classified as seasonal residential recreational property at any time during which it has been owned by the current owner or spouse of the current owner does not qualify for class 4bb.
(d) Class 4c property includes:
(1) except as provided in subdivision 22, paragraph (c), real and personal property devoted to commercial temporary and seasonal residential occupancy for recreation purposes, for not more than 250 days in the year preceding the year of assessment. For purposes of this clause, property is devoted to a commercial purpose on a specific day if any portion of the property is used for residential occupancy, and a fee is charged for residential occupancy. Class 4c property under this clause must contain three or more rental units. A "rental unit" is defined as a cabin, condominium, townhouse, sleeping room, or individual camping site equipped with water and electrical hookups for recreational vehicles. A camping pad offered for rent by a property that otherwise qualifies for class 4c under this clause is also class 4c under this clause regardless of the term of the rental agreement, as long as the use of the camping pad does not exceed 250 days. In order for a property to be classified under this clause, either (i) the business located on the property must provide recreational activities, at least 40 percent of the annual gross lodging receipts related to the property must be from business conducted during 90 consecutive days, and either (A) at least 60 percent of all paid bookings by lodging guests during the year must be for periods of at least two consecutive nights; or (B) at least 20 percent of the annual gross receipts must be from charges for providing recreational activities, or (ii) the business must contain 20 or fewer rental units, and must be located in a township or a city with a population of 2,500 or less located outside the metropolitan area, as defined under section
Minn. Stat. § 272.03
272.03 DEFINITIONS.
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Subdivision 1. Real property.
(a) For the purposes of taxation, but not for chapter 297A, "real property" includes the land itself, rails, ties, and other track materials annexed to the land, and all buildings, structures, and improvements or other fixtures on it, bridges of bridge companies, and all rights and privileges belonging or appertaining to the land, and all mines, iron ore and taconite minerals not otherwise exempt, quarries, fossils, and trees on or under it.
(b) A building or structure shall include the building or structure itself, together with all improvements or fixtures annexed to the building or structure, which are integrated with and of permanent benefit to the building or structure, regardless of the present use of the building, and which cannot be removed without substantial damage to itself or to the building or structure.
(c)(i) Real property does not include tools, implements, machinery, and equipment attached to or installed in real property for use in the business or production activity conducted thereon, regardless of size, weight or method of attachment, and mine shafts, tunnels, and other underground openings used to extract ores and minerals taxed under chapter 298 together with steel, concrete, and other materials used to support such openings.
(ii) The exclusion provided in clause (i) shall not apply to machinery and equipment includable as real estate by paragraphs (a) and (b) even though such machinery and equipment is used in the business or production activity conducted on the real property if and to the extent such business or production activity consists of furnishing services or products to other buildings or structures which are subject to taxation under this chapter.
(iii) The exclusion provided in clause (i) does not apply to the exterior shell of a structure which constitutes walls, ceilings, roofs, or floors if the shell of the structure has structural, insulation, or temperature control functions or provides protection from the elements, unless the structure is primarily used in the production of biofuels, wine, beer, distilled beverages, or dairy products. Such an exterior shell is included in the definition of real property even if it also has special functions distinct from that of a building, or if such an exterior shell is primarily used for the storage of ingredients or materials used in the production of biofuels, wine, beer, distilled beverages, or dairy products, or for the storage of finished biofuels, wine, beer, distilled beverages, or dairy products.
(d) The term real property does not include tools, implements, machinery, equipment, poles, lines, cables, wires, conduit, and station connections which are part of a telephone communications system, regardless of attachment to or installation in real property and regardless of size, weight, or method of attachment or installation.
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Subd. 2. Personal property.
For the purposes of taxation, "personal property" includes:
(1) All goods, chattels, money and effects;
(2) All ships, boats, and vessels belonging to inhabitants of this state and all capital invested therein;
(3) All improvements upon land the fee of which is vested in the United States, and all improvements upon land the title to which is vested in any corporation whose property is not subject to the same mode and rule of taxation as other property;
(4) All stock of nursery operators, growing or otherwise;
(5) All gas, electric, and water mains, pipes, conduits, subways, poles, and wires of gas, electric light, water, heat, or power companies, and all tracks, roads, conduits, poles, and wires of street railway, plank road, gravel road, and turnpike companies;
(6) All credits over and above debts owed by the creditor;
(7) The income of every annuity, unless the capital of the annuity is taxed within this state;
(8) All public stocks and securities;
(9) All personal estate of moneyed corporations, whether the owners reside within or without the state;
(10) All shares in foreign corporations owned by residents of this state; and
(11) All shares in banks organized under the laws of the United States or of this state.
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Subd. 3. Construction of terms.
For the purposes of chapters 270 to 284, unless a different meaning is indicated by the context, the words, phrases, and terms defined in this section have the meanings given them.
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Subd. 4. Money or moneys.
"Money" or "moneys" means gold and silver coin, treasury notes, bank notes, and other forms of currency in common use, and every deposit which any person owning the same, or holding in trust and residing in this state, is entitled to withdraw in money on demand.
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Subd. 5. Credits.
"Credits" includes every claim and demand for money or other valuable thing, and every annuity or sum of money receivable at stated periods, due or to become due, and all claims and demands secured by deed or mortgage, due or to become due, upon which the mortgage registration tax has not been paid, and all shares of stock in corporations 75 percent or more of the real or tangible personal property of which is not taxable in this state.
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Subd. 6. Tract, lot, parcel, and piece or parcel.
(a) "Tract," "lot," "parcel," and "piece or parcel" of land means any contiguous quantity of land in the possession of, owned by, or recorded as the property of, the same claimant or person.
(b) Notwithstanding paragraph (a), property that is owned by a utility, leased for residential or recreational uses for terms of 20 years or longer, and separately valued by the assessor, will be treated for property tax purposes as separate parcels.
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Subd. 7. Town or district.
"Town" or "district" means town, city, or ward, as the case may be.
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Subd. 8. Market value.
"Market value" means the usual selling price at the place where the property to which the term is applied shall be at the time of assessment; being the price which could be obtained at a private sale or an auction sale, if it is determined by the assessor that the price from the auction sale represents an arm's-length transaction. The price obtained at a forced sale shall not be considered.
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Subd. 9. Person.
"Person" means an individual, association, estate, trust, partnership, firm, company, or corporation.
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Subd. 10. Merchant.
"Merchant" includes every person who owns, or possesses or controls with authority to sell, any goods, merchandise, or other personal property within the state, purchased within or without the state with a view to sale at an advanced price or profit, or which has been consigned to the person from any place without the state for sale within the state.
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Subd. 11. Manufacturer.
"Manufacturer" includes every person who purchases, receives, or holds personal property for the purpose of adding to its value by any process of manufacturing, refining, rectifying, or by the combination of different materials, with a view of making gain or profit thereby.
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Subd. 12.
MS 1969 [Repealed, 1971 c 427 s 26 ]
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Subd. 13. Internal Revenue Code.
Unless specifically defined otherwise, "Internal Revenue Code" means the Internal Revenue Code as defined in section
Minn. Stat. § 272.039
272.039 LEGISLATIVE FINDINGS AND CONCLUSIONS RELATED TO THE TAXATION OF MINERALS OWNED SEPARATELY FROM THE SURFACE.
The legislature finds, for the reasons stated below, that a class of real property has been created which, although not exempt from taxation, is not assessed for tax purposes and does not, therefore, contribute anything toward the cost of supporting the governments which protect and preserve the continued existence of the property. These reasons are as follows: (1) In the case of Washburn v. Gregory, 1914, 125 Minn. 491, 147 N.W. 706, the Minnesota Supreme Court determined that where mineral interests are owned separately from the surface interests in real estate, the mineral interest is a separate interest in land, separately taxable, and does not forfeit if the overlying surface interest forfeits for nonpayment of taxes due on the surface interest; (2) Since this 1914 decision, mineral interests owned separately from the surface have been valued and assessed for tax purposes, as a practical matter, only if the value of the minerals has been determined through drilling and drill core analysis; and (3) The absence of any taxation of mineral interests owned separately from the surface, except where drilling analysis is available, has encouraged the separation of ownership of surface and mineral estates and resulted in the creation of hundreds of thousands of acres of untaxed mineral estate lands which thus are immune from tax forfeiture. The legislature also finds that the province of Ontario in Canada, which has land ownership patterns and mineral characteristics similar to that of Minnesota, has imposed a tax of $.50 an acre on minerals owned separately from the surface since 1968, and $.10 an acre before that. The legislature further finds that the identification of separately owned mineral interests by taxing authorities requires title searches which are extremely burdensome and, where no public tract index is available, prohibitively expensive. This result is caused in part by the decision in Wichelman v. Messner, 1957, 250 Minn. 88, 83 N.W. (2d) 800, where the so called "40 year law" was held inapplicable to mineral interests owned separately from surface interests. On the basis of the above findings, and for the purpose of requiring mineral interests owned separately from surface interests to contribute to the cost of government at a time when other interests in real property are heavily burdened with real property taxes, the legislature concludes that the taxation of severed mineral interests as provided in section 273.165, subdivision 1 is necessary and in the public interest, and provides fair taxation of a class of real property which has escaped taxation for many years. The legislature further concludes that such a tax is not prohibited by Minnesota Constitution, article 10, section 2. The legislature concludes finally that the amendments and repeals made by Laws 1973, chapter 650 to sections
Minn. Stat. § 272.04
272.04 MINERAL, GAS, COAL, AND OIL OWNED APART FROM LAND; SPACE ABOVE AND BELOW SURFACE.
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Subdivision 1. Mineral, gas, coal, oil interests.
When any mineral, gas, coal, oil, or other similar interests in real estate are owned separately and apart from and independently of the rights and interests owned in the surface of such real estate, such mineral, gas, coal, oil, or other similar interests may be assessed and taxed separately from such surface rights and interests in such real estate, including but not limited to the taxation provided in section 273.165, subdivision 1 . All laws for the enforcement of taxes on real estate apply to such interest.
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Subd. 2. Right to use air space or below surface.
When the right to use the air space above or subsurface area below any real estate is conveyed by an owner to another person, partnership or corporation, such right shall constitute a separate interest in real estate which may be assessed and taxed separately from other rights in such real estate. All laws for the enforcement of taxes on real estate shall apply to such rights.
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Subd. 3. Leases.
When the right to use air space above or subsurface area below real estate is granted by a lease for a term of three or more years, by the state or an agency or subdivision thereof, by an institution whose property is exempt from taxation, or by a taxpayer whose property is not taxed in the same manner as other property, such right to use air space or subsurface area shall constitute an interest in real estate which may be assessed and taxed separately, notwithstanding any law to the contrary. All laws for the enforcement of taxes on real estate shall apply to such leased property.
History:
( 1978 ) 1905 c 161 s 1 ; 1967 c 214 s 4 ; 1973 c 650 art 20 s 2 ; 1Sp1985 c 14 art 4 s 33 ; 1997 c 31 art 3 s 2
Minn. Stat. § 272.05
272.05 RESERVED TIMBER OR MINERAL RIGHTS OR INTERESTS IN LANDS SUBJECT TO TAXATION; MAY BE SOLD FOR TAXES.
When lands are conveyed or transferred to the United States, to the state of Minnesota, or to any governmental subdivision of either, for any purpose and the owner reserves any right or interest in the timber upon or minerals in such land, such timber interest and any structure which the owner of such timber or mineral interest may erect on such land shall be assessed and taxed as real estate, and such mineral interest shall be assessed and taxed as minerals, separately from the surface of the land, and these interests may be sold for taxes in the same manner and with the same effect as other interests in real estate are sold for taxes.
History:
( 1978-1 ) 1925 c 170
Minn. Stat. § 272.06
272.06 LEGALITY PRESUMED.
No assessment of property for the purposes of taxation, and no general or special tax authorized by law, levied upon any property by any officer or board authorized to make and levy the same, shall be held invalid for want of any matter of form in any proceeding which does not affect the merits of the case, and which does not prejudice the rights of the party objecting thereto. All such assessments and levies shall be presumed to be legal until the contrary is affirmatively shown; and no sale of real estate for the nonpayment of taxes thereon shall be rendered invalid by showing that any certificate, return, affidavit, or other paper required to be made and filed in any office is not found in such office, but, until the contrary is shown, the presumption shall be in all cases that such paper was properly made and filed.
History:
( 1982 ) RL s 800
Minn. Stat. § 272.12
272.12 . In the case of preexisting common interest communities, the recording officer shall accept, file, and record the following instruments, without requiring a certification as to the current or delinquent taxes on any of the units in the common interest community: (i) a declaration or amended declaration subjecting the common interest community to this chapter; (ii) a declaration changing the form of a common interest community pursuant to section 515B.2-123 ; or (iii) an amendment to or restatement of the declaration, bylaws, or CIC plat; provided, that if the declaration, amendment, or restatement changes the boundaries of an existing tax parcel, then the recording officer shall require a certification as to the payment of current and delinquent taxes on any tax parcel the boundaries of which are changed.
History:
1993 c 222 art 1 s 16 ; 1994 c 388 art 4 s 4 ; 1995 c 92 s 6 ; 1997 c 84 art 1 s 6 ; 1999 c 11 art 2 s 3 ; 2000 c 320 s 4 ; 2001 c 50 s 28 ; 2003 c 127 art 5 s 45 ; 2005 c 121 s 5 ; 2005 c 136 art 14 s 11 ; 1Sp2005 c 7 s 15 ; 2008 c 331 s 10 ; 2008 c 341 art 1 s 2 ; 2010 c 267 art 1 s 7 ; 2011 c 116 art 2 s 3
ARTICLE 2 CREATION, ALTERATION AND TERMINATION
515B.2-101 CREATION OF COMMON INTEREST COMMUNITIES.
(a) On and after June 1, 1994, a common interest community subject to this chapter may be created only as follows:
(1) A condominium may be created only by recording a declaration.
(2) A cooperative may be created only by recording a declaration and by immediately thereafter recording a conveyance of the real estate subject to that declaration to the association.
(3) A planned community which includes common elements may be created only by recording a declaration. The declarant shall, immediately thereafter, record a conveyance of the common elements subject to that declaration, other than common elements described in section 515B.2-109 (c) and (d), to the association; provided, that a delay in or failure to record the conveyance shall have no effect on the validity of the common interest community.
(4) A planned community without common elements may be created only by recording a declaration.
(b) Except as otherwise provided in this chapter, the declaration shall be executed by the owner of the real estate subject to the declaration at the time the declaration is recorded, except vendors under contracts for deed, and by every lessor of a lease the expiration or termination of which will terminate the common interest community. The declaration shall be recorded in every county in which any portion of the common interest community is located. Failure of any party not required to execute a declaration, but having a recorded interest in the real estate subject to the declaration at the time the declaration is recorded, to join in the declaration shall have no effect on the validity of the common interest community; provided that the party is not bound by the declaration unless the party (i) executes a recorded instrument that utilizes a legal description of part or all of the common interest community complying with section 515B.2-104 , or (ii) otherwise acknowledges the existence of the common interest community in a recorded instrument.
(c) In a condominium, a planned community utilizing a CIC plat complying with section 515B.2-110 (c), or a cooperative, where the unit boundaries are delineated by a structure, a declaration, or an amendment to a declaration adding units, shall not be recorded unless the structural components of the structures containing the units and the mechanical systems serving more than one unit, but not the units, are substantially completed, as evidenced by a recorded certificate executed by a registered engineer or architect.
(d) A project which (i) meets the definition of a "common interest community" in section 515B.1-103 (10), (ii) is created after May 31, 1994, and (iii) is not exempt under section 515B.1-102 (e), is subject to this chapter even if this or other sections of the chapter have not been complied with, and the declarant and all unit owners are bound by all requirements and obligations of this chapter.
(e) The association shall be incorporated pursuant to section 515B.3-101 and the CIC plat shall be recorded as and if required by section 515B.2-110 .
History:
1993 c 222 art 2 s 1 ; 1999 c 11 art 2 s 4 ; 2005 c 121 s 6 ; 2006 c 221 s 9 ; 2010 c 267 art 2 s 1
515B.2-102 UNIT BOUNDARIES.
(a) The declaration shall describe the boundaries of the units as provided in section 515B.2-105 (5). The boundaries need not be delineated by a physical structure. The unit may consist of noncontiguous portions of the common interest community.
(b) In a condominium, a cooperative, or a planned community utilizing a CIC plat complying with section 515B.2-110 (c):
(1) except as the declaration otherwise provides, if the walls, floors, or ceilings of a unit are designated as its boundaries, then the boundaries shall be the interior, unfinished surfaces of the perimeter walls, floors, ceilings, doors, windows, and door and window frames of the unit, all paneling, tiles, wallpaper, paint, floor covering, and any other finishing materials applied to the interior surfaces of the perimeter walls, floors or ceilings, are a part of the unit, and all other portions of the perimeter walls, floors, ceilings, doors, windows, and door and window frames, are a part of the common elements; and
(2) except in common interest communities created before August 1, 2010, and except in common interest communities in which all units are restricted to nonresidential use, if unit area or volume is used to allocate interests, the description of the unit boundaries for similar types of units, such as residential units, garage units, or storage units, shall be the same.
(c) In a planned community utilizing a CIC plat complying with section 515B.2-110 (d)(1) and (2), except as the declaration otherwise provides, the unit boundaries shall be the lot lines designated on a plat recorded pursuant to chapter 505 or the tract boundaries designated on a registered land survey recorded pursuant to chapter 508 or 508A .
(d) Except as provided in section 515B.2-109 (c), all spaces, fixtures, and improvements located wholly within the boundaries of a unit are a part of the unit.
History:
1993 c 222 art 2 s 2 ; 2005 c 121 s 7 ; 2010 c 267 art 2 s 2
515B.2-103 CONSTRUCTION AND VALIDITY OF DECLARATION AND BYLAWS.
(a) All provisions of the declaration and bylaws are severable.
(b) The rule against perpetuities may not be applied to defeat any provision of the declaration or this chapter, or any instrument executed pursuant to the declaration or this chapter.
(c) In the event of a conflict between the provisions of the declaration and the bylaws, the declaration prevails except to the extent that the declaration is inconsistent with this chapter.
(d) The declaration and bylaws must comply with sections
Minn. Stat. § 272.43
272.43 REAL ESTATE TAX JUDGMENT; NO LIMITATION.
Every tax judgment entered shall be a lien, and shall operate to continue the lien of the taxes embraced therein, upon the parcel of land covered or intended to be covered thereby, until such judgment and taxes are paid in full, anything in any other statute of this state to the contrary notwithstanding.
History:
( 2207 ) RL s 981
Minn. Stat. § 273.01
273.01 , or if the person can establish not having received notice of market value at least five days before the local board meeting.
(g) The local board must complete its work and adjourn within 20 days from the time of convening stated in the notice of the clerk, unless a longer period is approved by the commissioner of revenue. No action taken after that date is valid. All complaints about an assessment or classification made after the meeting of the board must be heard and determined by the county board of equalization. A nonresident may, at any time, before the meeting of the board file written objections to an assessment or classification with the county assessor. The objections must be presented to the board at its meeting by the county assessor for its consideration.
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Subd. 2. Special board; duties delegated.
The governing body of a city may appoint a special board of review. The city may delegate to the special board of review all of the powers and duties in subdivision 1. The special board of review shall serve at the direction and discretion of the appointing body, subject to the restrictions imposed by law. The appointing body shall determine the number of members of the board, the compensation and expenses to be paid, and the term of office of each member. At least one member of the special board of review must be an appraiser, real estate broker, or other person familiar with property valuations in the assessment district.
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Subd. 3. Local board duties transferred to county.
The town board of any town or the governing body of any home rule charter or statutory city may transfer its powers and duties under subdivision 1 to the county board, and no longer perform the function of a local board. Before the town board or the governing body of a city transfers the powers and duties to the county board, the town board or city's governing body shall give public notice of the meeting at which the proposal for transfer is to be considered. The public notice shall follow the procedure contained in section 13D.04, subdivision 2 . A transfer of duties as permitted under this subdivision must be communicated to the county assessor, in writing, before December 1 of any year to be effective for the following year's assessment. This transfer of duties to the county may either be permanent or for a specified number of years, provided that the transfer cannot be for less than three years. Its length must be stated in writing. A town or city may renew its option to transfer. The option to transfer duties under this subdivision is only available to a town or city whose assessment is done by the county.
History:
( 2034 ) RL s 847 ; 1941 c 402 s 1 ; 1945 c 402 s 1 ; 1949 c 543 s 1 ; Ex1967 c 32 art 8 s 3 ; 1971 c 434 s 3 ; 1971 c 564 s 6 ; 1973 c 123 art 5 s 7 ; 1973 c 150 s 1 ; 1973 c 582 s 3 ; 1975 c 339 s 5 ; 1977 c 434 s 11 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1987 c 229 art 4 s 1 ; 1987 c 268 art 7 s 37 ; 1988 c 719 art 7 s 8 ; 1990 c 480 art 7 s 14 ; 1995 c 264 art 3 s 13 ; 1997 c 231 art 2 s 23 ; 1998 c 254 art 1 s 77 ; 1999 c 243 art 5 s 25 ; 1Sp2001 c 5 art 7 s 21 ; 2003 c 127 art 5 s 22 ; 1Sp2005 c 3 art 1 s 18 ; 2008 c 154 art 13 s 35 ; 2014 c 308 art 9 s 32 ,33; art 10 s 9; 2017 c 40 art 1 s 121 ; 1Sp2017 c 1 art 15 s 25
Minn. Stat. § 273.03
273.03 REAL ESTATE; ASSESSMENT; METHOD.
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Subdivision 1. Assessment books.
The county auditor shall annually provide the necessary assessment books and blanks at the expense of the county, for and to correspond with each assessment district. The auditor shall make out, in the real property assessment book, complete lists of all lands or lots subject to taxation, showing the names of the owners, if known; and, if unknown, so stated opposite each tract or lot, the number of acres, and the lots or parts of lots or blocks, included in each description of property. The list of real property becoming subject to assessment and taxation may be appended to the personal property assessment book. The assessment books and blanks for real and personal property shall be in readiness for delivery to the assessors on or before the first Monday in December of each year.
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Subd. 2. Election to use card ledger or electronic data system.
Any county in this state which employs a county assessor who maintains a unit card ledger system or similar system of real estate and the market value and net tax capacities ascertained by the assessor affecting such real estate, and which county has established an electronic data processing system or similar system to perform the processing of assessment and tax accounting, may discontinue the preparation of assessment books as provided in subdivision 1. The election to discontinue the preparation of assessment books as defined in subdivision 1 shall be made by the county auditor.
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Subd. 3.
MS 2012 [Repealed, 2014 c 308 art 9 s 94 ]
History:
( 1986 ) 1905 c 86 ; 1913 c 503 ; 1917 c 297 ; 1921 c 86 ; 1947 c 331 s 1 ; 1963 c 781 s 1 ; 1965 c 624 s 2 ; 1969 c 709 s 2 ; 1973 c 582 s 3 ; 1975 c 339 s 8 ; 1975 c 437 art 8 s 3 ; 1980 c 423 s 3 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1988 c 719 art 5 s 84 ; 1989 c 329 art 13 s 20 ; 1993 c 375 art 3 s 11 ; 2006 c 212 art 3 s 23
Minn. Stat. § 273.112
273.112 PRIVATE OUTDOOR RECREATIONAL, OPEN SPACE AND PARK LAND TAX.
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Subdivision 1. Citation.
This section may be cited as the "Minnesota Open Space Property Tax Law."
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Subd. 2. Purpose.
The present general system of ad valorem property taxation in the state of Minnesota does not provide an equitable basis for the taxation of certain private outdoor recreational, open space and park land property and has resulted in excessive taxes on some of these lands. Therefore, it is hereby declared that the public policy of this state would be best served by equalizing tax burdens upon private outdoor, recreational, open space and park land within this state through appropriate taxing measures to encourage private development of these lands which would otherwise not occur or have to be provided by governmental authority.
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Subd. 3. Requirements.
Real estate shall be entitled to valuation and tax deferment under this section only if it is:
(a) actively and exclusively devoted to golf, skiing, lawn bowling, croquet, polo, or archery or firearms range recreational use or other recreational uses carried on at the establishment;
(b) five acres in size or more, except in the case of a lawn bowling or croquet green or an archery or firearms range;
(c)(1) operated by private individuals or, in the case of a lawn bowling or croquet green, by private individuals or corporations, and open to the public; or
(2) operated by firms or corporations for the benefit of employees or guests; or
(3) operated by private clubs having a membership of 50 or more or open to the public, provided that the club does not discriminate in membership requirements or selection on the basis of sex or marital status; and
(d) made available for use in the case of real estate devoted to golf without discrimination on the basis of sex during the time when the facility is open to use by the public or by members, except that use for golf may be restricted on the basis of sex no more frequently than one, or part of one, weekend each calendar month for each sex and no more than two, or part of two, weekdays each week for each sex.
If a golf club membership allows use of golf course facilities by more than one adult per membership, the use must be equally available to all adults entitled to use of the golf course under the membership, except that use may be restricted on the basis of sex as permitted in this section. Memberships that permit play during restricted times may be allowed only if the restricted times apply to all adults using the membership. A golf club may not offer a membership or golfing privileges to a spouse of a member that provides greater or less access to the golf course than is provided to that person's spouse under the same or a separate membership in that club, except that the terms of a membership may provide that one spouse may have no right to use the golf course at any time while the other spouse may have either limited or unlimited access to the golf course.
A golf club may have or create an individual membership category which entitles a member for a reduced rate to play during restricted hours as established by the club. The club must have on record a written request by the member for such membership.
A golf club that has food or beverage facilities or services must allow equal access to those facilities and services for both men and women members in all membership categories at all times. Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to require service or access to facilities to persons under the age of 21 years or require any act that would violate law or ordinance regarding sale, consumption, or regulation of alcoholic beverages.
For purposes of this subdivision and subdivision 7a, discrimination means a pattern or course of conduct and not linked to an isolated incident.
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Subd. 4. Determination of value.
The value of any real estate described in subdivision 3 shall upon timely application by the owner, in the manner provided in subdivision 6, be determined solely with reference to its appropriate private outdoor, recreational, open space and park land classification and value notwithstanding sections 272.03, subdivision 8 , and
Minn. Stat. § 273.124
273.124 HOMESTEAD DETERMINATION; SPECIAL RULES.
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Subdivision 1. General rule.
(a) Residential real estate that is occupied and used for the purposes of a homestead by its owner, who must be a Minnesota resident, is a residential homestead.
Agricultural land, as defined in section 273.13, subdivision 23 , that is occupied and used as a homestead by its owner, who must be a Minnesota resident, is an agricultural homestead.
Dates for establishment of a homestead and homestead treatment provided to particular types of property are as provided in this section.
Property held by a trustee under a trust is eligible for homestead classification if the requirements under this chapter are satisfied.
The assessor shall require proof, as provided in subdivision 13, of the facts upon which classification as a homestead may be determined. Notwithstanding any other law, the assessor may at any time require a homestead application to be filed in order to verify that any property classified as a homestead continues to be eligible for homestead status. Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, the Department of Revenue may, upon request from an assessor, verify whether an individual who is requesting or receiving homestead classification has filed a Minnesota income tax return as a resident for the most recent taxable year for which the information is available.
When there is a name change or a transfer of homestead property, the assessor may reclassify the property in the next assessment unless a homestead application is filed to verify that the property continues to qualify for homestead classification.
(b) For purposes of this section, homestead property shall include property which is used for purposes of the homestead but is separated from the homestead by a road, street, lot, waterway, or other similar intervening property. The term "used for purposes of the homestead" shall include but not be limited to uses for gardens, garages, or other outbuildings commonly associated with a homestead, but shall not include vacant land held primarily for future development. In order to receive homestead treatment for the noncontiguous property, the owner must use the property for the purposes of the homestead, and must apply to the assessor, both by the deadlines given in subdivision 9. After initial qualification for the homestead treatment, additional applications for subsequent years are not required.
(c) Residential real estate that is occupied and used for purposes of a homestead by a relative of the owner is a homestead but only to the extent of the homestead treatment that would be provided if the related owner occupied the property. For purposes of this paragraph and paragraph (g), "relative" means a parent, stepparent, child, stepchild, grandparent, grandchild, brother, sister, uncle, aunt, nephew, or niece. This relationship may be by blood or marriage. Property that has been classified as seasonal residential recreational property at any time during which it has been owned by the current owner or spouse of the current owner will not be reclassified as a homestead unless it is occupied as a homestead by the owner; this prohibition also applies to property that, in the absence of this paragraph, would have been classified as seasonal residential recreational property at the time when the residence was constructed. Neither the related occupant nor the owner of the property may claim a property tax refund under chapter 290A for a homestead occupied by a relative. In the case of a residence located on agricultural land, only the house, garage, and immediately surrounding one acre of land shall be classified as a homestead under this paragraph, except as provided in paragraph (d).
(d) Agricultural property that is occupied and used for purposes of a homestead by a relative of the owner, is a homestead, only to the extent of the homestead treatment that would be provided if the related owner occupied the property, and only if all of the following criteria are met:
(1) the relative who is occupying the agricultural property is a grandchild, child, sibling, parent, grandparent, stepparent, stepchild, uncle, aunt, nephew, or niece of the owner of the agricultural property or of the spouse of the owner;
(2) the owner of the agricultural property must be a Minnesota resident;
(3) the owner of the agricultural property must not receive homestead treatment on any other agricultural property in Minnesota; and
(4) the owner of the agricultural property is limited to only one agricultural homestead per family under this paragraph.
Neither the related occupant nor the owner of the property may claim a property tax refund under chapter 290A for a homestead occupied by a relative qualifying under this paragraph. For purposes of this paragraph, "agricultural property" means the house, garage, other farm buildings and structures, and agricultural land.
Application must be made to the assessor by the owner of the agricultural property to receive homestead benefits under this paragraph. The assessor may require the necessary proof that the requirements under this paragraph have been met.
(e) In the case of property owned by a property owner who is married, the assessor must not deny homestead treatment in whole or in part if only one of the spouses occupies the property and the other spouse is absent due to: (1) marriage dissolution proceedings, (2) legal separation, (3) employment or self-employment in another location, or (4) other personal circumstances causing the spouses to live separately, not including an intent to obtain two homestead classifications for property tax purposes. To qualify under clause (3), the spouse's place of employment or self-employment must be at least 50 miles distant from the other spouse's place of employment, and the homesteads must be at least 50 miles distant from each other.
(f) The assessor must not deny homestead treatment in whole or in part if:
(1) in the case of a property owner who is not married, the owner is absent due to residence in a nursing home, boarding care facility, or an elderly assisted living facility property as defined in section 273.13, subdivision 25a , and the property is not otherwise occupied; or
(2) in the case of a property owner who is married, the owner or the owner's spouse or both are absent due to residence in a nursing home, boarding care facility, or an elderly assisted living facility property as defined in section 273.13, subdivision 25a , and the property is not occupied or is occupied only by the owner's spouse.
(g) If an individual is purchasing property with the intent of claiming it as a homestead and is required by the terms of the financing agreement to have a relative shown on the deed as a co-owner, the assessor shall allow a full homestead classification. This provision only applies to first-time purchasers, whether married or single, or to a person who had previously been married and is purchasing as a single individual for the first time. The application for homestead benefits must be on a form prescribed by the commissioner and must contain the data necessary for the assessor to determine if full homestead benefits are warranted.
(h) If residential or agricultural real estate is occupied and used for purposes of a homestead by a child of a deceased owner and the property is subject to jurisdiction of probate court, the child shall receive relative homestead classification under paragraph (c) or (d) to the same extent they would be entitled to it if the owner was still living, until the probate is completed. For purposes of this paragraph, "child" includes a relationship by blood or by marriage.
(i) If a single-family home, duplex, or triplex classified as either residential homestead or agricultural homestead is also used to provide licensed child care, the portion of the property used for licensed child care must be classified as a part of the homestead property.
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Subd. 2. Planned communities; common elements; condominiums; cooperatives.
(a) The total value of planned community common elements, as defined in chapter 515B, including the value added as provided in this paragraph, must have the benefit of homestead treatment or other special classification if the unit in the planned community otherwise qualifies. The value of a planned community unit, as defined in chapter 515B, must be increased by the value added by the right to use any common elements in connection with the planned community. The common elements of the development must not be separately taxed.
(b) Condominium property qualifying as a homestead under section 515A.1-105 and property owned by a cooperative association that qualifies as a homestead must have the benefit of homestead treatment or other special classification if the condominium or cooperative association property otherwise qualifies.
(c) If a unit in a common interest community is owned by the occupant and used for the purposes of a homestead but is located upon land which is leased, that leased land must be valued and assessed as if it were homestead property within class 1 if all of the following criteria are met:
(1) the occupant is using the unit as a permanent residence;
(2) the occupant or the cooperative association is paying the ad valorem property taxes and any special assessments levied against the land and structure;
(3) the occupant or the cooperative association has signed a land lease; and
(4) the term of the land lease is at least 50 years, notwithstanding the fact that the amount of the rental payment may be renegotiated at shorter intervals.
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Subd. 3. Cooperatives and charitable corporations; homestead and other property.
(a) When property is owned by a corporation or association organized under chapter 308A, 308B, or 308C, and each person who owns a share or shares in the corporation or association is entitled to occupy a building on the property, or a unit within a building on the property, the corporation or association may claim homestead treatment for each dwelling, or for each unit in the case of a building containing several dwelling units, or for the part of the value of the building occupied by a shareholder. Each building or unit must be designated by legal description or number. The net tax capacity of each building or unit that qualifies for assessment as a homestead under this subdivision must include not more than one-half acre of land, if platted, nor more than 80 acres if unplatted. The net tax capacity of the property is the sum of the net tax capacities of each of the respective buildings or units comprising the property, including the net tax capacity of each unit's or building's proportionate share of the land and any common buildings. To qualify for the treatment provided by this subdivision, the corporation or association must be wholly owned by persons having a right to occupy a building or unit owned by the corporation or association. A charitable corporation organized under the laws of Minnesota and not otherwise exempt thereunder with no outstanding stock qualifies for homestead treatment with respect to member residents of the dwelling units who have purchased and hold residential participation warrants entitling them to occupy the units.
(b) To the extent provided in paragraph (a), a cooperative or corporation organized under chapter 308A, 308B, or 308C may obtain separate assessment and valuation, and separate property tax statements for each residential homestead, residential nonhomestead, or for each seasonal residential recreational building or unit not used for commercial purposes. The appropriate classification rates under section
Minn. Stat. § 273.13
273.13 , for each of the years the land was within an auxiliary forest, at the rate at which other real estate within the taxing district was taxed in those years. The tax is a first and prior lien upon the land and upon all timber and forest products growing, grown, or cut on the land and removed from the land. These taxes must be enforced in the same manner as other taxes on real estate are enforced and the lien of the tax on forest products cut or removed from this land must be enforced by the seizure and sale of the forest products.
(b) No person shall, after the mailing by the commissioner, as provided in subdivision 5, of notice of hearing on the cancellation of the contract making lands an auxiliary forest, cut or remove from these lands any timber or forest products growing, grown, or cut thereon until all taxes levied under this subdivision are paid, or, if the levy is not completed, until the owner has given a bond payable to the county, with sureties approved by the county auditor, in the amount the county auditor deems ample for the payment of all taxes that may be levied under this subdivision, conditioned for the payment of the taxes.
(c) Any person who violates this subdivision is guilty of a felony.
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Subd. 7. Appeal.
(a) The owner may appeal from any cancellation order of the commissioner to the district court of the county where the land is located by serving notice of appeal on the commissioner and filing the same with the court administrator of the district court within 30 days after the date of mailing notice of such order.
(b) The appeal must be tried between the state of Minnesota and the owner by the court as a suit for the rescission of a contract is tried, and the judgment of the court is substituted for the cancellation order of the commissioner, and is final.
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Subd. 8. Proceedings in lieu of cancellation.
If cause for the cancellation of a contract exists, the commissioner may, in lieu of canceling the contract, perform the terms and conditions that the owner was required to perform, except that the commissioner may not pay any taxes that the owner was required to have paid by law. The commissioner may use any available moneys appropriated for the maintenance of the commissioner's division and any other lawful means to perform all other terms and conditions required to maintain the auxiliary forest status. The commissioner shall, on December 1 each year, certify to the auditor of each county the amount of moneys expended on and the value of services rendered for land in the county since December 1 of the preceding year. The county auditor shall assess and levy the amount shown by this certificate against the lands described. This amount bears interest at the rate of six percent per annum and is a lien upon the lands described. The collection of the tax must be enforced in the same manner as taxes levied under section 88.52, subdivision 1 , and if the tax is not sooner paid, it must be added to, and the payment enforced with, the yield tax imposed under section 88.52, subdivision 2 .
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Subd. 9. Withdrawing land.
(a) Land needed for other purposes may be withdrawn from an auxiliary forest. The owner may submit a verified application in a form prescribed by the commissioner of natural resources to the county board of the county in which the land is situated, describing the land and stating the purpose of withdrawal. The county board shall consider the application and hear any matter offered in support of or in opposition to the application. The county board shall make proper record of its action upon the application. If the application is rejected, the county board shall prepare a written statement stating the reasons for the rejection within 30 days of the date of rejection. If the application is rejected, the county auditor shall, within 30 days of the rejection, endorse the rejection on the application and return it, together with a copy of the written statement prepared by the county board stating the reasons for rejection to the applicant. The rejected application and written statement must be sent to the owner by certified mail at the address given in the application.
(b) If the application is disapproved as to only a part of the lands described, the county auditor shall notify the applicant in the same manner as if the application were rejected. The applicant may amend the application within 60 days after the notice is mailed. If it is not amended, the application is deemed rejected.
(c) If the county board determines that the land proposed to be withdrawn is needed and is suitable for the purposes set forth in the application, and that the remaining land in the auxiliary forest is suitable and sufficient for the purposes of the auxiliary forest as provided by law, the board may, in its discretion, grant the application, subject to the approval of the commissioner. Upon such approval by both the county board and the commissioner, the county auditor shall notify the applicant and the commissioner. Upon notice from the county auditor, the commissioner shall cause to be prepared a supplemental contract executed by the commissioner on behalf of the state and by the owner of the fee title or the holder of a state deed and by all other persons having any liens on the land and witnessed and acknowledged as provided by law for the execution of recordable deeds of conveyance. Notices sent by certified mail to the owner in fee at the address given in the application is deemed notice to all persons executing the supplemental contract. The supplemental contract must be prepared by the director of the Division of Forestry on a recordable form approved by an attorney appointed by the commissioner. Every supplemental contract must be approved by the Executive Council. The commissioner shall submit the supplemental contract to the owner of the land. If the owner indicates to the commissioner an unwillingness to execute the supplemental contract, or if the owner or any of the persons with an interest in the land or a lien upon the land fail to execute the contract within 60 days from the time of submission of the contract to the owner for execution, all proceedings relating back to the withdrawal of the land from an auxiliary forest shall be at an end. When the supplemental contract is executed, it must be recorded in the office of the county recorder at the expense of the owner or, if the title to the land is registered, the supplemental contract must be recorded with the registrar of titles. At the time the contract is recorded with the county recorder, the owner, at the owner's expense, shall record with the county recorder a certificate from the county attorney to the effect that no change in record title to the land has occurred, that no liens or other encumbrances have been placed on the land, and that no taxes have accrued on the land since the making of the previous certificate. The county attorney must furnish this certificate without further compensation. Upon execution and recording of the supplemental contract, the land described in the supplemental contract that is to be withdrawn from the auxiliary forest ceases to be part of the auxiliary forest, and the owner is liable to taxes and assessments of the withdrawn portion together with the timber on the withdrawn portion in like manner as upon cancellation of an auxiliary forest contract.
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Subd. 9a. Land trades with governmental units.
Notwithstanding subdivisions 6 and 9, or section 88.491, subdivision 2 , if an owner trades land under auxiliary forest contract for land owned by a governmental unit and the owner agrees to use the land received in trade from the governmental unit for the production of forest products, upon resolution of the county board, no taxes and assessments shall be levied against the land traded, except that any current or delinquent annual taxes or yield taxes due on that land while it was under the auxiliary forest provision must be paid prior to the land exchange. The land received from the governmental unit in the land trade automatically qualifies for inclusion in the Sustainable Forest Incentive Act.
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Subd. 10.
[Repealed, 1Sp2015 c 4 art 4 s 150 ]
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Subd. 11. Transferring title; procedure on division.
The title to the land in an auxiliary forest or any part of an auxiliary forest is subject to transfer in the same manner as the title to other real estate, subject to the auxiliary forest contract and to applicable provisions of law. If the ownership of an auxiliary forest is divided into two or more parts by any transfer or transfers of title and the owners of all the parts desire to have the parts made separate auxiliary forests, the owners may join in a verified application to the county board of the county in which the forest is situated in a form prescribed by the commissioner of natural resources. If the county board determines that each of the parts into which the forest has been divided is suitable and sufficient for a separate auxiliary forest as provided by law, it may grant the application, subject to the approval of the commissioner. Upon approval, the commissioner shall prepare a new auxiliary forest contract for each part transferred, with like provisions and for the remainder of the same term as the prior contract in force for the entire forest at the time of the transfer, and shall also prepare a modification of the prior contract, eliminating the part or parts of the land transferred but otherwise leaving the remaining land subject to all the provisions of the contract. The new contract or contracts and modification of the prior contract must be executed and otherwise dealt with in like manner as provided for a supplemental auxiliary forest contract in subdivision 9, but no such instrument must take effect until all of them have been executed, filed, and recorded or registered. When all the instruments take effect, the owner of the forest prior to the transfer is divested of all rights and relieved from all liabilities under the contract then in force with respect to the parts transferred except those as may have existed or accrued at the time of the taking effect of such instruments, and thereafter the several tracts into which the forest has been divided and the respective owners thereof are subject to the new contract or contracts or the modified prior contract relating thereto, as the case may be, as provided for an original auxiliary forest contract. The provisions of this subdivision shall not supersede or affect the application of any other provision of law to any auxiliary forest which is divided by transfer of title unless the procedure herein authorized is fully consummated.
History:
( 4031-63 ) 1927 c 247 s 4 ; 1949 c 320 s 1 ; 1955 c 772 s 2 ; 1957 c 753 s 2 ; 1959 c 130 s 1 ; 1959 c 561 s 1 ; 1961 c 347 s 1 ; 1967 c 905 s 5 ; 1969 c 1129 art 10 s 2 ; 1975 c 339 s 8 ; 1976 c 181 s 2 ; 1978 c 674 s 60 ; 1985 c 248 s 70 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1Sp1986 c 3 art 1 s 82 ; 1987 c 109 s 1 -3; 1987 c 268 art 7 s 2 ; 1Sp2001 c 5 art 8 s 1 ,2; 2005 c 4 s 15 -17; 2006 c 214 s 20 ; 1Sp2015 c 4 art 4 s 42 -49
Minn. Stat. § 273.165
273.165 TAXATION OF SEPARATE MINERAL INTERESTS AND UNMINED IRON ORE.
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Subdivision 1. Mineral interest.
"Mineral interest," for the purpose of this subdivision, means an interest in any minerals, including but not limited to gas, coal, oil, or other similar interest in real estate, which is owned separately and apart from the fee title to the surface of such real property. Mineral interests which are recorded in the office of either the county recorder or registrar of titles, whether or not filed pursuant to sections
Minn. Stat. § 273.17
273.17 ASSESSMENT OF REAL PROPERTY.
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Subdivision 1. Property additions; classification changes.
In every year, on January 2, the assessor shall also assess all real property that may have become subject to taxation since the last previous assessment, including all real property platted since the last real estate assessment, and all buildings or other structures of any kind, whether completed or in process of construction, of over $1,000 in value, the value of which has not been previously added to or included in the valuation of the land on which they have been erected. The assessor shall make return thereof to the county auditor, with a return of personal property, showing the tract or lot on which each structure has been erected and the market value added thereto by such erection. Every assessor shall list, without revaluing, in each year, on a form to be prescribed by the commissioner of revenue, all parcels of land that shall have become homesteads or shall have ceased to be homesteads for taxation purposes since the last real estate assessment, and other parcels of land when the use of the land requires a change in classification or the land has been incorrectly classified in a previous assessment.
The county auditor shall note such change in the net tax capacity upon the tax lists, caused by a change in classification, and shall calculate the taxes for such year on such changed net tax capacity. In case of the destruction by fire, flood, or otherwise of any building or structure, over $100 in value, which has been erected previous to the last valuation of the land on which it stood, or the value of which has been added to any former valuation, the assessor shall determine, as nearly as practicable, how much less such land would sell for at private sale in consequence of such destruction, and make return thereof to the auditor.
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Subd. 2. Record of changes.
In counties where the county auditor has elected to discontinue the preparation of assessment books as provided by section 273.03, subdivision 2 , such changes as provided for in subdivision 1, shall be recorded in a separate record prepared under the direction of the county assessor and shall identify, by description or property identification number, or both, the real estate affected, the previous year's net tax capacities and the new market values and net tax capacities, provided that if only property identification numbers are used they shall be such that shall permit positive identification of the real estate to which they apply. Such record shall further indicate the total amount of increase or decrease in net tax capacity contained therein. The county assessor shall make return of such record to the county auditor who shall be the official custodian thereof.
Such record shall be known as "County assessor's changes in real estate valuations for the year." Such records on file in the county auditor's office may be destroyed when they are more than ten years old pursuant to the conditions for destruction of government records contained in sections
Minn. Stat. § 274.18
274.18 ABSTRACT OF REALTY ASSESSMENT ROLL TO TOWN CLERKS.
Once each year, the county auditor shall make out and send to each town clerk in the county who has requested it, a copy or abstract of the latest available real estate assessment roll of the town, as equalized by the county and state boards of equalization.
History:
( 2054 ) RL s 865 ; 1979 c 50 s 31 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1987 c 229 art 4 s 1 ; 1993 c 375 art 3 s 23
Minn. Stat. § 275.08
275.08 , on the tax lists. The total ad valorem property tax for each description of property before credits is the sum of the amounts of the various local taxes that apply to the parcel plus the amount of any applicable state tax. Opposite each description which has been sold for taxes, and which is subject to redemption, but not redeemed, shall be placed the words "sold for taxes." The amount of all special taxes shall be entered in the proper columns, but the general taxes may be shown by entering the rate percent of each tax at the head of the proper columns, without extending the same, in which case a schedule of the rates percent of such taxes shall be made on the first page of each tax list. If the auditor fails to enter on any such list before its delivery to the treasurer any tax levied, the tax may be subsequently entered. The tax lists shall be deemed completed, and all taxes extended thereon, as of January 1 annually.
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Subd. 2. Certificate of auditor.
The auditor shall make in each assessment book or list a certificate in the following form:
I, A.B., auditor of ............ County, and the state of Minnesota, do hereby certify that the following is a correct list of the taxes levied on the real and personal property in the (town or district, as the case may be) of ............ for the year ....... (being the same year the property was assessed and the tax levied), to become payable in the year ....... .
Witness my hand and official seal this ...... day of ............, ....... .
.........................
County Auditor.
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Subd. 3. Designation of year of tax.
Taxes on real and personal property shall be related to and designated on the property tax statement by the year in which they become payable but the liens shall relate back to the assessment date preceding except as otherwise provided. For cash basis taxpayers, taxes on real and personal property shall relate to the year in which they become payable. For accrual basis taxpayers, taxes on real and personal property shall relate to the year in which the lien arose.
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Subd. 4. Unit card ledger counties.
In any county in this state in which the county auditor has elected to come under the provisions of section 273.03, subdivision 2 , the auditor shall cause to be prepared a record to be known as "Real estate assessment and tax list for the year ..............." In addition to the information provided for in subdivision 1, to be shown in tax lists, there shall also be included the amount of market value of land, building, and machinery, if any, and the total market value assessed against each parcel of real estate contained in such lists.
In such counties the auditor shall make in each list a certificate in the following form:
"I, ..............., auditor of ............... County and the state of Minnesota, do hereby certify that the following is a correct list of the taxes levied on the real property, based on the total market value indicated therein, in the (town or district, as the case may be) of .................. for the year ....... .
Witness my hand and official seal this ................... day of ............... .......
.........................
County Auditor."
History:
( 2071 , 2072 ) RL s 875 ,876; 1963 c 39 s 1 ,2; 1963 c 781 s 5 ; 1965 c 545 s 1 ; 1969 c 323 s 1 ; 1973 c 458 s 1 ; 1975 c 339 s 8 ; 1980 c 607 art 2 s 18 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1988 c 719 art 5 s 84 ; 1989 c 277 art 4 s 24 ; 1989 c 329 art 15 s 20 ; 1Sp1989 c 1 art 2 s 11 ; art 9 s 47; 1993 c 375 art 2 s 1 ; 1998 c 254 art 1 s 107 ; 1Sp2001 c 5 art 3 s 52 ; 2002 c 379 art 1 s 65
Minn. Stat. § 276.01
276.01 DELIVERY OF LISTS TO TREASURER.
On or before the first business day in March in each year, the county auditor shall deliver the lists of the districts of the county to the county treasurer and get the treasurer's receipt for them. The lists must show the total amount of taxes due. Where the names of taxpayers appear in the property tax lists, the county auditor shall show the taxpayers' addresses. The lists are authority for the treasurer to collect the taxes shown on the list.
In counties that have elected to come under section 273.03, subdivision 2 , when the county treasurer possesses the lists provided for in section 275.28, subdivision 3 , the county auditor shall have access to the lists to change the market valuations and the classifications of real estate in the lists that the auditor would have been required to change in the assessment books provided for in section 273.03, subdivision 1 , except for the election to discontinue the preparation of the assessment books. The county auditor is the official custodian of the lists after the year when they are in the county treasurer's possession.
History:
( 2074 ) RL s 878 ; 1945 c 278 s 1 ; 1961 c 646 s 1 ; 1963 c 781 s 6 ; 1975 c 339 s 8 ; 1975 c 437 art 1 s 30 ; 1977 c 423 art 4 s 6 ; 1980 c 437 s 9 ; 1Sp1981 c 1 art 8 s 11 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1987 c 229 art 5 s 1 ; 1Sp1989 c 1 art 9 s 52
Minn. Stat. § 276.05
276.05 RECEIPTS FOR TAX PAYMENTS.
The county treasurer may issue receipts showing payment of the tax. If the tax is paid in currency or if the payer requests a receipt, the county treasurer shall give a receipt. The receipt must show the name and post office address of the person, the amount and date of payment, the land, lot, or other property on which the tax was levied, according to its description on the tax list or in some other sufficient manner, and the year or years for which the tax was levied. If for current taxes on real estate, the receipt must have written or stamped across its face, "taxes for" (giving the year in figures), or "first half of taxes for" (giving the year in figures), or "last half of taxes for" (giving the year in figures), as the case may be. If land has been sold for taxes either to a purchaser, or to the state, and the time for redemption from the sale has not expired, the receipt must have written or stamped across the face, "sold for taxes." The treasurer shall make duplicates of all receipts and return the duplicates at the end of each month to the county auditor. The auditor shall file and preserve them in the auditor's office, charging the treasurer with the amount on the receipts.
History:
( 2078 ) RL s 881 ; 1917 c 18 ; 1976 c 334 s 10 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1987 c 229 art 5 s 1
Minn. Stat. § 278.01
278.01 , indicating that it desires to be notified of further proceedings in the case, a representative of the school district in which the property is located shall be notified of all proceedings and all offers to reduce valuations and shall be given an opportunity to appear and testify on any trial of the issues raised.
§
Subd. 3. Assessor's records; evidence.
Assessor's records, including certificates of real estate value, assessor's field cards and property appraisal cards shall be made available to the petitioner for inspection and copying and may be offered at the trial subject to the applicable rules of evidence and rules governing pretrial discovery and shall not be excluded from discovery or admissible evidence on the grounds that the documents and the information recorded thereon are confidential or classified as private data on individuals. Evidence of comparable sales of other property shall, within the discretion of the court, be admitted at the trial.
§
Subd. 4. Sales ratio studies as evidence.
The sales ratio studies published by the Department of Revenue, or any part of the studies, or any copy of the studies or records accumulated to prepare the studies which is prepared by the commissioner of revenue for use in determining education aids shall be admissible in evidence as a public record without the laying of a foundation if the sales prices used in the study are adjusted for the terms of the sale to reflect market value and are adjusted to reflect the difference in the date of sale compared to the assessment date. The Department of Revenue sales ratio study shall be prima facie evidence of the level of assessment. Additional evidence relevant to the sales ratio study is also admissible. No sales ratio study received into evidence shall be conclusive or binding on the court and evidence of its reliability or unreliability may be introduced by any party including, but not limited to, evidence of inadequate adjustment of sale prices for terms of financing, inadequate adjustment of sales prices to reflect the difference in the date of sale compared to the assessment date, and inadequate sample size.
No reduction in value on the grounds of discrimination shall be granted on the basis of a sales ratio study unless
(a) the sales prices are adjusted for the terms of the sale to reflect market value,
(b) the sales prices are adjusted to reflect the difference in the date of sale compared to the assessment date,
(c) there is an adequate sample size, and
(d) the median ratio of the same classification of property in the same county, city, or town as the subject property is lower than 90 percent, except that in the case of a county containing a city of the first class, the median ratio for the county shall be the ratio determined excluding sales from the first class city within the county.
If a reduction in value on the grounds of discrimination is granted based on the above criteria, the reduction shall equal the difference between 95 percent and the median ratio determined by the court.
§
Subd. 5. Offer to reduce valuation.
Any time after the filing of the petition and before the trial of the issues raised thereby, when the defense or claim presented is that the property has been partially, unfairly, or unequally assessed, or that the property has been assessed at a valuation greater than its real or actual value, or that a parcel which is classified as homestead under the provisions of section 273.13, subdivision 22 or 23, has been assessed at a valuation which exceeds by ten percent or more the valuation which the parcel would have if it were valued at the average assessment/sales ratio for real property in the same class in that portion of the county in which the parcel is located, for which the commissioner is able to establish and publish a sales ratio study, the attorney representing the state, county, city or town in the proceedings may serve on the petitioner, or the petitioner's attorney, and file with the court administrator of the district court, an offer to reduce the valuation of the property or a portion of the property to a valuation set forth in the offer. If, within ten days thereafter, the petitioner, or the attorney, gives notice in writing to the county attorney, or the attorney for the city or town, that the offer is accepted, the official notified may file the offer with proof of notice, and the court administrator shall enter judgment accordingly. Otherwise, the offer shall be deemed withdrawn and evidence thereof shall not be given; and, unless a lower valuation than specified in the offer is found by the court, no costs or disbursements shall be allowed to the petitioner, but the costs and disbursements of the state, county, city or town, including interest at six percent on the tax based on the amount of the offer from and after the 16th day of October, or, in the case of class 1b agricultural homestead, class 2a agricultural homestead, class 2b(2) agricultural nonhomestead property, and manufactured homes treated as personal property, the 16th day of November, of the year the taxes are payable, shall be taxed in its favor and included in the judgment and when collected shall be credited to the county revenue fund, unless the taxes were paid in full before the 16th day of October, or, in the case of class 1b agricultural homestead, class 2a agricultural homestead, and class 2b(2) agricultural nonhomestead property, and manufactured homes treated as personal property, the 16th day of November, of the year in which the taxes were payable, in which event interest shall not be taxable.
§
Subd. 6. Dismissal of petition; exclusion of certain evidence.
(a) In cases where the petitioner contests the valuation of income-producing property, the following information must be provided to the county assessor no later than August 1 of the taxes payable year:
(1) a year-end financial statement for the year prior to the assessment date;
(2) a year-end financial statement for the year of the assessment date;
(3) a rent roll on or near the assessment date listing the tenant name, lease start and end dates, base rent, square footage leased and vacant space;
(4) identification of all lease agreements not disclosed on a rent roll in the response to clause (3), listing the tenant name, lease start and end dates, base rent, and square footage leased;
(5) net rentable square footage of the building or buildings; and
(6) anticipated income and expenses in the form of a proposed budget for the year subsequent to the year of the assessment date.
(b) The information required to be provided to the county assessor under paragraph (a) does not include leases. Failure to provide the information required in paragraph (a) shall result in the dismissal of the petition, unless (1) the failure to provide it was due to the unavailability of the information at the time that the information was due, or (2) the petitioner was not aware of or informed of the requirement to provide the information.
If the petitioner proves that the requirements under clause (2) are met, the petitioner has an additional 30 days to provide the information from the time the petitioner became aware of or was informed of the requirement to provide the information, otherwise the petition shall be dismissed.
(c) If, after the August 1 deadline set in paragraph (a), a county assessor determines that the actual leases in effect on the assessment date are necessary to properly evaluate the income-producing property, then a county assessor may require that the petitioner submit the leases. The petitioner must provide the requested information to the county assessor within 60 days of a county assessor's request. The Tax Court shall hear and decide any issues relating to subsequent information requests by a county assessor. Failure to provide the information required in this paragraph shall be addressed under Rules of Civil Procedure, rule 37 .
(d) Provided that the information as contained in paragraph (a) is timely submitted to the county assessor, the county assessor shall furnish the petitioner at least five days before the hearing under this chapter with the property's appraisal, if any, which will be presented to the court at the hearing. The petitioner shall furnish to the county assessor at least five days before the hearing under this chapter with the property's appraisal, if any, which will be presented to the court at the hearing. An appraisal of the petitioner's property done by or for the county shall not be admissible as evidence if the county assessor does not comply with the provisions in this paragraph. The petition shall be dismissed if the petitioner does not comply with the provisions in this paragraph.
History:
( 2126-5 ) 1935 c 300 s 5 ; 1937 c 483 s 2 ; 1977 c 118 s 4 ; 1977 c 423 art 4 s 9 ; 1980 c 443 s 3 ; 1982 c 523 art 17 s 2 ; art 23 s 3; 1983 c 342 art 2 s 23 ; art 7 s 12; 1984 c 502 art 11 s 5 ; 1Sp1985 c 14 art 4 s 81 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1986 c 473 s 5 ,6; 1Sp1986 c 1 art 4 s 33 ,51; 1Sp1986 c 3 art 1 s 82 ; 1987 c 268 art 7 s 47 ; 1989 c 277 art 2 s 41 ,42; 1990 c 604 art 3 s 35 ; 1991 c 291 art 1 s 31 ; art 12 s 14; 1992 c 511 art 2 s 24 ; 1994 c 416 art 1 s 33 ; 1994 c 587 art 5 s 15 ; 2003 c 127 art 2 s 19 ; 2008 c 154 art 2 s 20 ; 2011 c 112 art 11 s 9
Minn. Stat. § 279.001
279.001 PURPOSES; POLICY.
Laws pertaining to the processing of delinquent real estate taxes in this state respecting billing, delinquency, judgment, sale, forfeiture, and redemption create risks respecting the validity of the title of the state, or its successors in interest, arising out of the tax forfeiture process. It is the policy of the state of Minnesota that the body of law pertaining to the processing of delinquent real property taxes be liberally construed in favor of the state, its officers, agents, and its successors in interest, to accomplish the following:
(a) to promote the policy of unfettered marketability as expressed in section
Minn. Stat. § 279.07
279.07 , and shall thereupon award the publication of the notice and list to the publisher or proprietor of the newspaper whose offer is found to be the lowest. The board may reject any offer, if in its judgment the public interest so requires, and thereupon designate a newspaper without regard to any rejected offer. In counties now or hereafter having a population of 450,000 or more, the board shall designate a daily newspaper of general circulation throughout such county. If no such daily newspaper submits a bid at the rate herein provided, the board may designate a weekly newspaper of general circulation throughout the county. In any county in which there is no legal newspaper, the board shall designate any such newspaper printed in the judicial district in which the county is situated, and circulating in the county. Every such designation shall be by resolution, which shall be substantially in the following form:
"Resolved, that .......... (here state the name of the newspaper) is hereby designated by the county board of the county of ............. as the newspaper in which the notice and list of the real estate remaining delinquent on the first Monday of January, ......., shall be published."
A copy of the resolution certified by the auditor shall be filed with the court administrator of the district court. If, for any reason, the board fails to designate a newspaper, or the proprietor of the newspaper fails to give the required bond, the auditor shall thereupon designate the same in writing and immediately file such writing in the auditor's office and a certified copy thereof with such court administrator.
History:
( 2109 ) RL s 908 ; 1911 c 5 s 1 ; 1941 c 400 s 1 ; 1951 c 505 s 2 ; 1957 c 443 s 3 ; 1984 c 543 s 10 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1Sp1986 c 3 art 1 s 82 ; 1998 c 254 art 1 s 107
Minn. Stat. § 279.13
279.13 AFFIDAVIT OF PUBLICATION.
The owner, publisher, manager, or lead supervisor in the printing office of the newspaper in which such notice and list have been published shall forthwith make and file with the court administrator of the district court an affidavit of such publication, stating the days on which such publication was made. The publication may be made in such newspaper, or partly therein and partly in a supplement issued therewith. The affidavit shall be substantially in the following form:
State of Minnesota
)
) ss.
County of
.
)
..............., being first duly sworn, deposes and says that ..he is the ....................... (here state whether affiant is owner, publisher, manager, or lead supervisor) of ............................. (here state name of newspaper), in which was printed the notice and list of real estate remaining delinquent in ..................... county on the first Monday of January, .......; that the notice and list were duly printed and published in the newspaper on each of the following days: On ........... (day of week), the ................... day of ........................, ......., and ........................ (day of week), the ....................... day of ...................., .......; and that each of the days on which the notice and list were so published was the usual and regular day of the issuance and publication of the newspaper.
..................................
Subscribed and sworn to before me this ..... day of ...................., .......
History:
( 2114 ) RL s 913 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1Sp1986 c 3 art 1 s 82 ; 1998 c 254 art 1 s 107 ; 1999 c 60 s 1
Minn. Stat. § 279.131
279.131 , the court administrator shall enter judgment against each and every such parcel as to which no answer has been filed, which judgment shall include all such parcels, and shall be substantially in the following form:
State of Minnesota
)
District Court,
) ss.
County of
.
)
.............. Judicial District.
In the matter of the proceedings to enforce payment of the taxes on real estate remaining delinquent on the first Monday in January, ......., for the county of ...................., state of Minnesota.
A list of taxes on real property, delinquent on the first Monday in January, ......., for said county of ................., having been duly filed in the office of the court administrator of this court, and the notice and list required by law having been duly published and mailed as required by law, and more than 20 days having elapsed since the last publication of the notice and list, and no answer having been filed by any person, company, or corporation to the taxes upon any of the parcels of land hereinafter described, it is hereby adjudged that each parcel of land hereinafter described is liable for taxes, penalties, and costs to the amount set opposite the same, as follows:
Description.
Parcel Number.
Amount.
The amount of taxes, penalties, and cost to which, as hereinbefore stated, each of such parcels of land is liable, is hereby declared a lien upon such parcel of land as against the estate, right, title, interest, claim, or lien, of whatever nature, in law or equity, of every person, company, or corporation; and it is adjudged that, unless the amount to which each of such parcels is liable be paid, each of such parcels be sold, as provided by law, to satisfy the amount to which it is liable.
Dated this ............. day of ..............., .......
.
Court Administrator of the District Court,
County of
.
The judgment shall be entered by the court administrator in a book to be kept by the court administrator, to be called the real estate tax judgment book, and signed by the court administrator. The same presumption in favor of the regularity and validity of the judgment shall be deemed to exist as in respect to judgments in civil actions in such court, except where taxes have been paid before the entry of judgment, or where the land is exempt from taxation, in which cases the judgment shall be prima facie evidence only of its regularity and validity.
History:
( 2117 ) RL s 916 ; 1983 c 342 art 15 s 11 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1Sp1986 c 3 art 1 s 82 ; 1998 c 254 art 1 s 107 ; 2014 c 308 art 9 s 41
Minn. Stat. § 279.23
279.23 COPY OF JUDGMENT TO COUNTY AUDITOR.
When any real estate tax judgment is entered, the court administrator shall deliver to the county auditor a certified copy of such judgment.
History:
( 2124 ) RL s 923 ; 1Sp1986 c 3 art 1 s 82 ; 2014 c 308 art 9 s 42
Minn. Stat. § 281.05
281.05 REDEMPTION WHEN OWNER DIES.
When the owner of lands sold for taxes dies after such sale and before the expiration of the period of redemption, a personal representative or any person interested in the owner's estate as heir, devisee, legatee, or creditor, may redeem from such sale during the period for redemption. If such redemption be made by a personal representative, the representative shall at the time thereof produce to the county auditor letters issued pursuant to chapter 524. If made by any other person, the person shall make and file with the county auditor an affidavit stating under what right or claim such redemption is made. The auditor shall make and deliver to the person making such redemption a certificate containing the name of the person redeeming, a statement of the claim or right upon which such redemption was made, the amount paid to redeem, a description of the lands redeemed, the date of the sale, and the year in which the taxes for which such sale was made were levied, which certificate shall have the effect to annul such sale, and may be recorded as other deeds of real estate, and with the like effect. If such redemption be made by a creditor, the amount paid to effect such redemption, with interest thereon at the rate provided in section
Minn. Stat. § 281.29
281.29 STATEMENT TO BE FILED WITH COUNTY AUDITOR.
Each such statement so filed in the office of the county auditor in this state shall be immediately numbered and filed in the auditor's office by such auditor consecutively in the order in which it is received and the auditor shall, at the same time, enter consecutively in the order in which such statement is received, in a book to be kept for that purpose, first, the file number of such statement; second, the date when such statement is received and filed; third, the name of the person or corporation named in such statement as having some right, title, or interest in land or real property, with the post office address of such person or corporation, if given in such statement; and, fourth, the name of the person or corporation named in such statement as the one upon whom or upon which a personal service of notice may be made. At the same time the auditor shall enter the file number of such statement in the real estate transfer book or books under each piece or parcel of land described in such statement. For the duties required of the auditor by sections
Minn. Stat. § 281.321
281.321 CERTAIN NOTICES NOT TO BE SERVED.
No notice of the expiration of the time of redemption upon any real estate tax judgment sale certificate, forfeited tax sale certificate, or state assignment certificate heretofore issued pursuant to any law of this state at or pursuant to any such sale held in the year 1935 or prior thereto, which has not become void under any law, shall issue or be served after the expiration of six months from the date Laws 1941, chapter 399, becomes effective; nor shall such certificate be recorded in the office of the county recorder or filed in the office of the registrar of titles of the proper county after December 31, 1942.
History:
1941 c 399 s 1 ; 1976 c 181 s 2
Minn. Stat. § 281.322
281.322 FAILURE TO SERVE NOTICES TO EXTINGUISH LIEN.
No notice of expiration of the time of redemption upon any real estate tax judgment sale certificate, forfeited tax sale certificate, or state assignment certificate issued pursuant to any law of this state at or pursuant to any such sale held between January 1, 1936, and April 24, 1941, or held thereafter, shall be issued or served after the expiration of six years from the date of the certificate, nor shall such certificate be recorded in the office of the county recorder or the office of the registrar of titles of the proper county after the expiration of seven years from the date of the certificate.
History:
1941 c 399 s 2 ; 1976 c 181 s 2 ; 2005 c 4 s 35
Minn. Stat. § 281.324
281.324 CANCELED BY LIMITATION.
The county auditor shall annually, as soon as practicable after the second Monday of May, cancel of record all real estate tax judgment sale certificates, forfeited tax sale certificates, and state assignment certificates, upon which notice of expiration of the time of redemption has not been served, and recorded or filed of record within the time herein fixed, by making any entry "canceled by limitation" in the proper real estate tax judgment book opposite the description of land covered by such certificate.
History:
1941 c 399 s 4
Minn. Stat. § 281.325
281.325 CANCELLATION OF CERTIFICATES ON REQUEST OF HOLDER.
Upon request of the holder of a real estate tax judgment sale certificate, state assignment certificate, or forfeited tax sale certificate and surrender of the same, whether notice of expiration of time of redemption has been issued and served or not, the county auditor shall cancel the same, making an entry in the proper copy real estate tax judgment book, opposite the description of land covered by the certificate, "canceled by surrender of certificate."
History:
( 2145-1 ) Ex1937 c 71 s 1
Minn. Stat. § 281.326
281.326 CANCELLATION OF CERTIFICATES WHEN NOTICE OF EXPIRATION OF TIME FOR REDEMPTION NOT GIVEN WITHIN SIX YEARS.
The county auditor shall annually, as soon as practicable after the second Monday of May, cancel of record all real estate tax judgment sale certificates, state assignment certificates, and forfeited tax sales certificates upon which notice of expiration of time of redemption has not been given within a period of six years next following the date of the issuance of such certificate, by making an entry in the proper copy real estate tax judgment book, opposite the description of land covered by such certificate, "canceled by limitation."
History:
( 2145-2 ) Ex1937 c 71 s 2
Minn. Stat. § 281.327
281.327 CANCELLATION OF CERTIFICATE UPON JUDICIAL ORDER.
Upon the petition of any person interested in the land covered by a real estate tax sale certificate, state assignment certificate, or forfeited tax sale certificate and, upon the giving of such notice to the holder of such certificate as may be ordered, the district court, in the proceedings resulting in the judgment upon which a real estate tax judgment sale certificate, state assignment certificate, or forfeited tax sale certificate is based, may order the cancellation of a real estate tax judgment sale certificate, state assignment certificate, or forfeited tax sale certificate upon which notice of expiration of time of redemption has been issued when the certificate or a deed issued thereon has not been recorded in the office of the county recorder or filed in that of the registrar of titles, if the land is registered, within seven years after the date of the issuance of such certificate; the county auditor, on the filing of the order, shall record the land as canceled by order of court; and the rights of the holder under the certificate shall thereupon be terminated of record in the office of the county auditor.
History:
( 2145-3 ) Ex1937 c 71 s 3 ; 1976 c 181 s 2 ; 1986 c 444 ; 2014 c 308 art 9 s 51
Minn. Stat. § 281.70
281.70 LIMITED RIGHT OF ENTRY.
§
Subdivision 1. Limited right of entry.
If premises described in a real estate tax judgment sale are vacant or unoccupied, the county auditor or a person acting on behalf of the county auditor may, but is not obligated to, enter the premises to protect the premises from waste or trespass until the county auditor is notified that the premises are occupied. An affidavit of the sheriff, the county auditor, or a person acting on behalf of the county auditor describing the premises and stating that the premises are vacant and unoccupied is prima facie evidence of the facts stated in the affidavit. If the affidavit contains a legal description of the premises, the affidavit may be recorded in the office of the county recorder or the registrar of titles in the county where the premises are located.
§
Subd. 2. Authorized actions.
(a) The county auditor may take one or more of the following actions to protect the premises from waste or trespass:
(1) install or change locks on doors and windows;
(2) board windows; and
(3) other actions to prevent or minimize damage to the premises from the elements, vandalism, trespass, or other illegal activities.
(b) If the county auditor installs or changes locks on premises under paragraph (a), the county auditor must promptly deliver a key to the premises to the taxpayer or any person lawfully claiming a right of occupancy upon request.
§
Subd. 3. Costs.
Costs incurred by the county auditor in protecting the premises from waste or trespass under this section may be added to the delinquent taxes due. The costs may bear interest to the extent provided, and interest may be added to the delinquent taxes due.
§
Subd. 4. Scope.
The actions authorized under this section are in addition to, and do not limit or replace, any other rights or remedies available to the county auditor under Minnesota law.
History:
1Sp2017 c 1 art 2 s 29
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Minn. Stat. § 282.261
282.261 are not eligible to receive the interest rate under paragraph (b).
(f) The offer must be substantially as follows:
"To the court administrator of the district court of ........... county, I, ....................., am the owner of the following described parcel of real estate located in .................... county, Minnesota:
.............................. Upon that real estate there are delinquent taxes for the year ........., and prior years, as follows: (here insert year of delinquency and the total amount of delinquent taxes, costs, interest, and penalty). By signing this document I offer to confess judgment in the sum of $...... and waive all irregularities in the tax proceedings affecting these taxes and any defense or objection which I may have to them, and direct judgment to be entered for the amount stated above, minus the sum of $............, to be paid with this document, which is one-tenth or one-fifth of the amount of the taxes, costs, penalty, and interest stated above. I agree to pay the balance of the judgment in nine or four equal, annual installments, with interest as provided in section
Minn. Stat. § 283.09
283.09 LAND ERRONEOUSLY RETURNED AS IMPROVED; APPROPRIATION.
In any case where real estate has been erroneously returned as improved property, but which was not in fact then or since improved, and the amount of the net tax capacity was based wholly or largely upon the value of the supposed improvements and without which improvements the land itself would be of little or no value and would therefore justify an assessment of only a small fractional part of the taxes actually levied and extended, and where such taxes have become delinquent and the land sold and bid in at a regular tax sale by an actual purchaser or bid in by the state for the want of such purchaser and the right of the state thereafter assigned to one in good faith and without actual notice or knowledge of such erroneous assessment, the commissioner of revenue shall have power, upon approved application, as in other cases, to grant a refundment of the amount paid by such purchaser or assignee.
There is hereby appropriated to the persons entitled to such refund, from the fund or account in the state treasury to which the money was credited, an amount sufficient to make the refund and payment.
History:
( 2184-1 ) 1937 c 443 s 1 ; 1959 c 157 s 9 ; 1973 c 582 s 3 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1988 c 719 art 5 s 84 ; 1989 c 329 art 13 s 20
Minn. Stat. § 284.15
284.15 DEFENDANTS; UNKNOWN CLAIMANTS.
The owners of such lands at the time of forfeiture, all persons in actual possession of such lands, claiming adversely to the plaintiff, and all other persons claiming any interest in or lien thereon adverse to the plaintiff, so far as shown of record or known to the attorney for the plaintiff, shall be made defendants in the action; provided, that failure to join any person as a defendant shall not impair the effect of the action as to those joined. It shall not be necessary to specify in which parcels of land the defendants, respectively, are interested. The plaintiff may also add to the names of the defendants in the summons, complaint, and other papers in the action the following: "also all other persons or parties unknown claiming any right, title, estate, lien, or interest in the real estate described in the complaint herein," and all such persons and parties shall thereupon be deemed to be joined as defendants, and, upon being served as herein provided, shall be bound and concluded by the judgment.
History:
( 2190-9 ) 1939 c 341 s 9
Minn. Stat. § 284.28
284.28 TAX-FORFEITED LANDS; LIMITATIONS ON ADVERSE CLAIMS.
§
Subdivision 1. Titles presumed valid.
(a) The title of the state, or its successors in interest, to land forfeited for delinquent taxes shall not be held invalid in any action or proceeding by reason of any failure, omission, error or defect in the proceedings respecting the taxation of the land or forfeiture thereof, including without limitation:
(i) substantial or prejudicial defects, including both nonjurisdictional and jurisdictional defects, in the tax forfeiture proceedings;
(ii) cases where the land was exempt from taxation;
(iii) cases where the taxes upon which the alleged forfeiture was based were in fact paid prior to forfeiture; and
(iv) prejudice to the interests of persons under disability referred to in subdivision 4, except within the limitation periods provided in this section. It is the policy of the state of Minnesota that except as otherwise provided in this section the failures, omissions, errors or defects shall not fetter the marketability of real estate.
(b) All provisions of law related to the title of the state or its successors in interest, shall be liberally construed in favor of the state, its officers, agents and its successors in interest. The burden of proving that the title of the state, or its successors in interest, is invalid shall rest upon the party asserting the invalidity.
§
Subd. 2. Actions asserting procedural defects; time limits.
Except as provided in subdivision 5, no cause of action or defense shall be asserted or maintained upon any claim adverse to the state, or its successors in interest, including but not limited to any claim based upon any failure, omission, error, or defect described in subdivision 1, respecting any lands claimed to have been forfeited to the state for taxes, unless such cause of action or defense is asserted in an action commenced within one year after the filing of the county auditor's certificate of forfeiture, as provided by section 281.23, subdivision 9 , and acts supplementary thereto, or by any other law hereafter enacted providing for the filing and recording of such certificates.
§
Subd. 3. Actions asserting invalid certificates; time limits.
Except as provided in subdivision 5, no cause of action or defense, claiming that any auditor's certificate of sale or state assignment certificate arising from the nonpayment of taxes on a parcel of land is invalid shall be asserted or maintained upon any claim adverse to the holder of the certificate or the holder's successors in interest, or to the state or its successors in interest, including but not limited to any claim based upon any failure, omission, error, or defect described in subdivision 1, respecting any such land, unless such cause of action or defense is asserted in an action commenced within one year after the filing of proof of service of the auditor's notice of expiration of the time for redemption, as provided by section
Minn. Stat. § 287.03
287.03 INSTRUMENTS VALID SECURITY FOR DEBT.
No instrument, other than a decree of marriage dissolution or an instrument made pursuant to it, relating to real estate may be enforced as security for any debt, unless the fact that it is so intended is expressed in it. Except as provided in section
Minn. Stat. § 290B.03
290B.03 . The maximum allowable total deferral is equal to 75 percent of the assessor's estimated market value for the year, less the balance of any mortgage loans and other amounts secured by liens against the property at the time of application, including any unpaid and delinquent special assessments and interest and any delinquent property taxes, penalties, and interest, but not including property taxes payable during the year.
§
Subd. 2. Certification by commissioner.
On or before December 1 of the year of initial application, the commissioner shall certify to the county auditor of the county in which the qualifying homestead is located (1) the annual maximum property tax amount; and (2) the maximum allowable deferral. On or before December 1 of any year in which a homeowner files a resumption of eligibility certification, the commissioner shall certify to the county auditor the new annual maximum property tax amount to be used in calculating the deferral for subsequent years.
§
Subd. 3. Calculation of deferred property tax amount.
When final property tax amounts for the following year have been determined, the county auditor shall calculate the "deferred property tax amount." The deferred property tax amount is equal to the lesser of (1) the maximum allowable deferral for the year; or (2) the difference between (i) the total amount of property taxes and special assessments levied upon the qualifying homestead by all taxing jurisdictions and (ii) the maximum property tax amount. For this purpose "special assessments" includes any assessment, fee, or other charge that may by law, and which does, appear on the property tax statement for the property for collection under the laws applicable to the enforcement of real estate taxes. Any tax attributable to new improvements made to the property after the initial application has been approved under section 290B.04, subdivision 2 , must be excluded when determining any subsequent deferred property tax amount. The county auditor shall annually, on or before April 15, certify to the commissioner of revenue the property tax deferral amounts determined under this subdivision by property and by owner.
§
Subd. 4. Limitation on total amount of deferred taxes.
The total amount of deferred taxes and interest on a property, when added to (1) the balance owing on any mortgages on the property at the time of initial application; and (2) other amounts secured by liens on the property at the time of the initial application, may not exceed 75 percent of the assessor's current estimated market value of the property.
History:
1997 c 231 art 14 s 8 ; 1998 c 389 art 5 s 9 -11; 1999 c 243 art 5 s 32 ; 2000 c 490 art 5 s 22 ,23; 2005 c 151 art 5 s 37 ; 2023 c 64 art 3 s 29
Minn. Stat. § 291.005
291.005 , subdivision 1, clause (3).
History:
2009 c 67 s 3 ; 2012 c 143 art 4 s 1
524.2-1104 TAX-QUALIFIED DISCLAIMER.
Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter, other than section 524.2-1106 , if, as a result of a disclaimer or transfer, the disclaimed or transferred interest is treated pursuant to the provisions of section 2518 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as defined in section 291.005, subdivision 1 , clause (3), as never having been transferred to the disclaimant, then the disclaimer or transfer is effective as a disclaimer under sections 524.2-1101 to 524.2-1116 .
History:
2009 c 67 s 4 ; 2012 c 143 art 4 s 2
524.2-1105 WHEN DISCLAIMER IS PERMITTED.
A disclaimer may be made at any time unless it is barred under section 524.2-1106 .
History:
2009 c 67 s 5
524.2-1106 WHEN DISCLAIMER IS BARRED OR LIMITED.
(a) A disclaimer is barred by a written waiver of the right to disclaim.
(b) A disclaimer of an interest in property is barred if any of the following events occur before the disclaimer becomes effective:
(1) the disclaimant accepts the portion of the interest sought to be disclaimed;
(2) the disclaimant voluntarily assigns, conveys, encumbers, pledges, or transfers the portion of the interest sought to be disclaimed or contracts to do so;
(3) the portion of the interest sought to be disclaimed is sold pursuant to a judicial sale; or
(4) the disclaimant is insolvent when the disclaimer becomes irrevocable.
(c) Acceptance of a distribution from a trust shall constitute acceptance of only that portion of the beneficial interest in that trust that has been distributed, and shall not constitute acceptance or bar disclaimer of that portion of the beneficial interest in the trust that has not yet been distributed.
(d) A disclaimer, in whole or in part, of the future exercise of a power held in a fiduciary capacity is not barred by its previous exercise.
(e) A disclaimer, in whole or in part, of the future exercise of a power not held in a fiduciary capacity is not barred by its previous exercise unless the power is exercisable in favor of the disclaimant.
(f) A disclaimer of an interest in, or a power over, property which is barred by this section is ineffective.
History:
2009 c 67 s 6 ; 2012 c 143 art 4 s 3
524.2-1107 POWER TO DISCLAIM; GENERAL REQUIREMENTS; WHEN IRREVOCABLE.
(a) A person may disclaim, in whole or in part, any interest in or power over property, including a power of appointment. A person may disclaim the interest or power even if its creator imposed a spendthrift provision or similar restriction on transfer or a restriction or limitation on the right to disclaim.
(b) With court approval, a fiduciary may disclaim, in whole or in part, any interest in or power over property, including a power of appointment when acting in a representative capacity. Without court approval, a fiduciary may disclaim, in whole or in part, any interest in or power over property, including a power of appointment, if and to the extent that the instrument creating the fiduciary relationship explicitly grants the fiduciary the right to disclaim. With court approval, a custodial parent may disclaim on behalf of a minor child for whom no conservator has been appointed, in whole or in part, any interest in or power over property, including a power of appointment, which the minor child is to receive.
(c) To be effective, a disclaimer must be in writing, declare the writing as a disclaimer, describe the interest or power disclaimed, and be signed by the person or fiduciary making the disclaimer and acknowledged in the manner provided for deeds of real estate to be recorded in this state. In addition, for a disclaimer to be effective, an original of the disclaimer must be delivered or filed in the manner provided in section 524.2-1114 .
(d) A partial disclaimer may be expressed as a fraction, percentage, monetary amount, specific property, term of years, portion of a beneficial interest in or right to distributions from a trust, limitation of a power, or any other interest or estate in the property.
(e) A disclaimer becomes irrevocable when the disclaimer is delivered or filed pursuant to section 524.2-1114 or it becomes effective as provided in sections 524.2-1108 to 524.2-1113 , whichever occurs later.
(f) A disclaimer made under sections 524.2-1101 to 524.2-1116 is not a transfer, assignment, or release.
History:
2009 c 67 s 7 ; 2012 c 143 art 4 s 4
524.2-1108 DISCLAIMER OF INTEREST IN PROPERTY.
(a) Except for a disclaimer governed by section 524.2-1109 or 524.2-1110 , the rules in paragraphs (b) to (d) apply to a disclaimer of an interest in property.
(b) The disclaimer takes effect as of the time the instrument creating the interest becomes irrevocable, or, if the interest arose under the law of intestate succession, as of the time of the intestate's death.
(c) The disclaimed interest passes according to any provision in the instrument creating the interest providing for the disposition of the interest, should it be disclaimed, or as disclaimed interests in general.
(d) If the instrument does not contain a provision described in paragraph (c), the following rules apply:
(1) if the disclaimant is an individual, the disclaimed interest passes as if the disclaimant had died immediately before the interest was created, unless under the governing instrument or other applicable law, the disclaimed interest is contingent on surviving to the time of distribution, in which case the disclaimed interest passes as if the disclaimant had died immediately before the time for distribution. However, if, by law or under the governing instrument, the descendants of the disclaimant would share in the disclaimed interest by any method of representation had the disclaimant died before the time of distribution, the disclaimed interest passes only to the descendants of the disclaimant who survive the time of distribution. For purposes of this paragraph, a disclaimed interest is created at the death of the benefactor or such earlier time, if any, that the benefactor's transfer of the interest is a completed gift for federal gift tax purposes. Also for purposes of this paragraph, a disclaimed interest in an inter vivos trust and other will substitutes that do not lapse with certainty under state law shall pass as if the interest had been created under a will;
(2) if the disclaimant is not an individual, the disclaimed interest passes as if the disclaimant did not exist; and
(3) upon the disclaimer of a preceding interest, a future interest held by a person other than the disclaimant takes effect as if the disclaimant had died or ceased to exist immediately before the time of distribution, but a future interest held by the disclaimant is not accelerated in possession or enjoyment as a result of the disclaimer.
History:
2009 c 67 s 8
524.2-1109 DISCLAIMER OF RIGHTS OF SURVIVORSHIP IN JOINTLY HELD PROPERTY.
(a) Upon the death of a holder of jointly held property:
(1) if, during the deceased holder's lifetime, the deceased holder could have unilaterally regained a portion of the property attributable to the deceased holder's contributions without the consent of any other holder, another holder may disclaim, in whole or in part, a fractional share of that portion of the property attributable to the deceased holder's contributions determined by dividing the number one by the number of joint holders alive immediately after the death of the holder to whose death the disclaimer relates; and
(2) for all other jointly held property, another holder may disclaim, in whole or in part, a fraction of the whole of the property the numerator of which is one and the denominator of which is the product of the number of joint holders alive immediately before the death of the holder to whose death the disclaimer relates multiplied by the number of joint holders alive immediately after the death of the holder to whose death the disclaimer relates.
(b) A disclaimer under paragraph (a) takes effect as of the death of the holder of jointly held property to whose death the disclaimer relates.
(c) An interest in jointly held property disclaimed by a surviving holder of the property passes as if the disclaimant predeceased the holder to whose death the disclaimer relates.
History:
2009 c 67 s 9
524.2-1110 DISCLAIMER OF INTEREST BY TRUSTEE.
If a trustee having the power to disclaim under the instrument creating the fiduciary relationship or pursuant to court order disclaims an interest in property that otherwise would have become trust property, the interest does not become trust property.
History:
2009 c 67 s 10
524.2-1111 DISCLAIMER OF POWER OF APPOINTMENT OR OTHER POWER NOT HELD IN A FIDUCIARY CAPACITY.
If a holder disclaims a power of appointment or other power not held in a fiduciary capacity, the following rules apply:
(1) if the holder has not exercised the power, the disclaimer takes effect as of the time the instrument creating the power becomes irrevocable;
(2) if the holder has exercised the power, the disclaimer takes effect immediately after the last exercise of the power; and
(3) the instrument creating the power is construed as if the power expired when the disclaimer became effective.
History:
2009 c 67 s 11
524.2-1112 DISCLAIMER BY APPOINTEE, OBJECT, OR TAKER IN DEFAULT OF EXERCISE OF POWER OF APPOINTMENT.
(a) A disclaimer of an interest in property by an appointee of a power of appointment takes effect as of the time the instrument by which the holder exercises the power becomes irrevocable.
(b) A disclaimer of an interest in property by an object, or taker in default of an exercise of a power of appointment, takes effect as of the time the instrument creating the power becomes irrevocable.
History:
2009 c 67 s 12
524.2-1113 DISCLAIMER OF POWER HELD IN FIDUCIARY CAPACITY.
(a) If a fiduciary disclaims a power held in a fiduciary capacity which has not been exercised, the disclaimer takes effect as of the time the instrument creating the power becomes irrevocable.
(b) If a fiduciary disclaims a power held in a fiduciary capacity which has been exercised, the disclaimer takes effect immediately after the last exercise of the power.
(c) A disclaimer under this section is effective as to another fiduciary if:
(1) the disclaimer so provides; and
(2) the fiduciary disclaiming has the authority to bind the estate, trust, or other person for whom the fiduciary is acting.
History:
2009 c 67 s 13
524.2-1114 DELIVERY OR FILING.
(a) Subject to paragraphs (b) to (l), delivery of a disclaimer may be effective by personal delivery, first-class mail, or any other method that results in its receipt. A disclaimer sent by first-class mail is deemed to have been delivered on the date it is postmarked. Delivery by any other method is effective upon receipt by the person to whom the disclaimer is to be delivered under this section.
(b) In the case of a disclaimer of an interest created under the law of intestate succession or an interest created by will, other than an interest in a testamentary trust:
(1) the disclaimer must be delivered to the personal representative of the decedent's estate; or
(2) if no personal representative is serving when the disclaimer is sought to be delivered, the disclaimer must be filed with the clerk of the court in any county where venue of administration would be proper.
(c) In the case of a disclaimer of an interest in a testamentary trust:
(1) the disclaimer must be delivered to the trustee serving when the disclaimer is delivered or, if no trustee is then serving, to the personal representative of the decedent's estate; or
(2) if no personal representative is serving when the disclaimer is sought to be delivered, the disclaimer must be filed with the clerk of the court in any county where venue of administration of the decedent's estate would be proper.
(d) In the case of a disclaimer of an interest in an inter vivos trust:
(1) the disclaimer must be delivered to the trustee serving when the disclaimer is delivered;
(2) if no trustee is then serving, it must be filed with the clerk of the court in any county where the filing of a notice of trust would be proper; or
(3) if the disclaimer is made before the time the instrument creating the trust becomes irrevocable, the disclaimer must be delivered to the person with the power to revoke the revocable trust or the transferor of the interest or to such person's legal representative.
(e) In the case of a disclaimer of an interest created by a beneficiary designation made before the time the designation becomes irrevocable, the disclaimer must be delivered to the person making the beneficiary designation or to such person's legal representative.
(f) In the case of a disclaimer of an interest created by a beneficiary designation made after the time the designation becomes irrevocable, the disclaimer must be delivered to the person obligated to distribute the interest.
(g) In the case of a disclaimer by a surviving holder of jointly held property, the disclaimer must be delivered to the person to whom the disclaimed interest passes or, if such person cannot reasonably be located by the disclaimant, the disclaimer must be delivered as provided in paragraph (b).
(h) In the case of a disclaimer by an object, or taker in default of exercise, of a power of appointment at any time after the power was created, the disclaimer must be delivered to:
(1) the holder of the power; or
(2) the fiduciary acting under the instrument that created the power or, if no fiduciary is serving when the disclaimer is sought to be delivered, filed with a court having authority to appoint the fiduciary.
(i) In the case of a disclaimer by an appointee of a nonfiduciary power of appointment, the disclaimer must be delivered to:
(1) the holder of the power or the personal representative of the holder's estate; or
(2) the fiduciary under the instrument that created the power or, if no fiduciary is serving when the disclaimer is sought to be delivered, filed with a court having authority to appoint the fiduciary.
(j) In the case of a disclaimer by a fiduciary of a power over a trust or estate, the disclaimer must be delivered as provided in paragraph (b), (c), or (d) as if the power disclaimed were an interest in property.
(k) In the case of a disclaimer of a power exercisable by an agent, other than a power exercisable by a fiduciary over a trust or estate, the disclaimer must be delivered to the principal or the principal's representative.
(l) Notwithstanding paragraph (a), delivery of a disclaimer of an interest in or relating to real estate shall be presumed upon the recording of the disclaimer in the office of the county recorder or registrar of titles of the county or counties where the real estate is located.
(m) A fiduciary or other person having custody of the disclaimed interest is not liable for any otherwise proper distribution or other disposition made without actual notice of the disclaimer or, if the disclaimer is barred under section 524.2-1106 , for any otherwise proper distribution or other disposition made in reliance on the disclaimer, if the distribution or disposition is made without actual knowledge of the facts constituting the bar of the right to disclaim.
History:
2009 c 67 s 14 ; 2012 c 143 art 4 s 5
524.2-1115 RECORDING OF DISCLAIMER RELATING TO REAL ESTATE.
(a) A disclaimer of an interest in or relating to real estate does not provide constructive notice to all persons unless the disclaimer contains a legal description of the real estate to which the disclaimer relates and unless the disclaimer is recorded in the office of the county recorder or registrar of titles in the county or counties where the real estate is located.
(b) An effective disclaimer meeting the requirements of paragraph (a) constitutes constructive notice to all persons from the time of recording. Failure to record the disclaimer does not affect its validity as between the disclaimant and persons to whom the property interest or power passes by reason of the disclaimer.
History:
2009 c 67 s 15 ; 2012 c 143 art 4 s 6
524.2-1116 APPLICATION TO EXISTING RELATIONSHIPS.
Sections 524.2-1101 to 524.2-1116 apply to disclaimers of any interest in or power over property existing on January 1, 2010, whenever created.
History:
2009 c 67 s 16 ; 2012 c 143 art 4 s 7
Article 3 PROBATE OF WILLS AND ADMINISTRATION Part 1 GENERAL PROVISIONS
524.3-101 DEVOLUTION OF ESTATE AT DEATH; RESTRICTIONS.
The power of a person to leave property by will, and the rights of creditors, devisees, and heirs to the person's property are subject to the restrictions and limitations contained in chapters 524 and 525 to facilitate the prompt settlement of estates. Upon death, a person's real and personal property devolves to the persons to whom it is devised by last will or to those indicated as substitutes for them in cases involving lapse, disclaimer, renunciation, or other circumstances affecting the devolution of testate estates, or in the absence of testamentary disposition, to the decedent's heirs, or to those indicated as substitutes for them in cases involving disclaimer, renunciation or other circumstances affecting devolution of intestate estates, subject to the provisions of sections
Minn. Stat. § 3.101
3.101 , and may receive per diem payments during the interims between legislative sessions in the manner provided in section 3.099, subdivision 1 .
The members shall be appointed in January of every odd-numbered year, and shall serve until January of the next odd-numbered year. Vacancies on the board shall be filled in the same manner as original members were chosen.
(b) The advisory board must develop procedures to elect a chair who shall preside over and convene meetings as often as necessary to conduct duties prescribed by this chapter. The advisory board must meet at least two times per year to review the actions of the commissioner.
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Subd. 1b. Evaluation of programs.
(a) In evaluating programs proposed by the commissioner, the advisory board must consider factors, including but not limited to the extent to which the program:
(1) contributes to increasing the effectiveness of promoting or managing Iron Range economic and workforce development, community development, minerals and natural resources development, and any other issue as determined by the advisory board; and
(2) advances the strategic plan adopted under subdivision 1c.
(b) In evaluating programs proposed by the commissioner, the advisory board must consider factors, including but not limited to:
(1) job creation or retention goals for the program, including but not limited to wages and benefits; whether the jobs created are full time, part time, temporary, or permanent; and whether the stated job creation or retention goals in the program proposal can be adequately measured using methods established by the commissioner;
(2) how and to what extent the program is expected to impact the economic climate of the Iron Range resources and rehabilitation services area;
(3) how the program would meet match requirements, if any; and
(4) whether the program meets the written objectives, priorities, and policies established by the commissioner.
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Subd. 1c. Strategic plan required.
The commissioner, in consultation with the advisory board, shall adopt a four-year strategic plan for making expenditures, including identifying the priority areas for funding for the term of the commissioner's appointment. The strategic plan must be reviewed annually. The strategic plan must have clearly stated short- and long-term goals and strategies for expenditures, provide measurable outcomes for expenditures, and determine areas of emphasis for funding.
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Subd. 2.
[Repealed, 2013 c 3 s 27 ]
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Subd. 3. Commissioner may acquire property.
Whenever the commissioner of Iron Range resources and rehabilitation has made determinations required by subdivision 1 and has determined that distress and unemployment exists or may exist in the future in any county by reason of the removal of the natural resources or a possible limited use thereof in the future and the decrease in employment resulting therefrom and deems that the acquirement of real estate or personal property is necessary and proper in the development of the remaining resources, the commissioner may acquire such property or interests therein by gift, purchase, or lease. The commissioner may purchase insurance to protect any property acquired from loss or damage by fire, or to protect the commissioner from any liability the commissioner may incur by reason of ownership of the property, or both. If after such property is acquired it is necessary in the judgment of the commissioner to acquire a right-of-way for access to projects operated on property acquired by gift, purchase, or lease, said right-of-way may be acquired by condemnation in the manner provided by law. If the owner or operator of an iron mine or related production or beneficiation facilities discontinues the operation of the mine or facilities for any reason, the commissioner may acquire any or all of the mine lands and related facilities by gift, purchase, lease, or condemnation in the manner provided in chapter 117.
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Subd. 4. Commissioner may accept grants and conveyances.
Whenever property has been granted and conveyed to the state of Minnesota in accordance with an agreement made by the commissioner of Iron Range resources and rehabilitation and the commissioner of administration for the necessary and proper development of the remaining resources of any distressed county, such grants, and conveyances or leases are hereby accepted in accordance with the terms and conditions thereof.
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Subd. 5. Commissioner may lease property.
In order to carry out the terms and provisions of this section, the commissioner of Iron Range resources and rehabilitation and the commissioner of administration may lease any property acquired hereunder for a term not to exceed 20 years upon such terms as they may determine, provided that such property shall not be leased to any person in such a manner as to constitute a direct contribution of working capital to a business enterprise. Such lease may provide that in the event the property is ever sold by the state to such lessee, the lessee may obtain a credit on the purchase price covering the rentals paid under the lease or any renewals thereof and that said real estate can be conveyed by the commissioner of Iron Range resources and rehabilitation and the commissioner of administration and the said commissioners are hereby authorized to make such conveyances.
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Subd. 5a. Forest trust.
The commissioner, after consultation with the advisory board, may purchase forest lands in the taconite assistance area defined under section
Minn. Stat. § 3.75
3.75 or 7.5 hours of module training every license year within the 30 hours of continuing education required during each two-year license period. For each license year, the commissioner shall determine what modules are required. The modules must cover topics in real estate that are significant and are of current interest in the real estate market and profession. The commissioner shall determine the specific topics to be covered by modules for each license year and the number of credit hours allocated to each module. In determining the topics and number of credit hours, the commissioner shall consult with a statewide real estate trade association and a statewide private continuing education provider. When the commissioner has created a module, the commissioner must publicize to licensees and to real estate continuing education providers an outline of the topics covered by the module, and the credits associated with it, no later than April 1 of each year. The commissioner may delegate the module and test development, subject to the commissioner's approval, to a statewide real estate trade association. Credit for each module must be contingent upon the licensee's successful completion of it, established by testing of the licensee's knowledge of the content covered by the module, based upon written test questions approved by the commissioner as described in paragraph (k). Modules determined under this paragraph may be offered by any person permitted to offer real estate continuing education in this state. Notwithstanding paragraph (c), the commissioner has discretion to determine that the requirements of the module satisfy, in whole or in part, the requirements of paragraph (c) for a licensing period in which the module will be offered.
(i) The 30 hours of continuing education per license period for real estate brokers must include a module, designed under the procedure provided in paragraph (i), of at least one hour each license year specifically designed to address issues relevant to brokers.
(j) The written test for successful completion of a module offered by a continuing education provider must be comprised of questions selected by that provider from a pool of test questions designed and approved by the commissioner. The test must be a written test, in paper or electronic form, taken by the licensee at the conclusion of the module as a part of the credit hours devoted to the module, but the test must not be allocated credit of more than one-sixth of the time allocated to the module. The provider must prepare, administer, score, and pay any costs related to the tests. The commissioner shall determine the number of questions that must be included in a test and the percentage of questions that must be answered correctly. The provider may contract with a third party for scoring of the test. A licensee must be allowed to remain as long as reasonably necessary to complete the test.
(k) Paragraphs (h), (i), and (j) do not apply to commercial salespersons and commercial brokers engaged solely in the commercial real estate business and who file with the commissioner a verification of this status.
(l) Determinations made by the commissioner under paragraphs (h), (i), and (j) are not rules for purposes of chapter 14.
History:
1973 c 410 s 6 ; 1975 c 38 s 3 ,4; 1976 c 197 s 4 ; 1977 c 215 s 2 ,3; 1979 c 144 s 3 ; 1983 c 284 s 14 ; 1983 c 328 s 9 ; 1984 c 552 s 11 -14; 1985 c 251 s 9 ; 1986 c 358 s 9 -11; 1986 c 444 ; 1Sp1986 c 1 art 7 s 5 ; 1987 c 336 s 23 ; 1989 c 347 s 18 -22; 1991 c 75 s 1 ,2; 1991 c 233 s 48 -51; 1992 c 555 art 1 s 3 ; 1993 c 309 s 13 ,14; 1994 c 632 art 4 s 36 ,37; 1996 c 439 art 3 s 9 ; 1997 c 222 s 35 ; 2000 c 483 s 44 ; 2001 c 208 s 14 ; 2002 c 387 s 8 ,9; 2004 c 203 art 2 s 48 ,61; 2009 c 63 s 60 ; 2010 c 190 s 2 ; 2010 c 384 s 59 ; 2014 c 199 s 12
Minn. Stat. § 300.111
300.111 , covering the whole or any part of its easements or other less than fee simple interests in real estate used in the transportation or distribution of oil, gas, petroleum products, or other commodities that may be transported by pipeline, and also covering the fixtures of the pipeline company which are annexed to the pipeline must be filed in the Office of the Secretary of State along with or as a part of the financing statement covering the fixtures. The filing of the mortgage or deed of trust shall have the same effect, and shall be notice of the rights and interests of the mortgagee or trustee in the easements and other less than fee simple interests in real estate to the same extent as if the mortgage or deed of trust were duly recorded in the office of the county recorder, or duly registered in the office of the registrar of titles of the county or counties in which the real estate is situated. The mortgages or deeds of trust may by their terms include after-acquired property, real and personal, and shall be as valid and effectual for that purpose as if the after-acquired property were owned by, and in possession of, the company giving the mortgage and deed of trust at the time of the execution. Notwithstanding the Uniform Commercial Code the filing and recording of the mortgage and deed of trust in the office of the secretary of state shall be notice of the rights of all parties in the real and personal property and fixtures covered by the filing and will so remain until satisfied or discharged without further affidavit, continuation statement, or proceeding.
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Subd. 2. Effect of prior instrument.
For the purposes of this section, any mortgage or deed of trust filed under this section shall be deemed to contain a sufficient description to give notice of the rights and interest of the mortgagee or trustee in the easements and other less than fee simple interests in the real estate used for the transmission of oil, gas, petroleum products, or other commodities which may be transported by pipeline if the mortgage and deed of trust states that the security includes rights-of-way, transmission systems, or lines of the pipeline company, or all property owned by the pipeline company.
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Subd. 3. Nonapplication.
This section shall not apply to any real estate owned by a pipeline company in fee simple.
History:
1967 c 338 s 1 ,2; 1976 c 181 s 2 ; 1983 c 87 s 1 ; 1984 c 628 art 5 s 1 ; 2005 c 69 art 1 s 21
Minn. Stat. § 300.112
300.112 , which complies with the provisions of this section, is filed under this section as of March 28, 1974.
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Subd. 4. Application.
This section does not apply to real estate owned in fee simple by a public utility.
History:
1974 c 272 s 1 ; 1976 c 181 s 2 ; 1984 c 628 art 5 s 1 ; 2005 c 69 art 1 s 21
Minn. Stat. § 303.04
303.04 , and acts amendatory thereof and supplementary thereto, insofar as it relates to the limits of territory in which a savings association organized under the laws of another state may carry on the business of making real estate mortgages.
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Subd. 2. Notice to corporation.
On finding that a default has occurred under subdivision 1, clauses (1) to (3) or (5), the secretary of state shall attempt to provide notice to the corporation that the default exists and that its certificate of authority will be revoked unless the default shall be cured within 30 days after the mailing of the notice.
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Subd. 3. Revocation.
(a) The secretary of state shall revoke the certificate of authority of a corporation that is in default under subdivision 1, clause (4), for failure to file an annual registration form under section
Minn. Stat. § 306.023
306.023 UNUSED PUBLIC CEMETERY; TRANSFER TO OPERATING PUBLIC CEMETERY.
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Subdivision 1. Transfer authorized.
A public cemetery association that owns a cemetery in which no interments have been made for 40 years may transfer the cemetery and real estate owned by it, together with funds or property that it possesses, to another public cemetery association or corporation serving the same community in the burial of the dead.
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Subd. 2. Method of transfer.
To accomplish the transfer, the board of trustees of the transferring cemetery association shall adopt a resolution to that effect by an unanimous vote of the board of trustees. The chair or president of the board of trustees and the secretary may then execute the proper instruments and a deed in the name of the association to evidence the transfer. However, the transfer must first have been authorized by a majority vote of all members of the association, present and voting, at any regular meeting or at any special meeting called for that purpose, after written notice to the members specifying the time, place, and purpose of the meeting.
If the association is an unincorporated association, a deed executed in the name of the association by the chair or president and the secretary or treasurer of the board of trustees is a valid conveyance of the lands of the association.
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Subd. 3. Acceptance of transfer.
A public cemetery association or corporation serving the community in the burial of the dead may accept a transfer of a cemetery and its lands, property, and funds. Before a transfer is made, the public cemetery association to which the transfer is being made shall adopt a resolution agreeing to accept the cemetery and its real and personal property and funds and agreeing to operate, maintain, control, and manage the cemetery and administer its property and funds in the name of, and in accordance with the rules and laws governing the accepting public cemetery association.
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Subd. 4. Effect of transfer.
After transfer, lot owners of the former association continue their ownership. They are entitled to the same rights and privileges with respect to their lots accorded to lot owners by the public cemetery association to which the transfer was made and are thereafter subject to all the rules and laws governing the public cemetery association.
History:
1949 c 298 s 1 ; 1984 c 543 s 13 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1988 c 469 art 5 s 1
Minn. Stat. § 306.21
306.21 , the rights of the party or parties may be considered abandoned, and the corporation may, with the approval of its governing board, bring an action in the district court of the county against all parties in default, uniting as many parties in default as it may desire in one action, to have their rights in the lots or parcels terminated and the property restored to the corporation free of any right, title, or interest of the parties, their heirs or assigns. The action in all other respects must be brought and determined in the same manner as ordinary actions to determine title to real estate. However, that part of a tract in which a body lies buried must not be included in any of these proceedings. Sufficient ground must be left adjoining the grave or burial place to provide a proper approach. The excepted portions, if any, must be particularly and fully described.
History:
( 7577 ) 1921 c 358 s 2 ; 1988 c 469 art 5 s 1
Minn. Stat. § 306.63
306.63 SALE OF CERTAIN REAL ESTATE.
Any cemetery corporation incorporated under state law before April 19, 1911, may sell and convey, for other than burial or cemetery purposes, any real estate lawfully acquired by it that is not suitable for cemetery purposes and that has not been platted for those purposes.
History:
( 7600 ) 1911 c 296 s 1 ; 1988 c 469 art 5 s 1
Minn. Stat. § 306.64
306.64 REAL ESTATE, WHEN SOLD.
Any public cemetery corporation incorporated under state law before or after April 23, 1913, that has acquired more than 100 acres of land may sell and convey, for other than burial or cemetery purposes, any real estate in excess of that 100 acres. The sale must not include land in which any interments have been made. Any sale must be approved by the unanimous vote of all the trustees of the corporation.
History:
( 7601 ) 1913 c 444 s 1 ; 1988 c 469 art 5 s 1
Minn. Stat. § 306.86
306.86 CONVEYANCES OF CEMETERY LOTS AND LANDS TO HOLDING CORPORATIONS LEGALIZED; RECONVEYANCE TO CITIES OF FIRST CLASS FOR CEMETERY PURPOSES.
A deed or other instrument of conveyance of a right, title, or interest in any cemetery land or lot in a cemetery in this state executed before March 31, 1927, conveying the land or plot to a corporation authorized to acquire, hold, and convey title to real estate is lawful and conveys all right, title, and interest of the grantor to the corporation. By the conveyance, the corporation acquires all right, title, and interest that the grantor had in the land and property subject to any limitations contained in the instrument of conveyance. The corporation has the right to convey the property for cemetery purposes to any city of the first class in this state, including those organized and operating under a home rule charter adopted under the Minnesota Constitution, and the state laws relating to it.
History:
( 7624-1 ) 1927 c 96 s 1 ; 1988 c 469 art 5 s 1
Minn. Stat. § 308A.201
308A.201 and in this section.
(b) This section does not give a cooperative the power or authority to exercise the powers of a credit union under chapter 52, a bank under chapter 48, or a savings association under chapter 51A.
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Subd. 2. Dealing in products.
A cooperative may buy, sell, or deal in its own products; the products of its individual members, patrons, or nonmembers; the products of another cooperative association or of its members or patrons; or the products of another person or entity. A cooperative may negotiate the price at which its products may be sold.
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Subd. 3. Contracts with members.
A cooperative may enter into or become a party to a contract or agreement for the cooperative or for the cooperative's individual members or patrons or between the cooperative and its members.
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Subd. 4. Holding and transactions of real and personal property.
(a) A cooperative may purchase and hold, lease, mortgage, encumber, sell, exchange, and convey as a legal entity real, personal, and intellectual property, including real estate, buildings, personal property, patents, and copyrights as the business of the cooperative may require, including the sale or other disposition of assets required by the business of the cooperative as determined by the board.
(b) A cooperative may take, receive, and hold real and personal property, including the principal and interest of money or other funds and rights in a contract, in trust for any purpose not inconsistent with the purposes of the cooperative in its articles or bylaws and may exercise fiduciary powers in relation to taking, receiving, and holding the real and personal property.
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Subd. 5. Buildings.
A cooperative may erect buildings or other structures or facilities on the cooperative's owned or leased property or on a right-of-way legally acquired by the cooperative.
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Subd. 6. Debt instruments.
A cooperative may issue bonds, debentures, or other evidence of indebtedness and may borrow money, may secure any of its obligations by mortgage of or creation of a security interest in or other encumbrances or assignment of all or any of its property, franchises, or income, and may issue guarantees for any legal purpose. The cooperative may form special purpose business entities to secure assets of the cooperative.
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Subd. 7. Advances to patrons.
A cooperative may make advances to its members or patrons on products delivered by the members or patrons to the cooperative.
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Subd. 8. Deposits.
A cooperative may accept donations or deposits of money or real personal property from other cooperatives or associations from which it is constituted.
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Subd. 9. Lending, borrowing, investing.
A cooperative may loan or borrow money to or from individual members, cooperatives, or associations from which it is constituted with security that it considers sufficient. A cooperative may invest and reinvest its funds.
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Subd. 10. Pensions and benefits.
A cooperative may pay pensions, retirement allowances, and compensation for past services to and for the benefit of; and establish, maintain, continue, and carry out, wholly or partially at the expense of the cooperative, employee or incentive benefit plans, trust, and provisions to or for the benefit of any or all of its and its related organizations' officers, managers, directors, governors, employees, and agents; and in the case of a related organization that is a cooperative, members who provide services to the cooperative, and any of their families, dependents, and beneficiaries. It may indemnify and purchase and maintain insurance for and on behalf of a fiduciary of any of these employee benefit and incentive plans, trusts, and provisions.
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Subd. 11. Insurance.
A cooperative may provide for its benefit life insurance and other insurance with respect to the services of any or all of its members, managers, directors, employees, and agents, or on the life of a member for the purpose of acquiring at the death of the member any or all membership interests in the cooperative owned by the member.
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Subd. 12. Ownership interests in other entities.
(a) A cooperative may purchase, acquire, hold, or dispose of the ownership interests of another business entity or organize business entities whether organized under the laws of this state or another state or the United States and assume all rights, interests, privileges, responsibilities, and obligations arising out of the ownership interests, including a business entity organized:
(1) as a federation of associations;
(2) for the purpose of forming a district, state, or national marketing sales or service agency; or
(3) for the purpose of acquiring marketing facilities at terminal or other markets in this state or other states.
(b) A cooperative may purchase, own, and hold ownership interests, including stock and other equity interests, memberships, interests in nonstock capital, and evidences of indebtedness of any domestic business entity or foreign business entity.
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Subd. 13. Fiduciary powers.
A cooperative may exercise any and all fiduciary powers in relations with members, cooperatives, associations, or business entities from which it is constituted.
History:
2003 c 105 art 1 s 19
Minn. Stat. § 308C.201
308C.201 and this section.
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Subd. 2. Legal capacity.
A cooperative may sue and be sued, complain and defend and participate as a party or otherwise in any legal, administrative, or arbitration proceeding, in its corporate name.
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Subd. 3. Contracts with members.
A cooperative may enter into or become a party to a contract or agreement for the cooperative or for the cooperative's members or others or between the cooperative and its members.
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Subd. 4. Holding and transactions of real and personal property.
(a) A cooperative may purchase and hold, lease, mortgage, encumber, sell, exchange, insure, and convey as a legal entity real, personal, and intellectual property, including real estate, buildings, personal property, patents, and copyrights as the business of the cooperative may require, including the sale or other disposition of assets required by the business of the cooperative as determined by the board.
(b) A cooperative may take, receive, and hold real and personal property, including the principal and interest of money or other funds and rights in a contract, in trust for any purpose not inconsistent with the purposes of the cooperative in its articles or bylaws and may exercise fiduciary powers in relation to taking, receiving, and holding the real and personal property.
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Subd. 5. Buildings.
A cooperative may erect buildings or other structures or facilities on the cooperative's owned or leased property or on a right-of-way legally acquired by the cooperative.
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Subd. 6. Debt instruments.
A cooperative may issue bonds, debentures, or other evidence of indebtedness and may borrow money, may secure any of its obligations by mortgage of or creation of a security interest in or other encumbrances or assignment of all or any of its property, franchises, or income, and may issue guarantees for any legal purpose. The cooperative may form special purpose business entities to secure assets of the cooperative.
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Subd. 7. Advances to occupants.
A cooperative may make advances to its members.
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Subd. 8. Deposits.
A cooperative may accept donations or deposits of money or real personal property from other cooperatives, associations, organizations, agencies, municipalities, and local, state, and federal governments.
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Subd. 9. Lending, borrowing, investing.
A cooperative may loan or borrow money to or from members, other cooperatives, associations, organizations, agencies, municipalities, and local, state, and federal governments with security that it considers sufficient. A cooperative may invest and reinvest its funds.
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Subd. 10. Pensions and benefits.
A cooperative may pay pensions, retirement allowances, and compensation for past services to and for the benefit of; and establish, maintain, continue, and carry out, wholly or partially at the expense of the cooperative, employee or incentive benefit plans, trust, and provisions to or for the benefit of any or all of its and its related organizations' officers, managers, directors, governors, employees, and agents; and in the case of a related organization that is a cooperative, members who provide services to the cooperative, and any of their families, dependents, and beneficiaries. It may indemnify and purchase and maintain insurance for and on behalf of a fiduciary of any of these employee benefit and incentive plans, trusts, and provisions.
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Subd. 11. Insurance.
A cooperative may provide for its benefit life insurance and other insurance with respect to the services of any or all of its members, managers, directors, employees, and agents, or on the life of a member for the purpose of acquiring at the death of the member any or all membership interests in the cooperative owned by the member.
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Subd. 12. Ownership interests in other entities.
(a) A cooperative may purchase, acquire, hold, or dispose of the ownership interests of another business entity or organize business entities whether organized under the laws of this state or another state or the United States and assume all rights, interests, privileges, responsibilities, and obligations arising out of the ownership interest.
(b) A cooperative may purchase, own, and hold ownership interests, including stock and other equity interests, memberships, interests in nonstock capital, and evidences of indebtedness of any domestic business entity or foreign business entity.
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Subd. 13. Fiduciary powers.
A cooperative may exercise any and all fiduciary powers in relations with members, other cooperatives, associations, organizations, agencies, municipalities, and local, state, and federal governments.
History:
2024 c 96 art 1 s 19 ; 2025 c 20 s 237 -239
Minn. Stat. § 308C.603
308C.603 DEVELOPER RIGHTS, RESTRICTIONS, AND OBLIGATIONS.
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Subdivision 1. Developer control.
If a developer causes a cooperative to be organized under this chapter, the developer shall have the right to appoint an initial board of directors consisting of three persons. The developer's control of the board shall terminate on the date of the first annual meeting of members. The first annual meeting shall occur on or about 60 days after the date of the certificate of occupancy issued for the project by the municipality in which the project is situated and subject to any requirements under the mortgage for permanent financing related to the project.
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Subd. 2. Termination of developer's contracts.
Any contract, lease, or license binding the cooperative and to which the developer or an affiliate of the developer is a party may be terminated without penalty by the cooperative upon not less than 90 days' notice if entered into prior to termination of the period of developer control. The notice shall be in writing and is effective upon hand delivery or upon mailing properly addressed with postage prepaid and deposited in the United States mail. This subdivision does not apply to any mortgage encumbering the cooperative's real estate.
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Subd. 3. Developer's standard of conduct during period of developer control.
(a) During the period of the developer's control of the cooperative, the developer and any of the developer's representatives who are acting as officers or directors of the cooperative shall be subject to the provisions of sections
Minn. Stat. § 308C.612
308C.612 SENIOR HOUSING COOPERATIVE OFFERING DOCUMENTS; GENERAL PROVISIONS.
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Subdivision 1. Generally.
The senior housing cooperative organized under this chapter shall provide to each subscriber for a membership in the cooperative: (1) an occupancy agreement or proprietary lease; (2) the articles; (3) the bylaws; (4) an annualized budget for the current fiscal period; and (5)(i) for the initial purchase of a membership interest to which a particular dwelling unit is appurtenant, an information bulletin and a subscription agreement; and (ii) for any purchase of a membership interest after its initial purchase, a resale disclosure statement and a membership purchase and sale agreement, all of which shall minimally include the contents of the provisions set forth in subdivisions 2 to 6, as applicable.
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Subd. 2. Information bulletin.
(a) With respect to an initial sale of a cooperative's authorized membership interests to older persons, each subscriber for membership shall be given an information bulletin that shall fully and accurately disclose:
(1) the name and principal address of the cooperative;
(2) the number of dwelling units in the project;
(3) a general description of the project, including, at a minimum:
(i) the number of buildings;
(ii) the number of dwellings per building;
(iii) the type of construction;
(iv) whether the project involves new construction or rehabilitation;
(v) whether any building was wholly or partially occupied, for any purpose, before it was added to the project and the nature of the occupancy;
(vi) a general description of any roads, trails, or utilities that are located on the common elements and that the cooperative is required to maintain;
(vii) the name of the developer, the developer's credentials, and the credentials of the persons constituting the initial board of directors of the cooperative; and
(viii) a statement that the developer shall be financially liable for all of the common expenses and costs allocated to the unsold membership interests and dwelling units appurtenant thereto until such membership interests are sold to the initial purchasers thereof;
(4) the cooperative's schedule of commencement and completion of construction of any buildings and other improvements that the cooperative is obligated to build;
(5) any expenses or services not reflected in the budget that the cooperative pays or provides that may become a common expense and the projected common expense attributable to each of those expenses or services;
(6) identification of any liens, defects, or encumbrances that will continue to affect the title to a dwelling unit or to any real property owned by the cooperative after the contemplated conveyance;
(7) a statement disclosing to the extent of the cooperative's or an affiliate of a cooperative's actual knowledge, after reasonable inquiry, any unsatisfied judgments or lawsuits to which the cooperative is a party, and the status of those lawsuits which are material to the project or the dwelling unit appurtenant to a membership being purchased;
(8) a summary of the insurance coverage provided by the cooperative for the benefit of members, and a detailed description of the insurance coverage that members are encouraged to purchase for their own benefit;
(9) a statement describing:
(i) whether the members are entitled for federal and state tax purposes to deduct payments made by the cooperative for real estate taxes and interest paid to the holder of a security interest encumbering the cooperative;
(ii) a statement as to the effect on the members if the cooperative fails to pay real estate taxes or payments due the holder of a security interest encumbering the cooperative; and
(iii) the principal amount and a general description of the terms of any blanket mortgage contract for deed, or other blanket security instrument encumbering the cooperative property;
(10) a statement:
(i) that real estate taxes for the dwelling unit or any real property owned by the cooperative are not delinquent, or if there are delinquent real estate taxes, describing the property for which the taxes are delinquent, stating the amount of the delinquent taxes, interest, and penalties, and stating the years for which taxes are delinquent; and
(ii) setting forth the amount of real estate taxes expected to be allocated to the dwelling units, including the amount of any special assessments certified for payment with the real estate taxes, due and payable with respect to the dwelling unit in the year in which the information bulletin is given;
(11) any recorded covenants, conditions restrictions, and reservations affecting the project; a statement that the occupancy agreement must be signed at the closing; and a statement that members are required to abide by the bylaws, the articles of incorporation, and the rules, regulations, and policies of the cooperative, including amendments from time to time;
(12) a brief narrative description of any material agreements entered into between the cooperative and a governmental entity that affect the project;
(13) a budget prepared by the developer; and
(14) a statement that purchase and sales of memberships and rights under occupancy agreements are not for speculative purposes and that investments in the cooperative by members are for the sole purpose of securing and acquiring a dwelling unit for their residential use and benefit.
(b) A cooperative shall promptly amend the information bulletin to reflect any material change in the information required by this chapter.
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Subd. 3. Resale disclosure certificate.
(a) In the event of a resale of a membership interest by either the departing member or by the cooperative, the departing member or the cooperative, as applicable, shall furnish to the purchaser before the execution of any purchase and sale agreement for the applicable membership interest the following documents relating to the cooperative:
(1) copies of the articles and bylaws, any rules and regulations, and any amendments thereto; and
(2) a resale disclosure certificate containing the information set forth in paragraph (b).
(b) The resale disclosure certificate must provide the following information:
(1) the name of the cooperative;
(2) the number of the dwelling unit appurtenant to the subject membership interest;
(3) the amount of the monthly common expense assessments payable under the occupancy agreement applicable to the subject dwelling unit;
(4) the amount of other additional fees or charges payable by members, such as late payment charges;
(5) extraordinary expenditures, if any, approved by the cooperative and not yet assessed to members for the current and two succeeding fiscal years;
(6) the current balances in the cooperative's replacement reserve and the general operating reserve, and any other reserves maintained by the cooperative;
(7) copies of the most current financial statements of the cooperative, including balance sheet and income and expense statements;
(8) a disclosure of any unsatisfied judgments against the cooperative;
(9) a statement that there are no pending lawsuits to which the cooperative is a party except as specifically disclosed;
(10) a radon disclosure pursuant to the requirements of section
Minn. Stat. § 315.12
315.12 SALE OR ENCUMBRANCE OF REAL ESTATE.
A religious corporation organized under this chapter, by and through its trustees, may sell and convey, encumber, or otherwise dispose of real estate. To do so, the trustees must first be authorized by resolution of the society adopted by a two-thirds vote of the members present and voting at a meeting called for that purpose. Notice of the time, place, and object of the meeting must be given for at least four successive Sabbaths immediately before it on which the society statedly meets for public worship. When a religious society ceases to have stated meetings for public worship, or is unable to give notice of the time and place of the meeting, the corporation may make the sale, conveyance, or encumbrance by its trustees, upon being authorized by resolution adopted at a meeting of which at least 20 days' posted notice has been given. If the society has, for any reason, ceased to exist, for a period of one year, the corporation may sell and convey its property by its trustees upon giving at least 20 days' posted notice upon the premises of its intention to do so. Proof of nonexistence, notice, meeting, and the adoption of resolution may be made by the affidavit of a trustee or member of the society cognizant of them. The affidavit must be recorded with the county recorder where the certificate of incorporation was recorded, and the affidavit and record, or certified copies of it, are presumptive evidence of the facts they contain.
No person shall vote at a meeting called to authorize the trustees to sell, convey, encumber, or dispose of the corporation's real estate unless the person is a member of the religious body. No religious corporation shall sell, transfer, or otherwise dispose of its real estate except as provided by the denominational rules and certificates of association of the society as it appears of record in the office of the county recorder of the county. This section does not limit sections
Minn. Stat. § 315.121
315.121 RELIGIOUS CORPORATIONS, CERTAIN CONVEYANCES VALIDATED.
All conveyances executed by any religious corporation or society organized under this chapter, conveying real property within this state that have been of record for more than six years in the office of the county recorder or registrar of titles of the county in which the real estate conveyed is located, and the record of the conveyance, are legalized, validated, and confirmed, even though the corporate records do not disclose that the execution of the conveyance was authorized by the congregation of the religious corporation in the manner provided by law, or the record of the authorization has not been recorded in the office of the county recorder or registrar of titles of the county in which the real estate conveyed is located, or the certificate or any other document specified by section
Minn. Stat. § 316.07
316.07 DISSOLUTION ON PETITION OF CORPORATION.
A majority in number or interest of the members of a corporation, desiring to close their concerns and dissolve the corporation, may present a petition to the district court in the county of its principal place of business, setting forth the name of the corporation; when and by or under what law it was incorporated; the names and addresses of the bondholders, stockholders, or members; the amount of the authorized capital stock, and the amount of capital stock actually paid in; and if not then transacting business, when it ceased so to do; the amount of its indebtedness; the amount and character of its personal property; and the amount and description of its real estate. It shall also state the grounds upon which dissolution is sought and the interest of the petitioner, and pray for proper relief; provided, however, that when any corporation now or hereafter organized under any law of this state having capital stock actually paid in exceeding the sum of $40,000, and has heretofore or shall hereafter continue in the business for which it was incorporated for more than three years, and in the carrying out of such business has sustained losses whereby the capital stock so paid in has become impaired so as to be worth at least 25 percent less than its par value, then, and in any such case, the district court shall have power, and is hereby given power, to dissolve any such corporation upon petition of stockholders owning not less than 40 percent of such capital stock so paid in; provided, that such stockholders so petitioning shall have paid the full value of their stock.
History:
( 8015 ) RL s 3175 ; 1909 c 276 s 1
Minn. Stat. § 317A.022
317A.022 ELECTION BY CERTAIN CHAPTER 318 ASSOCIATIONS.
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Subdivision 1.
[Repealed, 2011 c 106 s 27 ]
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Subd. 2. Amended title and other conforming amendments.
The declaration of trust, as defined in section 318.02, subdivision 1 , of the association must be amended to identify it as the "articles of an association electing to be treated as a nonprofit corporation." All references in this chapter to "articles" or "articles of incorporation" include the declaration of trust of an electing association. If the declaration of trust includes a provision prohibited by this chapter for inclusion in articles of incorporation, omits a provision required by this chapter to be included in articles of incorporation, or is inconsistent with this chapter, the electing association shall amend its declaration of trust to conform to the requirements of this chapter. The appropriate provisions of the association's declaration of trust or bylaws or chapter 318 control the manner of adoption of the amendments required by this subdivision.
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Subd. 3. Method of election.
An election by an association under subdivision 2 must be made by resolution approved by the affirmative vote of the trustees of the association and by the affirmative vote of the members or other persons with voting rights in the association. The affirmative vote of both the trustees of the association and of the members or other persons with voting rights, if any, in the association must be of the same proportion that is required for an amendment of the declaration of trust of the association before the election, in each case upon proper notice that a purpose of the meeting is to consider an election by the association to cease to be an association subject to and governed by chapter 318 and to become and be a nonprofit corporation subject to and governed by this chapter. The resolution and the articles of the amendment of the declaration of trust must be filed with the secretary of state and are effective upon filing, or a later date as may be set forth in the filed resolution. Upon the effective date, without any other action or filing by or on behalf of the association, the association automatically is subject to this chapter in the same manner and to the same extent as though it had been formed as a nonprofit corporation pursuant to this chapter. Upon the effective date of the election, the association is not considered to be a new entity, but is considered to be a continuation of the same entity.
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Subd. 4. Effects of election.
Upon the effective date of an association's election under subdivision 3, and consistent with the continuation of the association under this chapter:
(1) the organization has the rights, privileges, immunities, powers, and is subject to the duties and liabilities, of a corporation formed under this chapter;
(2) all real or personal property, debts, including debts arising from a subscription for membership and interests belonging to the association, continue to be the real and personal property, and debts of the organization without further action;
(3) an interest in real estate possessed by the association does not revert to the grantor, or otherwise, nor is it in any way impaired by reason of the election, and the personal property of the association does not revert by reason of the election;
(4) except where the will or other instrument provides otherwise, a devise, bequest, gift, or grant contained in a will or other instrument, in a trust or otherwise, made before or after the election has become effective, to or for the association, inures to the organization;
(5) the debts, liabilities, and obligations of the association continue to be the debts, liabilities, and obligations of the organization, just as if the debts, liabilities, and obligations had been incurred or contracted by the organization after the election;
(6) existing claims or a pending action or proceeding by or against the association may be prosecuted to judgment as though the election had not been affected;
(7) the liabilities of the trustees, members, officers, directors, or similar groups or persons, however denominated, of the association, are not affected by the election;
(8) the rights of creditors or liens upon the property of the association are not impaired by the election;
(9) an electing association may merge with one or more nonprofit corporations in accordance with the applicable provisions of this chapter, and either the association or a nonprofit corporation may be the surviving entity in the merger; and
(10) the provisions of the bylaws of the association that are consistent with this chapter remain or become effective and provisions of the bylaws that are inconsistent with this chapter are not effective.
History:
1994 c 625 art 8 s 66
Minn. Stat. § 317A.161
317A.161 that are not otherwise limited by this section or in its articles, bylaws, or plan of operation;
(10) file such applications and take such other action as necessary to establish and maintain the association as tax exempt pursuant to the federal income tax code;
(11) recommend to the commissioner of commerce revisions to Minnesota law relating to the regulation of nonadmitted insurance in order to improve the efficiency and effectiveness of that regulation; and
(12) take other actions reasonably required to implement the provisions of this section.
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Subd. 2. Board of directors.
(a) The commissioner shall appoint an interim board of five directors within 30 days of May 30, 2008. The interim board must:
(1) establish a plan of operation within 60 days after the appointment of the interim board;
(2) create a stamping office that is operational no later than December 31, 2008; and
(3) conduct an election for a board of directors by the membership after December 31, 2008, and no later than one year after the appointment of the interim board.
(b) Once the responsibilities of the interim board in paragraph (a) are fulfilled, the association shall function through a board of directors composed of the following:
(1) one director appointed by the commissioner of revenue;
(2) one director appointed by the commissioner of commerce; and
(3) at least five but no more than seven directors elected by the members. The elected directors must be members of the association.
Directors may serve until their successors are appointed or elected and their terms are completed as outlined in the plan of operation.
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Subd. 3. Plan of operation.
(a) The plan of operation shall provide for the formation, operation, and governance of the association as a nonprofit corporation under chapter 317A. The plan of operation must provide for the election of a board of directors by the members of the association. The board of directors shall elect officers as provided for in the plan of operation. The plan of operation shall establish the manner of voting and may weigh each member's vote to reflect the annual nonadmitted insurance premium written by the member. Members employed by the same or affiliated employers may consolidate their premiums written and delegate an individual officer or partner to represent the member in the exercise of association affairs, including service on the board of directors.
(b) The plan of operation shall provide for an independent audit once each year of all the books and records of the association and a report of such independent audit shall be made to the board of directors, the commissioner of revenue, and the commissioner of commerce, with a copy made available to each member to review at the association office.
(c) The plan of operation and any amendments to the plan of operation shall be submitted to the commissioner and shall be effective upon approval in writing by the commissioner. The association and all members shall comply with the plan of operation or any amendments to it. Failure to comply with the plan of operation or any amendments shall constitute a violation for which the commissioner may issue an order requiring discontinuance of the violation.
(d) If the interim board of directors fails to submit a suitable plan of operation within 60 days following the creation of the interim board, or if at any time thereafter the association fails to submit required amendments to the plan, the commissioner may submit to the association a plan of operation or amendments to the plan, which the association must follow. The plan of operation or amendments submitted by the commissioner shall continue in force until amended by the commissioner or superseded by a plan of operation or amendment submitted by the association and approved by the commissioner. A plan of operation or an amendment submitted by the commissioner constitutes an order of the commissioner.
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Subd. 4. Reporting requirement.
The association shall file with the commissioner:
(1) a copy of its plan of operation and any amendments to it;
(2) a current list of its members revised at least annually; and
(3) the name and address of a member of the board residing in this state upon whom notices or orders of the commissioner or processes issued at the direction of the commissioner may be served.
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Subd. 5. Examination.
The commissioner shall, at such times as deemed necessary, make or cause to be made an examination of the association. The officers, managers, agents, and employees of the association may be examined at any time, under oath, and shall exhibit all books, records, accounts, documents, or agreements governing its method of operation. The commissioner shall furnish a copy of the examination report to the association. If the commissioner finds the association to be in violation of this section, the commissioner may issue an order requiring the discontinuance of the violation.
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Subd. 6. Immunity.
There shall be no liability on the part of and no causes of action of any nature shall arise against the association, its directors, officers, agents, or employees for any action taken or omitted by them in the performance of their powers and duties under this section, absent gross negligence or willful misconduct.
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Subd. 7. Stamping fee.
The services performed by the association shall be funded by a stamping fee assessed for each premium-bearing document submitted to the association. The stamping fee shall be established by the board of directors of the association from time to time. The stamping fee shall be paid by the insured to the surplus lines broker and remitted to the association by the surplus lines broker in the manner established by the association.
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Subd. 8. Data classification.
Unless otherwise classified by statute, a temporary classification under section
Minn. Stat. § 317A.251
317A.251 , as applicable. The officers and directors appointed by the declarant shall have a duty to fulfill, and to cause the association to fulfill, their respective obligations under the declaration, bylaws, articles of incorporation, and this chapter and to enforce the provisions of the declaration, bylaws, articles of incorporation, and this chapter against all unit owners, including the declarant and its affiliates, in a uniform and fair manner. The standards of conduct for officers and directors set forth in this subsection shall also apply to the officers and directors of master associations in the exercise of their duties on behalf of the master association.
(b) The board may not act unilaterally to amend the declaration, to terminate the common interest community, to elect directors to the board, or to determine the qualifications, powers and duties, or terms of office of directors, but the board may fill vacancies in its membership created other than by removal by the vote of the association members for the unexpired portion of any term.
(c) The declaration may provide for a period of declarant control of the association, during which a declarant, or persons designated by the declarant, may appoint and remove the officers and directors of the association. The period of declarant control begins on the date of creation of the common interest community and terminates upon the earliest of the following events: (i) five years after the date of the first conveyance of a unit to a unit owner other than a declarant in the case of a flexible common interest community or three years in the case of any other common interest community, (ii) the declarant's voluntary surrender of control by giving written notice to the unit owners pursuant to section 515B.1-115 , or (iii) the conveyance of 75 percent of the units to unit owners other than a declarant.
(d) The board shall cause a meeting of the unit owners to be called, as follows:
(1) If the period of declarant control has terminated pursuant to subsection (c), a meeting of the unit owners shall be called and held within 60 days after said termination, at which the board shall be appointed or elected by all unit owners, including declarant, subject to the requirements of subsection (e).
(2) If 50 percent of the units that a declarant is authorized by the declaration to create have been conveyed prior to the termination of the declarant control period, a meeting of the unit owners shall be called and held within 60 days thereafter, at which not less than 33-1/3 percent of the members of the board shall be elected by unit owners other than a declarant or an affiliate of a declarant.
(3) If the board fails or refuses to cause a meeting of the unit owners required to be called pursuant to subsection (d), then the unit owners other than a declarant and its affiliates may cause the meeting to be called pursuant to the applicable provisions of the law under which the association was created. The declarant and its affiliates shall be deemed to be present at the meeting for purposes of establishing a quorum regardless of their failure to attend the meeting.
(e) Following the termination of any period of declarant control, the unit owners shall appoint or elect the board. All unit owners, including the declarant and its affiliates, may cast the votes allocated to any units owned by them. The board shall thereafter be subject to the following:
(1) Unless otherwise approved by a vote of unit owners other than the declarant or an affiliate of the declarant, a majority of the directors shall be unit owners or a natural person designated by a unit owner that is not a natural person, other than a declarant or an affiliate of a declarant. The remaining directors need not be unit owners unless required by the articles of incorporation or bylaws.
(2) Subject to the requirements of subsection (e)(1), the articles of incorporation or bylaws may authorize the declarant or a person designated by the declarant to appoint one director, who need not be a member. The articles of incorporation or bylaws shall not be amended to change or terminate the authorization to appoint one director without the written consent of the declarant or other person possessing the power to appoint.
(3) Subject to the requirements of subsection (e)(1), the articles of incorporation or bylaws may authorize special classes of directors and director voting rights, as follows: (i) classes of directors, (ii) the appointment or election of directors in certain classes by certain classes of members, or (iii) class voting by classes of directors on issues affecting only a certain class or classes of members, units, or other parcels of real estate, or to otherwise protect the legitimate interest of such class or classes. No person may utilize such special classes or class voting for the purpose of evading any limitation imposed on declarants by this chapter.
(4) The board shall elect the officers. The directors and officers shall take office upon election.
(f) In determining whether the period of declarant control has terminated under subsection (c), or whether unit owners other than a declarant are entitled to elect members of the board of directors under subsection (d), the percentage of the units conveyed shall be calculated using as a numerator the number of units conveyed and as a denominator the number of units subject to the declaration plus the number of units which the declarant is authorized by the declaration to create on any additional real estate. The percentages referred to in subsections (c) and (d) shall be calculated without reference to units that are auxiliary to other units, such as garage units or storage units. A person shall not use a master association or other device to evade the requirements of this section.
(g) Except as otherwise provided in this subsection, meetings of the board of directors must be open to the unit owners. To the extent practicable, the board shall give reasonable notice to the unit owners of the date, time, and place of a board meeting. If the date, time, and place of meetings are provided for in the declaration, articles, or bylaws, announced at a previous meeting of the board, posted in a location accessible to the unit owners and designated by the board from time to time, or if an emergency requires immediate consideration of a matter by the board, notice is not required. "Notice" has the meaning given in section 317A.011, subdivision 14 . Meetings may be closed to discuss the following:
(1) personnel matters;
(2) pending or potential litigation, arbitration or other potentially adversarial proceedings, between unit owners, between the board or association and unit owners, or other matters in which any unit owner may have an adversarial interest, if the board determines that closing the meeting is necessary to discuss strategy or to otherwise protect the position of the board or association or the privacy of a unit owner or occupant of a unit; or
(3) criminal activity arising within the common interest community if the board determines that closing the meeting is necessary to protect the privacy of the victim or that opening the meeting would jeopardize investigation of the activity.
Nothing in this subsection imposes a duty on the board to provide special facilities for meetings. The failure to give notice as required by this subsection shall not invalidate the board meeting or any action taken at the meeting. The minutes of any part of a meeting that is closed under this subsection may be kept confidential at the discretion of the board.
History:
1993 c 222 art 3 s 3 ; 1999 c 11 art 2 s 17 ; 2005 c 121 s 23 ; 2010 c 267 art 3 s 3 ; 2024 c 96 art 2 s 12
NOTE: The amendment to this section by Laws 2024, chapter 96, article 2, section 12, is effective August 1, 2026. Laws 2024, chapter 96, article 2, section 13, as amended by Laws 2025, chapter 32, article 4, section 13.
515B.3-104 TRANSFER OF SPECIAL DECLARANT RIGHTS; SPECIAL DECLARANT RIGHTS TRANSFERRED BEFORE AUGUST 1, 2010.
(a) A special declarant right created or reserved under this chapter may be voluntarily transferred only by a separate instrument evidencing the transfer recorded in every county in which any part of the common interest community is located. The separate instrument shall be recorded against all units in the common interest community, or in the case of a cooperative, against the real estate owned by the cooperative, or in the case of a condominium on registered land, the instrument must be filed pursuant to section 508.351, subdivision 3 , or 508A.351, subdivision 3 . The instrument may provide for the conveyance of less than all of the special declarant rights, and is not effective unless executed by the transferor and transferee. A deed in lieu of foreclosure, or other conveyance arising out of a foreclosure or cancellation, shall not be deemed a voluntary transfer within the meaning of this section.
(b) Upon the voluntary transfer of any special declarant right, the liability of a transferor declarant is as follows:
(1) A transferor is not relieved of any obligation or liability arising before the transfer and remains liable for warranty obligations imposed on the transferor by this chapter. Lack of privity does not deprive any unit owner of standing to maintain an action to enforce any obligation of the transferor.
(2) If a successor to any special declarant right is an affiliate of a declarant, the transferor is jointly and severally liable with the successor for any obligations or liabilities of the successor relating to the common interest community.
(3) If a transferor retains any special declarant rights, but transfers other special declarant rights to a successor who is not an affiliate of the declarant, the transferor is liable for any obligations or liabilities imposed on a declarant by this chapter or by the declaration relating to the retained special declarant rights and arising before or after the transfer.
(4) A transferor has no liability for any act or omission or any breach of a contractual or warranty obligation arising from the exercise of a special declarant right by a successor declarant who is not an affiliate of the transferor.
(c) Upon the voluntary transfer of any special declarant right, the liability of a successor declarant is as follows:
(1) A successor to any special declarant right who is an affiliate of a declarant is subject to all obligations and liabilities imposed on the transferor by this chapter or the declaration.
(2) A successor to any special declarant right who is not an affiliate of a declarant is subject to all obligations and liabilities imposed by this chapter or by the declaration, except:
(i) misrepresentations by any previous declarant;
(ii) warranty obligations on improvements made by any previous declarant, or made before the common interest community was created;
(iii) breach of any fiduciary obligation by any previous declarant or the declarant's appointees to the board;
(iv) any liability or obligation imposed on the transferor as a result of the transferor's acts or omissions after the transfer; and
(v) any liability arising out of a special declarant right which was not transferred as provided in subsection (a).
(d) In case of foreclosure of a mortgage or cancellation of a contract for deed or other security interest (or conveyance in lieu thereof), sale by a trustee under an agreement creating a security interest, tax sale, judicial sale, or sale under bankruptcy code or receivership proceedings, of any units or additional real estate, or interest therein, owned by a declarant, a person acquiring title to the property or interests succeeds to all special declarant rights related to the property or interests held by that declarant and acquired by it unless (i) the mortgage instrument or other instrument creating the security interest, (ii) the instrument conveying title, or (iii) a separate instrument signed by the person and recorded within 60 days after the person acquires title to the property or interests, provides for transfer of less than all special declarant rights. The separate instrument need be recorded only against the title to the units or interests other than those being acquired under this subsection, or in the case of a cooperative, against the real estate owned by the cooperative. The declarant shall cease to have or exercise any special declarant rights which are transferred. If the person has limited the transfer of certain special declarant rights as provided in this subsection, then it and its successor's liability shall be limited, as follows:
(1) If the person or its successor limits its rights and liabilities only to maintain models, sales office and signs, and if that party is not an affiliate of a declarant, it is not subject to any liability or obligations as a declarant, except the obligation to provide a disclosure statement and any liability arising from that obligation, and it may not exercise any other special declarant rights.
(2) If the person or its successor is not an affiliate of a declarant, it may declare its intention in a recorded instrument as provided in subsection (a) to acquire all special declarant rights and hold those rights solely for transfer to another person. Thereafter, until the special declarant rights are transferred to a person acquiring title to any unit owned by the successor, or until a separate instrument is recorded permitting exercise of all of those rights, that successor may not exercise any of those rights other than the right to control the board of directors in accordance with the provisions of section 515B.3-103 for the duration of any period of declarant control. So long as any successor may not exercise its special declarant rights under this subsection, it is not subject to any liability or obligation as a declarant other than liability for its acts and omissions under section 515B.3-103 .
(e) Any attempted exercise by a purported successor to a special declarant right which is not transferred as provided in this section is void, and any purported successor attempting to exercise that right shall be liable for any damages arising out of its actions.
(f) Nothing in this section shall subject any successor to a special declarant right to any claims against or other obligations of a transferor declarant, other than claims and obligations arising under this chapter, or the declaration or bylaws.
(g) This section applies only to transfers of special declarant rights that are effective before August 1, 2010.
History:
1993 c 222 art 3 s 4 ; 2001 c 50 s 29 ; 2010 c 267 art 3 s 4 ; 2011 c 116 art 2 s 10
515B.3-1041 SPECIAL DECLARANT RIGHTS; TRANSFER, LIABILITY OF TRANSFEROR AND TRANSFEREE, AND TERMINATION; SPECIAL DECLARANT RIGHTS TRANSFERRED ON OR AFTER AUGUST 1, 2010.
(a) Except as set forth in subsection (b) or (c), a special declarant right, as defined in section 515B.1-103 (33b), does not run with title and may only be transferred pursuant to a separate transfer instrument, titled a "Transfer of Special Declarant Rights," that both the transferor and the transferee execute.
(1) A transfer shall be recorded in compliance with applicable law, and is not effective unless the transferee is the owner of record of a unit or additional real estate at the time the transfer is recorded. Transfers recorded on or after June 1, 2011, shall be recorded against title to all units in the common interest community.
(2) A transferor may transfer fewer than all of the special declarant rights the transferor holds provided that any special declarant rights not transferred are subject to item (i).
(3) If as a result of a transfer there will be multiple declarants holding special declarant rights, the transfer shall describe the allocation of each special declarant right between or among the transferor and each transferee, including, at a minimum, a description of the units or additional real estate to which the respective special declarant rights apply and the name and address of the owner or owners of record of the respective units or additional real estate at the time the transfer is recorded.
(b) If a declarant's ownership interest in a unit, or in additional real estate that may become subject to the declaration pursuant to the exercise of a special declarant right, is transferred to another person as a result of the foreclosure, termination, or cancellation of a security interest, foreclosure of a judgment lien, tax judgment sale, tax-forfeited land sale, sale or transfer under bankruptcy code or receivership proceedings, or other sale or transfer approved by a court, or is transferred by a deed in lieu of foreclosure, then all special declarant rights that are reserved to the declarant in the declaration and that relate to the units or additional real estate transferred are automatically transferred to the person acquiring title from the declarant, and the transfer is effective as to all special declarant rights, unless or until: (i) the security instrument in the case of the foreclosure, termination, or cancellation of a security interest, (ii) the instrument effecting the involuntary transfer, or (iii) a separate instrument executed by the transferee and recorded in compliance with applicable law within 60 days after the date the transferee acquires title to the declarant's ownership interest, provides for the transfer of fewer than all of the declarant's special declarant rights. From and after June 1, 2011, a separate instrument recorded pursuant to subsection (b), item (iii), shall be recorded against title to all units in the common interest community. For purposes of this subsection, the transferee shall be deemed to acquire title upon the expiration of the owner's period of redemption, or reinstatement in the case of contract for deed. The transferor shall cease to have and shall not exercise any special declarant right that relates to the transferor's ownership interest in the units or additional real estate transferred, whether or not the transferee subsequently disclaims the right, but the transferor retains all reserved special declarant rights that relate to its ownership interest that is not transferred to the transferee.
(c) If a declarant is an individual rather than a legal entity, and the individual dies, than all special declarant rights that are reserved to the declarant in the declaration and that relate to the units or additional real estate owned by the declarant are automatically transferred with the title to said units or additional real estate.
(d) A transferor's liability for the performance of obligations that this chapter imposes upon a declarant is as follows:
(1) A transferor remains liable under this chapter for all obligations that this chapter imposes upon a declarant that arise on or before the effective date of the transfer, except that a transferor is not liable under section 515B.4-112 for any express warranties that a transferee makes to a purchaser. Except as set forth in subsection (d), clauses (2) and (3), a transferor is not liable under this chapter for the performance of any obligations that this chapter imposes upon a declarant and arising after the effective date of the transfer.
(2) If a transferor and a transferee are affiliates, the transferor and the transferee are jointly and severally liable under this chapter for the performance of all the obligations that this chapter imposes upon a declarant, whether such obligations arise before, on, or after the effective date of the transfer. Upon a subsequent transfer, a prior transferor remains liable to the extent its transferee remains liable under subsection (d) and is relieved of liability to the same extent that its transferee is relieved of liability under subsection (e).
(3) If, following a transfer of special declarant rights, the transferor retains special declarant rights, the transferor and transferee are jointly and severally liable for the performance of all the obligations that this chapter imposes upon a declarant and that arise after the effective date of the transfer, except that the transferor is not liable under section 515B.4-101 (b) or 515B.4-102 (b), and section 515B.4-109 , 515B.4-110 , 515B.4-111 , 515B.4-112 , 515B.4-113 , 515B.4-117 , or 515B.4-118 , to any purchaser from or through the transferee.
(e) Except as provided in subsections (g) and (h), a transferee's liability for the performance of obligations that this chapter imposes upon a declarant is as follows:
(1) Except as set forth in subsection (e), clause (3), a transferee is liable under this chapter for all obligations that this chapter imposes upon a declarant and that arise after the effective date of the transfer. A transferee is not liable under this chapter for the performance of any obligations that this chapter imposes upon a declarant and that arise before or on the effective date of the transfer, except that a transferee is liable under section 515B.4-112 for any express warranties the transferee makes to a purchaser before or on the effective date of the transfer.
(2) If a transferor and a transferee are affiliates, the transferor and the transferee are jointly and severally liable under this chapter for the performance of all the obligations that this chapter imposes upon a declarant, whether such obligations arise before, on, or after the effective date of the transfer. Upon a subsequent transfer, a prior transferor remains liable to the extent its transferee remains liable under subsection (d) and is relieved of liability to the same extent that its transferee is relieved of liability under this subsection.
(3) If, following a transfer of special declarant rights under subsection (a) or (b), the transferor retains special declarant rights, the transferor and transferee are jointly and severally liable for the performance of all the obligations that this chapter imposes upon a declarant and that arise after the effective date of the transfer, except that the transferee is not liable under section 515B.4-101 (b) or 515B.4-102 (b), and section 515B.4-109 , 515B.4-110 , 515B.4-111 , 515B.4-112 , 515B.4-113 , 515B.4-117 , or 515B.4-118 , to any purchaser from or through the transferor.
(f) For purposes of this section, a declarant's obligations under section 515B.3-111 (a) arise when the tort or contract violation occurs, a declarant's obligations to a purchaser under section 515B.4-112 arise when the declarant makes an express warranty to the purchaser and a declarant's obligations to a purchaser under sections 515B.4-113 and 515B.4-118 (a) arise when the declarant conveys a unit to the purchaser.
(g) A transferee who acquires special declarant rights pursuant to subsection (b) and who is not an affiliate of the transferor may record an instrument in compliance with subsection (b) stating that the transferee elects to acquire only the special declarant rights described in section 515B.1-103 (33b)(i), (ii), and (iv). In that case, the transferee is liable as a declarant only to purchasers from said transferee and only for the obligations of a declarant under sections 515B.4-101 (b) and 515B.4-102 (b), and sections 515B.4-109 , 515B.4-110 , 515B.4-111 , 515B.4-113 , 515B.4-117 , and 515B.4-118 , and for any express warranties under section 515B.4-112 that the transferee makes to purchasers.
(h) A transferee who acquires special declarant rights pursuant to subsection (b) and who is not an affiliate of the transferor may record an instrument in compliance with subsection (b) stating that the transferee elects to acquire the special declarant rights solely for subsequent retransfer to another person who acquires title to units or additional real estate from said transferee. In that case, (i) the transferee may not utilize special declarant rights in the sale of units or otherwise sell units, except to a person who also acquires one or more special declarant rights the transferee holds with respect to the units or additional real estate sold; (ii) the transferee may not exercise any special declarant rights other than the rights described in section 515B.1-103 (33b)(v); (iii) the transferee is not liable to make up any operating deficit under section 515B.3-115 (a)(2); and (iv) the transferee is liable as a declarant only for the obligations of a declarant under sections 515B.3-103 , 515B.3-111 , and 515B.3-120 , as applicable. A transferee who makes the election described in this subsection may subsequently rescind the election in whole or in part by recording an instrument in compliance with applicable law, and upon the recording of such an instrument the transferee's rights and obligations as a declarant shall be as otherwise set forth in this section.
(i) Nothing in this section shall subject any transferee of a special declarant right to any claims against or other obligations of a transferor, other than claims and obligations arising under this chapter, or the declaration or bylaws.
(j) A special declarant right held by a declarant terminates upon the earlier of: (i) that declarant's voluntary surrender of the special declarant right by giving written notice to the unit owners pursuant to section 515B.1-115 ; or (ii) the conveyance, whether voluntary or involuntary, by that declarant, of all of the units and additional real estate owned by that declarant, unless immediately after the conveyance the special declarant right is transferred to the grantee. All special declarant rights terminate ten years after the date of the first conveyance of a unit to a person other than a declarant unless extended by the vote or written agreement of unit owners entitled to cast at least 67 percent of the votes allocated to units not owned by a declarant.
(k) No person shall exercise special declarant rights unless, at the time of exercise, the person holds title of record to one or more units or additional real estate. Any exercise of a special declarant right in violation of this section shall be void, and the person attempting to exercise the right shall be liable for all damages and costs arising from its actions.
(l) Subsections (a) through (i) apply only to transfers of special declarant rights that are effective on or after August 1, 2010. Subsections (j) and (k) apply only to special declarant rights reserved in a declaration that is first recorded on or after August 1, 2010.
History:
2011 c 116 art 2 s 11
515B.3-105 TERMINATION OF CONTRACTS, LEASES; CIC CREATED BEFORE AUGUST 1, 2010.
(a) If entered into prior to termination of the period of declarant control, (i) any management contract, employment contract, or lease of recreational facilities, or garages or other parking facilities, (ii) any contract, lease, or license binding the association, and to which a declarant or an affiliate of a declarant is a party, or (iii) any contract, lease, or license binding the association or any unit owner other than the declarant or an affiliate of the declarant which is not bona fide or which was unconscionable to the unit owners at the time entered into under the circumstances then prevailing, may be terminated without penalty by the association under the procedures described in this section.
(b) If prior to expiration of the suspension period described in Minnesota Statutes 2008, section 515B.2-121 , subsection (c), paragraph (3), a contract, lease, or license of a type described in subsection (a) is entered into by a person having authority to appoint the directors of the master association and is binding upon the master association, then the master association, and not any association, may terminate the contract, lease, or license under the procedures described in this section.
(c) Termination shall be upon no less than 90 days' notice. Notice of termination shall be given by the association or master association, as applicable, in accordance with section 515B.1-115 ; provided, that notice shall be effective only if given within two years following the termination of the period of declarant control or the suspension period described in Minnesota Statutes 2008, section 515B.2-121 , subsection (c), paragraph (3), as applicable.
(d) This section does not apply to:
(1) any lease the termination of which would terminate the common interest community;
(2) in the case of a cooperative, a mortgage or contract for deed encumbering real estate owned by the association, except that if the mortgage or contract for deed contains a contractual obligation involving a type of contract, lease, or license which may be terminated pursuant to subsection (a) or (b), then that contractual obligation may be terminated pursuant to subsection (c); or
(3) an agreement between a declarant or an affiliate of a declarant, or a person having authority pursuant to Minnesota Statutes 2008, section 515B.2-121 , subsection (c), paragraph (3), to appoint the directors of the master association, and any governmental entity, if such agreement is necessary to obtain governmental approvals, provide financing under any type of government program, or provide for governmentally required access, conservation, drainage, or utilities.
(e) This section applies only to common interest communities created before August 1, 2010.
History:
1993 c 222 art 3 s 5 ; 1999 c 11 art 2 s 18 ; 2000 c 260 s 75 ; 2005 c 121 s 24 ; 2010 c 267 art 3 s 5 ; 2011 c 116 art 2 s 12 ; 2012 c 187 art 1 s 69
515B.3-1051 TERMINATION OF CONTRACTS, LEASES, LICENSES; CIC CREATED ON OR AFTER AUGUST 1, 2010.
(a) If entered into prior to termination of the period of declarant control, (i) any management, employment, maintenance, or operations contract or any lease or license of recreational, parking, or storage facilities, that is binding on the association; (ii) any other contract, lease, or license entered into by the association, a declarant or an affiliate of a declarant that is binding on the association; or (iii) any contract, lease, or license that is binding on the association or all unit owners other than a declarant or an affiliate of the declarant which is not bona fide or which was unconscionable to the association or the unit owners at the time entered into under the circumstances then prevailing, may be terminated without penalty by the association under the procedures described in this section.
(b) If entered into prior to the termination of the period of master developer control described in section 515B.2-121 , subsection (c), paragraph (1), a contract, lease, or license of a type described in subsection (a) is entered into by the master developer and is binding upon the master association, then the master association may terminate the contract, lease, or license under the procedures described in this section.
(c) Termination shall be upon no less than 90 days' notice. Notice of termination shall be given by the association or master association, as applicable, in accordance with section 515B.1-115 ; provided that notice shall be effective only if given within two years following the termination of the period of declarant control or the period of master developer control, as applicable.
(d) This section does not apply to the following, provided that the rights and obligations created by the referenced instruments are (i) bona fide and not unconscionable as contemplated by subsection (a), item (iii); and (ii) disclosed to the purchaser of the unit in the disclosure statement required by section 515B.4-102 :
(1) a lease the termination of which would terminate the common interest community;
(2) in the case of a cooperative, a mortgage or contract for deed encumbering real estate owned by the association, except that if the mortgage or contract for deed contains a contractual obligation involving a type of contract, lease, or license which may be terminated pursuant to subsection (a) or (b), then that contractual obligation may be terminated pursuant to subsection (c);
(3) an agreement between a declarant or an affiliate of a declarant, or a master developer, and any governmental entity, if such agreement is necessary to obtain governmental approvals, provide financing under any type of government program, or provide for governmentally required access, conservation, drainage, utilities, or other public purpose;
(4) subject to the requirements of section 515B.4-110 (a), a lease, easement, covenant, condition, or restriction that is recorded before the recording of the declaration, to the extent that it benefits a person other than a declarant or an affiliate of a declarant; or
(5) a license granted by a declarant pursuant to section 515B.2-109 (e).
(e) This section applies only to common interest communities created on or after August 1, 2010.
History:
2011 c 116 art 2 s 13
515B.3-106 BYLAWS; ANNUAL REPORT.
(a) A common interest community shall have bylaws which comply with this chapter and the statute under which the association is incorporated. The bylaws and any amendments may be recorded, but need not be recorded to be effective unless so provided in the bylaws.
(b) The bylaws shall provide that, in addition to any statutory requirements:
(1) A meeting of the members shall be held at least once each year, and a specified officer of the association shall give notice of the meeting as provided in section 515B.3-108 .
(2) An annual report shall be prepared by the association and a copy of the report shall be provided to each unit owner at or prior to the annual meeting.
(c) The annual report shall contain at a minimum:
(1) a statement of any capital expenditures in excess of two percent of the current budget or $5,000, whichever is greater, approved by the association for the current fiscal year or succeeding two fiscal years;
(2) a statement of the association's total replacement reserves, the components of the common interest community for which the reserves are set aside, and the amounts of the reserves, if any, that the board has allocated for the replacement of each of those components;
(3) a copy of the statement of revenues and expenses for the association's last fiscal year, and a balance sheet as of the end of said fiscal year;
(4) a statement of the status of any pending litigation or judgments to which the association is a party;
(5) a detailed description of the insurance coverage provided by the association including a statement as to which, if any, of the items referred to in section 515B.3-113, subsection (b) , are insured by the association; and
(6) a statement of the total past due assessments on all units, current as of not more than 60 days prior to the date of the meeting.
History:
1993 c 222 art 3 s 6 ; 1999 c 11 art 2 s 19 ; 2005 c 121 s 25 ; 2010 c 267 art 3 s 6
515B.3-107 UPKEEP OF COMMON INTEREST COMMUNITY.
(a) Except to the extent provided by the declaration, this subsection or section 515B.3-113 , the association is responsible for the maintenance, repair and replacement of the common elements, and each unit owner is responsible for the maintenance, repair and replacement of the unit owner's unit. Damage to the common elements or any unit as a result of the acts or omissions of a unit owner or the association, including damage resulting from the unit owner's or association's lack of maintenance or failure to perform necessary repairs or replacement, is the responsibility of the unit owner or association responsible for causing the damage, or whose agents or invitees caused the damage.
(b) The association's board of directors shall prepare and approve a written preventative maintenance plan, maintenance schedule, and maintenance budget for the common elements. The association shall follow the approved preventative maintenance plan. The association's board may amend, modify, or replace an approved preventative maintenance plan or an approved maintenance schedule from time to time. The association must provide all unit owners with a paper copy, electronic copy, or electronic access to the preventative maintenance plan, the maintenance schedule, and any amendments or modifications to or replacements of the preventative maintenance plan and the maintenance schedule. If a common interest community was created on or before August 1, 2017, the association's board of directors shall have until January 1, 2019, to comply with the requirements of this subsection.
(c) The association shall have access through and into each unit for purposes of performing maintenance, repair or replacement for which the association may be responsible. The association and any public safety personnel shall also have access for purposes of abating or correcting any condition in the unit which violates any governmental law, ordinance or regulation, which may cause material damage to or jeopardize the safety of the common interest community, or which may constitute a health or safety hazard for occupants of units.
(d) Neither the association, nor any unit owner other than the declarant or its affiliates, is subject to a claim for payment of expenses incurred in connection with any additional real estate.
History:
1993 c 222 art 3 s 7 ; 2017 c 87 s 3
515B.3-108 MEETINGS.
(a) A meeting of the association shall be held at least once each year. At each annual meeting, there shall be, at a minimum, (i) an election of successor directors for those directors whose terms have expired, (ii) a report on the activities and financial condition of the association, and (iii) consideration of and action on any other matters included in the notice of meeting. Unless the bylaws provide otherwise, special meetings of the association may be called by the president and shall be called by the president or secretary upon the written petition of a majority of the board or unit owners entitled to cast at least 20 percent of the votes in the association.
(b) Not less than 21 nor more than 30 days in advance of any annual meeting, and not less than seven nor more than 30 days in advance of any special meeting, the secretary or other officer specified in the bylaws shall cause notice to be hand delivered or sent postage prepaid by United States mail to the mailing address of each unit, or to any other address designated in writing by the unit owner to the association as provided in the bylaws or by statute.
(c) The notice of any meeting shall state the date, time and place of the meeting, the purposes of the meeting, and, if proxies are permitted, the procedures for appointing proxies.
(d) The board may provide for reasonable procedures governing the conduct of meetings and elections.
History:
1993 c 222 art 3 s 8
515B.3-109 QUORUMS.
(a) Unless the bylaws provide otherwise, a quorum is present throughout any meeting of the association if unit owners entitled to cast in excess of 20 percent of the votes in the association are present in person or by proxy at the beginning of the meeting. If a master developer or declarant or their affiliates are members of a master association or an association, as applicable, they shall be deemed to be present for purposes of establishing a quorum at a meeting called pursuant to section 515B.2-121 (c)(2) or 515B.3-103 (d), as applicable, regardless of their failure to attend the meeting.
(b) Unless the bylaws provide otherwise, a quorum is present throughout any meeting of the board if persons entitled to cast in excess of 50 percent of the votes on that board are present in person at the beginning of the meeting.
History:
1993 c 222 art 3 s 9 ; 2010 c 267 art 3 s 7
515B.3-110 VOTING; PROXIES.
(a) At any meeting of the association an owner or the holder of the owner's proxy shall be entitled to cast the vote which is allocated to the unit. If there is more than one owner of a unit, only one of the owners may cast the vote. If the owners of a unit fail to agree and notify the association as to who shall cast the vote, the vote shall not be cast. Any provision in the articles of incorporation, bylaws, declaration, or other document restricting a unit owner's right to vote, or affecting quorum requirements, by reason of nonpayment of assessments, or a purported violation of any provision of the documents governing the common interest community, shall be void.
(b) If permitted by the articles or bylaws, votes allocated to a unit may be cast pursuant to a proxy executed by the unit owner entitled to cast the vote for that unit. The board may specify the form of proxy and proxy rules, consistent with law.
(c) If authorized by the statute under which the association is created, and to the extent not limited or prohibited by the articles of incorporation, bylaws, or declaration, the vote on any issue or issues may be taken by electronic means or by mailed ballots, in compliance with the applicable statute, in lieu of holding a meeting of the unit owners. Such a vote shall have the force and effect of a vote taken at a meeting; provided, that the total votes cast are at least equal to the votes required for a quorum. The board shall set a voting period within which the ballots or other voting response must be received by the association, which period shall be not less than 15 nor more than 45 days after the date of delivery of the notice of the vote and voting procedures to the unit owners. The board of directors shall provide notice of the results of the vote to the unit owners within 30 days after the expiration of the voting period. All requirements in this chapter, the declaration or the bylaws for a meeting of the unit owners, or being present in person, shall be deemed satisfied by a vote taken in compliance with the requirements of this section. The voting procedures authorized by this section shall not be used in combination with a vote taken at a meeting of the unit owners. However, voting by electronic means and mailed ballot may be combined if each is done in compliance with the applicable statute.
(d) The articles of incorporation or bylaws may authorize class voting by unit owners for directors or on specified issues affecting the class. Class voting may only be used to address operational, physical, or administrative differences within the common interest community. A declarant shall not use class voting to evade any limit imposed on declarants by this chapter and units shall not constitute a class because they are owned by a declarant.
(e) The declaration or bylaws may provide that votes on specified matters affecting the common interest community be cast by lessees or secured parties rather than unit owners; provided that (i) the provisions of subsections (a), (b), and (c) apply to those persons as if they were unit owners; (ii) unit owners who have so delegated their votes to other persons may not cast votes on those specified matters; (iii) lessees or secured parties are entitled to notice of meetings, access to records, and other rights respecting those matters as if they were unit owners, and (iv) the lessee or secured party has filed satisfactory evidence of its interest with the secretary of the association prior to the meeting. Unit owners must also be given notice, in the manner provided in section 515B.3-108 (b), of meetings at which lessees or secured parties are entitled to vote.
(f) No votes allocated to a unit owned by the association may be cast nor counted toward a quorum.
History:
1993 c 222 art 3 s 10 ; 1999 c 11 art 2 s 20 ; 2005 c 121 s 26 ; 2010 c 267 art 3 s 8
515B.3-111 TORT AND CONTRACT LIABILITY.
(a) Neither the association nor any unit owner except the declarant is liable for that declarant's torts in connection with any part of the common interest community. An action alleging a tort or contract violation by the association shall not be brought against a unit owner solely by reason of ownership. If the tort or contract violation occurred during any period of declarant control and the association or a unit owner gives the declarant reasonable notice of and an opportunity to defend against the action, the declarant who then controlled the association is liable to the association or to any unit owner for (i) all losses not covered by insurance suffered by the association or that unit owner, and (ii) all costs that the association would not have incurred but for the tort or contract violation.
(b) Whenever the declarant is liable to the association or a unit owner under this section, the declarant is also liable for all expenses of litigation, including reasonable attorney's fees, incurred by the association or unit owner. Any statute of limitation affecting a right of action under this section is tolled until the period of declarant control terminates. A unit owner is not precluded from maintaining an action contemplated by this section because of being a unit owner or an officer or director of the association.
(c) Except as provided in subsections (a) and (b) with respect to a declarant, no unit owner shall have tort liability arising out of ownership of the common elements if the association has liability insurance coverage on the occurrence in an amount not less than $1,000,000.
History:
1993 c 222 art 3 s 11
515B.3-112 CONVEYANCE OF, OR CREATION OF SECURITY INTERESTS IN, COMMON ELEMENTS.
(a) In a condominium or planned community, unless the declaration provides otherwise, portions of the common elements may be conveyed or subjected to a security interest by the association if persons entitled to cast at least 67 percent of the votes in the association, including 67 percent of the votes allocated to units not owned by a declarant, or any larger percentage the declaration specifies, approve that action in writing or at a meeting; but all unit owners of units to which any limited common element is allocated must agree in order to convey that limited common element or subject it to a security interest. The declaration may specify a smaller percentage only if all of the units are restricted to nonresidential use.
(b) In a cooperative, unless the declaration provides otherwise, part of a cooperative may be conveyed, or all or a part subjected to a security interest, by the association if persons entitled to cast at least 67 percent of the votes in the association, including 67 percent of the votes allocated to units in which the declarant has no interest, or any larger percentage the declaration specifies, approves that action in writing or at a meeting. If fewer than all of the units or limited common elements are to be conveyed or subjected to a security interest, then all unit owners of those units, or the units to which those limited common elements are allocated, must agree in order to convey those units or limited common elements or subject them to a security interest. The declaration may specify a smaller percentage only if all of the units are restricted to nonresidential use. Any purported conveyance or other voluntary transfer of an entire cooperative is void, unless made pursuant to section 515B.2-119 .
(c) The association, on behalf of the unit owners, may contract to convey or encumber an interest in the common elements of a common interest community pursuant to this subsection, subject to the required approval. After the approval has been obtained, the association shall have a power of attorney coupled with an interest to effect the conveyance or encumbrance on behalf of all unit owners in the common interest community, including the power to execute deeds, mortgages, or other instruments of conveyance or security. The instrument conveying or creating the interest in the common interest community shall be recorded and shall include as exhibits (i) an affidavit of the president or secretary of the association certifying that the approval required by this section has been obtained and (ii) a schedule of the names of all unit owners and units in the common interest community as of the date of the approval.
(d) Unless made pursuant to this section, any purported conveyance, creation of a security interest
Minn. Stat. § 31A.02
31A.02 DEFINITIONS.
§
Subdivision 1. Scope.
The definitions in this section apply to this chapter.
§
Subd. 2. Commissioner.
"Commissioner" means the commissioner of agriculture or the commissioner's delegate.
§
Subd. 3.
[Repealed, 1996 c 310 s 1 ]
§
Subd. 4. Animals.
"Animals" means cattle, swine, sheep, goats, poultry, farmed Cervidae, as defined in section 35.153, subdivision 3 , llamas, as defined in section 17.455, subdivision 2 , Ratitae, as defined in section 17.453, subdivision 3 , horses, equines, and other domesticated animals.
§
Subd. 5. Custom processing.
"Custom processing" means slaughtering, eviscerating, dressing, or processing an animal or processing meat products or poultry products for the owner of the animal or of the meat products and poultry products, if all meat products or poultry products derived from the custom operation are returned to the owner of the animal or of the meat products or poultry products. No person may sell, offer for sale, or possess with intent to sell meat derived from custom processing.
§
Subd. 6. Meat broker.
"Meat broker" means a person in the business of buying or selling carcasses, parts of carcasses, meat, meat food products, poultry, or poultry products of animals on commission, or otherwise negotiating purchases or sales of those articles other than for the person's own account or as an employee of another person, firm, or corporation.
§
Subd. 7. Renderer.
"Renderer" means a person in the business of rendering carcasses, or parts or products of the carcasses of animals, except rendering conducted under inspection under sections
Minn. Stat. § 31A.18
31A.18 RECORDS.
§
Subdivision 1. Who must keep.
The following classes of persons shall keep records that fully and correctly disclose all transactions involved in their businesses:
(1) persons in the business, for intrastate commerce, of slaughtering animals or preparing, freezing, packaging, or labeling animal carcasses, parts, or products of carcasses for use as human or animal food;
(2) persons in the intrastate business of buying or selling (as meat brokers, wholesalers, or otherwise), transporting, or storing animal carcasses or parts or products of animal carcasses; and
(3) persons in the intrastate business of rendering, or in the intrastate business of buying, selling, or transporting dead, dying, disabled, or diseased animals or parts of the carcasses of animals that died other than by slaughter.
§
Subd. 1a. Examination of records, facilities.
Upon notice by an authorized representative of the commissioner, persons subject to this section shall, at all reasonable times, give the representative and an authorized representative of the Secretary of Agriculture of the United States accompanied by a representative of the commissioner access to their places of business and opportunity to examine the facilities, inventory, and records of the business, to copy business records, and to take reasonable samples of their inventory upon payment of the fair market value of the samples.
§
Subd. 2. Retention.
Records required by this section must be maintained for the period of time the commissioner prescribes by rule.
History:
1969 c 225 s 18 ; 1985 c 248 s 70 ; 1988 c 469 art 2 s 1
Minn. Stat. § 31A.19
31A.19 REGISTRATION OF BUSINESSES.
No person may engage in intrastate business as:
(1) a meat broker, renderer, or animal food manufacturer;
(2) a wholesaler of animal carcasses, carcass parts, or products of carcasses, intended for human food or other purposes;
(3) a public warehouse operator storing carcasses or parts of carcasses of animals in or for intrastate commerce; or
(4) a buyer, seller, or transporter of dead, dying, disabled, or diseased animals of the specified kinds, or parts of the carcasses of animals that died other than by slaughter unless, when required by rule of the commissioner, the person has provided the commissioner with the person's name and the address of each place of business at which, and all trade names under which, the person conducts business.
History:
1969 c 225 s 19 ; 1985 c 248 s 70 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1988 c 469 art 2 s 1
Minn. Stat. § 31B.02
31B.02 DEFINITIONS.
§
Subdivision 1. Scope.
The definitions in this section apply to this chapter.
§
Subd. 2. Commissioner.
"Commissioner" means the commissioner of agriculture.
§
Subd. 3. Dealer.
"Dealer" means a person, other than a market agency in the business of buying or selling livestock, either on the person's own account or as the employee or agent of the vendor or purchaser.
§
Subd. 4. Livestock.
"Livestock" means live or dead cattle, sheep, swine, horses, mules, farmed Cervidae, as defined in section 35.153, subdivision 3 , llamas, as defined in section 17.455, subdivision 2 , Ratitae, as defined in section 17.453, subdivision 3 , bison (buffalo), or goats.
§
Subd. 5. Livestock products.
"Livestock products" means products and by-products other than meats and meat food products of the slaughtering and meat-packing industry derived in whole or in part from livestock.
§
Subd. 6. Market agency.
"Market agency" means a person engaged in the business of (1) buying or selling livestock on a commission basis, or (2) furnishing stockyard services and includes a person who sells or offers for sale livestock located in this state by satellite video auction.
§
Subd. 7. Meat food products.
"Meat food products" means edible products and by-products of the slaughtering and meat-packing industry.
§
Subd. 8. Packer.
"Packer" means a person in the business of (1) buying livestock for purposes of slaughter, (2) manufacturing or preparing meats or meat food products for sale or shipment, or (3) marketing meats, meat food products, or livestock products in an unmanufactured form acting as a wholesale broker, dealer, or distributor.
§
Subd. 9. Stockyard.
"Stockyard" means a place, establishment, or facility commonly known as a stockyard conducted, operated, or managed for profit or nonprofit as a public market for livestock producers, feeders, market agencies, and buyers, consisting of pens, or other enclosures, and their appurtenances, in which live cattle, sheep, swine, horses, mules, or goats are received, held, or kept for sale or shipment.
§
Subd. 10. Stockyard owner.
"Stockyard owner" means a person in the business of conducting or operating a stockyard.
§
Subd. 11. Stockyard services.
"Stockyard services" means services or facilities furnished at a stockyard in connection with the receiving, buying, or selling on a commission basis or otherwise, marketing, feeding, watering, holding, delivery, shipment, weighing, or handling of livestock.
History:
1990 c 530 s 21 ; 1993 c 375 art 9 s 11 ; 2000 c 477 s 51 ; 2006 c 212 art 1 s 22
Minn. Stat. § 325D.12
325D.12 RETAILERS NOT TO MISREPRESENT NATURE OF BUSINESS.
(1) No person engaged in the sale of merchandise at retail shall, in connection with such business, misrepresent the true nature of such business, either by use of the words manufacturer, wholesaler, broker, or any derivative thereof or synonym therefor, or otherwise.
(2) No person shall, in connection with the sale of merchandise at retail misrepresent, directly or indirectly, that the price at which such merchandise is sold is an approximately wholesale price, or is less than the usual retail price, either by the use of any such expression, or of any expression having a similar meaning, or otherwise misrepresent the true nature of such sale.
(3) No person shall, in connection with the sale of merchandise at retail, or in, or in connection with the use of, samples, catalogs, or other forms of advertising listing merchandise for sale at retail, display price tags or price quotations in any form showing prices which are fictitiously in excess of the actual prices at which such merchandise is regularly and customarily sold at retail by such person or by the person issuing such samples, catalogs, or other forms of advertising.
History:
1943 c 144 s 4
Minn. Stat. § 325F.791
325F.791 SALES OF DOGS AND CATS.
§
Subdivision 1. Disclosure.
Every pet dealer shall deliver to each retail purchaser of an animal written disclosure as follows:
(a) The name, address, and USDA license number of the breeder and any broker who has had possession of the animal; the date of the animal's birth; the date the pet dealer received the animal; the breed, sex, color, and identifying marks of the animal; the individual identifying tag, tattoo, or collar number; the name and registration number of the sire and dam and the litter number; and a record of inoculations, worming treatments, and medication received by the animal while in the possession of the pet dealer.
(b) A statement signed by the pet dealer that the animal has no known health problem, or a statement signed by the pet dealer disclosing any known health problem and a statement signed by a veterinarian that recommends necessary treatment.
The disclosure shall be made part of the statement of consumer rights set forth in subdivision 10. The disclosure required in paragraph (a) need not be made for mixed breed animals if the information is not available and cannot be determined by the pet dealer.
§
Subd. 2. Records.
The pet dealer shall maintain, for one year, a copy of the statement of consumer rights delivered to the purchaser.
§
Subd. 3. Registration.
A pet dealer who represents an animal as eligible for registration with an animal pedigree organization shall provide the retail purchaser, within 90 days of final payment, the documents necessary for registration. If these documents are not received from the pet dealer, the purchaser may retain the animal and receive a refund of 50 percent of the purchase price, or return the animal, along with all documentation previously provided, and receive a full refund. The pet dealer shall not be responsible for delays in registration which are the result of persons other than the pet dealer.
§
Subd. 4. Health.
No animal may be offered for sale by a broker or pet dealer to a retail purchaser until the animal has been examined by a veterinarian. The veterinarian used by the broker shall not be the same veterinarian used by the pet dealer. If the pet dealer is not the breeder of the animal, each animal shall be examined within two days after receipt of the animal by a pet dealer and within four days of delivery of the animal to the purchaser by the pet dealer. The cost of the examination shall be paid by the pet dealer.
§
Subd. 5. Responsibilities of purchaser.
To obtain the remedies provided in subdivision 6, the purchaser shall with respect to an animal with a health problem:
(a) Notify the pet dealer, within two business days, of the diagnosis by a veterinarian of a health problem and provide the pet dealer with the name and telephone number of the veterinarian and a copy of the veterinarian's report on the animal.
(b) If the purchaser wishes to receive a full refund for the animal, return the animal no later than two business days after receipt of a written statement from a veterinarian indicating the animal is unfit due to a health problem.
With respect to a dead animal the purchaser must provide the pet dealer a written statement from a veterinarian, indicating the animal died from a health problem which existed on or before the receipt of the animal by the purchaser.
§
Subd. 6. Rights of purchaser.
If, within ten days after receipt of the animal by the purchaser, a veterinarian states, in writing, that the animal has a health problem which existed in the animal at the time of delivery, or if within one year after receipt of the animal by the purchaser, a veterinarian states, in writing, that the animal has died or is ill due to a hereditary or congenital defect, or is not of the breed type represented, the animal shall be considered to have been unfit for sale at the time of sale.
In the event an animal dies due to a health problem which existed in the animal at the time of delivery to the purchaser, the pet dealer shall provide the purchaser with one of the following remedies selected by the purchaser: receive an animal, of equal value, if available, and reimbursement for reasonable veterinary fees, such reimbursements not to exceed the original purchase price of the animal; or receive a refund of the full purchase price.
In the event of a health problem, which existed at the time of delivery to the purchaser, the pet dealer shall provide the purchaser with one of the following remedies selected by the purchaser: return the animal to the pet dealer for a refund of the full purchase price; exchange the animal for an animal of the purchaser's choice of equivalent value, providing a replacement is available; or retain the animal, and receive reimbursement for reasonable veterinary fees, such reimbursements not to exceed the original purchase price of the animal.
The price of veterinary service shall be deemed reasonable if the service is appropriate for the diagnosis and treatment of the health problem and the price of the service is comparable to that of similar service rendered by other veterinarians in proximity to the treating veterinarian.
§
Subd. 7. Rights of pet dealer.
No refund, replacement, or reimbursement of veterinary fees shall be required if any one or more of the following conditions exist:
(a) The health problem or death resulted from maltreatment, neglect, or a disease contracted while in the possession of the purchaser, or from an injury sustained subsequent to receipt of the animal by the purchaser.
(b) A veterinarian's statement was provided to the purchaser pursuant to subdivision 1, paragraph (b), which disclosed the health problem for which the purchaser seeks to return the animal.
(c) The purchaser fails to carry out recommended treatment prescribed by the examining veterinarian, pursuant to subdivision 1, paragraph (b).
§
Subd. 8. Contest.
(a) In the event that a pet dealer wishes to contest a demand for the relief specified in subdivision 3 or 6, the pet dealer may require the purchaser to produce the animal for examination or autopsy by a veterinarian designated by the pet dealer. The pet dealer shall pay the cost of this examination or autopsy. The pet dealer shall have a right of recovery against the purchaser if the pet dealer is not obligated to provide a remedy under subdivision 6.
(b) If the pet dealer does not provide the relief selected by the purchaser set forth in subdivision 3 or 6, the purchaser may initiate a court action.
(c) The prevailing party in the court action shall have the right to recover costs and reasonable attorney fees not to exceed $500.
§
Subd. 9. Posted notice.
Every pet dealer shall post in a prominent location of the facility, a notice, in 48-point boldface type, containing the following language:
"Information on all dogs and cats is available. You are entitled to a statement of consumer rights. Make sure you receive this statement at the time of purchase."
§
Subd. 10. Statement of consumer rights.
Every pet dealer shall provide the retail purchaser a written notice of rights, which shall be signed by the purchaser, acknowledging that the purchaser has reviewed the notice, and signed by the pet dealer certifying the accuracy of the information contained in it. A signed copy shall be retained by the pet dealer and one given to the purchaser. The notice shall be in 16-point boldface type and shall state as follows:
"A STATEMENT OF MINNESOTA LAW GOVERNING
THE SALE OF DOGS AND CATS
The sale of dogs and cats is subject to consumer protection regulations. Minnesota law also provides safeguards to protect pet dealers and animal purchasers. Attached is a copy of Minnesota Statutes, section
Minn. Stat. § 325J.01
325J.01 DEFINITIONS.
§
Subdivision 1. Scope.
As used in this chapter, the following terms have the meanings given them unless the context clearly indicates otherwise.
§
Subd. 2. Appropriate law enforcement agency.
"Appropriate law enforcement agency" means the attorney general of the state of Minnesota, the sheriff of each county in which a pawnbroker maintains an office, or the police chief of the municipality or law enforcement officers of the municipality in which a pawnbroker maintains an office.
§
Subd. 3. Municipality.
"Municipality" means any town, home rule charter or statutory city, or county that elects to regulate and license pawnbrokers within its jurisdiction pursuant to local ordinance.
§
Subd. 4. Pawnbroker.
(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b), "pawnbroker" means a person engaged in whole or in part in the business of lending money on the security of pledged goods left in pawn, or in the business of purchasing tangible personal property to be left in pawn on the condition that it may be redeemed or repurchased by the seller for a fixed price within a fixed period of time.
(b) The following are exempt from the definition of "pawnbroker": any bank regulated by the state of Minnesota, the comptroller of the currency of the United States, the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, the board of governors of the Federal Reserve System, or any other federal or state authority and their affiliates; any bank or savings association whose deposits or accounts are eligible for insurance by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation or any successor to it and all affiliates of those banks and savings associations; any state or federally chartered credit union; and any industrial loan and thrift company or regulated lender subject to licensing and regulation by the Department of Commerce.
§
Subd. 5. Pawnshop.
"Pawnshop" means the location at which or premises in which a pawnbroker regularly conducts business.
§
Subd. 6. Pawn transaction.
"Pawn transaction" means any loan on the security of pledged goods or any purchase of pledged goods on the condition that the pledged goods are left with the pawnbroker and may be redeemed or repurchased by the seller for a fixed price within a fixed period of time.
§
Subd. 7. Person.
"Person" means an individual, partnership, corporation, limited liability company, joint venture, trust, association, or any other legal entity, however organized.
§
Subd. 8. Pledged goods.
"Pledged goods" means tangible personal property other than choses in action, securities, bank drafts, or printed evidence of indebtedness, that are purchased by, deposited with, or otherwise actually delivered into the possession of a pawnbroker in connection with a pawn transaction.
History:
1996 c 404 s 1
Minn. Stat. § 325J.02
325J.02 MUNICIPAL LICENSING AND REGULATION.
(a) For the purpose of promoting the public health, safety, morals, and welfare, a municipality may adopt an ordinance, issue licenses to qualified applicants, and regulate pawn transactions. Ordinances must contain the minimum provisions of this chapter.
(b) A person may not engage in business as a pawnbroker or otherwise portray the person as a pawnbroker unless the person has a valid license authorizing engagement in the business. Any pawn transaction made without benefit of a license is void.
(c) A separate license is required for each place of business. A municipality may issue more than one license to a person if that person complies with this chapter for each license.
(d) Each license shall remain in full force and effect until surrendered, suspended, revoked, or expired. A license may be suspended or revoked for failure to comply with the municipality's ordinance.
(e) No expiration, revocation, suspension, or surrender of any license shall impair or affect the obligation of any preexisting lawful contract between the licensee and any pledgor.
(f) The appropriate local law enforcement agency shall be notified by the municipality of any licensee whose license has expired or been surrendered, suspended, or revoked as provided by this chapter.
History:
1996 c 404 s 2
Minn. Stat. § 325J.03
325J.03 LICENSEE ELIGIBILITY.
(a) To be eligible for or to maintain a pawnbroker license, a person must operate lawfully and fairly within the purposes of this chapter and the applicable local ordinance and:
(1) may not be a minor at the time that the application for a pawnbroker's license is filed;
(2) may not have been convicted of any crime directly related to the occupation licensed as prescribed by section 364.03, subdivision 2 , unless the person has shown competent evidence of sufficient rehabilitation and present fitness to perform the duties of a licensee under this chapter as prescribed by section 364.03, subdivision 3 ; and
(3) must be of good moral character or repute.
(b) Any change, directly or beneficially, in the ownership of any licensed pawnshop shall require the application for a new license and the new owner must satisfy all current eligibility requirements.
History:
1996 c 404 s 3
Minn. Stat. § 325J.04
325J.04 PAWN TICKETS.
§
Subdivision 1. Entries of pawn tickets.
At the time of making the pawn or purchase transaction, the pawnbroker shall immediately and legibly record in English the following information by using ink or other indelible medium on forms or in a computerized record approved by the municipality:
(1) a complete and accurate description of the property, including model and serial number if indicated on the property;
(2) the full name, residence address, residence telephone number, and date of birth of the pledgor or seller;
(3) date and time of pawn or purchase transaction;
(4) the identification number and state of issue from one of the following forms of identification of the seller or pledgor: current valid Minnesota driver's license; current valid Minnesota identification card; or current valid photo identification card issued by another state or a province of Canada;
(5) description of the pledgor including approximate height, sex, and race;
(6) amount advanced or paid;
(7) the maturity date of the pawn transaction and the amount due; and
(8) the monthly and annual interest rates, including all pawn fees and charges.
§
Subd. 2. Printed pawn ticket.
The following shall be printed on all pawn tickets:
(1) the statement that "Any personal property pledged to a pawnbroker within this state is subject to sale or disposal when there has been no payment made on the account for a period of not less than 60 days past the date of the pawn transaction, renewal, or extension; no further notice is necessary. There is no obligation for the pledgor to redeem pledged goods.";
(2) the statement that "The pledgor of this item attests that it is not stolen, it has no liens or encumbrances against it, and the pledgor has the right to sell or pawn the item.";
(3) the statement that "This item is redeemable only by the pledgor to whom the receipt was issued, or any person identified in a written and notarized authorization to redeem the property identified in the receipt, or a person identified in writing by the pledgor at the time of the initial transaction and signed by the pledgor. Written authorization for release of property to persons other than the original pledgor must be maintained along with the original transaction record."; and
(4) a blank line for the pledgor's signature.
History:
1996 c 404 s 4
Minn. Stat. § 325J.05
325J.05 RECORDS; RETENTION.
(a) The pledgor or seller shall sign a pawn ticket and receive an exact copy of the pawn ticket.
(b) The pawnbroker shall maintain on the premises a record of all transactions of pledged or purchased goods for a period of three years. These records shall be a correct copy of the entries made of the pawn transactions. A pawnbroker shall upon request provide to the appropriate law enforcement agency a complete and accurate record of pawn transactions. If the pawnbroker provides the records in a computerized format, they must be provided in the interchange file specification format.
(c) For purposes of paragraph (b), "interchange file specification format" means the most current version of the Minneapolis automated pawn system interchange file specification format.
History:
1996 c 404 s 5 ; 2000 c 274 s 1
Minn. Stat. § 325J.06
325J.06 , and (iii) a pawnbroker who purchases goods not involving a pawn transaction is permitted to sell or remove the purchased goods from the pawnshop premises or other storage 31 days or later from the purchase transaction date.
History:
1996 c 404 s 8 ; 2011 c 82 s 1
Minn. Stat. § 325J.08
325J.08 , clauses (7) and (10), nothing in this chapter preempts or supersedes any ordinance adopted by a municipality that provides for more restrictive regulation of pawnbrokers or pawn transactions.
History:
1996 c 404 s 14 ; 2011 c 82 s 2
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Minnesota Office of the Revisor of Statutes, Centennial Office Building,
3rd Floor, 658 Cedar Street, St. Paul, MN 55155
Minn. Stat. § 325J.09
325J.09 REDEMPTION; RISK OF LOSS.
Any person to whom the receipt for pledged goods was issued, or any person identified in a written and notarized authorization to redeem the pledged goods identified in the receipt, or any person identified in writing by the pledgor at the time of the initial transaction and signed by the pledgor shall be entitled to redeem or repurchase the pledged goods described on the ticket. In the event the goods are lost or damaged while in possession of the pawnbroker, the pawnbroker shall compensate the pledgor, in cash or replacement goods acceptable to the pledgor, for the fair market value of the lost or damaged goods. Proof of compensation shall be a defense to any prosecution or civil action.
History:
1996 c 404 s 9
Minn. Stat. § 325J.12
325J.12 TRANSITION.
(a) Pawnbrokers that are in business when a municipality adopts an ordinance under this chapter must apply for a license and pay the required fee within six months of adoption of the ordinance.
(b) A county that has adopted an ordinance under Minnesota Statutes 1994, sections
Minn. Stat. § 326.56
326.56 , subdivision 2.
§
Subd. 2. Rules.
(a) The commissioner may adopt rules to assure that persons renewing their licenses as licensed real estate appraisers have current knowledge of real property appraisal theories, practices, and techniques that will provide a high degree of service and protection to those members of the public with whom they deal in a professional relationship under authority of their license.
(b) To the extent the commissioner considers it appropriate, courses or parts of courses may be considered to satisfy both continuing education requirements under this section and continuing real estate education requirements.
(c) As a prerequisite for course approval, education providers must submit proposed monitoring methods, and systems for recording attendance sufficient to ensure that participants receive course credit only for portions actually attended.
§
Subd. 3. Reinstatements.
A license as a real estate appraiser that has been suspended for less than two years as a result of disciplinary action by the commissioner may not be reinstated unless the applicant presents evidence of completion of the continuing education required by this chapter. This requirement may not be imposed upon an applicant for reinstatement who has been required to successfully complete the current experience, education, and examination requirements for real estate appraiser licensure as a condition to reinstatement of a license.
§
Subd. 4. Renewal of accreditation.
The commissioner is authorized to establish a procedure for renewal of course accreditation.
§
Subd. 5. Out-of-state continuing education credit.
(a) For purposes of this subdivision, the following terms have the meanings given:
(1) "asynchronous educational offering" has the meaning given in the most recent version of the Real Property Appraiser Qualification Criteria, as established by the Appraiser Qualifications Board; and
(2) "synchronous educational offering" has the meaning given in the most recent version of the Real Property Appraiser Qualification Criteria, as established by the Appraiser Qualifications Board, and includes an educational process based on live or real-time instruction where there is no geographic separation of instructor and student.
(b) Notwithstanding section 45.30, subdivisions 1 and 6, a real estate appraiser or course provider may submit, in a form prescribed by the commissioner, an application for continuing education credit for a synchronous educational offering that has not been submitted for prior approval in Minnesota. The commissioner must grant a real estate appraiser continuing education credit if:
(1) the application is submitted on or before August 1 of the year in which the real estate appraiser license is due for renewal;
(2) the synchronous educational offering has been approved for continuing education credit by the regulator of real estate appraisers in at least one other state or United States territory; and
(3) an application is submitted by the real estate appraiser or course provider to the commissioner within 60 days of successful completion of the synchronous educational offering.
(c) The application must include a certificate of successful completion from the synchronous educational offering provider. The commissioner must grant a real estate appraiser the same number of continuing education credits for the successful completion of the synchronous educational offering as was approved for the offering by the out-of-state real estate appraiser regulatory authority. The commissioner must grant a real estate appraiser continuing education credit within 60 days of the submission of the completed application for out-of-state continuing education credit.
(d) The commissioner may charge a fee to a real estate appraiser, in an amount to be determined by the commissioner, to submit an application under this subdivision.
(e) This subdivision does not apply to asynchronous educational offerings.
History:
1989 c 341 art 1 s 19 ; 1991 c 97 s 12 ; 1992 c 363 art 1 s 5 ; 1993 c 309 s 27 ; 1994 c 632 art 4 s 42 ; 1996 c 439 art 3 s 11 ; 1997 c 222 s 41 ; 2002 c 387 s 10 ; 2005 c 100 s 17 ; 2009 c 63 s 73 ,74; 2014 c 198 art 1 s 7 -9; 2022 c 87 s 2 ; 2024 c 114 art 2 s 45 ; 1Sp2025 c 4 art 7 s 12
NOTE: The amendment to subdivision 1 by Laws 2024, chapter 114, article 2, section 45, is effective January 1, 2026. Laws 2024, chapter 114, article 2, section 45, the effective date.
Minn. Stat. § 326B.802
326B.802 , subdivision 14; a residential building contractor, as defined in section 326B.802, subdivision 11; or a residential remodeler, as defined in section 326B.802, subdivision 12 .
(c) "Residential real estate" means a new or existing building, including appurtenant structures, constructed for habitation by at least one family but no more than four families.
§
Subd. 2. Post-loss assignment.
A post-loss assignment of rights or benefits to a residential contractor under a property and casualty insurance policy insuring residential real estate must comply with the following:
(1) the assignment must only authorize a residential contractor to be named as a copayee for the payment of benefits under a property and casualty insurance policy covering residential real estate;
(2) the assignment must include all of the following:
(i) an itemized description of the work to be performed;
(ii) an itemized description of materials, labor, and fees for the work to be performed; and
(iii) a total itemized amount to be paid for the work to be performed;
(3) the assignment must include a statement that the residential contractor has made no assurances that the claimed loss is fully covered by an insurance contract and must include the following notice in capitalized 14-point type:
"YOU ARE AGREEING TO ASSIGN CERTAIN RIGHTS YOU HAVE UNDER YOUR INSURANCE POLICY. THE ITEMIZED DESCRIPTION OF THE WORK PERFORMED, AS SET FORTH IN THIS ASSIGNMENT FORM, HAS NOT BEEN AGREED TO BY THE INSURER. PLEASE READ AND UNDERSTAND THIS DOCUMENT BEFORE SIGNING. THE INSURER MAY ONLY PAY FOR THE REASONABLE COST TO REPAIR OR REPLACE DAMAGED PROPERTY CAUSED BY A COVERED PERIL, SUBJECT TO THE TERMS OF THE POLICY.";
(4) the named insured has the right to cancel the assignment within ten business days after receipt of the scope of work by the insurance company. The cancellation must be made in writing or a comparable digital format. Within ten business days of the date of the written cancellation, the residential contractor must tender to the named insured, the landowner, or the possessor of the real estate any payments, partial payments, or deposits that have been made by that person;
(5) the assignment must include the following notice in capitalized 14-point type, located in the immediate proximity of the space reserved in the assignment for the signature of the named insured:
"YOU MAY CANCEL THIS ASSIGNMENT WITHOUT PENALTY WITHIN TEN (10) BUSINESS DAYS FROM THE LATER OF THE DATE THE ASSIGNMENT IS EXECUTED OR THE DATE ON WHICH YOU RECEIVE A COPY OF THE EXECUTED ASSIGNMENT. YOU MUST CANCEL THE ASSIGNMENT IN WRITING AND THE CANCELLATION MUST BE DELIVERED TO [insert the name and address of residential contractor as provided by the residential contractor]. IF MAILED, THE CANCELLATION MUST BE POSTMARKED ON OR BEFORE THE TEN (10) BUSINESS DAY DEADLINE. IF YOU CANCEL THIS ASSIGNMENT, THE RESIDENTIAL CONTRACTOR HAS UP TO TEN (10) BUSINESS DAYS TO RETURN ANY PAYMENTS OR DEPOSITS YOU HAVE MADE.";
(6) the assignment must not impair the interests of a mortgagee or other parties with any legal interests listed on the declarations page of the property and casualty insurance policy that is the subject of the assignment; and
(7) the assignment must not prevent or inhibit an insurer from communicating with the named insured or mortgagee listed on the declarations page of the property and casualty insurance policy that is the subject of the assignment.
§
Subd. 3. Other requirements.
A residential contractor receiving the assignment described in subdivision 2 must:
(1) deliver a copy of the assignment to the insurer of the residential real estate within five business days of the date the assignment is executed;
(2) cooperate with the insurer of the residential real estate in an investigation into the claim by providing documents and records requested by the insurer and complying with the post-loss duties under the insurance policy; and
(3) comply with section
Minn. Stat. § 326B.83
326B.83 ;
(3) that the final judgment was obtained against the licensee on the grounds of fraudulent, deceptive, or dishonest practices, conversion of funds, or failure of performance that arose directly out of a contract directly between the licensee and the homeowner or lessee that was entered into prior to the cause of action and that occurred when the licensee was licensed and performing any of the special skills enumerated under section 326B.802, subdivision 15 ;
(4) the amount of the owner's or the lessee's actual and direct out-of-pocket loss on the owner's residential real estate, on residential real estate leased by the lessee, or on new residential real estate that has never been occupied or that was occupied by the licensee for less than one year prior to purchase by the owner;
(5) that the residential real estate is located in Minnesota;
(6) that the owner or the lessee is not the spouse of the licensee or the personal representative of the licensee;
(7) the amount of the final judgment, any amount paid in satisfaction of the final judgment, and the amount owing on the final judgment as of the date of the verified application;
(8) that the owner or lessee has diligently pursued remedies against all the judgment debtors and all other persons liable to the judgment debtor in the contract for which the owner or lessee seeks recovery from the fund; and
(9) that the verified application is being served within two years after the judgment became final.
The verified application must include documents evidencing the amount of the owner's or the lessee's actual and direct out-of-pocket loss. The owner's and the lessee's actual and direct out-of-pocket loss shall not include any attorney fees, litigation costs or fees, interest on the loss, and interest on the final judgment obtained as a result of the loss or any costs not directly related to the value difference between what was contracted for and what was provided. Any amount paid in satisfaction of the final judgment shall be applied to the owner's or lessee's actual and direct out-of-pocket loss. An owner or lessee may serve a verified application regardless of whether the final judgment has been discharged by a bankruptcy court. A judgment issued by a court is final if all proceedings on the judgment have either been pursued and concluded or been forgone, including all reviews and appeals. For purposes of this section, owners who are joint tenants or tenants in common are deemed to be a single owner. For purposes of this section, owners and lessees eligible for payment of compensation from the fund shall not include government agencies, political subdivisions, financial institutions, and any other entity that purchases, guarantees, or insures a loan secured by real estate.
§
Subd. 7. Commissioner review.
The commissioner shall within 120 days after receipt of the complete verified application:
(1) enter into an agreement with an owner or a lessee that resolves the verified application for compensation from the fund; or
(2) issue an order to the owner or the lessee accepting, modifying, or denying the verified application for compensation from the fund.
Upon receipt of an order issued under clause (2), the owner or the lessee shall have 30 days to serve upon the commissioner a written request for a hearing. If the owner or the lessee does not serve upon the commissioner a timely written request for hearing, the order issued under clause (2) shall become a final order of the commissioner that may not be reviewed by any court or agency. The commissioner shall order compensation from the fund only if the owner or the lessee has filed a verified application that complies with subdivision 6 and if the commissioner determines based on review of the application that compensation should be paid from the fund. The commissioner shall not be bound by any prior settlement, compromise, or stipulation between the owner or the lessee and the licensee.
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Subd. 8. Administrative hearing.
If an owner or a lessee timely serves a request for hearing under subdivision 7, the commissioner shall request that an administrative law judge be assigned and that a hearing be conducted under the contested case provisions of chapter 14 within 45 days after the commissioner received the request for hearing, unless the parties agree to a later date. The commissioner must notify the owner or lessee of the time and place of the hearing at least 15 days before the hearing. Upon petition of the commissioner, the administrative law judge shall continue the hearing up to 60 days and upon a showing of good cause may continue the hearing for such additional period as the administrative law judge deems appropriate.
At the hearing the owner or the lessee shall have the burden of proving by substantial evidence under subdivision 6, clauses (1) to (8). Whenever an applicant's judgment is by default, stipulation, or consent, or whenever the action against the licensee was defended by a trustee in bankruptcy, the applicant shall have the burden of proving the cause of action for fraudulent, deceptive, or dishonest practices, conversion of funds, or failure of performance. Otherwise, the judgment shall create a rebuttable presumption of the fraudulent, deceptive, or dishonest practices, conversion of funds, or failure of performance. This presumption affects the burden of producing evidence.
The administrative law judge shall issue findings of fact, conclusions of law, and order. If the administrative law judge finds that compensation should be paid to the owner or the lessee, the administrative law judge shall order the commissioner to make payment from the fund of the amount it finds to be payable pursuant to the provisions of and in accordance with the limitations contained in this section. The order of the administrative law judge shall constitute the final decision of the agency in the contested case. The commissioner or the owner or lessee may seek judicial review of the administrative law judge's findings of fact, conclusions of law, and order in accordance with sections
Minn. Stat. § 326B.885
326B.885 shall pay a fee to the fund. The person shall pay, in addition to the appropriate application or renewal fee, the following additional fee that shall be deposited in the fund. The amount of the fee shall be based on the person's gross annual receipts for the person's most recent fiscal year preceding the application or renewal, on the following scale:
Fee
Gross Annual Receipts
$320
under $1,000,000
$420
$1,000,000 to $5,000,000
$520
over $5,000,000
§
Subd. 4. Purpose of fund.
(a) The purpose of this fund is to:
(1) compensate owners or lessees of residential real estate who meet the requirements of this section;
(2) reimburse the department for all legal and administrative expenses, disbursements, and costs, including staffing costs, incurred in administering and defending the fund;
(3) pay for educational or research projects in the field of residential contracting to further the purposes of sections
Minn. Stat. § 326B.89
326B.89 CONTRACTOR RECOVERY FUND.
§
Subdivision 1. Definitions.
(a) For the purposes of this section, the following terms have the meanings given them.
(b) "Gross annual receipts" means the total amount derived from residential contracting or residential remodeling activities, regardless of where the activities are performed, and must not be reduced by costs of goods sold, expenses, losses, or any other amount.
(c) "Licensee" means a person licensed as a residential contractor or residential remodeler.
(d) "Residential real estate" means a new or existing building constructed for habitation by one to four families, and includes detached garages intended for storage of vehicles associated with the residential real estate.
(e) "Fund" means the contractor recovery fund.
(f) "Owner" when used in connection with real property, means a person who has any legal or equitable interest in real property and includes a condominium or townhome association that owns common property located in a condominium building or townhome building or an associated detached garage. Owner does not include any real estate developer or any owner using, or intending to use, the property for a business purpose and not as owner-occupied residential real estate.
(g) "Cycle One" means the time period between July 1 and December 31.
(h) "Cycle Two" means the time period between January 1 and June 30.
§
Subd. 2. Generally.
The contractor recovery fund is created in the state treasury and shall be administered by the commissioner for the purposes described in this section. Any interest or profit accruing from investment of money in the fund shall be credited to the contractor recovery fund.
§
Subd. 3. Fund fees.
In addition to any other fees, a person who applies for or renews a license under sections
Minn. Stat. § 327.31
327.31 DEFINITIONS.
§
Subdivision 1. Terms.
Unless clearly indicated otherwise by the context, the terms defined by this section have the meanings given them.
§
Subd. 2. Authorized representative.
"Authorized representative" means any person, firm or corporation, or employee thereof, approved or hired by the commissioner of labor and industry to perform inspection services.
§
Subd. 3. Manufactured Home Building Code.
"Manufactured Home Building Code" means, for manufactured homes manufactured after July 1, 1972, and prior to June 15, 1976, the standards code promulgated by the American National Standards Institute and identified as ANSI A119.1, including all revisions thereof in effect on May 21, 1971, or the provisions of the National Fire Protection Association and identified as NFPA 501B, and further revisions adopted by the commissioner of labor and industry.
"Manufactured Home Building Code" means, for manufactured homes constructed after June 14, 1976, the manufactured home construction and safety standards promulgated by the United States Department of Housing and Urban Development which are in effect at the time of the manufactured home's manufacture.
§
Subd. 4. Commissioner.
"Commissioner" means the commissioner of labor and industry.
§
Subd. 5. Dealer.
"Dealer" means any person engaged in the sale, leasing, or distribution of a manufactured home primarily to persons who purchase or lease for other than resale.
§
Subd. 6. Manufactured home.
"Manufactured home" has the meaning provided in Code of Federal Regulations, title 24, section 3280.2.
§
Subd. 6a. Individual.
"Individual" means a human being.
§
Subd. 7. Person.
"Person" means any individual, limited liability company, corporation, partnership, incorporated or unincorporated association, sole proprietorship, joint stock company, or any other legal or commercial entity.
§
Subd. 8. Seal.
"Seal" means a device or insignia issued by the commissioner to be displayed on the manufactured home to evidence compliance with the Manufactured Home Building Code.
§
Subd. 9. Support system.
"Support system" means any foundation system or other structural method used for the purpose of supporting a manufactured home at the site of occupancy.
§
Subd. 10. Anchoring system.
"Anchoring system" means any method used for the purpose of securing the manufactured home to a foundation system or the ground.
§
Subd. 11. Manufactured home installer.
"Manufactured home installer" means any person, firm, or corporation that installs or repairs a manufactured home for others at the site of occupancy.
§
Subd. 12. Installation seal.
"Installation seal" means a device or insignia issued by the commissioner to a manufactured home installer to be displayed on the manufactured home to evidence compliance with the commissioner's rules pertaining to manufactured home installations.
§
Subd. 13. Label.
"Label" means the approved form of certification required by the secretary or its agents to be affixed to each transportable section of each manufactured home manufactured for sale, after June 14, 1976, to a purchaser in the United States.
§
Subd. 14. Manufacturer.
"Manufacturer" means any person engaged in manufacturing or assembling manufactured homes, including any person engaged in importing manufactured homes for sale.
§
Subd. 15. Purchaser.
"Purchaser" means the first individual purchasing a manufactured home in good faith for purposes other than resale.
§
Subd. 16. Distributor.
"Distributor" means any person engaged in the sale and distribution of manufactured homes for resale.
§
Subd. 17. Installation.
"Installation" of a manufactured home means installation or reinstallation, at the site of occupancy, of all portions of a manufactured home, connection of the manufactured home to existing utility connections and installation of support and/or anchoring systems.
§
Subd. 18. Secretary.
"Secretary" means the secretary of the United States Department of Housing and Urban Development or the head of any successor agency with responsibility for enforcement of federal laws relating to manufactured homes.
§
Subd. 19. Manufactured home accessory structure.
"Manufactured home accessory structure" means a factory built building or structure which is an addition or supplement to a manufactured home and, when installed, becomes a part of the manufactured home.
§
Subd. 20. Foundation system.
"Foundation system" means a permanent foundation constructed in conformance with the State Building Code.
§
Subd. 21. Used manufactured home.
"Used manufactured home" means a home being offered for sale not less than 24 months after the first purchaser took legal ownership or possession of the home.
§
Subd. 22. Seller.
"Seller" means either the homeowner, manufactured home retailer or dealer, broker, or limited dealer or retailer.
§
Subd. 23. Modular home.
For the purposes of this section, "modular home" means a one- or two-family dwelling constructed in accordance with applicable standards adopted in Minnesota Rules, chapter 1360 or 1361, and attached to a foundation designed to the State Building Code.
History:
1971 c 409 s 1 ; 1973 c 370 s 1 ; 1974 c 273 s 1 ,2; 1981 c 365 s 1 ; 1993 c 9 s 5 ; 2007 c 140 art 4 s 29 -34; 2010 c 347 art 3 s 57 -59; 1Sp2019 c 1 art 6 s 3 ; 2020 c 99 s 1 ; 1Sp2025 c 6 art 5 s 36
Minn. Stat. § 327.67
327.67 .
(c) Other applicable law controls. In case of conflict between this article and a rule of law, statute, or regulation described in subsection (b), the rule of law, statute, or regulation controls. Failure to comply with a statute or regulation described in subsection (b) has only the effect the statute or regulation specifies.
(d) Further deference to other applicable law. This article does not:
(1) validate any rate, charge, agreement, or practice that violates a rule of law, statute, or regulation described in subsection (b); or
(2) extend the application of the rule of law, statute, or regulation to a transaction not otherwise subject to it.
History:
2000 c 399 art 1 s 11 ; 2001 c 195 art 1 s 6 ; 2005 c 19 s 1 ; 2014 c 227 art 2 s 18
336.9-202 MS 1998 [Repealed, 2000 c 399 art 1 s 140 ]
336.9-202 TITLE TO COLLATERAL IMMATERIAL.
Except as otherwise provided with respect to consignments or sales of accounts, chattel paper, payment intangibles, or promissory notes, the provisions of this article with regard to rights and obligations apply whether title to collateral is in the secured party or the debtor.
History:
2000 c 399 art 1 s 12
336.9-203 MS 1998 [Repealed, 2000 c 399 art 1 s 140 ]
336.9-203 ATTACHMENT AND ENFORCEABILITY OF SECURITY INTEREST; PROCEEDS; SUPPORTING OBLIGATIONS; FORMAL REQUISITES.
(a) Attachment. A security interest attaches to collateral when it becomes enforceable against the debtor with respect to the collateral, unless an agreement expressly postpones the time of attachment.
(b) Enforceability. Except as otherwise provided in subsections (c) through (i), a security interest is enforceable against the debtor and third parties with respect to the collateral only if:
(1) value has been given;
(2) the debtor has rights in the collateral or the power to transfer rights in the collateral to a secured party; and
(3) one of the following conditions is met:
(A) the debtor has signed a security agreement that provides a description of the collateral and, if the security interest covers timber to be cut, a description of the land concerned;
(B) the collateral is not a certificated security and is in the possession of the secured party under section 336.9-313 pursuant to the debtor's security agreement;
(C) the collateral is a certificated security in registered form and the security certificate has been delivered to the secured party under section 336.8-301 pursuant to the debtor's security agreement;
(D) the collateral is controllable accounts, controllable electronic records, controllable payment intangibles, deposit accounts, electronic documents, electronic money, investment property, or letter of credit rights, and the secured party has control under section 336.7-106 , 336.9-104 , 336.9-105A , 336.9-106 , 336.9-107, or 336.9-107A pursuant to the debtor's security agreement; or
(E) the collateral is chattel paper and the secured party has possession and control under section 336.9-314A pursuant to the debtor's security agreement.
(c) Other UCC provisions. Subsection (b) is subject to section 336.4-210 on the security interest of a collecting bank, section 336.5-118 on the security interest of a letter of credit issuer or nominated person, section 336.9-110 on a security interest arising under article 2 or 2A, and section 336.9-206 on security interests in investment property.
(d) When person becomes bound by another person's security agreement. A person becomes bound as debtor by a security agreement entered into by another person if, by operation of law other than this article or by contract:
(1) the security agreement becomes effective to create a security interest in the person's property; or
(2) the person becomes generally obligated for the obligations of the other person, including the obligation secured under the security agreement, and acquires or succeeds to all or substantially all of the assets of the other person.
(e) Effect of new debtor becoming bound. If a new debtor becomes bound as debtor by a security agreement entered into by another person:
(1) the agreement satisfies subsection (b)(3) with respect to existing or after-acquired property of the new debtor to the extent the property is described in the agreement; and
(2) another agreement is not necessary to make a security interest in the property enforceable.
(f) Proceeds and supporting obligations. The attachment of a security interest in collateral gives the secured party the rights to proceeds provided by section 336.9-315 and is also attachment of a security interest in a supporting obligation for the collateral.
(g) Lien securing right to payment. The attachment of a security interest in a right to payment or performance secured by a security interest or other lien on personal or real property is also attachment of a security interest in the security interest, mortgage, or other lien. The attachment of a security interest in the mortgage or lien on real property does not create an interest in real property.
(h) Security entitlement carried in securities account. The attachment of a security interest in a securities account is also attachment of a security interest in the security entitlements carried in the securities account.
(i) Commodity contracts carried in commodity account. The attachment of a security interest in a commodity account is also attachment of a security interest in the commodity contracts carried in the commodity account.
History:
2000 c 399 art 1 s 13 ; 2001 c 195 art 1 s 7 ; 2004 c 162 art 5 s 19 ; 2024 c 93 art 9 s 7
336.9-204 MS 1998 [Repealed, 2000 c 399 art 1 s 140 ]
336.9-204 AFTER-ACQUIRED PROPERTY; FUTURE ADVANCES.
(a) After-acquired collateral. Except as otherwise provided in subsection (b), a security agreement may create or provide for a security interest in after-acquired collateral.
(b) When after-acquired property clause not effective. Subject to subsection (b.1), a security interest does not attach under a term constituting an after-acquired property clause to:
(1) consumer goods, other than an accession when given as additional security, unless the debtor acquires rights in them within ten days after the secured party gives value; or
(2) a commercial tort claim.
(b.1) Limitation on subsection (b). Subsection (b) does not prevent a security interest from attaching:
(1) to consumer goods as proceeds under section 336.9-315 (a) or commingled goods under section 336.9-336 (c);
(2) to a commercial tort claim as proceeds under section 336.9-315 (a); or
(3) under an after-acquired property clause to property that is proceeds of consumer goods or a commercial tort claim.
(c) Future advances and other value. A security agreement may provide that collateral secures, or that accounts, chattel paper, payment intangibles, or promissory notes are sold in connection with, future advances or other value, whether or not the advances or value are given pursuant to commitment.
History:
2000 c 399 art 1 s 14 ; 2024 c 93 art 9 s 8
336.9-205 MS 1998 [Repealed, 2000 c 399 art 1 s 140 ]
336.9-205 USE OR DISPOSITION OF COLLATERAL PERMISSIBLE.
(a) When security interest not invalid or fraudulent. A security interest is not invalid or fraudulent against creditors solely because:
(1) the debtor has the right or ability to:
(A) use, commingle, or dispose of all or part of the collateral, including returned or repossessed goods;
(B) collect, compromise, enforce, or otherwise deal with collateral;
(C) accept the return of collateral or make repossessions; or
(D) use, commingle, or dispose of proceeds; or
(2) the secured party fails to require the debtor to account for proceeds or replace collateral.
(b) Requirements of possession not relaxed. This section does not relax the requirements of possession if attachment, perfection, or enforcement of a security interest depends upon possession of the collateral by the secured party.
History:
2000 c 399 art 1 s 15
336.9-206 MS 1998 [Repealed, 2000 c 399 art 1 s 140 ]
336.9-206 SECURITY INTEREST ARISING IN PURCHASE OR DELIVERY OF FINANCIAL ASSET.
(a) Security interest when person buys through securities intermediary. A security interest in favor of a securities intermediary attaches to a person's security entitlement if:
(1) the person buys a financial asset through the securities intermediary in a transaction in which the person is obligated to pay the purchase price to the securities intermediary at the time of the purchase; and
(2) the securities intermediary credits the financial asset to the buyer's securities account before the buyer pays the securities intermediary.
(b) Security interest secures obligation to pay for financial asset. The security interest described in subsection (a) secures the person's obligation to pay for the financial asset.
(c) Security interest in payment against delivery transaction. A security interest in favor of a person that delivers a certificated security or other financial asset represented by a writing attaches to the security or other financial asset if:
(1) the security or other financial asset:
(A) in the ordinary course of business is transferred by delivery with any necessary endorsement or assignment; and
(B) is delivered under an agreement between persons in the business of dealing with such securities or financial assets; and
(2) the agreement calls for delivery against payment.
(d) Security interest secures obligation to pay for delivery. The security interest described in subsection (c) secures the obligation to make payment for the delivery.
History:
2000 c 399 art 1 s 16
SUBPART 2. RIGHTS AND DUTIES
336.9-207 MS 1998 [Repealed, 2000 c 399 art 1 s 140 ]
336.9-207 RIGHTS AND DUTIES OF SECURED PARTY HAVING POSSESSION OR CONTROL OF COLLATERAL.
(a) Duty of care when secured party in possession. Except as otherwise provided in subsection (d), a secured party shall use reasonable care in the custody and preservation of collateral in the secured party's possession. In the case of chattel paper or an instrument, reasonable care includes taking necessary steps to preserve rights against prior parties unless otherwise agreed.
(b) Expenses, risks, duties, and rights when secured party in possession. Except as otherwise provided in subsection (d), if a secured party has possession of collateral:
(1) reasonable expenses, including the cost of insurance and payment of taxes or other charges incurred in the custody, preservation, use, or operation of the collateral are chargeable to the debtor and are secured by the collateral;
(2) the risk of accidental loss or damage is on the debtor to the extent of a deficiency in any effective insurance coverage;
(3) the secured party shall keep the collateral identifiable, but fungible collateral may be commingled; and
(4) the secured party may use or operate the collateral:
(A) for the purpose of preserving the collateral or its value;
(B) as permitted by an order of a court having competent jurisdiction; or
(C) except in the case of consumer goods, in the manner and to the extent agreed by the debtor.
(c) Duties and rights when secured party in possession or control. Except as otherwise provided in subsection (d), a secured party having possession of collateral or control of collateral under section 336.7-106 , 336.9-104 , 336.9-105 , 336.9-105A , 336.9-106 , 336.9-107, or 336.9-107A :
(1) may hold as additional security any proceeds, except money or funds, received from the collateral;
(2) shall apply money or funds received from the collateral to reduce the secured obligation, unless remitted to the debtor; and
(3) may create a security interest in the collateral.
(d) Buyer of certain rights to payment. If the secured party is a buyer of accounts, chattel paper, payment intangibles, or promissory notes or a consignor:
(1) subsection (a) does not apply unless the secured party is entitled under an agreement:
(A) to charge back uncollected collateral; or
(B) otherwise to full or limited recourse against the debtor or a secondary obligor based on the nonpayment or other default of an account debtor or other obligor on the collateral; and
(2) subsections (b) and (c) do not apply.
History:
2000 c 399 art 1 s 17 ; 2004 c 162 art 5 s 20 ; 2024 c 93 art 9 s 9
336.9-208 MS 1998 [Repealed, 2000 c 399 art 1 s 140 ]
336.9-208 ADDITIONAL DUTIES OF SECURED PARTY HAVING CONTROL OF COLLATERAL.
(a) Applicability of section. This section applies to cases in which there is no outstanding secured obligation and the secured party is not committed to make advances, incur obligations, or otherwise give value.
(b) Duties of secured party after receiving demand from debtor. Within ten days after receiving a signed demand by the debtor:
(1) a secured party having control of a deposit account under section 336.9-104 (a)(2) shall send to the bank with which the deposit account is maintained a signed record that releases the bank from any further obligation to comply with instructions originated by the secured party;
(2) a secured party having control of a deposit account under section 336.9-104 (a)(3) shall:
(A) pay the debtor the balance on deposit in the deposit account; or
(B) transfer the balance on deposit into a deposit account in the debtor's name;
(3) a secured party, other than a buyer, having control under section 336.9-105 of an authoritative electronic copy of a record evidencing chattel paper shall transfer control of the electronic copy to the debtor or a person designated by the debtor;
(4) a secured party having control of investment property under section 336.8-106 (d)(2) or 336.9-106 (b) shall send to the securities intermediary or commodity intermediary with which the security entitlement or commodity contract is maintained a signed record that releases the securities intermediary or commodity intermediary from any further obligation to comply with entitlement orders or directions originated by the secured party;
(5) a secured party having control of a letter of credit right under section 336.9-107 shall send to each person having an unfulfilled obligation to pay or deliver proceeds of the letter of credit to the secured party a signed release from any further obligation to pay or deliver proceeds of the letter of credit to the secured party;
(6) a secured party having control under section 336.7-106 of an authoritative electronic copy of an electronic document of title shall transfer control of the electronic copy to the debtor or a person designated by the debtor;
(7) a secured party having control under section 336.9-105A of electronic money shall transfer control of the electronic money to the debtor or a person designated by the debtor; and
(8) a secured party having control under section 336.12-105 of a controllable electronic record, other than a buyer of a controllable account or controllable payment intangible evidenced by the controllable electronic record, shall transfer control of the controllable electronic record to the debtor or a person designated by the debtor.
History:
2000 c 399 art 1 s 18 ; 2004 c 162 art 5 s 21 ; 2024 c 93 art 9 s 10
336.9-209 DUTIES OF SECURED PARTY IF ACCOUNT DEBTOR HAS BEEN NOTIFIED OF ASSIGNMENT.
(a) Applicability of section. Except as otherwise provided in subsection (c), this section applies if:
(1) there is no outstanding secured obligation; and
(2) the secured party is not committed to make advances, incur obligations, or otherwise give value.
(b) Duties of secured party after receiving demand from debtor. Within ten days after receiving a signed demand by the debtor, a secured party shall send to an account debtor that has received notification under section 336.9-406 (a) or 336.12-106 (b) of an assignment to the secured party as assignee a signed record that releases the account debtor from any further obligation to the secured party.
(c) Inapplicability to sales. This section does not apply to an assignment constituting the sale of an account, chattel paper, or payment intangible.
History:
2000 c 399 art 1 s 19 ; 2024 c 93 art 9 s 11
336.9-210 REQUEST FOR ACCOUNTING; REQUEST REGARDING LIST OF COLLATERAL OR STATEMENT OF ACCOUNT.
(a) Definitions. In this section:
(1) "Request" means a record of a type described in paragraph (2), (3), or (4).
(2) "Request for an accounting" means a record signed by a debtor requesting that the recipient provide an accounting of the unpaid obligations secured by collateral and reasonably identifying the transaction or relationship that is the subject of the request.
(3) "Request regarding a list of collateral" means a record signed by a debtor requesting that the recipient approve or correct a list of what the debtor believes to be the collateral securing an obligation and reasonably identifying the transaction or relationship that is the subject of the request.
(4) "Request regarding a statement of account" means a record signed by a debtor requesting that the recipient approve or correct a statement indicating what the debtor believes to be the aggregate amount of unpaid obligations secured by collateral as of a specified date and reasonably identifying the transaction or relationship that is the subject of the request.
(b) Duty to respond to requests. Subject to subsections (c), (d), (e), and (f), a secured party, other than a buyer of accounts, chattel paper, payment intangibles, or promissory notes or a consignor, shall comply with a request within 14 days after receipt:
(1) in the case of a request for an accounting, by signing and sending to the debtor an accounting; and
(2) in the case of a request regarding a list of collateral or a request regarding a statement of account, by signing and sending to the debtor an approval or correction.
(c) Request regarding list of collateral; statement concerning type of collateral. A secured party that claims a security interest in all of a particular type of collateral owned by the debtor may comply with a request regarding a list of collateral by sending to the debtor a signed record including a statement to that effect within 14 days after receipt.
(d) Request regarding list of collateral; no interest claimed. A person that receives a request regarding a list of collateral, claims no interest in the collateral when it receives the request, and claimed an interest in the collateral at an earlier time shall comply with the request within 14 days after receipt by sending to the debtor a signed record:
(1) disclaiming any interest in the collateral; and
(2) if known to the recipient, providing the name and mailing address of any assignee of or successor to the recipient's interest in the collateral.
(e) Request for accounting or regarding statement of account; no interest in obligation claimed. A person that receives a request for an accounting or a request regarding a statement of account, claims no interest in the obligations when it receives the request, and claimed an interest in the obligations at an earlier time shall comply with the request within 14 days after receipt by sending to the debtor a signed record:
(1) disclaiming any interest in the obligations; and
(2) if known to the recipient, providing the name and mailing address of any assignee of or successor to the recipient's interest in the obligations.
(f) Charges for responses. A debtor is entitled without charge to one response to a request under this section during any six-month period. The secured party may require payment of a charge not exceeding $25 for each additional response.
History:
2000 c 399 art 1 s 20 ; 2024 c 93 art 9 s 12
Part 3 PERFECTION AND PRIORITY SUBPART 1. LAW GOVERNING PERFECTION AND PRIORITY OF SECURITY INTERESTS
336.9-301 MS 1998 [Repealed, 2000 c 399 art 1 s 140 ]
336.9-301 LAW GOVERNING PERFECTION AND PRIORITY OF SECURITY INTERESTS.
Except as otherwise provided in sections 336.9-303 through 336.9-306B , the following rules determine the law governing perfection, the effect of perfection or nonperfection, and the priority of a security interest in collateral:
(1) Except as otherwise provided in this section, while a debtor is located in a jurisdiction, the local law of that jurisdiction governs perfection, the effect of perfection or nonperfection, and the priority of a security interest in collateral.
(2) While collateral is located in a jurisdiction, the local law of that jurisdiction governs perfection, the effect of perfection or nonperfection, and the priority of a possessory security interest in that collateral.
(3) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (4), while negotiable tangible documents, goods, instruments, or tangible money is located in a jurisdiction, the local law of that jurisdiction governs:
(A) perfection of a security interest in the goods by filing a fixture filing;
(B) perfection of a security interest in timber to be cut; and
(C) the effect of perfection or nonperfection and the priority of a nonpossessory security interest in the collateral.
(4) The local law of the jurisdiction in which the wellhead or minehead is located governs perfection, the effect of perfection or nonperfection, and the priority of a security interest in as-extracted collateral.
History:
2000 c 399 art 1 s 21 ; 2004 c 162 art 5 s 22 ; 2024 c 93 art 9 s 13 ; 2025 c 20 s 249
336.9-302 MS 1998 [Repealed, 2000 c 399 art 1 s 140 ]
336.9-302 LAW GOVERNING PERFECTION AND PRIORITY OF AGRICULTURAL LIENS.
While farm products are located in a jurisdiction, the local law of that jurisdiction governs perfection, the effect of perfection or nonperfection, and the priority of an agricultural lien on the farm products.
History:
2000 c 399 art 1 s 22
336.9-303 MS 1998 [Repealed, 2000 c 399 art 1 s 140 ]
336.9-303 LAW GOVERNING PERFECTION AND PRIORITY OF SECURITY INTERESTS IN GOODS COVERED BY A CERTIFICATE OF TITLE.
(a) Applicability of section. This section applies to goods covered by a certificate of title, even if there is no other relationship between the jurisdiction under whose certificate of title the goods are covered and the goods or the debtor.
(b) When goods covered by certificate of title. Goods become covered by a certificate of title when a valid application for the certificate of title and the applicable fee are delivered to the appropriate authority. Goods cease to be covered by a certificate of title at the earlier of the time the certificate of title ceases to be effective under the law of the issuing jurisdiction or the time the goods become covered subsequently by a certificate of title issued by another jurisdiction.
(c) Applicable law. The local law of the jurisdiction under whose certificate of title the goods are covered governs perfection, the effect of perfection or nonperfection, and the priority of a security interest in goods covered by a certificate of title from the time the goods become covered by the certificate of title until the goods cease to be covered by the certificate of title.
History:
2000 c 399 art 1 s 23
336.9-304 MS 1998 [Repealed, 2000 c 399 art 1 s 140 ]
336.9-304 LAW GOVERNING PERFECTION AND PRIORITY OF SECURITY INTERESTS IN DEPOSIT ACCOUNTS.
(a) Law of bank's jurisdiction governs. The local law of a bank's jurisdiction governs perfection, the effect of perfection or nonperfection, and the priority of a security interest in a deposit account maintained with that bank even if the transaction does not bear any relation to the bank's jurisdiction.
(b) Bank's jurisdiction. The following rules determine a bank's jurisdiction for purposes of this part:
(1) If an agreement between the bank and the debtor governing the deposit account expressly provides that a particular jurisdiction is the bank's jurisdiction for purposes of this part, this article, or this chapter, that jurisdiction is the bank's jurisdiction.
(2) If paragraph (1) does not apply and an agreement between the bank and its customer governing the deposit account expressly provides that the agreement is governed by the law of a particular jurisdiction, that jurisdiction is the bank's jurisdiction.
(3) If neither paragraph (1) nor paragraph (2) applies and an agreement between the bank and its customer governing the deposit account expressly provides that the deposit account is maintained at an office in a particular jurisdiction, that jurisdiction is the bank's jurisdiction.
(4) If none of the preceding paragraphs applies, the bank's jurisdiction is the jurisdiction in which the office identified in an account statement as the office serving the customer's account is located.
(5) If none of the preceding paragraphs applies, the bank's jurisdiction is the jurisdiction in which the chief executive office of the bank is located.
History:
2000 c 399 art 1 s 24 ; 2024 c 93 art 9 s 14
336.9-305 MS 1998 [Repealed, 2000 c 399 art 1 s 140 ]
336.9-305 LAW GOVERNING PERFECTION AND PRIORITY OF SECURITY INTERESTS IN INVESTMENT PROPERTY.
(a) Governing law: general rules. Except as otherwise provided in subsection (c), the following rules apply:
(1) While a security certificate is located in a jurisdiction, the local law of that jurisdiction governs perfection, the effect of perfection or nonperfection, and the priority of a security interest in the certificated security represented thereby.
(2) The local law of the issuer's jurisdiction as specified in section 336.8-110 (d), governs perfection, the effect of perfection or nonperfection, and the priority of a security interest in an uncertificated security.
(3) The local law of the securities intermediary's jurisdiction as specified in section 336.8-110 (e), governs perfection, the effect of perfection or nonperfection, and the priority of a security interest in a security entitlement or securities account.
(4) The local law of the commodity intermediary's jurisdiction governs perfection, the effect of perfection or nonperfection, and the priority of a security interest in a commodity contract or commodity account.
(5) Paragraphs (2), (3), and (4) apply even if the transaction does not bear any relation to the jurisdiction.
(b) Commodity intermediary's jurisdiction. The following rules determine a commodity intermediary's jurisdiction for purposes of this part:
(1) If an agreement between the commodity intermediary and commodity customer governing the commodity account expressly provides that a particular jurisdiction is the commodity intermediary's jurisdiction for purposes of this part, this article, or this chapter, that jurisdiction is the commodity intermediary's jurisdiction.
(2) If paragraph (1) does not apply and an agreement between the commodity intermediary and commodity customer governing the commodity account expressly provides that the agreement is governed by the law of a particular jurisdiction, that jurisdiction is the commodity intermediary's jurisdiction.
(3) If neither paragraph (1) nor paragraph (2) applies and an agreement between the commodity intermediary and commodity customer governing the commodity account expressly provides that the commodity account is maintained at an office in a particular jurisdiction, that jurisdiction is the commodity intermediary's jurisdiction.
(4) If none of the preceding paragraphs applies, the commodity intermediary's jurisdiction is the jurisdiction in which the office identified in an account statement as the office serving the commodity customer's account is located.
(5) If none of the preceding paragraphs applies, the commodity intermediary's jurisdiction is the jurisdiction in which the chief executive office of the commodity intermediary is located.
(c) When perfection governed by law of jurisdiction where debtor located. The local law of the jurisdiction in which the debtor is located governs:
(1) perfection of a security interest in investment property by filing;
(2) automatic perfection of a security interest in investment property created by a broker or securities intermediary; and
(3) automatic perfection of a security interest in a commodity contract or commodity account created by a commodity intermediary.
History:
2000 c 399 art 1 s 25 ; 2024 c 93 art 9 s 15
336.9-306 MS 1998 [Repealed, 2000 c 399 art 1 s 140 ]
336.9-306 LAW GOVERNING PERFECTION AND PRIORITY OF SECURITY INTERESTS IN LETTER OF CREDIT RIGHTS.
(a) Governing law: issuer's or nominated person's jurisdiction. Subject to subsection (c), the local law of the issuer's jurisdiction or a nominated person's jurisdiction governs perfection, the effect of perfection or nonperfection, and the priority of a security interest in a letter of credit right if the issuer's jurisdiction or nominated person's jurisdiction is a state.
(b) Issuer's or nominated person's jurisdiction. For purposes of this part, an issuer's jurisdiction or nominated person's jurisdiction is the jurisdiction whose law governs the liability of the issuer or nominated person with respect to the letter of credit right as provided in section 336.5-116 .
(c) When section not applicable. This section does not apply to a security interest that is perfected only under section 336.9-308 (d).
History:
2000 c 399 art 1 s 26
336.9-306A LAW GOVERNING PERFECTION AND PRIORITY OF SECURITY INTERESTS IN CHATTEL PAPER.
(a) Chattel paper evidenced by authoritative electronic copy. Except as provided in subsection (d), if chattel paper is evidenced only by an authoritative electronic copy of the chattel paper or is evidenced by an authoritative electronic copy and an authoritative tangible copy, the local law of the chattel paper's jurisdiction governs perfection, the effect of perfection or nonperfection, and the priority of a security interest in the chattel paper, even if the transaction does not bear any relation to the chattel paper's jurisdiction.
(b) Chattel paper's jurisdiction. The following rules determine the chattel paper's jurisdiction under this section:
(1) If the authoritative electronic copy of the record evidencing chattel paper, or a record attached to or logically associated with the electronic copy and readily available for review, expressly provides that a particular jurisdiction is the chattel paper's jurisdiction for purposes of this part, this article, or this chapter, that jurisdiction is the chattel paper's jurisdiction.
(2) If paragraph (1) does not apply and the rules of the system in which the authoritative electronic copy is recorded are readily available for review and expressly provide that a particular jurisdiction is the chattel paper's jurisdiction for purposes of this part, this article, or this chapter, that jurisdiction is the chattel paper's jurisdiction.
(3) If paragraphs (1) and (2) do not apply and the authoritative electronic copy, or a record attached to or logically associated with the electronic copy and readily available for review, expressly provides that the chattel paper is governed by the law of a particular jurisdiction, that jurisdiction is the chattel paper's jurisdiction.
(4) If paragraphs (1), (2), and (3) do not apply and the rules of the system in which the authoritative electronic copy is recorded are readily available for review and expressly provide that the chattel paper or the system is governed by the law of a particular jurisdiction, that jurisdiction is the chattel paper's jurisdiction.
(5) If paragraphs (1) through (4) do not apply, the chattel paper's jurisdiction is the jurisdiction in which the debtor is located.
(c) Chattel paper evidenced by authoritative tangible copy. If an authoritative tangible copy of a record evidences chattel paper and the chattel paper is not evidenced by an authoritative electronic copy, while the authoritative tangible copy of the record evidencing chattel paper is located in a jurisdiction, the local law of that jurisdiction governs:
(1) perfection of a security interest in the chattel paper by possession under section 336.9-314A ; and
(2) the effect of perfection or nonperfection and the priority of a security interest in the chattel paper.
(d) When perfection governed by law of jurisdiction where debtor located. The local law of the jurisdiction in which the debtor is located governs perfection of a security interest in chattel paper by filing.
History:
2024 c 93 art 9 s 16
336.9-306B LAW GOVERNING PERFECTION AND PRIORITY OF SECURITY INTERESTS IN CONTROLLABLE ACCOUNTS, CONTROLLABLE ELECTRONIC RECORDS, AND CONTROLLABLE PAYMENT INTANGIBLES.
(a) Governing law: general rules. Except as provided in subsection (b), the local law of the controllable electronic record's jurisdiction specified in section 336.12-107 (c) and (d) governs perfection, the effect of perfection or nonperfection, and the priority of a security interest in a controllable electronic record and a security interest in a controllable account or controllable payment intangible evidenced by the controllable electronic record.
(b) When perfection governed by law of jurisdiction where debtor located. The local law of the jurisdiction in which the debtor is located governs:
(1) perfection of a security interest in a controllable account, controllable electronic record, or controllable payment intangible by filing; and
(2) automatic perfection of a security interest in a controllable payment intangible created by a sale of the controllable payment intangible.
History:
2024 c 93 art 9 s 17
336.9-307 MS 1998 [Repealed, 2000 c 399 art 1 s 140 ]
336.9-307 LOCATION OF DEBTOR.
(a) Place of business. In this section, "place of business" means a place where a debtor conducts its affairs.
(b) Debtor's location: general rules. Except as otherwise provided in this section, the following rules determine a debtor's location:
(1) A debtor who is an individual is located at the individual's principal residence.
(2) A debtor that is an organization and has only one place of business is located at its place of business.
(3) A debtor that is an organization and has more than one place of business is located at its chief executive office.
(c) Limitation of applicability of subsection (b). Subsection (b) applies only if a debtor's residence, place of business, or chief executive office, as applicable, is located in a jurisdiction whose law generally requires information concerning the existence of a nonpossessory security interest to be made generally available in a filing, recording, or registration system as a condition or result of the security interest's obtaining priority over the rights of a lien creditor with respect to the collateral. If subsection (b) does not apply, the debtor is located in the District of Columbia.
(d) Continuation of location: cessation of existence, etc. A person that ceases to exist, have a residence, or have a place of business continues to be located in the jurisdiction specified by subsections (b) and (c).
(e) Location of registered organization organized under state law. A registered organization that is organized under the law of a state is located in that state.
(f) Location of registered organization organized under federal law; bank branches and agencies. Except as otherwise provided in subsection (i), a registered organization that is organized under the law of the United States and a branch or agency of a bank that is not organized under the law of the United States or a state are located:
(1) in the state that the law of the United States designates, if the law designates a state of location;
(2) in the state that the registered organization, branch, or agency designates, if the law of the United States authorizes the registered organization, branch, or agency to designate its state of location, including by designating its main office, home office, or other comparable office; or
(3) in the District of Columbia, if neither paragraph (1) nor paragraph (2) applies.
(g) Continuation of location: change in status of registered organization. A registered organization continues to be located in the jurisdiction specified by subsection (e) or (f) notwithstanding:
(1) the suspension, revocation, forfeiture, or lapse of the registered organization's status as such in its jurisdiction of organization; or
(2) the dissolution, winding up, or cancellation of the existence of the registered organization.
(h) Location of United States. The United States is located in the District of Columbia.
(i) Location of foreign bank branch or agency if licensed in only one state. A branch or agency of a bank that is not organized under the law of the United States or a state is located in the state in which the branch or agency is licensed, if all branches and agencies of the bank are licensed in only one state.
(j) Location of foreign air carrier. A foreign air carrier under the Federal Aviation Act of 1958, as amended, is located at the designated office of the agent upon which service of process may be made on behalf of the carrier.
(k) Section applies only to this part. This section applies only for purposes of this part.
History:
2000 c 399 art 1 s 27 ; 2011 c 31 art 1 s 3,16
SUBPART 2. PERFECTION
336.9-308 MS 1998 [Repealed, 2000 c 399 art 1 s 140 ]
336.9-308 WHEN SECURITY INTEREST OR AGRICULTURAL LIEN IS PERFECTED; CONTINUITY OF PERFECTION.
(a) Perfection of security interest. Except as otherwise provided in this section and section 336.9-309 , a security interest is perfected if it has attached and all of the applicable requirements for perfection in sections 336.9-310 through 336.9-316 have been satisfied. A security interest is perfected when it attaches if the applicable requirements are satisfied before the security interest attaches.
(b) Perfection of agricultural lien. An agricultural lien is perfected if it has become effective and all of the applicable requirements for perfection in section 336.9-310 have been satisfied. An agricultural lien is perfected when it becomes effective if the applicable requirements are satisfied before the agricultural lien becomes effective.
(c) Continuous perfection; perfection by different methods. A security interest or agricultural lien is perfected continuously if it is originally perfected by one method under this article and is later perfected by another method under this article, without an intermediate period when it was unperfected.
(d) Supporting obligation. Perfection of a security interest in collateral also perfects a security interest in a supporting obligation for the collateral.
(e) Lien securing right to payment. Perfection of a security interest in a right to payment or performance also perfects a security interest in a security interest, mortgage, or other lien on personal or real property securing the right.
(f) Security entitlement carried in securities account. Perfection of a security interest in a securities account also perfects a security interest in the security entitlements carried in the securities account.
(g) Commodity contract carried in commodity account. Perfection of a security interest in a commodity account also perfects a security interest in the commodity contracts carried in the commodity account.
History:
2000 c 399 art 1 s 28
336.9-309 MS 1998 [Repealed, 2000 c 399 art 1 s 140 ]
336.9-309 SECURITY INTEREST PERFECTED UPON ATTACHMENT.
The following security interests are perfected when they attach:
(1) a purchase-money security interest in consumer goods, except as otherwise provided in section 336.9-311 (b) with respect to consumer goods that are subject to a statute or treaty described in section 336.9-311 (a);
(2) an assignment of accounts or payment intangibles which does not by itself or in conjunction with other assignments to the same assignee transfer a significant part of the assignor's outstanding accounts or payment intangibles;
(3) a sale of a payment intangible;
(4) a sale of a promissory note;
(5) a security interest created by the assignment of a health-care-insurance receivable to the provider of the health-care goods or services;
(6) a security interest arising under section 336.2-401 , 336.2-505 , 336.2-711 (3), or 336.2A-508 (5), until the debtor obtains possession of the collateral;
(7) a security interest of a collecting bank arising under section 336.4-210 ;
(8) a security interest of an issuer or nominated person arising under section 336.5-118 ;
(9) a security interest arising in the delivery of a financial asset under section 336.9-206 (c);
(10) a security interest in investment property created by a broker or securities intermediary;
(11) a security interest in a commodity contract or a commodity account created by a commodity intermediary;
(12) an assignment for the benefit of all creditors of the transferor and subsequent transfers by the assignee thereunder; and
(13) a security interest created by an assignment of a beneficial interest in a decedent's estate.
History:
2000 c 399 art 1 s 29
336.9-310 MS 1998 [Repealed, 2000 c 399 art 1 s 140 ]
336.9-310 WHEN FILING REQUIRED TO PERFECT SECURITY INTEREST OR AGRICULTURAL LIEN; SECURITY INTERESTS AND AGRICULTURAL LIENS TO WHICH FILING PROVISIONS DO NOT APPLY.
(a) General rule: perfection by filing. Except as otherwise provided in subsection (b) and section 336.9-312 (b), a financing statement must be filed to perfect all security interests and agricultural liens.
(b) Exceptions: filing not necessary. The filing of a financing statement is not necessary to perfect a security interest:
(1) that is perfected under section 336.9-308 (d), (e), (f), or (g);
(2) that is perfected under section 336.9-309 when it attaches;
(3) in property subject to a statute, regulation, or treaty described in section 336.9-311 (a);
(4) in goods in possession of a bailee which is perfected under section 336.9-312 (d)(1) or (2);
(5) in certificated securities, documents, goods, or instruments which is perfected without filing, control, or possession under section 336.9-312 (e), (f), or (g);
(6) in collateral in the secured party's possession under section 336.9-313 ;
(7) in a certificated security which is perfected by delivery of the security certificate to the secured party under section 336.9-313 ;
(8) in controllable accounts, controllable electronic records, controllable payment intangibles, deposit accounts, electronic documents, investment property, or letter of credit rights which is perfected by control under section 336.9-314 ;
(8.1) in chattel paper which is perfected by possession and control under section 336.9-314A ;
(9) in proceeds which is perfected under section 336.9-315 ; or
(10) that is perfected under section 336.9-316 .
(c) Assignment of perfected security interest. If a secured party assigns a perfected security interest or agricultural lien, a filing under this article is not required to continue the perfected status of the security interest against creditors of and transferees from the original debtor.
History:
2000 c 399 art 1 s 30 ; 2004 c 162 art 5 s 23 ; 2024 c 93 art 9 s 18
336.9-311 MS 1998 [Repealed, 2000 c 399 art 1 s 140 ]
336.9-311 PERFECTION OF SECURITY INTERESTS IN PROPERTY SUBJECT TO CERTAIN STATUTES, REGULATIONS, AND TREATIES.
(a) Security interest subject to other law. Except as otherwise provided in subsection (d), the filing of a financing statement is not necessary or effective to perfect a security interest in property subject to:
(1) a statute, regulation, or treaty of the United States whose requirements for a security interest's obtaining priority over the rights of a lien creditor with respect to the property preempt section 336.9-310 (a);
(2) sections
Minn. Stat. § 327B.08
327B.08 DUTIES.
§
Subdivision 1. Disclosure required.
Prior to the consummation of the sale of any manufactured home where a dealer acts as a broker, the dealer shall disclose in writing to all parties to the transaction all charges, payments, commissions and other fees paid or payable in connection with the transaction. Any commission charged by the dealer shall be expressed both as a dollar amount and as a percentage of the sales price. If the home being sold is located in a manufactured home park, prior to the buyer's signing of the purchase agreement the dealer shall disclose in writing to the buyer the state law concerning the in park sale of manufactured homes. This subdivision does not require any dealer to disclose any consideration received (1) for having acted as an insurance agent, as defined in section 60A.02, subdivision 7 , in connection with the transaction, or (2) in return for the dealer having agreed to any contingent liability in connection with the financing of the sale. The commissioner may prescribe a form to be used to comply with this subdivision and may require all dealers to use that form.
§
Subd. 2. Presence of parties at closing.
A dealer shall not prohibit, prevent or restrain any party to the brokered sale of a manufactured home from being present at the closing. If a dealer at a closing purports to have authority to act for one of the parties who is not present, the dealer shall exhibit the document granting that authority and shall give a copy of that document to the other parties.
§
Subd. 3. Trust account required.
Each dealer who acts as a broker shall maintain a trust account. A trust account shall not be an interest bearing account except by agreement of the parties and subject to rules of the commissioner.
§
Subd. 4. Segregation of funds.
A dealer shall deposit all trust funds received in a trust account. A dealer shall not commingle personal funds or other funds with the funds in a trust account, except that a dealer may deposit and maintain a sum from personal funds not to exceed $100 in a trust account, which sum shall be specifically identified and used to pay service charges relating to the trust account.
§
Subd. 5. Trust information required.
At the time of application for a license or renewal of license, each dealer who acts or intends to act as a broker shall tell the commissioner the name of the financial institutions and the trust account identification numbers used to comply with the provisions of this section. A dealer shall immediately report to the commissioner any change of trust account status including changes in financial institutions, account identification numbers, or additional accounts in the same or another financial institution. No dealer may close an existing trust account without giving ten days' written notice to the commissioner.
§
Subd. 6. Duty of agency.
(a) A person acting as a broker shall be considered to have created an agency relationship with the borrower in all cases and shall comply with the following duties:
(1) brokers shall reasonably act:
(i) in the borrower's best interest;
(ii) in the utmost good faith toward borrowers; and
(iii) so as not to compromise a borrower's right or interest in favor of another's right or interest, including a right or interest of the broker. A broker shall not accept, give, or charge any undisclosed compensation or realize any undisclosed remuneration, either through direct or indirect means, that inures to the benefit of the broker on an expenditure made for the borrower;
(2) brokers shall carry out all lawful instructions given by borrowers;
(3) brokers shall disclose to borrowers all material facts of which the broker has knowledge which might reasonably affect the borrower's rights, interests, or ability to receive the borrower's intended benefit from the manufactured home loan, but not facts which are reasonably susceptible to the knowledge of the borrower;
(4) brokers shall use reasonable care in performing duties; and
(5) brokers shall account to a borrower for all the borrower's money and property received as an agent.
(b) The duty of agency does not attach to a broker who is:
(1) a dealer or retailer;
(2) a limited dealer or retailer;
(3) licensed as a sales finance company as defined under section 53C.01, subdivision 12 ;
(4) employed by:
(i) a manufactured home lender;
(ii) a dealer or retailer;
(iii) a limited dealer or retailer; or
(iv) a licensed sales finance company as defined under section 53C.01, subdivision 12 ;
(5) a person who has an exclusive contract to act as a broker for:
(i) a manufactured home lender;
(ii) a dealer or retailer;
(iii) a limited dealer or retailer; or
(iv) a licensed sales finance company as defined under section 53C.01, subdivision 12 .
(c) Nothing in this section prohibits a broker who is bound by the duty of agency from contracting for or collecting a reasonable fee for services rendered and which had been disclosed to the borrower in advance of the provision of such services.
(d) Nothing in this section requires a broker who is bound by the duty of agency to obtain a loan containing terms or conditions not available to the broker in the broker's usual course of business, or to obtain a loan for the borrower from a manufactured home loan lender with whom the broker does not have a business relationship.
History:
1982 c 526 art 1 s 8 ; 1986 c 444 ; 2008 c 273 s 11
Minn. Stat. § 327C.05
327C.05 RULES.
§
Subdivision 1. Unreasonable rules prohibited.
No park owner shall adopt or enforce unreasonable rules. No park owner may engage in a course of conduct which is unreasonable in light of the criteria set forth in section 327C.015, subdivision 12 .
§
Subd. 2. Presumptively unreasonable rules.
In any action in which the reasonableness of a rule is challenged, any rule which violates any provision of Laws 1982, chapter 526, article 2, or of any other law shall be deemed unreasonable, and the following rules shall be presumed unreasonable unless the park owner proves their reasonableness by clear and convincing evidence:
(1) any rule which prohibits the placing of a "for sale" sign on a resident's home by the resident;
(2) any rule which requires a resident or prospective resident to purchase any particular goods or services from a particular vendor or vendors, including the park owner;
(3) any rule which requires a resident to use the services of a particular dealer or broker in an in park sale; and
(4) any rule requiring that more than one occupant of a home have an ownership interest in that home.
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Subd. 3. Other unreasonable rules.
In addition to the rules listed in subdivision 2, a court may declare unreasonable any park rule if the court finds that the rule fails to meet the standard of section 327C.015, subdivision 12 . The absence of a rule from the list contained in subdivision 2 is not evidence or proof of the rule's reasonableness.
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Subd. 4. Density restrictions.
Subject to section 327C.02, subdivision 2 , a park owner may adopt and enforce a reasonable rule that places limits on the maximum number of persons permitted to reside in a manufactured home if the limitation is reasonably related to the size of the home and the number of rooms it contains.
History:
1982 c 526 art 2 s 5 ; 1986 c 444 ; 2022 c 55 art 2 s 3
Minn. Stat. § 327C.16
327C.16 CLASS I MANUFACTURED HOME PARK.
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Subdivision 1. Qualifications.
(a) To qualify as a class I manufactured home park, as defined in section 327C.015, subdivision 2 , a park owner, or on-site attendant as an employee of the manufactured home park, must satisfy 12 hours of qualifying education courses every three years, as prescribed in this subdivision. Park owners or on-site attendants may begin accumulating qualifying hours to qualify as a class I manufactured home park beginning in 2017.
(b) The qualifying education courses required for classification under this subdivision must be continuing education courses approved by the Department of Labor and Industry or the Department of Commerce for:
(1) continuing education in real estate; or
(2) continuing education for residential contractors and manufactured home installers.
(c) The qualifying education courses must include:
(1) two hours on fair housing, approved for real estate licensure or residential contractor licensure;
(2) one hour on the Americans with Disabilities Act, approved for real estate licensure or residential contractor licensure;
(3) four hours on legal compliance related to any of the following: landlord/tenant, licensing requirements, or home financing under chapters 58, 327, 327B, 327C, and 504B, and Minnesota Rules, chapter 1350 or 4630;
(4) three hours of general education approved for real estate, residential contractors, or manufactured home installers; and
(5) two hours of HUD-specific manufactured home installer courses as required under section
Minn. Stat. § 332.32
332.32 EXCLUSIONS.
(a) The term "collection agency" does not include banks when collecting accounts owed to the banks and when the bank will sustain any loss arising from uncollectible accounts, abstract companies doing an escrow business, real estate brokers, public officers, persons acting under order of a court, lawyers, trust companies, insurance companies, credit unions, savings associations, loan or finance companies unless they are engaged in asserting, enforcing or prosecuting unsecured claims which have been purchased from any person, firm, or association when there is recourse to the seller for all or part of the claim if the claim is not collected.
(b) The term "collection agency" shall not include a trade association performing services authorized by section 604.15, subdivision 4a , but the trade association in performing the services may not engage in any conduct that would be prohibited for a collection agency under section
Minn. Stat. § 332.54
332.54 , a debt management service provider or person providing debt management services under chapter 332A, or a debt settlement service provider or person providing debt settlement services under chapter 332B.
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Subd. 13. Information security program.
"Information security program" means the administrative, technical, or physical safeguards a financial institution uses to access, collect, distribute, process, protect, store, use, transmit, dispose of, or otherwise handle customer information.
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Subd. 14. Information system.
"Information system" means a discrete set of electronic information resources organized to collect, process, maintain, use, share, disseminate, or dispose of electronic information, as well as any specialized system, including but not limited to industrial process controls systems, telephone switching and private branch exchange systems, and environmental controls systems, that contains customer information or that is connected to a system that contains customer information.
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Subd. 15. Multifactor authentication.
"Multifactor authentication" means authentication through verification of at least two of the following factors:
(1) knowledge factors, including but not limited to a password;
(2) possession factors, including but not limited to a token; or
(3) inherence factors, including but not limited to biometric characteristics.
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Subd. 16. Nonpublic personal information.
(a) "Nonpublic personal information" means:
(1) personally identifiable financial information; or
(2) any list, description, or other grouping of consumers, including publicly available information pertaining to the list, description, or other grouping of consumers, that is derived using personally identifiable financial information that is not publicly available.
(b) Nonpublic personal information includes but is not limited to any list of individuals' names and street addresses that is derived in whole or in part using personally identifiable financial information that is not publicly available, including account numbers.
(c) Nonpublic personal information does not include:
(1) publicly available information, except as included on a list described in paragraph (a), clause (2);
(2) any list, description, or other grouping of consumers, including publicly available information pertaining to the list, description, or other grouping of consumers, that is derived without using any personally identifiable financial information that is not publicly available; or
(3) any list of individuals' names and addresses that contains only publicly available information, is not derived in whole or in part using personally identifiable financial information that is not publicly available, and is not disclosed in a manner that indicates that any individual on the list is the financial institution's consumer.
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Subd. 17. Notification event.
"Notification event" means the acquisition of unencrypted customer information without the authorization of the individual to which the information pertains. Customer information is considered unencrypted for purposes of this subdivision if the encryption key was accessed by an unauthorized person. Unauthorized acquisition is presumed to include unauthorized access to unencrypted customer information unless the financial institution has reliable evidence showing that there has not been, or could not reasonably have been, unauthorized acquisition of customer information.
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Subd. 18. Penetration testing.
"Penetration testing" means a test methodology in which assessors attempt to circumvent or defeat the security features of an information system by attempting to penetrate databases or controls from outside or inside a financial institution's information systems.
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Subd. 19. Personally identifiable financial information.
(a) "Personally identifiable financial information" means any information:
(1) a consumer provides to a financial institution to obtain a financial product or service;
(2) about a consumer resulting from any transaction involving a financial product or service between a financial institution and a consumer; or
(3) a financial institution otherwise obtains about a consumer in connection with providing a financial product or service to the customer.
(b) Personally identifiable financial information includes:
(1) information a consumer provides to a financial institution on an application to obtain a loan, credit card, or other financial product or service;
(2) account balance information, payment history, overdraft history, and credit or debit card purchase information;
(3) the fact that an individual is or has been a financial institution's customer or has obtained a financial product or service from the financial institution;
(4) any information about a financial institution's consumer, if the information is disclosed in a manner that indicates that the individual is or has been the financial institution's consumer;
(5) any information that a consumer provides to a financial institution or that a financial institution or a financial institution's agent otherwise obtains in connection with collecting on or servicing a credit account;
(6) any information a financial institution collects through an Internet information collecting device from a web server; and
(7) information from a consumer report.
(c) Personally identifiable financial information does not include:
(1) a list of customer names and addresses for an entity that is not a financial institution; and
(2) information that does not identify a consumer, including but not limited to aggregate information or blind data that does not contain personal identifiers, including account numbers, names, or addresses.
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Subd. 20. Publicly available information.
(a) "Publicly available information" means any information that a financial institution has a reasonable basis to believe is lawfully made available to the general public from:
(1) federal, state, or local government records;
(2) widely distributed media; or
(3) disclosures to the general public that are required under federal, state, or local law.
(b) Publicly available information includes but is not limited to:
(1) with respect to government records, information in government real estate records and security interest filings; and
(2) with respect to widely distributed media, information from a telephone book, a television or radio program, a newspaper, or a website that is available to the general public on an unrestricted basis. A website is not restricted merely because an Internet service provider or a site operator requires a fee or a password, provided that access is available to the general public.
(c) For purposes of this subdivision, a financial institution has a reasonable basis to believe that information is lawfully made available to the general public if the financial institution has taken steps to determine: (1) that the information is of the type that is available to the general public; and (2) whether an individual can direct that the information not be made available to the general public and, if so, that the financial institution's consumer has not directed that the information not be made available to the general public. A financial institution has a reasonable basis to believe that mortgage information is lawfully made available to the general public if the financial institution determines the information is of the type included on the public record in the jurisdiction where the mortgage would be recorded. A financial institution has a reasonable basis to believe that an individual's telephone number is lawfully made available to the general public if the financial institution has located the telephone number in the telephone book or the consumer has informed the financial institution that the telephone number is not unlisted.
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Subd. 21. Qualified individual.
"Qualified individual" means the individual designated by a financial institution to oversee, implement, and enforce the financial institution's information security program.
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Subd. 22. Security event.
"Security event" means an event resulting in unauthorized access to, or disruption or misuse of: (1) an information system or information stored on an information system; or (2) customer information held in physical form.
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Subd. 23. Service provider.
"Service provider" means any person or entity that receives, maintains, processes, or otherwise is permitted access to customer information through the service provider's provision of services directly to a financial institution that is subject to this chapter.
History:
2024 c 114 art 2 s 1
Minn. Stat. § 334.011
334.011 , to a noncorporate borrower in an original principal amount of less than $100,000, secured by a security interest on a share or shares of stock or a membership certificate or certificates issued to a stockholder or member by a cooperative apartment corporation, which may be accompanied by an assignment by way of security of the borrower's interest in the proprietary lease or occupancy agreement in property issued by the cooperative apartment corporation and which is not insured or guaranteed by the secretary of housing and urban development, by the administrator of veterans affairs, or by the administrator of the Farmers Home Administration.
(5) "Cooperative apartment corporation" means a corporation or cooperative organized under chapter 308A or 317A, the shareholders or members of which are entitled, solely by reason of their ownership of stock or membership certificates in the corporation or association, to occupy one or more residential units in a building owned or leased by the corporation or association.
(6) "Forward commitment fee" means a fee or other consideration paid to a lender for the purpose of securing a binding forward commitment by or through the lender to make conventional loans to two or more credit worthy purchasers, including future purchasers, of residential units, or a fee or other consideration paid to a lender for the purpose of securing a binding forward commitment by or through the lender to make conventional loans to two or more credit worthy purchasers, including future purchasers, of units to be created out of existing structures pursuant to chapter 515B, or a fee or other consideration paid to a lender for the purpose of securing a binding forward commitment by or through the lender to make cooperative apartment loans to two or more credit worthy purchasers, including future purchasers, of a share or shares of stock or a membership certificate or certificates in a cooperative apartment corporation; provided, that the forward commitment rate of interest does not exceed the maximum lawful rate of interest effective as of the date the forward commitment is issued by the lender.
(7) "Borrower's interest rate commitment" means a binding commitment made by a lender to a borrower wherein the lender agrees that, if a conventional or cooperative apartment loan is made following issuance of and pursuant to the commitment, the conventional or cooperative apartment loan shall be made at a rate of interest not in excess of the rate of interest agreed to in the commitment, provided that the rate of interest agreed to in the commitment is not in excess of the maximum lawful rate of interest effective as of the date the commitment is issued by the lender to the borrower.
(8) "Borrower's loan commitment" means a binding commitment made by a lender to a borrower wherein the lender agrees to make a conventional or cooperative apartment loan pursuant to the provisions, including the interest rate, of the commitment, provided that the commitment rate of interest does not exceed the maximum lawful rate of interest effective as of the date the commitment is issued and the commitment when issued and agreed to shall constitute a legally binding obligation on the part of the mortgagee or lender to make a conventional or cooperative apartment loan within a specified time period in the future at a rate of interest not exceeding the maximum lawful rate of interest effective as of the date the commitment is issued by the lender to the borrower; provided that a lender who issues a borrower's loan commitment pursuant to the provisions of a forward commitment is authorized to issue the borrower's loan commitment at a rate of interest not to exceed the maximum lawful rate of interest effective as of the date the forward commitment is issued by the lender.
(9) "Finance charge" means the total cost of a conventional or cooperative apartment loan including extensions or grant of credit regardless of the characterization of the same and includes interest, finders fees, and other charges levied by a lender directly or indirectly against the person obtaining the conventional or cooperative apartment loan or against a seller of real property securing a conventional loan or a seller of a share or shares of stock or a membership certificate or certificates in a cooperative apartment corporation securing a cooperative apartment loan, or any other party to the transaction except any actual closing costs and any forward commitment fee. The finance charges plus the actual closing costs and any forward commitment fee, charged by a lender shall include all charges made by a lender other than the principal of the conventional or cooperative apartment loan. The finance charge, with respect to wraparound mortgages, shall be computed based upon the face amount of the wraparound mortgage note, which face amount shall consist of the aggregate of those funds actually advanced by the wraparound lender and the total outstanding principal balances of the prior note or notes which have been made a part of the wraparound mortgage note.
(10) "Lender" means any person making a conventional or cooperative apartment loan, or any person arranging financing for a conventional or cooperative apartment loan. The term also includes the holder or assignee at any time of a conventional or cooperative apartment loan.
(11) "Loan yield" means the annual rate of return obtained by a lender over the term of a conventional or cooperative apartment loan and shall be computed as the annual percentage rate as computed in accordance with sections 226.5 (b), (c), and (d) of Regulation Z, Code of Federal Regulations, title 12, part 226, but using the definition of finance charge provided for in this subdivision. For purposes of this section, with respect to wraparound mortgages, the rate of interest or loan yield shall be based upon the principal balance set forth in the wraparound note and mortgage and shall not include any interest differential or yield differential between the stated interest rate on the wraparound mortgage and the stated interest rate on the one or more prior mortgages included in the stated loan amount on a wraparound note and mortgage.
(12) "Person" means an individual, corporation, business trust, partnership or association or any other legal entity.
(13) "Residential unit" means any structure used principally for residential purposes or any portion thereof, and includes a unit in a common interest community, a nonowner occupied residence, and any other type of residence regardless of whether the unit is used as a principal residence, secondary residence, vacation residence, or residence of some other denomination.
(14) "Vendor" means any person or persons who agree to sell real estate and finance any part or all of the purchase price by a contract for deed. The term also includes the holder or assignee at any time of the vendor's interest in a contract for deed.
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Subd. 3. Conventional or cooperative loans and obligations.
Notwithstanding the provisions of section
Minn. Stat. § 334.19
334.19 , chapter 334 does not apply to extensions of credit made according to this section or the sections listed in this subdivision. This subdivision does not authorize a financial institution to extend credit or purchase an extension of credit under any of the sections listed in this subdivision if the financial institution is not authorized to do so under those sections. A financial institution extending credit under any of the sections listed in this subdivision shall specify in the promissory note, contract, or other loan document the section under which the extension of credit is made.
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Subd. 3. Finance charge for loans.
(a) With respect to a loan, including a loan pursuant to open-end credit but excluding open-end credit pursuant to a credit card, a financial institution may contract for and receive a finance charge on the unpaid balance of the principal amount not to exceed the greater of:
(1) an annual percentage rate not exceeding 21.75 percent; or
(2) the total of:
(i) 33 percent per year on that part of the unpaid balance of the principal amount not exceeding $1,425; and
(ii) 19 percent per year on that part of the unpaid balance of the principal amount exceeding $1,425.
With respect to open-end credit pursuant to a credit card, the financial institution may contract for and receive a finance charge on the unpaid balance of the principal amount at an annual percentage rate not exceeding 18 percent per year.
(b) On a loan where the finance charge is calculated according to the method provided for in paragraph (a), clause (2), the finance charge must be contracted for and earned as provided in that provision or at the single annual percentage rate computed to the nearest one-tenth of one percent that would earn the same total finance charge at maturity of the contract as would be earned by the application of the graduated rates provided in paragraph (a), clause (2), when the debt is paid according to the agreed terms and the calculations are made according to the actuarial method.
(c) With respect to a loan, the finance charge must be considered not to exceed the maximum annual percentage rate permitted under this section if the finance charge contracted for and received does not exceed the equivalent of the maximum annual percentage rate calculated in accordance with Code of Federal Regulations, title 12, part 226, but using the definition of finance charge provided in this section.
(d) This subdivision does not limit or restrict the manner of calculating the finance charge, whether by way of add-on, discount, discount points, precomputed charges, single annual percentage rate, variable rate, interest in advance, compounding, average daily balance method, or otherwise, if the annual percentage rate does not exceed that permitted by this section. Discount points permitted by this paragraph and not collected but included in the principal amount must not be included in the amount on which credit insurance premiums are calculated and charged.
(e) With respect to a loan secured by real estate, if a finance charge is calculated or collected in advance, or included in the principal amount of the loan, and the borrower prepays the loan in full, the financial institution shall credit the borrower with a refund of the charge to the extent that the annual percentage rate yield on the loan would exceed the maximum rate permitted under paragraph (a), taking into account the prepayment. The refund need not be made if it would be less than $9.50.
(f) With respect to all other loans, if the finance charge is calculated or collected in advance, or included in the principal amount of the loan, and the borrower prepays the loan in full, the financial institution shall credit the borrower with a refund of the charge to the extent the annual percentage rate yield on the loan would exceed the annual percentage rate on the loan as originally determined under paragraph (a) and taking into account the prepayment. The refund need not be made if it would be less than $9.50.
(g) For the purpose of calculating the refund under this subdivision, the financial institution may assume that the contract was paid before the date of prepayment according to the schedule of payments under the loan and that all payments were paid on their due dates.
(h) For loans repayable in substantially equal successive monthly installments, the financial institution may calculate the refund under paragraph (f) as the portion of the finance charge allocable on an actuarial basis to all wholly unexpired payment periods following the date of prepayment, based on the annual percentage rate on the loan as originally determined under paragraph (a), and for the purpose of calculating the refund may assume that all payments are made on the due date.
(i) The dollar amounts in this subdivision, subdivision 6, paragraph (a), clause (4), and the dollar amount of original principal amount of closed-end credit in subdivision 6, paragraph (d), shall change periodically, as provided in this section, according to and to the extent of changes in the implicit price deflator for the gross domestic product, 2005 = 100, compiled by the United States Department of Commerce, and hereafter referred to as the index. The index for December 2011 is the reference base index for adjustments of dollar amounts.
(j) The designated dollar amounts shall change on July 1 of each even-numbered year if the percentage of change, calculated to the nearest whole percentage point, between the index for December of the preceding year and the reference base index is ten percent or more; but
(1) the portion of the percentage change in the index in excess of a multiple of ten percent shall be disregarded and the dollar amounts shall change only in multiples of ten percent of the amounts appearing in Laws 1995, chapter 202, on May 24, 1995; and
(2) the dollar amounts shall not change if the amounts required by this section are those currently in effect pursuant to Laws 1995, chapter 202, as a result of earlier application of this section.
(k) If the index is revised, the percentage of change pursuant to this section shall be calculated on the basis of the revised index. If a revision of the index changes the reference base index, a revised reference base index shall be determined by multiplying the reference base index then applicable by the rebasing factor furnished by the Department of Commerce. If the index is superseded, the index referred to in this section is the one represented by the Department of Commerce as reflecting most accurately changes in the purchasing power of the dollar for consumers.
(l) The commissioner shall:
(1) announce and publish on or before April 30 of each year in which dollar amounts are to change, the changes in dollar amounts required by paragraph (j);
(2) announce and publish promptly after the changes occur, changes in the index required by paragraph (k) including, if applicable, the numerical equivalent of the reference base index under a revised reference base index and the designation or title of any index superseding the index; and
(3) promptly notify the revisor of statutes in writing of the changes announced and published by the commissioner pursuant to clauses (1) and (2). The revisor shall publish the changes in the next edition of Minnesota Statutes.
(m) A person does not violate this chapter with respect to a transaction otherwise complying with this chapter if that person relies on dollar amounts either determined according to paragraph (j), clause (2), or appearing in the last publication of the commissioner announcing the then current dollar amounts.
(n) The adjustments provided in this section shall not be affected unless explicitly provided otherwise by law.
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Subd. 4. Finance charge for credit sales made by a third party.
(a) A person may enter into a credit sale contract for sale to a financial institution and a financial institution may purchase and enforce the contract, if the annual percentage rate provided for in the contract does not exceed that permitted in this section, or, in the case of a retail installment sale of a motor vehicle as defined in section
Minn. Stat. § 336B.02
336B.02 FINANCING STATEMENTS OF A PUBLIC UTILITY, TACONITE COMPANY, AND SEMITACONITE COMPANY.
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Subdivision 1. Filing with secretary of state.
Notwithstanding sections 336.9-311 , 336.9-501 , 336.9-502 , 336.9-515 , and 336.9-519 of the Uniform Commercial Code, all filings required under the Uniform Commercial Code in order to perfect a security interest against the personal property or fixtures of a debtor public utility, or against the personal property or fixtures of a debtor taconite company or a debtor semitaconite company, must be made and maintained in the office of the secretary of state.
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Subd. 2. Information not required.
When the financing statement covers goods of a debtor public utility or of a debtor taconite company or a debtor semitaconite company, which are or are to become fixtures, no description of the real estate or the name of the record owner is required.
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Subd. 3. Duration.
Filing of a financing statement against the property of a debtor public utility or against the property of a debtor taconite company or a debtor semitaconite company is effective until five years after the maturity date contained in the statement in the case of personal property and until 15 years after the maturity date in the case of fixtures annexed to real property, or if no maturity date is contained in the statement, until released or terminated.
History:
1965 c 813 s 2 ; 1967 c 323 s 2 ; 1984 c 628 art 5 s 1 ; 2001 c 195 art 2 s 19 ; 2005 c 69 art 1 s 21
Minn. Stat. § 340A.317
340A.317 LICENSING OF BROKERS.
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Subdivision 1. Definition.
"Broker" means a person who represents a distillery, winery, or importer, and is not an employee of the distillery, winery, or importer.
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Subd. 2. License required.
All brokers and their employees must obtain a license from the commissioner. The annual license fee for a broker is $600, for an employee of a broker the license fee is $20. An application for a broker's license must be accompanied by a written statement from the distillery, winery, or importer the applicant proposes to represent verifying the applicant's contractual arrangement, and must contain a statement that the distillery, winery, or importer is responsible for the actions of the broker. The license shall be issued for one year. The broker, or employee of the broker may promote a vendor's product and may call upon licensed retailers to insure product identification, give advance notice of new products or product changes, and share other pertinent market information. The commissioner may revoke or suspend for up to 60 days a broker's license or the license of an employee of a broker if the broker or employee has violated any provision of this chapter, or a rule of the commissioner relating to alcoholic beverages. The commissioner may suspend for up to 60 days, the importation license of a distillery or winery on a finding by the commissioner that its broker or employee of its broker has violated any provision of this chapter, or rule of the commissioner relating to alcoholic beverages.
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Subd. 3. Reports.
A distillery, winery, or broker must furnish within 60 days after the end of each month a report to the commissioner specifying for that month the type, quantity, date, and licensed retailers who received samples from the distillery, winery, or broker.
History:
1985 c 308 s 3 ; 1987 c 152 art 1 s 1 ; 1992 c 513 art 3 s 58
Minn. Stat. § 343.11
343.11 ACQUISITION OF PROPERTY, APPROPRIATIONS.
Every county and district society for the prevention of cruelty to animals may acquire, by purchase, gift, grant, or devise, and hold, use, or convey, real estate and personal property, and lease, mortgage, sell, or use the same in any manner conducive to its interest, to the same extent as natural persons. The county board of any county, or the council of any city, in which such societies exist, may, in its discretion, appropriate for the maintenance and support of such societies in the transaction of the work for which they are organized, any sums of money not otherwise appropriated; provided, that no part of the appropriation shall be expended for the payment of the salary of any officer of the society.
History:
RL s 3127 ; 1913 c 31 s 1 ; 1955 c 366 s 1 ; 1973 c 123 art 5 s 7 ; 1973 c 187 s 1 ; 1975 c 369 s 8 ; 1985 c 69 s 1 ; 1987 c 394 s 6 ; 2005 c 152 art 1 s 5 ; 2009 c 94 art 1 s 93
Minn. Stat. § 345.15
345.15 or by the county auditor using a sale procedure approved by the county board. A county may contract with a third party to assist with removal, disposal, or sale of personal property. The net proceeds from any sale of the personal property, salvaged materials, timber or other products, or leases made under this law must be deposited in the forfeited tax sale fund and must be distributed in the same manner as if the parcel had been sold.
(e) The county auditor, with the approval of the county board, may provide for the demolition of any structure on tax-forfeited lands, if in the opinion of the county board, the county auditor, and the land commissioner, if there is one, the sale of the land with the structure on it, or the continued existence of the structure by reason of age, dilapidated condition or excessive size as compared with nearby structures, will result in a material lessening of net tax capacities of real estate in the vicinity of the tax-forfeited lands, or if the demolition of the structure or structures will aid in disposing of the tax-forfeited property.
(f) Before the sale of a parcel of forfeited land located in an urban area, the county auditor may with the approval of the county board provide for the grading of the land by filling or the removal of any surplus material from it. If the physical condition of forfeited lands is such that a reasonable grading of the lands is necessary for the protection and preservation of the property of any adjoining owner, the adjoining property owner or owners may apply to the county board to have the grading done. If, after considering the application, the county board believes that the grading will enhance the value of the forfeited lands commensurate with the cost involved, it may approve it, and the work must be performed under the supervision of the county or city engineer, as the case may be, and the expense paid from the forfeited tax sale fund.
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Subd. 3. Partition.
Where an undivided portion of any parcel of land is forfeited to the state for taxes, the owner or owners of the portions of said parcel not forfeited, or the state of Minnesota, may in the manner provided by sections
Minn. Stat. § 346.58
346.58 DOGS AND CATS; BEST MANAGEMENT STANDARDS FOR CARE BY DEALERS, COMMERCIAL BREEDERS, AND BROKERS.
The commissioner of agriculture shall consult with interested persons, including but not limited to persons representing dog and cat dealers, breeders, and brokers, the Minnesota Federated Humane Society, the Minnesota Council for Dog Clubs, the American Dog Owners Association, the Board of Animal Health, the Minnesota Purebred Dog Breeders Association, the Minnesota Citizens for Animal Care, the United States Department of Agriculture, and the Minnesota Veterinary Medical Association. The commissioner shall issue an order containing best management standards of care for dogs and cats by dealers, commercial breeders, and brokers. The commissioner shall urge dealers, commercial breeders, and brokers to follow the standards issued in the order.
History:
1994 c 642 s 8 ; 1997 c 187 art 3 s 31
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Minn. Stat. § 34A.02
34A.02 .
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Subd. 3. Cheese.
"Cheese" includes all varieties of cheese, cheese spreads, cheese foods, cheese compounds, or processed cheese made or manufactured in whole or in part from milk.
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Subd. 4. Commissioner.
"Commissioner" means the commissioner of agriculture.
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Subd. 5. Dairy farm.
"Dairy farm" means a place or premises where one or more lactating animals, including cows, goats, sheep, water buffalo, camels, or other hoofed mammals, are kept, and from which all or a portion of the milk produced at the place or premises is delivered, sold, or offered for sale.
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Subd. 6. Dairy plant.
"Dairy plant" means any place where a dairy product is manufactured, processed, or handled and includes milk-receiving stations, creameries, cheese factories, condenseries, milk plants, transfer stations, and marketing organizations that purchase milk and cream directly from producers for resale and other establishments, as those terms are used in this chapter and chapters 17, 27, and 31; but does not include any place where dairy products are not processed but sold at wholesale or retail only.
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Subd. 7. Dairy product.
"Dairy product" means milk as defined by Code of Federal Regulations, title 21, cream, any product or by-product of either, or any commodity among the principal constituents or ingredients of which is one or a combination of two or more of them, as determined by standards, grades, or rules adopted by the commissioner.
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Subd. 8. Fluid milk products.
"Fluid milk products" means yogurt, cream, sour cream, half and half, reconstituted half and half, concentrated milk, concentrated milk products, skim milk, nonfat milk, chocolate flavored milk, chocolate flavored dairy drink, chocolate flavored reconstituted milk, chocolate flavored reconstituted dairy drink, buttermilk, cultured buttermilk, cultured milk, vitamin D milk, reconstituted or recombined milk, reconstituted cream, reconstituted skim milk, homogenized milk, and any other fluid milk product made by the addition of any substance to milk or to any of the fluid milk products enumerated under this subdivision or by rule adopted by the commissioner.
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Subd. 9. Goat milk.
"Goat milk" means a whole, fresh, clean lacteal secretion free from colostrum, obtained by the complete milking of one or more healthy goats.
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Subd. 10. Milk.
"Milk" means the normal lacteal secretion, practically free of colostrum, obtained by the milking of one or more healthy hoofed mammals. Hoofed mammals include but are not limited to cattle, water buffalo, sheep, goats, yaks, and camels.
§
Subd. 11. Milk for manufacturing purposes.
"Milk for manufacturing purposes" means milk produced for processing and manufacturing into products for human consumption but not subject to Grade A or comparable requirements.
§
Subd. 12. Milk-receiving station.
"Milk-receiving station" means a dairy plant where raw milk for pasteurization or for manufacture is received, handled, or prepared for processing or for resale as unpasteurized milk or fluid milk products.
§
Subd. 12a. Milk marketer.
"Milk marketer" means any person who collects or procures milk from dairy producers in Minnesota or markets milk on behalf of Minnesota dairy producers. Milk marketer does not include:
(1) a person who only brokers a contract between a milk producer and a milk contractor but does not become a party to the contract, take control of the milk, or accept payment on behalf of the milk producer;
(2) a person who only buys or sells milk on a board of trade or commodity exchange;
(3) a person who collects milk solely from their own farm, for use in their own dairy plant; or
(4) a person who only sells milk direct to the end consumer, from their own farm.
§
Subd. 13. Minnesota farmstead cheese.
"Minnesota farmstead cheese" means cheese manufactured in Minnesota on the same farm that the milk used in its manufacturing is produced.
§
Subd. 14. Misbranded or misbranding.
"Misbranded" or "misbranding" means an item is covered by section
Minn. Stat. § 356.219
356.219 ;
(10) the relief association fails to obtain the acknowledgment from a broker of the statement of investment restrictions under section 356A.06, subdivision 8b ;
(11) the relief association officers permitted to occur a prohibited transaction under section 356A.06, subdivision 9 , or 424A.04, subdivision 2a , or failed to undertake correction of a prohibited transaction that did occur; or
(12) the relief association pays a defined benefit service pension in an amount that is in excess of the applicable maximum service pension amount under section 424A.02, subdivision 3.
History:
1971 c 261 s 1 ; 1977 c 429 s 63 ; 1979 c 201 s 1 ; 1980 c 509 s 19 ; 1982 c 460 s 6 ; 1983 c 289 s 114 subd 1; 1984 c 655 art 1 s 92 ; 1990 c 480 art 6 s 4 ; 1Sp2005 c 8 art 9 s 3 ; 2009 c 169 art 10 s 2
; 2013 c 111 art 5 s 80 ; art 6 s 1; 2018 c 211 art 14 s 21 ; 1Sp2019 c 6 art 22 s 24 ; 2021 c 22 art 10 s 35 ; 2022 c 65 art 4 s 16 ; 2024 c 102 art 2 s 31
Minn. Stat. § 356.64
356.64 REAL ESTATE INVESTMENTS.
(a) Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, any public pension plan whose assets are not invested by the State Board of Investment may invest its funds in Minnesota situs nonfarm real estate ownership interests or loans secured by mortgages or deeds of trust if the investment is consistent with section
Minn. Stat. § 357.022
357.022 , together with applicable law library fees established pursuant to law, from a plaintiff and from a defendant when the first paper for that party is filed in any conciliation court action. The rules promulgated by the supreme court shall provide for commencement of an action without payment of fees when a litigant who is a natural person claims an inability to pay the fees, provided that if the litigant prevails on a claim or counterclaim, the fees must be paid to the administrator out of any money recovered by the litigant.
§
Subd. 4. Representation.
(a) A corporation, partnership, limited liability company, sole proprietorship, or association may be represented in conciliation court by an officer, manager, or partner or an agent in the case of a condominium, cooperative, or townhouse association, or may appoint a natural person who is an employee or commercial property manager to appear on its behalf or settle a claim in conciliation court. The state or a political subdivision of the state may be represented in conciliation court by an employee of the pertinent governmental unit without a written authorization. The state also may be represented in conciliation court by an employee of the Division of Risk Management of the Department of Administration without a written authorization. Representation under this subdivision does not constitute the practice of law for purposes of section 481.02, subdivision 8 . In the case of an officer, employee, commercial property manager, or agent of a condominium, cooperative, or townhouse association, an authorized power of attorney, corporate authorization resolution, corporate bylaw, or other evidence of authority acceptable to the court must be filed with the claim or presented at the hearing. This subdivision also applies to appearances in district court by a corporation or limited liability company with five or fewer shareholders or members and to any condominium, cooperative, or townhouse association, if the action was removed from conciliation court.
(b) "Commercial property manager" means a corporation, partnership, or limited liability company or its employees who are hired by the owner of commercial real estate to perform a broad range of administrative duties at the property including tenant relations matters, leasing, repairs, maintenance, the negotiation and resolution of tenant disputes, and related matters. In order to appear in conciliation court, a property manager's employees must possess a real estate license under section
Minn. Stat. § 357.09
357.09 SHERIFFS.
§
Subdivision 1. Activities for which fees set.
Fees set under subdivision 8 shall be charged and collected by the sheriff for:
(1) serving a summons, warrant, writ, subpoena, or any process issued by a court of record, for each defendant served and mileage;
(2) taking and approving a bond, and for a certified copy;
(3) collection on execution after levy;
(4) posting three notices of sale;
(5) certificate of sale of real estate; a copy when requested;
(6) selling land on foreclosure of a mortgage, for all services required, including executing a certificate of sale; postponing such a sale;
(7) making diligent search and inquiry and returning a summons when defendants cannot be found;
(8) returning an execution unsatisfied when no service is made;
(9) receiving and paying over money paid on redemption of property and executing a certificate, to be collected from the person redeeming;
(10) securing and safely keeping property in replevin or attachment or on execution;
(11) for services not herein enumerated, if provided by the county board;
(12) for all process when no charge is made for service of a return of not found or unsatisfied.
§
Subd. 2. Mileage computation.
When mileage is allowed the sheriff it shall be computed from the place where the court is usually held.
§
Subd. 3. Necessary expenses.
The sheriff shall be allowed reasonable and necessary expenses actually paid out for food furnished any prisoner while conducting the prisoner to jail and for the prisoner's transportation by a common carrier.
§
Subd. 4. Service of execution.
The fees allowed for the service of an execution, for advertising thereon, and for filing certificate with the county recorder shall be collected by virtue thereof and in the same manner as the sum therein directed to be levied.
§
Subd. 5.
[Repealed, 1977 c 338 s 4 ]
§
Subd. 6. No affect fees.
This section shall not relate to or affect the fees of the sheriff of Ramsey County.
§
Subd. 7. Superseded special laws.
All special laws relating to sheriffs' fees and mileage allowance which are inconsistent with the provisions of Laws 1977, chapter 338, are superseded to the extent of the inconsistency.
§
Subd. 8. County board sets fees.
The county board shall set the sheriff's fees with the advice and consultation of the sheriff.
History:
( 6993 ) RL s 2697 ; 1913 c 197 s 1 ; 1917 c 363 s 1 ; 1951 c 375 s 1 ; 1959 c 689 s 1 ; 1963 c 240 s 1 ; 1971 c 537 s 1 ; 1976 c 181 s 2 ; 1977 c 338 s 1 -3,5,6; 1981 c 325 s 1 -3; 1981 c 356 s 248 ; 1982 c 595 s 3 ; 1984 c 558 art 4 s 10 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1989 c 176 s 1
Minn. Stat. § 357.182
357.182 COUNTY FEES AND RECORDING STANDARDS FOR RECORDING OF REAL ESTATE DOCUMENTS.
§
Subdivision 1. Application.
Unless otherwise specified in this section and notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, effective August 1, 2005, this section applies to each county in Minnesota. Documents presented for recording within 60 days after July 1, 2005, and that are acknowledged, sworn to before a notary, or certified before July 1, 2005, must not be rejected for failure to include the new filing fee.
§
Subd. 2. Fee restrictions.
Notwithstanding any local law or ordinance to the contrary, no county may charge or collect any fee, special or otherwise, or however described, other than a fee denominated or prescribed by state law, for any service, task, or step performed by any county officer or employee in connection with the receipt, recording, and return of any recordable instrument by the county recorder or registrar of titles, whether received by mail, in person, or by electronic delivery, including, but not limited to, opening mail; handling, transferring, or transporting the instrument; certifying no-delinquent property taxes; payment of state deed tax, mortgage registry tax, or conservation fee; recording of approved plats, subdivision splits, or combinations; or any other prerequisites to recording, and returning the instrument by regular mail or in person to the person identified in the instrument for that purpose.
§
Subd. 3. Recording requirements.
Each county recorder and registrar of titles shall, within 15 business days after any instrument in recordable form accompanied by payment of applicable fees by customary means is delivered to the county for recording or is otherwise received by the county recorder or registrar of titles for that purpose, record and index the instrument in the manner provided by law and return it by regular mail or in person to the person identified in the instrument for that purpose, if the instrument does not require certification of no-delinquent taxes, payment of state deed tax, mortgage registry tax, or conservation fee. Each county must establish a policy for the timely handling of instruments that require certification of no-delinquent taxes, payment of state deed tax, mortgage registry tax, or conservation fee and that policy may allow up to an additional five business days at the request of the office or offices responsible to complete the payment and certification process.
For calendar years 2009 and 2010, the maximum time allowed for completion of the recording process for documents presented in recordable form will be 15 business days.
For calendar year 2011 and thereafter, the maximum time allowed for completion of the recording process for documents presented in recordable form will be ten business days.
Instruments recorded electronically must be returned no later than five business days after receipt by the county in a recordable format.
§
Subd. 4. Compliance with recording requirements.
For calendar year 2007, a county is in compliance with the recording requirements prescribed by subdivision 3 if at least 60 percent of all recordable instruments described in subdivision 3 and received by the county in that year are recorded and returned within the time limits prescribed in subdivision 3. In calendar year 2008, at least 70 percent of all recordable instruments must be recorded and returned in compliance with the recording requirements; for calendar year 2009, at least 80 percent of all recordable instruments must be recorded and returned in compliance with the recording requirements; and for calendar year 2010 and later years, at least 90 percent of all recordable instruments must be recorded and returned in compliance with the recording requirements.
§
Subd. 5. Temporary suspension of compliance with recording requirements.
Compliance with the requirements of subdivision 4 may be suspended for up to six months when a county undertakes material enhancements to its systems for receipt, handling, paying of deed and mortgage tax and conservation fees, recording, indexing, certification, and return of instruments. The six-month suspension may be extended for up to an additional six months if a county board finds by resolution that the additional time is necessary because of the difficulties of implementing the enhancement.
§
Subd. 6. Certification of compliance with recording requirements.
Effective beginning in 2007 for the 2008 county budget and in each year thereafter, the county recorder and registrar of titles for each county shall file with the county commissioners, as part of their budget request, a report that establishes the status for the previous year of their compliance with the requirements established in subdivision 3. If the office has not achieved compliance with the recording requirements, the report must include an explanation of the failure to comply, recommendations by the recorder or registrar to cure the noncompliance and to prevent a recurrence, and a proposal identifying actions, deadlines, and funding necessary to bring the county into compliance.
§
Subd. 7. Restriction on use of recording fees.
Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, for county budgets adopted after January 1, 2006, each county shall segregate the additional unallocated fee authorized by sections
Minn. Stat. § 357.21
357.21 SERVICES UNDER LEGAL PROCESS; APPRAISERS.
Where no express provision is made for compensation, appraisers of property taken on writ of attachment or replevin, persons appointed under the legal process or order for making partition of real estate, sheriff's aids in criminal cases, and private persons performing like services required by law or in the execution of legal process are each entitled to $5 per day and ten cents per mile for going and returning.
Appraisers of estates of decedents and of persons under guardianship are each entitled to such reasonable fees for services as is allowed by the judge of the district court wherein the proceeding is pending.
History:
( 7005 ) RL s 2708 ; 1909 c 17 s 1 ; 1925 c 330 s 1 ; 1951 c 339 s 2 ; 1995 c 189 s 8 ; 1996 c 277 s 1
Minn. Stat. § 358.115
358.115 UNSWORN FOREIGN DECLARATIONS.
§
Subdivision 1. Definitions.
(a) For the purposes of this section, the terms defined in this subdivision have the meanings given them.
(b) "Boundaries of the United States" means the geographic boundaries of the United States, Puerto Rico, the United States Virgin Islands, and any territory or insular possession subject to the jurisdiction of the United States.
(c) "Law" includes the federal or a state constitution, a federal or state statute, a judicial decision or order, a rule of court, an executive order, and an administrative rule, regulation, or order.
(d) "Record" means information that is inscribed on a tangible medium or that is stored in an electronic or other medium and is retrievable in perceivable form.
(e) "Sign" means, with present intent to authenticate or adopt a record:
(1) to execute or adopt a tangible symbol; or
(2) to attach to or logically associate with the record an electronic symbol, sound, or process.
(f) "State" means a state of the United States, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, the United States Virgin Islands, or any territory or insular possession subject to the jurisdiction of the United States.
(g) "Sworn declaration" means a declaration in a signed record given under oath. The term includes a sworn statement, verification, certificate, and affidavit.
(h) "Unsworn declaration" means a declaration in a signed record that is not given under oath, but is given under penalty of perjury.
§
Subd. 2. Applicability.
This section applies to an unsworn declaration by a declarant who at the time of making the declaration is physically located outside the boundaries of the United States whether or not the location is subject to the jurisdiction of the United States. This section does not apply to a declaration by a declarant who is physically located on property that is within the boundaries of the United States and subject to the jurisdiction of another country or federally recognized Indian tribe.
§
Subd. 3. Validity of unsworn declaration.
(a) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (b), if a state law requires or permits use of a sworn declaration, an unsworn declaration meeting the requirements of this section has the same effect as a sworn declaration.
(b) This section does not apply to:
(1) a deposition;
(2) an oath of office;
(3) an oath required to be given before a specified official other than a notary public;
(4) a document intended for recording in the real estate records in the office of the county recorder or registrar of titles;
(5) an oath under section 524.2-504 ; or
(6) a power of attorney.
§
Subd. 4. Required medium.
If a state law requires that a sworn declaration be presented in a particular medium, an unsworn declaration must be presented in that medium.
§
Subd. 5. Form of unsworn declaration.
An unsworn declaration under this section must be in substantially the following form:
I declare under penalty of perjury under the law of Minnesota that the foregoing is true and correct, and that I am physically located outside the geographic boundaries of the United States, Puerto Rico, the United States Virgin Islands, and any territory or insular possession subject to the jurisdiction of the United States.
Executed on the ....... day of ................, ......., at
.
,
.
(date)
(month) (year)
(city or other location, and state)
.
(printed name)
.
(signature)
§
Subd. 6. Relation to electronic signatures in Global and National Commerce Act.
This section modifies, limits, and supersedes the federal Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act, United States Code, title 15, section 7001, et seq., but does not modify, limit, or supersede section 101(c) of that act, United States Code, title 15, section 7001(c), or authorize electronic delivery of any of the notices described in section 103(b) of that act, United States Code, title 15, section 7003(b).
§
Subd. 7. Citation.
This section may be cited as the "Uniform Unsworn Foreign Declarations Act."
History:
2010 c 295 s 1
Minn. Stat. § 360.013
360.013 DEFINITIONS.
§
Subdivision 1. Scope.
For the purposes of laws of this state relating to aeronautics, the following words, terms, and phrases shall have the meanings herein given unless otherwise specifically defined, or unless another intention clearly appears, or the context otherwise requires.
§
Subd. 2.
[Renumbered subd 31]
§
Subd. 3.
[Renumbered subd 37]
§
Subd. 4.
[Renumbered subds 44,54]
§
Subd. 5.
[Renumbered subd 39]
§
Subd. 6.
[Renumbered subd 57]
§
Subd. 7.
[Renumbered subds 46,47,58]
§
Subd. 8.
[Renumbered subd 53]
§
Subd. 9.
[Renumbered subd 34]
§
Subd. 10.
[Renumbered subd 52]
§
Subd. 11.
[Renumbered subd 45]
§
Subd. 12.
[Renumbered subd 38]
§
Subd. 13.
[Renumbered subd 35]
§
Subd. 14.
[Renumbered subd 59]
§
Subd. 15.
[Renumbered subd 51]
§
Subd. 16.
[Renumbered subd 33]
§
Subd. 17.
[Renumbered subd 36]
§
Subd. 18.
[Renumbered subd 48]
§
Subd. 19.
[Renumbered subd 32]
§
Subd. 20.
[Renumbered subd 50]
§
Subd. 21.
[Renumbered subd 49]
§
Subd. 22.
[Renumbered subd 40]
§
Subd. 23.
[Renumbered subd 56]
§
Subd. 24.
[Renumbered subd 42]
§
Subd. 25.
[Renumbered subd 60]
§
Subd. 26.
[Renumbered subd 61]
§
Subd. 27. Administrative agency.
"Administrative agency" means either a governing body of a municipality or an administrative agency under its jurisdiction to which any powers have been delegated by such governing body.
§
Subd. 28.
[Renumbered subd 41]
§
Subd. 29.
[Renumbered subd 55]
§
Subd. 30.
[Renumbered subd 43]
§
Subd. 31. Aeronautics.
"Aeronautics" means transportation by aircraft; the operation, construction, repair, or maintenance of aircraft, aircraft power plants, and accessories; the design, establishment, construction, extension, operation, improvement, repair, or maintenance of airports, restricted landing areas, or other air navigation facilities, and air instruction.
§
Subd. 32. Aeronautics instructor.
"Aeronautics instructor" means any individual engaged in giving instruction, or offering to give instruction, in aeronautics, either in flying or ground subjects, or both, for hire or reward, without advertising such occupation, without calling facilities an "air school," or anything equivalent thereto, and without employing or using other instructors. It does not include any instructor in any public school of this state, the University of Minnesota, or in any institution of higher learning accredited by the North Central Association of Colleges and Secondary Schools and approved for carrying on collegiate work, while engaged in duties as such instructor.
§
Subd. 33. Air instruction.
"Air instruction" means the imparting of aeronautical information by any aeronautics instructor or in or by any air school or flying club.
§
Subd. 34. Air navigation.
"Air navigation" means the operation or navigation of aircraft in the air space over this state, or upon any airport or restricted landing area within this state.
§
Subd. 35. Air navigation facility.
"Air navigation facility" means any facility other than one owned or controlled by the federal government, used in, available for use in, or designed for use in, aid of air navigation, including airports, restricted landing areas, and any structures, mechanisms, lights, beacons, marks, communicating systems, electronic device, or other instrumentalities or devices used or useful as an aid, or constituting an advantage or convenience, to the safe takeoff, navigation, and landing of aircraft, or the safe and efficient operation or maintenance of an airport or restricted landing area, and any combination of any or all of such facilities.
§
Subd. 36. Air school.
"Air school" means any person engaged in giving, or offering to give, instruction in aeronautics, either in flying or ground subjects, or both, for or without hire or reward, and advertising, representing, or holding out as giving or offering to give such instructions. It does not include any public school, the University of Minnesota, or any institution of higher learning accredited by the Higher Learning Commission and approved by it for carrying on collegiate work.
§
Subd. 37. Aircraft.
"Aircraft" means any contrivance now known or hereafter invented, used, or designed for navigation of or flight in the air, but excluding parachutes.
§
Subd. 38. Airman.
"Airman" means any individual who engages, as the person in command, or as pilot, mechanic, or member of the crew, in the navigation of aircraft while under way and (excepting individuals employed outside the United States, any individual employed by a manufacturer of aircraft, aircraft engines, propellers, or appliances to perform duties as inspector or mechanic in connection therewith, and any individual performing inspection or mechanical duties in connection with aircraft owned or operated by that individual) any individual who is directly in charge of the inspection, maintenance, overhauling, or repair of aircraft engines, propellers, or appliances; and any individual who serves in the capacity of aircraft dispatcher or air-traffic control tower operator.
§
Subd. 39. Airport.
"Airport" means any area of land or water, except a restricted landing area, which is designed for the landing and takeoff of aircraft, whether or not facilities are provided for the shelter, surfacing, or repair of aircraft, or for receiving or discharging passengers or cargo, and all appurtenant areas used or suitable for airport buildings or other airport facilities, and all appurtenant rights-of-way, whether heretofore or hereafter established. The operation and maintenance of airports is an essential public service.
§
Subd. 40. Airport hazard.
"Airport hazard" means any structure, object of natural growth, or use of land, which obstructs the air space required for the flight of aircraft in landing or taking off at any airport or restricted landing area or is otherwise hazardous to such landing or taking off.
§
Subd. 41. Airport hazard area.
"Airport hazard area" means any area of land or water upon which an airport hazard might be established if not prevented as provided in this chapter.
§
Subd. 42. Airport protection privileges.
"Airport protection privileges" means easements through or other interest in air space over land or water, interest in airport hazards outside the boundaries of airports or restricted landing areas, and other protection privileges, the acquisition or control of which is necessary to insure safe approaches to the landing areas of airports and restricted landing areas and the safe and efficient operation thereof.
§
Subd. 43. Airport purposes.
"Airport purposes" means and includes airport, restricted landing area, and other air navigation facility purposes.
§
Subd. 44. Civil aircraft.
"Civil aircraft" means any aircraft other than a public aircraft.
§
Subd. 45. Commercial operations.
"Commercial operations" means any operations of an aircraft for compensation or hire; or any services performed incidental to the operation of any aircraft for which a fee is charged or compensation received; including, but not limited to, the servicing, maintaining, and repairing of aircraft, the rental or charter of aircraft, the operation of flight or ground schools, the operation of aircraft for the application or distribution of chemicals or other substances, aerial photography and surveys, air shows or expositions, and the operation of aircraft for fishing. "Commercial operations" also means brokering or selling of any of the aforesaid services but do not include any operations of aircraft as common carriers certificated (certified) by the federal government or the services incidental thereto.
§
Subd. 46. Commissioner.
"Commissioner" means the commissioner of transportation of the state of Minnesota.
§
Subd. 46a. Comprehensive plan.
"Comprehensive plan" has the meaning given in section 394.22, subdivision 9 , or 462.352, subdivision 5 .
§
Subd. 47. Department.
"Department" means the Minnesota Department of Transportation.
§
Subd. 48. Flying club.
"Flying club" means any person other than an individual, which, neither for profit nor reward, owns, leases, or uses one or more aircraft for the purpose of instruction or pleasure, or both.
§
Subd. 49. Governing body.
"Governing body" means the council, board of trustees, board of commissioners, board of supervisors, or other body, board, commission, or other authority charged with governing any municipality, and in municipalities in which the board of park commissioners or other body in charge of the park system of the municipality controls airports owned by the municipality includes such board or other body.
§
Subd. 50. Municipality.
"Municipality" means a city of any class, including a city organized under a charter framed pursuant to the Constitution of the state of Minnesota, article IV, section 36, article XI, section 4, or article XII, section 5, a county, a town, or a statutory city in this state, the regents of the University of Minnesota, and any other political subdivision, public corporation, authority, or district in this state which is or may be authorized by law to acquire, establish, construct, maintain, improve, and operate airports and other air navigation facilities.
§
Subd. 51. Navigable air space.
"Navigable air space" means air space above the minimum altitudes of flight prescribed by the laws of this state or by rules of the commissioner consistent therewith.
§
Subd. 52. Operation of aircraft; operate aircraft.
"Operation of aircraft" or "operate aircraft" means the use of aircraft for the purpose of air navigation and includes the navigation or piloting of aircraft. Any person who causes or authorizes the operation of aircraft, whether with or without the right of legal control (in the capacity of owner, lessee, or otherwise) of the aircraft, shall be deemed to be engaged in the operation of aircraft within the meaning of the statutes of this state.
§
Subd. 53. Person.
"Person" means any individual, firm, partnership, corporation, company, association, joint stock association, or body politic; and includes any trustee, receiver, assignee, or other similar representative thereof.
§
Subd. 54. Public aircraft.
"Public aircraft" means an aircraft used exclusively in the service of any government or of any political subdivision thereof, including the government of any state, territory or possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, but not including any government-owned aircraft engaged in carrying persons or property for commercial purposes.
§
Subd. 55. Public utility class.
When used in this chapter with reference to an airport, the term "public utility class" means available to the general public for private flying or otherwise as a point of arrival or departure by air.
§
Subd. 56. Publicly owned.
An airport, restricted landing area, or other air navigation facility is "publicly owned" if owned by the state or a municipality.
§
Subd. 57. Restricted landing area.
"Restricted landing area" means any area of land, water, or both, which is used or is made available for the landing and takeoff of aircraft, the use of which shall, except in case of emergency, be only as provided from time to time by the commissioner.
§
Subd. 57a. Small unmanned aircraft.
"Small unmanned aircraft" means an aircraft, as defined in subdivision 37, that weighs less than 55 pounds and is operated without the possibility of human intervention from within or on the aircraft.
§
Subd. 57b. Small unmanned aircraft system.
"Small unmanned aircraft system" means a small unmanned aircraft and all of its associated elements, including components and communication links, that are required to control and operate the aircraft.
§
Subd. 57c. Roadable aircraft.
"Roadable aircraft" has the meaning given in section 169.011, subdivision 67a .
§
Subd. 58. State or this state.
"State" or "this state" means the state of Minnesota.
§
Subd. 59.
MS 2012 [Repealed, 2014 c 227 art 1 s 23 ]
§
Subd. 60. Structure.
"Structure" means any object constructed or installed, including, but without limitation, buildings, towers, smokestacks, and overhead transmission lines.
§
Subd. 61. Tree.
"Tree" means any object of natural growth.
History:
1943 c 653 s 1 ; 1945 c 303 s 1 ; 1947 c 363 s 1 ; 1953 c 738 s 1 ,2; 1973 c 123 art 5 s 7 ; 1974 c 193 s 1 -3; 1976 c 166 s 7 ; 1980 c 488 s 1 -3; 1985 c 248 s 70 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1991 c 350 art 1 s 20 ; 1997 c 7 art 4 s 1 ; 2006 c 261 s 1 ; 2007 c 138 s 13 ; 1Sp2019 c 3 art 3 s 89 ; 1Sp2021 c 5 art 4 s 109 ,110; 2023 c 25 s 171 ; 2024 c 104 art 1 s 97 ; 2025 c 20 s 258
Minn. Stat. § 363A.02
363A.02 PUBLIC POLICY.
§
Subdivision 1. Freedom from discrimination.
(a) It is the public policy of this state to secure for persons in this state, freedom from discrimination:
(1) in employment because of one or more of the following: race, color, creed, religion, national origin, sex, gender identity, marital status, disability, status with regard to public assistance, sexual orientation, familial status, and age;
(2) in housing and real property because of one or more of the following: race, color, creed, religion, national origin, sex, gender identity, marital status, disability, status with regard to public assistance, sexual orientation, and familial status;
(3) in public accommodations because of one or more of the following: race, color, creed, religion, national origin, sex, gender identity, sexual orientation, and disability;
(4) in public services because of one or more of the following: race, color, creed, religion, national origin, sex, gender identity, marital status, disability, sexual orientation, and status with regard to public assistance; and
(5) in education because of one or more of the following: race, color, creed, religion, national origin, sex, gender identity, marital status, disability, status with regard to public assistance, sexual orientation, and age.
(b) Such discrimination threatens the rights and privileges of the inhabitants of this state and menaces the institutions and foundations of democracy. It is also the public policy of this state to protect all persons from wholly unfounded charges of discrimination. Nothing in this chapter shall be interpreted as restricting the implementation of positive action programs to combat discrimination.
§
Subd. 2. Civil right.
The opportunity to obtain employment, housing, and other real estate, and full and equal utilization of public accommodations, public services, and educational institutions without such discrimination as is prohibited by this chapter is hereby recognized as and declared to be a civil right.
§
Subd. 3. Severability.
If any provision of Laws 1967, chapter 897, or the application thereof to any person or circumstances is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect the other provisions or applications of Laws 1967, chapter 897, which can be given effect without the invalid provision or application, and to this end the provisions of Laws 1967, chapter 897, are severable.
History:
1955 c 516 s 1 ; 1961 c 428 s 16 ; 1967 c 897 s 26 ; 1969 c 975 s 15 ,16; 1973 c 729 s 14 ,15; 1977 c 351 s 11 ; 1980 c 531 s 8 ; 1993 c 22 s 19 ; 1Sp2021 c 11 art 3 s 12 ; 2023 c 52 art 19 s 45 ; 2024 c 105 s 1
Minn. Stat. § 363A.15
363A.15 REPRISALS.
It is an unfair discriminatory practice for any individual who participated in the alleged discrimination as a perpetrator, employer, labor organization, employment agency, public accommodation, public service, educational institution, or owner, lessor, lessee, sublessee, assignee or managing agent of any real property, or any real estate broker, real estate salesperson, or employee or agent thereof to intentionally engage in any reprisal against any person because that person:
(1) opposed a practice forbidden under this chapter or has filed a charge, testified, assisted, or participated in any manner in an investigation, proceeding, or hearing under this chapter; or
(2) associated with a person or group of persons who are disabled or who are of different race, color, creed, religion, gender identity, sexual orientation, or national origin.
A reprisal includes, but is not limited to, any form of intimidation, retaliation, or harassment. It is a reprisal for an employer to do any of the following with respect to an individual because that individual has engaged in the activities listed in clause (1) or (2): refuse to hire the individual; depart from any customary employment practice; transfer or assign the individual to a lesser position in terms of wages, hours, job classification, job security, or other employment status; or inform another employer that the individual has engaged in the activities listed in clause (1) or (2).
History:
1955 c 516 s 5 ; 1961 c 428 s 5 ; 1965 c 585 s 2 ; 1965 c 586 s 1 ; 1967 c 897 s 12 -16; 1969 c 9 s 80 ; 1969 c 975 s 3 -5; 1973 c 296 s 1 ; 1973 c 729 s 3 ,16; 1974 c 354 s 1 ; 1975 c 206 s 2 -5; 1977 c 351 s 5 -7; 1977 c 408 s 3 ; 1980 c 531 s 4 ; 1980 c 540 s 1 ,2; 1981 c 330 s 1 ; 1982 c 517 s 8 ; 1983 c 216 art 1 s 59 ; 1983 c 276 s 7 -10; 1984 c 533 s 2 ,3; 1985 c 248 s 70 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1987 c 23 s 3 ; 1987 c 129 s 3 ; 1987 c 141 s 2 ; 1987 c 245 s 1 ; 1988 c 660 s 4 ; 1989 c 280 s 9 -14,21; 1990 c 567 s 3 -6; 1992 c 527 s 12 -16; 1993 c 22 s 8 -15; 1993 c 277 s 5 -7; 1994 c 630 art 12 s 1 ; 1995 c 212 art 2 s 10 ; 1997 c 171 s 1 ; 2001 c 186 s 1 ; 2001 c 194 s 2 ; 2023 c 52 art 19 s 68
Minn. Stat. § 365.05
365.05 DEED OF TOWN LAND; FORMALITIES; INTEREST GIVEN.
A deed conveying real estate owned by a town must be signed by the chair of the town board in an official capacity and attested by the clerk. The deed, witnessed and acknowledged, must give the grantee all of the town's interest in the real estate.
History:
( 1007 ) RL s 626 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1987 c 229 art 8 s 1
Minn. Stat. § 365.27
365.27 SALE AND REVERSION OF LOTS; USE OF FUNDS.
§
Subdivision 1. For allowed burials only.
A town's board may sell a lot in its cemetery for burial of only those permitted by the board to be buried there. The lots must be conveyed as other real estate is conveyed.
§
Subd. 2. Money to cemetery fund.
Money from the sale of town cemetery lots must be paid into the town treasury. The money makes up a fund to be used only to keep up, improve, and ornament the cemetery.
§
Subd. 3. Reversion.
If a lot is sold but not used, ownership reverts to the town 40 years after the sale or 40 years after the most recent recording with the county recorder of a notice of the kind described in section
Minn. Stat. § 366.015
366.015 VOTE REQUIRED ON WEED DESTRUCTION.
§
Subdivision 1. Ballot, contents.
The town board at the annual town meeting may submit to a vote by ballot the following question: "Shall persons who own or occupy real estate that adjoins a town road and is not a part of an incorporated municipality be required to remove rocks larger than five inches in diameter from and to cut, destroy or remove all weeds, grass and other plants up to three inches in diameter that grow upon the town road adjacent to their land?
Yes
.
No
.
"
§
Subd. 2. Cost, lien on land.
If a majority of the electors voting on the question vote "Yes," a person who owns or occupies real estate that adjoins a town road and is not a part of an incorporated municipality shall cut, destroy, or remove the material described on the ballot located upon the town road adjacent to the owner's land. A person who erects or maintains a mailbox on land not owned by the person shall cut, destroy, or remove the material within five feet of the mailbox. If a person fails to comply with this provision, the town board of the town in which the real estate is located may, after ten days' notice in writing, order the local weed inspector or other person to cut, destroy, or remove the weeds or grass. The expense incurred shall be a lien on the real estate. The town board shall certify to the county auditor an itemized statement of the amount of the expense paid by the town. The county auditor shall enter the amount on the tax books as a tax upon the land, which shall be collected in the same manner as other real estate taxes.
History:
1941 c 246 s 1 ; 1955 c 141 s 1 ; 1984 c 562 s 25 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1989 c 197 art 7 s 1
Minn. Stat. § 366.016
366.016 VOTE REQUIRED ON SNOW AND ICE REMOVAL.
§
Subdivision 1. Ballot; content.
The town board at the annual town election may submit to a vote by ballot the following question: "Shall persons who own or occupy real estate that adjoins a town road and is not a part of an incorporated municipality be required to remove snow or ice, or both, that has been caused to be deposited by the property owner or occupant upon the town road right-of-way adjacent to their land?
Yes
.
No
.
"
§
Subd. 2. Cost; lien on land.
If a majority of the electors voting on the question vote "Yes," a person who owns or occupies real estate that adjoins a town road and is not a part of an incorporated municipality shall remove the material described on the ballot located upon the town road right-of-way adjacent to the owner's land. If a person fails to comply with this provision, the town board of the town in which the real estate is located may, after ten days' mailed notice, accompanied by an affidavit of service, cause the removal of snow or ice, or both. The expense of the removal shall be a lien on the real estate. The town board shall certify to the county auditor an itemized statement of the amount of the expense incurred by the town. The county auditor shall enter the amount on the tax books a tax upon the land, which shall be collected in the same manner as other real estate taxes.
History:
1997 c 170 s 1
Minn. Stat. § 368.47
368.47 TOWNS MAY BE DISSOLVED.
(1) When the voters residing within a town have failed to elect any town officials for more than ten years continuously;
(2) when a town has failed for a period of ten years to exercise any of the powers and functions of a town;
(3) when the estimated market value of a town drops to less than $165,000;
(4) when the tax delinquency of a town, exclusive of taxes that are delinquent or unpaid because they are contested in proceedings for the enforcement of taxes, amounts to 12 percent of its market value; or
(5) when the state or federal government has acquired title to 50 percent of the real estate of a town,
which facts, or any of them, may be found and determined by the resolution of the county board of the county in which the town is located, according to the official records in the office of the county auditor, the county board by resolution may declare the town, naming it, dissolved and no longer entitled to exercise any of the powers or functions of a town.
In Cass, Itasca, and St. Louis Counties, before the dissolution is effective the voters of the town shall express their approval or disapproval. The town clerk shall, upon a petition signed by a majority of the registered voters of the town, filed with the clerk at least 84 days before a regular or special town election, give notice at the same time and in the same manner of the election that the question of dissolution of the town will be submitted for determination at the election. The form of the question under this chapter shall be substantially in the following form: "Shall the town of ... be dissolved?" The result of the voting canvassed, certified, and returned in the same manner and at the same time as other facts and returns of the election. If a majority of the votes cast at the election are for dissolution, the town shall be dissolved. If a majority of the votes cast at the election are against dissolution, the town shall not be dissolved.
When a town is dissolved under sections
Minn. Stat. § 370.18
370.18 RECORDS TRANSCRIBED.
All records in the office of the county recorder affecting real estate transferred under this chapter from one county to another shall be transcribed by the county recorder of the county to which the transfer is made. In the same manner, the county auditor shall transcribe from the auditor's office the records and documents that the county board directs. The board of commissioners of the county to which the records are transmitted shall pay the county recorder and the county auditor for transcribing the records. These transcribed records shall have the same effect, for all purposes, as the originals.
History:
( 617 ) RL s 390 ; 1907 c 136 s 1 ; 1976 c 181 s 2 ; 1985 c 109 s 1
Minn. Stat. § 373.01
373.01 POWERS.
§
Subdivision 1. Public corporation; listed powers.
(a) Each county is a body politic and corporate and may:
(1) Sue and be sued.
(2) Acquire and hold real and personal property for the use of the county, and lands sold for taxes as provided by law.
(3) Purchase and hold for the benefit of the county real estate sold by virtue of judicial proceedings, to which the county is a party.
(4) Sell, lease, and convey real or personal estate owned by the county, and give contracts or options to sell, lease, or convey it, and make orders respecting it as deemed conducive to the interests of the county's inhabitants.
(5) Make all contracts and do all other acts in relation to the property and concerns of the county necessary to the exercise of its corporate powers.
(b) No sale, lease, or conveyance of real estate owned by the county, except the lease of a residence acquired for the furtherance of an approved capital improvement project, nor any contract or option for it, shall be valid, without first advertising for bids or proposals in the official newspaper of the county and the county's website for three consecutive weeks, and once in a newspaper of general circulation in the area where the property is located. The notice shall state the time, place, and manner of considering and accepting proposals, contain a legal description of any real estate, and a brief description of any personal property. After publication in the official newspaper, county website, and relevant newspaper of general circulation, bids may be solicited and accepted by the online auction process authorized in section 471.345, subdivision 17 . Leases and proposals that do not exceed $15,000 for any one year may be negotiated and are not subject to the competitive bid procedures of this section. All proposals estimated to exceed $15,000 in any one year shall be considered at the time set for accepting proposals, and the one most favorable to the county accepted, but the county board may, in the interest of the county, reject any or all proposals.
(c) Sales of personal property the value of which is estimated to be $15,000 or more shall be made only after advertising for bids or proposals in the county's official newspaper, on the county's website, or in a recognized industry trade journal. At the same time it posts on its website or publishes in a trade journal, the county must publish in the official newspaper, either as part of the minutes of a regular meeting of the county board or in a separate notice, a summary of all requests for bids or proposals that the county advertises on its website or in a trade journal. After publication in the official newspaper, on the website, or in a trade journal, bids or proposals may be solicited and accepted by the electronic selling process authorized in section 471.345, subdivision 17 . Sales of personal property the value of which is estimated to be less than $15,000 may be made either on competitive bids or in the open market, in the discretion of the county board. "Website" means a specific, addressable location provided on a server connected to the Internet and hosting World Wide Web pages and other files that are generally accessible on the Internet all or most of a day.
(d) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary herein, the county may, when acquiring real property for county highway right-of-way, exchange parcels of real property of substantially similar or equal value without advertising for bids. The estimated values for these parcels shall be determined by the county assessor.
(e) Notwithstanding anything in this section to the contrary, the county may, when acquiring real property for purposes other than county highway right-of-way, exchange parcels of real property of substantially similar or equal value without advertising for bids. The estimated values for these parcels must be determined by the county assessor or a private appraisal performed by a licensed Minnesota real estate appraiser. For the purpose of determining for the county the estimated values of parcels proposed to be exchanged, the county assessor need not be licensed under chapter 82B. Before giving final approval to any exchange of land, the county board shall hold a public hearing on the exchange. At least two weeks before the hearing, the county auditor shall post a notice in the auditor's office and the official newspaper of the county of the hearing that contains a description of the lands affected.
(f) If real estate or personal property remains unsold after advertising for and consideration of bids or proposals the county may employ a broker to sell the property. The broker may sell the property for not less than 90 percent of its appraised market value as determined by the county. The broker's fee shall be set by agreement with the county but may not exceed ten percent of the sale price and must be paid from the proceeds of the sale.
(g) A county or its agent may rent a county-owned residence acquired for the furtherance of an approved capital improvement project subject to the conditions set by the county board and not subject to the conditions for lease otherwise provided by paragraph (a), clause (4), and paragraphs (b), (c), (d), (f), and (h).
(h) In no case shall lands be disposed of without there being reserved to the county all iron ore and other valuable minerals in and upon the lands, with right to explore for, mine and remove the iron ore and other valuable minerals, nor shall the minerals and mineral rights be disposed of, either before or after disposition of the surface rights, otherwise than by mining lease, in similar general form to that provided by section
Minn. Stat. § 375.164
375.164 , or any other contrary law, the county board of any county owning, operating or maintaining a translator system on April 14, 1976, may singly or jointly with contiguous counties appropriate from the general revenue fund an amount necessary to fund the construction, acquisition, improvement, maintenance and operations of a translator system either in or outside of the county to receive and transmit television broadcasting signals. The county may singly or jointly with contiguous counties acquire, by gift, lease or purchase, any real estate or interest in real estate upon the terms or conditions, including contracts for fees, it determines, either in or outside of the county, to establish, improve or operate a television translator system. No real estate located in another county may be acquired unless the county board of the county where the real estate is located approves the proposed acquisition. The county may issue bonds in accordance with chapter 475, for the acquisition, construction or improvement of television translator systems and the acquisition of real estate for them.
History:
1976 c 249 s 17 ; 1984 c 629 s 2
Minn. Stat. § 375.19
375.19 , Ramsey County may make annual expenditures from its general revenue fund for soil and water conservation purposes in an amount to be determined by the county board.
§
Subd. 19. White Bear and Goose Lakes.
White Bear Lake, in the counties of Ramsey and Washington and Goose Lake, in the county of Ramsey, adjacent to White Bear Lake, are declared to be public waters of the state of Minnesota, and shall forever remain free and open for the common and public use of all citizens of this state.
The waters of these lakes shall never be lowered or diminished by any artificial means, nor shall they or any of them ever be connected with, used, or applied to a use or purpose, public or private, by a person, persons, or corporation public or private.
§
Subd. 20.
MS 1990 [Repealed, 1991 c 51 s 6 ]
§
Subd. 21.
MS 1994 [Repealed, 1996 c 310 s 1 ]
§
Subd. 22.
MS 1994 [Repealed, 1996 c 310 s 1 ]
§
Subd. 23. Additional bonding authorization.
In addition to and not in substitution for any other powers granted to Ramsey County by the above paragraph, Ramsey County may issue in one or more series general obligation bonds of the county in a total aggregate amount not to exceed $750,000 for the acquisition, construction and equipping of the recreation facilities authorized to be acquired, constructed and equipped under subdivisions 21 to 28. This additional sum shall be spent to buy the golf course, and a balance remaining thereafter of the additional sum may be used to construct and equip the artificial ice arenas. The county shall pledge its full faith and credit and taxing powers for the payment of the bonds and shall provide for the issuance and sale and for the security of the bonds in the manner provided in chapter 475, except that no election shall be required and the bonds shall not be included in computing the net debt of the county under any law or amount.
§
Subd. 24. Further additional bonding.
In addition to and not in substitution for any other powers granted to the county of Ramsey by laws heretofore enacted, the county of Ramsey may issue in one or more series general obligation bonds of the county in a total aggregate amount not to exceed $715,000, for the acquisition, construction and equipping of any and all of the recreation facilities authorized to be acquired, constructed and equipped under subdivisions 21 to 28. This additional sum shall be used to construct and equip the artificial ice arenas. The board shall pledge its full faith and credit and taxing powers for the payment of such bonds and shall provide for the issuance and sale and for the security of such bonds in the manner provided in chapter 475, except that no election shall be required and such bonds shall not be included in computing the net debt of the county under any law; and taxes required to be levied for the payment of such bonds shall not be subject to any limitation of rate or amount.
§
Subd. 25.
MS 1994 [Repealed, 1996 c 310 s 1 ]
§
Subd. 26. Operation.
Ramsey County shall prescribe rules and regulations relating to the use, operation, maintenance and control of the arena facilities and golf course. It shall prescribe fees for the use of the facilities and charges for services performed in connection therewith which shall be reasonable and proper. It shall extend the use of the facilities free of charge to teams and groups that it authorizes and sanctions. Ramsey County shall maintain and operate the arenas and golf course in the manner that will best provide for the equitable and fair use of the facilities by the public, schools and other agencies of the county.
§
Subd. 27. Employees.
Ramsey County may employ the employees that in its opinion are necessary and proper to the efficient and effective functioning of the arenas and golf course and activities. These employees are subject to the laws relating to the civil service of the county and their compensation is in accordance with the rules provided for the civil service of the county.
§
Subd. 28. Special fund.
Any income accruing to the county from the operation of the ice arenas and golf course shall be placed in the county treasury and credited to a special fund known as the public ice arena-golf course account.
§
Subd. 29. Aldrich Arena.
Ramsey County may acquire in the name of the county by purchase, lease or condemnation a site for the purpose of erecting thereon a recreational building.
The county may allocate to this purpose any real estate which it presently controls and which is not needed or necessary for other county purposes.
Ramsey County may construct, equip, operate and maintain a building suitable for use as a sports and recreational arena providing for the facilities necessary in its opinion to accommodate the public and educational interest in sports and recreation.
The county shall prescribe rules and regulations relating to the use, operation, maintenance and control of the arena facility erected by the county pursuant to this subdivision. It shall prescribe fees for the use of the facilities and charges for services performed in connection therewith which shall be reasonable and proper. The county shall maintain and operate the arena facility in the manner that will best provide for the equitable and fair use of the facilities by the public, school districts and other agencies of the county.
Income accruing to the county from the operation of the arena facility shall be placed in the county treasury, and credited to a special fund known as the recreation arena account.
The recreation arena erected, operated and maintained under the provisions of this subdivision shall be known as the Aldrich recreation arena; and a suitable plaque shall be placed at a conspicuous place within the building commemorating the services and devotion to public duty displayed by Mr. Eugene E. Aldrich while serving as director of athletics for the Saint Paul public high schools for the people of Ramsey County.
History:
1974 c 435 s 1 .0205; 1977 c 425 s 1
Minn. Stat. § 379.01
379.01 ORGANIZATION.
§
Subdivision 1. Manner; petition; name.
When a majority of the registered voters of any congressional township containing not less than 25 legal voters petition the county board to be organized as a town such board shall forthwith call an election on the question. If a majority of the vote in the township is in favor of organization, the county board shall proceed to fix and determine the boundaries of such new town and name the same and make and file with the auditor a full report of its proceedings in relation to the establishment thereof. Towns thus formed shall be named in accordance with the expressed wish of a majority of its voters. If they fail to request a name, the board shall select one.
§
Subd. 2. Petition by freeholders.
When a majority of the resident freeholders of any one, two, three, four, or five congressional townships containing in the aggregate not less than 25 freeholders who are legal voters petition the county board to be organized as a town such board shall forthwith call an election on the question. If a majority of the vote in the townships is in favor of organization, the county board shall proceed to fix and determine the boundaries of such new town and name the same and make and file with the county auditor a full report of its proceedings in relation to the establishment thereof. For the purposes of this section, the word "freeholders" shall be construed to include any person who is a legal voter in any such town occupying real estate therein under the homestead or preemption laws of the United States or under contract of purchase from any person or corporation or from the state of Minnesota.
§
Subd. 3. Organizational meeting.
If the result of an election held under this section is in the affirmative, the county shall arrange for the holding of the first organizational meeting not more than 30 days after the election in the township to be organized.
§
Subd. 4. Conduct of election; costs.
The county auditor shall have the ballots printed for an election under this section and shall otherwise make preparation for the election including having a notice published in the official newspaper of the county once a week for two successive weeks stating the date of the election and the question to be voted on. The last publication shall be no later than ten days before the election. The cost of the election shall be borne by the county.
History:
( 787 , 788 ) RL s 451 ; 1905 c 143 s 1 ; 1931 c 19 ; 1987 c 147 s 3
Minn. Stat. § 383B.917
383B.917 .
§
Subd. 19. Real Estate Appraisal Advisory Board.
Certain meetings of the Real Estate Appraisal Advisory Board are governed by section 82B.073, subdivision 5 .
History:
2012 c 290 s 64 ; 2013 c 9 s 2 ; 2013 c 108 art 1 s 67 ; 2018 c 173 s 1
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Minnesota Office of the Revisor of Statutes, Centennial Office Building,
3rd Floor, 658 Cedar Street, St. Paul, MN 55155
Minn. Stat. § 383C.234
383C.234 REMOVAL OF SNOW.
§
Subdivision 1. Authority.
The St. Louis County Board may by resolution provide for removal of snow from roadways as provided in this section, and upon conditions and terms and under restrictions as the board may deem proper.
§
Subd. 2. Application.
Any person desiring to have snow removed from the person's roadway during the ensuing winter shall on or before August 31 of each year, file a petition in form approved by the county board with the board, providing among other things for the payment of the expense by the person, requesting it to render the service. The county board shall forthwith submit the petition to the county engineer who shall inspect the roadway to determine whether or not it would be advisable to permit snow removal equipment to work on it. The determination of the county engineer as to advisability shall be final and not subject to review. The engineer shall file a report with the county board approving or rejecting the petition, on or before October 31 each year.
§
Subd. 3. File of petitioners.
The board shall, if the report of the engineer is favorable to the removal of snow from the roadway, place the name and address of the petitioners on file and shall forthwith notify each petitioner of the report.
§
Subd. 4. Equipment not to be used until public highways are cleared.
No snow removal equipment shall be used for the purposes of this section unless and until snow is removed from all roads and highways which the county is charged by law with keeping clear.
§
Subd. 5. Regulation.
The manner and number of times which machinery shall be used on the roadways shall be determined by the county board, and no person shall have the right to compel the removal of snow from any roadway as described in this section.
§
Subd. 6. Expenses.
The amount of the expenses shall constitute and be a lien in favor of the county against the land involved, and, unless paid by July first following, shall be certified by the county engineer to the county auditor, and the auditor shall enter them upon the tax books, as an assessment, upon the land. They shall be collected in the same manner that other real estate taxes are collected. The amount of the expenses, when collected, shall be used to reimburse the county for its expenditure.
History:
1988 c 491 s 16
Minn. Stat. § 386.375
386.375 TRANSFER AND STORAGE OF ABSTRACTS.
§
Subdivision 1. Responsibility to transfer.
(a) A person holding an abstract of title to real estate located in Minnesota shall, at a closing of a sale of the property to which the abstract pertains, make a written offer to transfer the abstract of title to the mortgagor or fee owner at no charge to the mortgagor or fee owner. If the offer is accepted, the abstract must be transferred at the closing unless the abstract of title is being held after the closing for issuance of a final title opinion or policy of title insurance in which case the holder has a reasonable period of time to transfer the abstract.
(b) A person holding an abstract of title to real estate located in Minnesota shall, within ten days of receipt of a written request from the mortgagor or fee owner of the property to which the abstract pertains, transfer the abstract of title to the mortgagor or fee owner at no charge, other than postage, to the mortgagor or fee owner. If the abstract of title is being held after a closing for issuance of a final title opinion or policy of title insurance, the holder has a reasonable period of time to transfer the abstract.
(c) If a person holding an abstract of title to real estate located in Minnesota fails to comply with the requirements of this subdivision, the mortgagor or fee owner of the property may have an abstract of title made at the expense of the last known person holding the abstract of title, and is also entitled to collect actual civil damages of up to $500 from the person last known to hold the abstract of title.
§
Subd. 2. Storage of abstracts.
Before a person holding an abstract of title to real estate located in Minnesota may impose a charge or fee to store the abstract, the person shall first make a written offer to the mortgagor or fee owner to transfer the abstract at no charge, other than postage, to the fee owner or mortgagor. This subdivision does not apply to a person who holds an abstract pursuant to a written contract with the fee owner or mortgagor. A person violating this subdivision is subject to a penalty of $200 for each violation.
§
Subd. 3. Consumer education information.
(a) A person other than the mortgagor or fee owner who transfers or offers to transfer an abstract of title shall present to the mortgagor or fee owner basic information in plain English about abstracts of title. This information must be sent in a form prepared and approved by the commissioner of commerce and must contain at least the following items:
(1) a definition and description of abstracts of title;
(2) an explanation that holders of abstracts of title must maintain it with reasonable care;
(3) an approximate cost or range of costs to replace a lost or damaged abstract of title;
(4) an explanation that abstracts of title may be required to sell, finance, or refinance real estate; and
(5) an explanation of options for storage of abstracts.
(b) The commissioner shall prepare the form for use under this subdivision as soon as possible. This subdivision does not apply until 60 days after the form is approved by the commissioner.
(c) A person violating this subdivision is subject to a penalty of $200 for each violation.
§
Subd. 4. Storage in Minnesota.
After August 1, 1987, abstracts of title to real estate located in Minnesota must be stored within the state of Minnesota. Failure to comply with this subdivision entitles a mortgagor or fee owner to civil damages of up to $500.
§
Subd. 5. Exceptions.
This section does not apply if the person holding the abstract of title is the mortgagor or fee owner of the real estate to which the abstract pertains.
§
Subd. 6.
MS 1994 [Repealed, 1996 c 310 s 1 ]
History:
1984 c 566 s 6 ; 1986 c 358 s 16 ; 1987 c 329 s 21 ; 1987 c 336 s 43
Minn. Stat. § 386.39
386.39 INSTRUMENTS NOT PROPERLY EXECUTED.
Except where otherwise expressly provided by law, no county recorder shall record any conveyance, mortgage, or other instrument by which any interest in real estate may be in any way affected, unless the same is duly signed, executed and acknowledged according to law; any such officer offending herein shall be guilty of a misdemeanor and liable in damages to the party injured in a civil action.
History:
( 902 ) RL s 543 ; 1976 c 181 s 2
Minn. Stat. § 386.45
386.45 BANKRUPTCY DOCUMENTS MAY BE RECORDED, USED AS EVIDENCE.
(a) When a petition for bankruptcy, or a decree of adjudication, or an order approving the trustee's bond is made, pursuant to the Federal Bankruptcy Act of 1898, as amended by the Bankruptcy Act of 1938, chapter 575, Statutes at Large, volume 52, page 840, section 21 g, or a petition is made pursuant to the Bankruptcy Reform Act of 1978, hereinafter referred to as the "Bankruptcy Code," the bankrupt, debtor, trustee, receiver, custodian, referee, or any creditor may record a certified copy of the petition, decree, order, or a certificate of a clerk of the United States Bankruptcy Court relating to any matter involving the status of or disposition of the proceedings or pleadings, property of the estate or property of the debtor or documents or orders recorded in the proceeding, all pursuant to the Bankruptcy Code, in the office of the county recorder the instruments in the office of the registrar of titles of any county in this state.
(b) Any certificate so recorded, or a certified copy thereof, is admissible as evidence in any action involving any instrument to which it relates or involving the title to the real estate affected by the certificate and is prima facie evidence of the facts stated therein.
History:
( 887-1 ) 1939 c 117 ; 1976 c 181 s 2 ; 1981 c 2 s 1 ; 2005 c 4 s 89
Minn. Stat. § 386.69
386.69 LICENSES.
Licenses issued by the commissioner under the provisions hereof shall recite that such bond or insurance policy has been duly filed and approved, and the license shall authorize the official, person, firm or corporation named in it to engage in and carry on the business of an abstracter of real estate titles in the state of Minnesota. The license shall be issued for a period as determined by the commissioner, and shall thereafter be renewed upon conditions prescribed by the commissioner.
History:
1957 c 871 s 7 ; 1976 c 222 s 198 ; 1993 c 369 s 133 ; 1995 c 68 s 13
Minn. Stat. § 398.09
398.09 SPECIFIC POWERS.
Park district boards in addition to the foregoing general powers shall have these specific powers:
(a) The power to regulate by ordinance the use of the waters of any lake lying wholly within a park established under this chapter and the use of any lake shore which is within a park established under this chapter and the waterfront immediately abutting such lake shore for not to exceed 300 feet therefrom, by all persons, including persons boating, swimming, fishing, skating, or otherwise, in, upon, or about said lake, lake shore, and abutting waterfront, subject to regulation by the state of Minnesota.
(b) The power to acquire lands either within or without the park district for conversion into forest reserves and for the conservation of the natural resources of the state, including streams, lakes, submerged lands and swamplands, and to these ends may create parks, parkways, forest reservations and other reservations and afforest, develop, improve, protect and promote the use of the same in such manner as is conducive to the general welfare. These lands may be acquired by the board, on behalf of the district, by gift or devise, by purchase or by condemnation. In furtherance of the use and enjoyment of the lands controlled by it, the board may accept donations of money or other property, or may act as trustee of land, money or other property and use and administer the same as stipulated by the donor, or as provided in the trust agreement. The terms of each trust shall first be approved by the district court before acceptance by the board. If the park district includes all or part of more than one court district, approval shall be by the district court of the court district having the largest area within the park district. In case of condemnation the proceedings are to be instituted in the name of the district and conducted in the manner provided in chapter 117 and acts now in effect and hereafter adopted amendatory thereof and supplemental thereto. Either the fee or any lesser interest may be acquired as the board deems advisable. Nothing herein contained shall authorize the board to:
(1) acquire real estate by purchase or condemnation which is located within the boundaries of an incorporated statutory city or city unless the governing body of such statutory city or city shall have consented thereto by resolution duly adopted; or
(2) acquire real estate by condemnation which is located outside the park district unless the board of county commissioners of the county in which such property is located has consented thereto by resolution duly adopted.
(c) The power, if the board finds that any lands which it has acquired are not necessary for the purposes for which acquired, to dispose of such lands upon such terms as are advisable, including the power to transfer such lands to other public corporations. Where lands which were acquired by condemnation less than 20 years before are to be sold to private parties, the former owners, or their heirs, successors or assigns, shall be notified in writing of the board's intent to dispose of the properties and shall be given 20 days to purchase the property taken from them at such price as the board shall deem fair compensation to the district for such property. The board may lease any of its lands or permit their use for purposes consistent with the purposes for which the lands were acquired upon such terms as are advisable. No such lands shall be sold without the approval of the district court of the county in which the lands are situated.
(d) The power to fix, alter, charge, and collect fees, tolls, and charges for the use of facilities of the park district, for services rendered by, or for any commodities furnished by, or for licenses issued by, the board pursuant to ordinances authorized hereunder. All fines collected for any violation of a board's ordinance shall be paid into the treasury of such park district board.
(e) The power to borrow, make, and issue negotiable bonds, notes, and other evidences of indebtedness, subject to the provisions of sections
Minn. Stat. § 40A.06
40A.06 CONTESTED CASE HEARINGS; JUDICIAL REVIEW.
If a county or a municipality in the county disputes the determination of the commissioner relating to whether the plan and controls address the elements under this chapter, the county or municipality may request that the commissioner initiate a contested case proceeding under chapter 14 within 30 days after receiving the determination. In addition, ten or more eligible voters of the county who own real estate within the county may request a contested case proceeding. The commissioner shall initiate the proceeding within 30 days after receiving the request. Judicial review of the contested case decision is as provided in chapter 14.
History:
1984 c 654 art 3 s 36 ; 1Sp1985 c 13 s 136
Minn. Stat. § 412.081
412.081 SEPARATION FROM TOWN.
§
Subdivision 1. Election, assessment districts.
Any statutory city hereafter organized shall be constituted an election and assessment district separate from the town in which it lies immediately upon incorporation, except that if the incorporation occurs between March 15 and July 1 the town assessor shall assess the property in the city that year and the city assessor shall not assume duties until the following year. Where the town assessor makes the assessment, the city shall pay such proportion of the cost of the assessment as its net tax capacity bears to the net tax capacity of the town, including the city.
§
Subd. 2. Separate districts.
Any existing city not heretofore constituted a separate election and assessment district may become such by the vote of a majority of its electors casting their ballots upon the question at a special election called for that purpose or at a general election in the notice of which the question is plainly submitted. The council may submit the question of separation to the electors on its own motion and shall do so upon presentation of a petition of electors equal in number to 25 percent of those voting at the last preceding city election. A certificate giving the result of the vote shall be presented by the judges of election to the council. The clerk shall then file a similar certificate with the county auditor of the county in which the city is situated, and, if the election is favorable to separation, the clerk shall file a copy with the secretary of state. The separation shall take effect 30 days from the date of the election. The council shall then appoint an assessor to serve until the first business day of January in the next odd-numbered year.
§
Subd. 3. Distribution of assets, tax levy, joint property.
Upon separation of an existing city from the town or upon incorporation of a city hereafter, if there is any money in the town treasury in excess of its then floating indebtedness, such proportion of the excess as the total net tax capacity of the real and personal property within the city bears to the entire net tax capacity of the town, including the city, shall belong to the city and shall be paid to the city treasurer by the town treasurer. All town taxes levied upon property within the city before separation and not yet collected or not yet distributed by the county treasurer shall be paid to the city when so distributed. If the town has any bonded debt, the property within the city shall continue to be taxed to retire the bonds and to pay the interest thereon until the bonds are fully paid. Any personal property belonging to the town at the time of separation, and any real estate situated within the city and belonging to the town at that time shall remain the joint property of the city and town with the interest of each being proportional to its net tax capacity at the time of separation; but either the city or the town may purchase the interest of the other in such real or personal property and become its sole owner. Meetings and elections of the town may be held in the city and any town officer may maintain an office in the city notwithstanding such separation.
History:
1949 c 119 s 11 ; 1951 c 378 s 3 ; 1953 c 7 s 1 ; 1955 c 867 s 3 ; 1973 c 123 art 2 s 1 subd 2; 1986 c 444 ; 1988 c 719 art 5 s 84 ; 1989 c 329 art 13 s 20 ; 1990 c 480 art 9 s 16
Minn. Stat. § 412.851
412.851 VACATION OF STREETS.
The council may by resolution vacate any street, alley, public grounds, public way, or any part thereof, on its own motion or on petition of a majority of the owners of land abutting on the street, alley, public grounds, public way, or part thereof to be vacated. When there has been no petition, the resolution may be adopted only by a vote of four-fifths of all members of the council. No vacation shall be made unless it appears in the interest of the public to do so after a hearing preceded by two weeks' published and posted notice. The council shall cause written notice of the hearing to be mailed to each property owner affected by the proposed vacation at least ten days before the hearing. The notice must contain, at minimum, a copy of the petition or proposed resolution as well as the time, place, and date of the hearing. In addition, if the street, alley, public grounds, public way, or any part thereof terminates at, abuts upon, or is adjacent to any public water, written notice of the petition or proposed resolution must be served by certified mail upon the commissioner of natural resources at least 60 days before the hearing on the matter. The notice to the commissioner of natural resources does not create a right of intervention by the commissioner. At least 15 days prior to convening the hearing required under this section, the council or its designee must consult with the commissioner of natural resources to review the proposed vacation. The commissioner must evaluate:
(1) the proposed vacation and the public benefits to do so;
(2) the present and potential use of the land for access to public waters; and
(3) how the vacation would impact conservation of natural resources.
The commissioner must advise the city council or its designee accordingly upon the evaluation. After a resolution of vacation is adopted, the clerk shall prepare a notice of completion of the proceedings which shall contain the name of the city, an identification of the vacation, a statement of the time of completion thereof, and a description of the real estate and lands affected thereby. The notice shall be presented to the county auditor who shall enter the same in the transfer records and note upon the instrument, over official signature, the words "entered in the transfer record." The notice shall then be recorded with the county recorder. Any failure to file the notice shall not invalidate any vacation proceedings.
History:
1949 c 119 s 102 ; 1953 c 735 s 12 ; 1957 c 383 s 1 ; 1967 c 289 s 15 ; 1969 c 9 s 85 ; 1973 c 123 art 2 s 1 subd 2; 1973 c 494 s 11 ; 1976 c 181 s 2 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1989 c 183 s 4 ; 1990 c 433 s 2 ; 2005 c 4 s 105 ; 2005 c 117 s 2
Minn. Stat. § 414.067
414.067 APPORTIONED ASSETS AND OBLIGATIONS.
§
Subdivision 1. Township or municipality divided.
Whenever the chief administrative law judge divides an existing governmental unit, the chief administrative law judge, or other qualified person designated by the chief administrative law judge with the concurrence of the parties, may apportion the property and obligations between the governmental unit adding territory and the governmental unit from which the territory was obtained. The apportionment shall be made in a just and equitable manner having in view the value of the existing township or municipal property located in the area to be added; the assets, value, and location of all the taxable property in the existing township or municipality; the indebtedness, the taxes due and delinquent, other revenue accrued but not paid to the existing township or municipality; and the ability of any remainder of the township or municipality to function as an effective governmental unit. The order shall not relieve any property from any tax liability for payment for any bonded obligation, but the taxable property in the new municipality may be made primarily liable thereon.
§
Subd. 2. Entire town or consolidated cities.
When an entire township is annexed by an existing municipality, or an entire township is incorporated into a new municipality, or a municipality is consolidated into a new municipality, all money, claims, or properties, including real estate owned, held, or possessed by the annexed, incorporated township or municipality, and any proceeds or taxes levied by such town or municipality, collected or uncollected, shall become and be the property of the new or annexing municipality with full power and authority to use and dispose of the same for public purposes as the council or new annexing municipality may deem best, subject to the rights of creditors. Any taxes levied to pay bonded indebtedness of a town or former municipality annexed to an existing municipality or incorporated or consolidated into a new municipality shall be borne only by that taxable property within the boundaries of the former town or municipality, provided, however, the units of government concerned may by resolution of their governing bodies agree that taxes levied to pay the indebtedness must be levied upon all taxable property within the boundaries of the new municipality. Notwithstanding that the bonded indebtedness may be payable from taxes levied on only a portion of the taxable property in the new or surviving municipality, the full faith and credit of the new or surviving municipality must secure any outstanding bonded indebtedness to which the full faith and credit of the annexed or consolidated township or municipality was pledged. If any general funds of the new or surviving municipality are used to pay debt service on the bonded indebtedness, the general funds must be reimbursed, with or without interest, from taxes levied on taxable property in the former township or municipality.
§
Subd. 3. Revision of tax records; redistribution of levies.
In an apportionment made under this section, the chief administrative law judge may order the county auditor to revise tax records and respread levies at any time prior to December 15 or order the county treasurer to redistribute taxes levied and receivable.
History:
1969 c 1146 s 17 ; 1971 c 62 s 1 ; 1973 c 621 s 7 ; 1975 c 271 s 6 ; 1978 c 705 s 30 ; 1997 c 219 s 4 ; 2002 c 223 s 21 ,22; 2008 c 196 art 1 s 15; art 2 s 15
Minn. Stat. § 41B.039
41B.039 BEGINNING FARMER PROGRAM.
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Subdivision 1. Establishment.
The authority may establish, develop criteria, and implement a beginning farmer program.
§
Subd. 2. State participation.
The state may participate in a new real estate loan with an eligible lender to a beginning farmer to the extent of 45 percent of the principal amount of the loan. Individual loans must be no less than $20,000 and no more than $500,000. The interest rates and repayment terms of the authority's participation interest may be different than the interest rates and repayment terms of the lender's retained portion of the loan.
§
Subd. 3.
[Repealed, 1989 c 273 s 8 ]
§
Subd. 4.
[Repealed, 1989 c 273 s 8 ]
§
Subd. 5.
[Repealed, 1989 c 273 s 8 ]
History:
1987 c 396 art 1 s 17 ; 1988 c 688 art 10 s 4 -6; 1989 c 273 s 6 ; 1992 c 381 s 6 ; 1992 c 532 s 1 ; 1993 c 332 s 3 ; 2000 c 477 s 55 ; 2000 c 488 art 3 s 14 ; 2004 c 254 s 16 ; 2009 c 94 art 1 s 84 ; 2015 c 44 s 22 ; 2024 c 126 art 2 s 56 ; 2024 c 127 art 38 s 56 ; 2025 c 34 art 3 s 20
Minn. Stat. § 41B.042
41B.042 SELLER-SPONSORED PROGRAM.
§
Subdivision 1. Establishment.
The authority must, within 120 days after August 1, 1989, establish, develop criteria, and implement a seller-sponsored loan participation program to assist persons entering or reentering farming. The authority must conduct a study on the feasibility of implementing a program for assistance to persons entering or reentering farming through seller-participation contracts for deed and report to the legislature by January 15, 1990.
§
Subd. 2. Security.
Seller-sponsored loans in which the authority holds an interest must be secured by a real estate mortgage evidenced by one or more notes that may carry different interest rates.
§
Subd. 3. Prohibited participation.
The authority may not participate in seller-sponsored loans if the buyer or seller has previously participated in a family farm security loan or a seller-sponsored loan under chapter 41. Unless the loan is partially financed by an eligible lender, the authority may not participate in loans between persons that are related to each other as parent and child, brother and sister, grandparent and grandchild, uncle or aunt and niece or nephew, or first cousins.
§
Subd. 4. Participation limit; interest.
The authority may participate in new seller-sponsored loans to the extent of 45 percent of the principal amount of the loan. Individual loans must be no less than $20,000 and no more than $500,000. The interest rates and repayment terms of the authority's participation interest may be different than the interest rates and repayment terms of the seller's retained portion of the loan.
History:
1989 c 273 s 7 ; 1992 c 532 s 2 ; 1993 c 332 s 4 ; 2000 c 477 s 57 ; 2000 c 488 art 3 s 16 ; 2004 c 254 s 18 ; 2009 c 94 art 1 s 86 ; 2015 c 44 s 24 ; 2024 c 126 art 2 s 58 ; 2024 c 127 art 38 s 58 ; 2025 c 34 art 3 s 26
Minn. Stat. § 435.44
435.44 SIDEWALK IMPROVEMENT DISTRICTS; COSTS SPLIT BY BENEFIT.
§
Subdivision 1. Authorized.
Any municipality may, by ordinance, establish sidewalk improvement districts within a municipality, and have authority to defray all or part of the total costs of sidewalk construction and repair by district benefits and apportioning the district's cost to all of the parcels located in the district on a direct or indirect benefit basis.
§
Subd. 2. For safety.
The governing body of any municipality may establish sidewalk districts on the basis that all areas within each district have safe pedestrian walkways to and from schools and school bus stops, public transportation facilities, and other services to the neighborhood and community.
§
Subd. 3. Uniformity; wide sidewalks; indirect benefit.
The total costs of sidewalk district improvements may be apportioned and assessed to all parcels or tracts of land located in the established assessment district on a uniform basis as to each classification of real estate. Where sidewalk widths are wider than the standard width of the district, the additional costs may be assessed as a direct benefit to the abutting property. An indirect district benefit assessment may involve all parcels or tracts of land located in the assessment district without regard to location of sidewalks, as it is deemed that all parcels or tracts of land within the assessment district benefit equally.
§
Subd. 4. Up to five years.
The governing body may assess the costs on all district sidewalk improvements up to a maximum of five years on equal annual installments, plus interest on the unpaid balance.
History:
1974 c 59 s 1
WATER SYSTEMS
Minn. Stat. § 440.135
440.135 VACATING STREETS IN THIRD CLASS CHARTER CITY.
§
Subdivision 1. Application.
This section applies to every home rule charter city of the third class.
§
Subd. 2. Council may vacate; conditions.
In addition to any other method provided by law, the council of such city, upon the presentation and filing of a verified petition signed by or on behalf of any owner, natural or corporate, of any real estate abutting thereon, may vacate any street or segment of street or any portion of the width thereof within its geographical limits, provided only that the street, segment, or portion thereof so vacated pursuant to such petition shall not be longer than the distance intervening between any two adjacent intersecting streets. If any street, segment, or portion thereof proposed to be vacated terminates at or abuts upon any public water, the petitioners shall serve notice of the petition by certified mail upon the commissioner of natural resources at least 30 days before the council hearing on the matter. The notice under this subdivision is for notification purposes only and does not create a right of intervention by the commissioner of natural resources.
§
Subd. 3. Certified copy of resolution to be filed.
Such action of such council may be taken at any regular or special meeting duly called for such purpose and shall be by resolution, and a copy of the resolution duly certified by the city clerk shall be recorded in the office of the county recorder in the county where such city is located before the action shall be effective.
§
Subd. 4. Not to interfere with special improvements.
The vacation of any street or segment thereof under this section shall not destroy or interfere with the right of any person, corporation, or municipality owning or having control of any electric light or telephone pole or lines existing upon such street at the time of the vacation thereof or with any sewer or water pipes, mains or hydrants thereon or thereunder to enter upon such street or portion thereof vacated for the purpose of repairing the same or otherwise attending thereto.
History:
1945 c 224 ; 1965 c 45 s 59 ; 1976 c 44 s 42 ; 1976 c 181 s 2 ; 1989 c 183 s 6
Minn. Stat. § 45.30
45.30 CONTINUING EDUCATION.
§
Subdivision 1. Content.
Continuing education consists of approved courses that impart appropriate and related knowledge in the field for which approval is requested. The burden of demonstrating that courses impart appropriate and related knowledge is upon the person seeking approval or credit. The commissioner may approve any educational offering approved by the regulatory agency of another state if it does not conflict with Minnesota law, and any courses leading to a nationally recognized professional designation used by licensees regulated by this chapter.
§
Subd. 2. Examinations.
Course examinations are required for interactive Internet courses but are not required for other continuing education courses unless they are required by the education provider. When certain prelicense courses are permitted to be used for continuing education, the licensee must pass the same examination as is required for those taking the course for prelicensing.
§
Subd. 3. Textbooks.
Textbooks are not required to be used for continuing education courses unless the course is also approved as a prelicense course. If textbooks are not used, students are to be provided with a syllabus containing, at a minimum, the course title, the times and dates of the course offering, the names and addresses or telephone numbers of the course coordinator and instructor, and a detailed outline of the subject materials to be covered. Any written or printed material given to students must be of readable quality and contain accurate and current information.
§
Subd. 4. Credit earned.
(a) Upon completion of approved courses, students must earn one hour of continuing education credit for each hour approved by the commissioner. Continuing education courses must be attended in their entirety in order to receive credit for the number of approved hours.
(b) Qualified instructors will earn three hours of continuing education credit for each classroom hour of approved instruction that they deliver (1) independently, or (2) as part of a team presentation in a course of two hours or less, if they attend the course in its entirety. For licensees other than appraisers, no more than one-half of the continuing education hours required for renewal of a license may be earned as a qualified instructor at the rate of three hours of continuing education credit for each classroom hour of approved instruction. For licensed appraisers, no more than one-half of the continuing education hours required for renewal of a license may be earned as a qualified instructor. No credit will be earned if the licensee has previously obtained credit for the same course as either a student or instructor during the same licensing period.
(c) A licensee must not receive credit for more than eight hours of continuing education in one day.
§
Subd. 5. Nonapproved courses for continuing education.
The following courses will not be approved for credit:
(1) courses designed solely to prepare students for passing a license examination;
(2) courses in mechanical office or business skills, including typing, speed reading, or other machines or equipment. Computer skills courses are allowed, if appropriate and related to the industry to which the courses are directed;
(3) courses in sales promotion, including meetings held in conjunction with the general business of the licensee;
(4) courses in motivation, salesmanship, psychology, time management, or communication, except as prescribed in prelicense training;
(5) courses related to office management or intended to improve the operation of the licensee's business; and
(6) courses that are primarily intended to impart knowledge of specific products of specific companies, if the use of the product or products relates to the sales promotion or marketing of one or more of the products discussed.
§
Subd. 6. Course approval.
(a) Courses must be approved by the commissioner in advance. A course that is required by federal criteria or a reciprocity agreement to receive a substantive review will be approved or disapproved on the basis of its compliance with the provisions of laws and rules relating to the appropriate industry. At the commissioner's discretion, a course that is not required by federal criteria or a reciprocity agreement to receive a substantive review may be approved based on a qualified provider's certification on a form specified by the commissioner that the course complies with the provisions of this chapter and the laws and rules relating to the appropriate industry. For the purposes of this section, a "qualified provider" is one of the following: (1) a degree-granting institution of higher learning located within this state; (2) a private school licensed by the Minnesota Office of Higher Education; or (3) when conducting courses for its members, a bona fide trade association that staffs and maintains in this state a physical location that contains course and student records and that has done so for not less than three years. The commissioner may review any approved course and may cancel its approval with regard to all future offerings. The commissioner must make the final determination as to accreditation and assignment of credit hours for courses. Courses must be at least one hour in length, except courses for real estate appraisers must be at least two hours in length.
Approval will not include time spent on meals or other unrelated activities.
(b) Courses must be submitted at least 30 days before the initial proposed course offering.
(c) Approval must be granted for a subsequent offering of identical continuing education courses without requiring a new application. The commissioner must deny future offerings of courses if they are found not to be in compliance with the laws relating to course approval.
(d) When either the content of an approved course or its method of instruction changes, the course is no longer approved for license education credit. A new application must be submitted for the changed course if the education provider intends to offer it for license education credit.
§
Subd. 6a. Professional designation coursework.
Approved courses leading to the achievement or maintenance of a professional designation listed in section
Minn. Stat. § 45.305
45.305 PRELICENSE EDUCATION COURSES OFFERED OVER THE INTERNET.
§
Subdivision 1. Insurance Internet prelicense courses.
The design and delivery of an insurance prelicense education course must be approved by the International Distance Education Certification Center (IDECC) before the course is submitted for the commissioner's approval.
§
Subd. 1a. Appraiser Internet prelicense courses.
The requirements for the design and delivery of an appraiser prelicense education course are the requirements established by the Appraiser Qualifications Board of the Appraisal Foundation and published in the most recent version of the Real Property Appraiser Qualification Criteria.
§
Subd. 2. Real estate Internet prelicense courses.
The design and delivery of a real estate prelicense education course must be approved by either IDECC or the Association of Real Estate License Law Officials before the course is submitted for the commissioner's approval.
§
Subd. 3. Academic credit Internet courses.
Subdivisions 1 and 2 do not apply to Internet prelicense courses offered for academic credit by an accredited college, community college, or university that offers distance education programs and is approved or accredited by the Commission on Colleges, a regional or national accreditation association, or by an accrediting agency that is recognized by the United States Secretary of Education.
§
Subd. 4. Interactive Internet course requirements.
An interactive Internet prelicense education course must:
(1) specify the minimum system requirements;
(2) provide encryption that ensures that all personal information, including the student's name, address, and credit card number, cannot be read as it passes across the Internet;
(3) include technology to guarantee seat time;
(4) include a high level of interactivity;
(5) include graphics that reinforce the content;
(6) include the ability for the student to contact an instructor within a reasonable amount of time;
(7) include the ability for the student to get technical support within a reasonable amount of time;
(8) include a statement that the student's information will not be sold or distributed to any third party without prior written consent of the student. Taking the course does not constitute consent;
(9) be available 24 hours a day, seven days a week, excluding minimal down time for updating and administration, except that this provision does not apply to live courses taught by an actual instructor and delivered over the Internet;
(10) provide viewing access to the online course at all times to the commissioner, excluding minimal down time for updating and administration;
(11) include a process to authenticate the student's identity;
(12) inform the student and the commissioner how long after its purchase a course will be accessible;
(13) inform the student that license education credit will not be awarded for taking the course after it loses its status as an approved course;
(14) provide clear instructions on how to navigate through the course;
(15) provide automatic bookmarking at any point in the course;
(16) provide questions after each unit or chapter that must be answered before the student can proceed to the next unit or chapter;
(17) include a reinforcement response when a quiz question is answered correctly;
(18) include a response when a quiz question is answered incorrectly;
(19) include a comprehensive final examination covering all required topics;
(20) allow the student to go back and review any unit at any time, except during the final examination;
(21) provide a course evaluation at the end of the course. At a minimum, the evaluation must ask the student to report any difficulties caused by the online education delivery method; and
(22) provide a completion certificate when the course and exam have been completed and the provider has verified the completion. Electronic certificates are sufficient.
§
Subd. 5. Final examination.
The final examination for a prelicense education course offered over the Internet must be monitored by a proctor who certifies that the student took the examination. The exam must be either a paper examination or an encrypted online examination. The student must not be allowed to review the course content once the examination has begun.
History:
2009 c 63 s 9 ,78; 2021 c 16 s 1 ,2
Minn. Stat. § 452.08
452.08 , and ten percent of the cost in addition thereto. In order to secure the payment of the public utility certificates and the interest thereon, the city may convey, by way of mortgage or deed of trust, any or all of the property thus acquired or to be acquired through the issue thereof; which mortgage or deed of trust shall be executed in such a manner as directed by the council and acknowledged and recorded in the manner provided by law for the acknowledgment and recording of mortgages of real estate, and may contain such conditions and provisions, not in conflict with the provisions of sections
Minn. Stat. § 45A.01
45A.01 DEFINITIONS.
§
Subdivision 1. Scope and application.
For purposes of this chapter, the terms in this section have the meanings given them.
§
Subd. 2. Broker-dealer.
"Broker-dealer" has the meaning given in section
Minn. Stat. § 462.12
462.12 RESTRICTED RESIDENCE DISTRICTS.
Any city of the first class may, through its council, upon petition of 50 percent of the owners of the real estate in the district sought to be affected, by resolution, designate and establish by proceedings hereunder restricted residence districts and in and by such resolution and proceedings prohibit the erection, alteration, or repair of any building or structure for any one or more of the purposes hereinafter named, and thereafter no building or other structure shall be erected, altered or repaired for any of the purposes prohibited by such resolution and proceedings, which may prohibit the following: hotels, restaurants, eating houses, mercantile business, stores, factories, warehouses, printing establishments, tailor shops, coal yards, ice houses, blacksmith shops, repair shops, paint shops, bakeries, dyeing, cleaning and laundering establishments, billboards and other advertising devices, public garages, public stables, apartment houses, tenement houses, flat buildings, any other building or structure for purposes similar to the foregoing. Public garages and public stables shall include those, and only those, operated for gain.
Nothing herein contained shall be construed to exclude double residences or duplex houses, so-called schools, churches, or signs advertising for rent or sale the property only on which they are placed, and nothing herein contained shall be construed so as to prohibit the council of any such city of the first class from permitting the remodeling or reconstruction of the interior of any structure in any such restricted residence district which possesses a gross ground area delineated by its foundation walls of at least 1,000 square feet, so that the same shall contain separate accommodations for several, not in excess of four, families; provided that the substantial alteration of the exterior of any such structure shall not be authorized in any such case; and provided further, that such city council shall expressly find in each such case that such remodeling or alteration shall be consistent with the public health and safety.
No building or structure erected after the creation of such district shall be used for any purpose for which its erection shall be prohibited hereunder.
The term "council" in sections
Minn. Stat. § 462A.201
462A.201 HOUSING TRUST FUND ACCOUNT.
§
Subdivision 1. Creation.
(a) The housing trust fund account is created as a separate account in the housing development fund.
(b) The housing trust fund account consists of:
(1) money appropriated and transferred from other state funds;
(2) interest accrued from real estate trust accounts as provided under section 82.75, subdivision 8 ;
(3) gifts, grants, and donations received from the United States, private foundations, and other sources; and
(4) money made available to the agency for the purpose of the account from other sources.
§
Subd. 2. Low-income housing.
(a) The agency may use money from the housing trust fund account to provide loans or grants for:
(1) projects for the development, construction, acquisition, preservation, and rehabilitation of low-income rental and limited equity cooperative housing units, including temporary and transitional housing;
(2) the costs of operating rental housing, as determined by the agency, that are unique to the operation of low-income rental housing or supportive housing;
(3) rental assistance, either project-based or tenant-based; and
(4) programs to secure stable housing for families with children eligible for enrollment in a prekindergarten through grade 12 academic program.
For purposes of this section, "transitional housing" has the meaning given by the United States Department of Housing and Urban Development. Loans or grants for residential housing for migrant farmworkers may be made under this section.
(b) The housing trust fund account must be used for the benefit of persons and families whose income, at the time of initial occupancy, does not exceed 60 percent of median income as determined by the United States Department of Housing and Urban Development for the metropolitan area. At least 75 percent of the funds in the housing trust fund account must be used for the benefit of persons and families whose income, at the time of initial occupancy, does not exceed 30 percent of the median family income for the metropolitan area as defined in section 473.121, subdivision 2 . For purposes of this section, a household with a housing assistance voucher under Section 8 of the United States Housing Act of 1937, as amended, is deemed to meet the income requirements of this section.
The median family income may be adjusted for families of five or more.
(c) Rental assistance under this section must be provided by governmental units which administer housing assistance supplements or by for-profit or nonprofit organizations experienced in housing management. Rental assistance shall be limited to households whose income at the time of initial receipt of rental assistance does not exceed 60 percent of median income, as determined by the United States Department of Housing and Urban Development for the metropolitan area. Priority among comparable applications for tenant-based rental assistance will be given to proposals that will serve households whose income at the time of initial application for rental assistance does not exceed 30 percent of median income, as determined by the United States Department of Housing and Urban Development for the metropolitan area. Rental assistance must be terminated when it is determined that 30 percent of a household's monthly income for four consecutive months equals or exceeds the market rent for the unit in which the household resides plus utilities for which the tenant is responsible. Rental assistance may only be used for rental housing units that meet the housing maintenance code of the local unit of government in which the unit is located, if such a code has been adopted, or the housing quality standards adopted by the United States Department of Housing and Urban Development, if no local housing maintenance code has been adopted.
(d) In making the loans or grants, the agency shall determine the terms and conditions of repayment and the appropriate security, if any, should repayment be required. To promote the geographic distribution of grants and loans, the agency may designate a portion of the grant or loan awards to be set aside for projects located in specified congressional districts or other geographical regions specified by the agency. The agency may adopt rules for awarding grants and loans under this subdivision.
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Subd. 3. Matching funds.
The agency may use money from the housing trust fund account to match federal, local, or private money to be used for projects authorized under subdivision 2.
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Subd. 4.
MS 2000 [Repealed, 1Sp2001 c 4 art 5 s 10 ]
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Subd. 5.
MS 1992 [Repealed, 1993 c 309 s 32 ]
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Subd. 6. Report.
The agency shall submit a biennial report to the legislature and the governor on the use of the housing trust fund account including the number of loans and grants made, the number and types of residential units assisted through the account, the number of households for whom rental assistance payments were provided, and the number of residential units assisted through the account that were rented to or cooperatively owned by persons or families at or below 30 percent of the median family income of the metropolitan area at the time of initial occupancy.
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Subd. 7. Capacity building grant set-aside.
Five percent of the money credited to the housing trust fund account under section 82.75, subdivision 8 , may be used to make capacity building grants as provided under section 462A.21, subdivision 3b .
History:
1988 c 654 s 5 ; 1990 c 520 s 1 ; 1993 c 236 s 5 ; 1994 c 586 s 6 ; 1995 c 224 s 99 ; 1996 c 305 art 2 s 63 ; 1997 c 200 art 4 s 11 ; 2000 c 499 s 19 ; 1Sp2001 c 4 art 5 s 1 ,2; 2004 c 203 art 2 s 61 ; 2017 c 94 art 11 s 4 ; 1Sp2017 c 7 s 6
Minn. Stat. § 463.151
463.151 REMOVAL BY MUNICIPALITY; CONSENT; COST.
The governing body of any municipality may remove or raze any hazardous building or remove or correct any hazardous condition of real estate upon obtaining the consent in writing of all owners of record, occupying tenants, and all lienholders of record; the cost shall be charged against the real estate as provided in section
Minn. Stat. § 463.22
463.22 STATEMENT OF MONEYS RECEIVED.
The municipality shall keep an accurate account of the expenses incurred in carrying out the order and of all other expenses theretofore incurred in connection with its enforcement, including specifically, but not exclusively, filing fees, service fees, publication fees, attorney's fees, appraisers' fees, witness fees, including expert witness fees, and traveling expenses incurred by the municipality from the time the order was originally made, and shall credit thereon the amount, if any, received from the sale of the salvage, or building or structure, and shall report its action under the order, with a statement of moneys received and expenses incurred to the court for approval and allowance. Thereupon the court shall examine, correct, if necessary, and allow the expense account, and, if the amount received from the sale of the salvage, or of the building or structure, does not equal or exceed the amount of expenses as allowed, the court shall by its judgment certify the deficiency in the amount so allowed to the municipal clerk for collection. The owner or other party in interest shall pay the same, without penalty added thereon, and in default of payment by October 1, the clerk shall certify the amount of the expense to the county auditor for entry on the tax lists of the county as a special charge against the real estate on which the building or hazardous condition is or was situated and the same shall be collected in the same manner as other taxes and the amount so collected shall be paid into the municipal treasury. If the amount received for the sale of the salvage or of the building or structure exceeds the expense incurred by the municipality as allowed by the court, and if there are no delinquent taxes, the court shall direct the payment of the surplus to the owner or the payment of the same into court, as provided in sections
Minn. Stat. § 463.251
463.251 SECURING VACANT BUILDINGS.
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Subdivision 1. Definitions.
The following terms have the meanings given them for the purposes of this section.
(a) "City" means a statutory or home rule charter city.
(b) "Neighborhood association" means an organization recognized by the city as representing a neighborhood within the city.
(c) "Secure" may include, but is not limited to, installing locks, repairing windows and doors, boarding windows and doors, posting "no-trespassing" signs, installing exterior lighting or motion-detecting lights, fencing the property, and installing a monitored alarm or other security system.
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Subd. 2. Order; notice.
(a) If in any city a building becomes vacant or unoccupied and is deemed hazardous due to the fact that the building is open to trespass and has not been secured and the building could be made safe by securing the building, the governing body may order the building secured and shall cause notice of the order to be served upon the owner of record of the premises or the owner's agent, the taxpayer identified in the property tax records for that parcel, the holder of the mortgage or sheriff's certificate, and any neighborhood association for the neighborhood in which the building is located that has requested notice, by delivering or mailing a copy to the owner or agent, the identified taxpayer, the holder of the mortgage or sheriff's certificate, and the neighborhood association, at the last known address. Service by mail is complete upon mailing.
(b) The notice under this subdivision must include a statement that:
(1) informs the owner and the holder of any mortgage or sheriff's certificate of the requirements of subdivision 3 and that costs may be assessed against the property if the person does not secure the building;
(2) informs the owner and the holder of any mortgage or sheriff's certificate that the person may request a hearing before the governing body challenging the governing body's determination that the property is vacant or unoccupied and hazardous; and
(3) notifies the holder of any sheriff's certificate of the holder's duty under section 582.031, subdivision 1 , paragraph (b), to enter the premises to protect the premises from waste and trespass if the order is not challenged or set aside and there is prima facie evidence of abandonment of the property as described in section 582.032, subdivision 7 .
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Subd. 3. Securing building by city; lien.
If the owner of the building or a holder of the sheriff's certificate of sale fails to either comply or provide to the governing body a reasonable plan and schedule to comply with an order issued under subdivision 2 or to request a hearing on the order within six days after the order is served, the governing body shall cause the building to be properly secured and the cost of securing the building may be charged against the real estate as provided in section
Minn. Stat. § 469.018
469.018 RENTALS.
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Subdivision 1. Basis of charge.
Each authority shall manage and operate its housing projects in an efficient manner to enable it to fix the rentals or payments for dwelling accommodations at rates consistent with its providing decent, safe, and sanitary dwelling accommodations for persons of low income. No authority shall construct or operate any housing project for profit, or as a source of revenue to the municipality. An authority shall fix the rentals or payments for dwellings in its projects at no higher rates than it shall find to be necessary in order to produce revenues which, together with all other available moneys, revenues, income, and receipts of the authority, will be sufficient (1) to pay, as they become due, the principal and interest on the bonds of the authority; (2) to create and maintain reserves required to assure the payment of principal and interest as they become due on its bonds; (3) to meet the cost of, and to provide for, maintaining and operating the projects, including necessary reserves and the cost of any insurance, and the administrative expenses of the authority; and (4) to make payments in lieu of taxes that it determines are consistent with the maintenance of the low-rent character of projects.
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Subd. 2. Realtors.
With respect to the management and operation of a housing project the authority may employ reliable real estate operators or firms or brokers or the municipality to perform those services for it. No such real estate operators or firms or brokers or the municipality shall have any authority in tenant selection or the fixing of rentals. Each authority employing real estate operators or firms or brokers or the municipality shall require the execution of a contract of employment stating the terms and conditions under which the services are to be performed, which shall be subject to the approval of the commissioner of employment and economic development.
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Subd. 3. CIC lease restrictions.
Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, no declaration governing a common interest community, as defined in chapter 515B, whether or not the common interest community is subject to chapter 515B, and no bylaw, regulation, rule, or policy adopted by or on behalf of the unit owners' association for a common interest community, may prohibit or limit an authority from leasing a residential unit owned by it to eligible persons of low or moderate income and their families under applicable state or federal legislation. Nothing in this subdivision shall prohibit common interest community declarations, bylaws, regulations, rules, or policies from otherwise regulating the use of a unit owned by an authority or the conduct of unit occupants, provided the regulations apply to all units in the common interest community; nor from enforcing a prohibition against leasing residential units that was effective before the authority owned the unit. This subdivision applies to all common interest community units owned by an authority for which title was acquired by the authority after January 1, 1999.
History:
1987 c 291 s 18 ; 1987 c 312 art 1 s 26 subd 2; 1Sp2003 c 4 s 1 ; 2004 c 263 s 21
Minn. Stat. § 469.028
469.028 , notify the county treasurer to set aside in a special fund, for the retirement of the bonds and interest on them, all or part of the real estate tax revenues derived from the real property in the redevelopment area which is in excess of the tax revenue derived therefrom in the tax year immediately preceding the acquisition of the property by the authority. The county treasurer shall do so. This setting aside of funds shall continue until the bonds have been retired. This subdivision applies only to property that the governing body has by resolution designated for inclusion in a project prior to August 1, 1979.
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Subd. 6. Operation area as taxing district, special tax.
All of the territory included within the area of operation of any authority shall constitute a taxing district for the purpose of levying and collecting special benefit taxes as provided in this subdivision. All of the taxable property, both real and personal, within that taxing district shall be deemed to be benefited by projects to the extent of the special taxes levied under this subdivision. Subject to the consent by resolution of the governing body of the city in and for which it was created, an authority may levy a tax upon all taxable property within that taxing district. The tax shall be extended, spread, and included with and as a part of the general taxes for state, county, and municipal purposes by the county auditor, to be collected and enforced therewith, together with the penalty, interest, and costs. As the tax, including any penalties, interest, and costs, is collected by the county treasurer it shall be accumulated and kept in a separate fund to be known as the "housing and redevelopment project fund." The money in the fund shall be turned over to the authority at the same time and in the same manner that the tax collections for the city are turned over to the city, and shall be expended only for the purposes of sections
Minn. Stat. § 469.047
469.047 ;
(2) the occupant's income is no greater than 80 percent of the county or area median income, adjusted for family size;
(3) the building consists of one or two dwelling units;
(4) the lease agreement provides that part of the lease payment is escrowed as a nonrefundable down payment on the housing;
(5) the administering agency verifies the occupant's income eligibility and certifies to the county assessor that the occupant meets the income standards; and
(6) the property owner applies to the county assessor by May 30 of each year.
For purposes of this subdivision, "qualifying buildings and appurtenances" means a one- or two-unit residential building which was unoccupied, abandoned, and boarded for at least six months.
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Subd. 20. Additional requirements prohibited.
No political subdivision may impose any requirements not contained in this chapter or chapter 272 to disqualify property from being classified as a homestead if the property otherwise meets the requirements for homestead treatment under this chapter and chapter 272.
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Subd. 21. Trust property; homestead.
Real or personal property, including agricultural property, held by a trustee under a trust is eligible for classification as homestead property if the property satisfies the requirements of paragraph (a), (b), (c), (d), or (e).
(a) The grantor or surviving spouse of the grantor of the trust occupies and uses the property as a homestead.
(b) A relative or surviving relative of the grantor who meets the requirements of subdivision 1, paragraph (c), in the case of residential real estate; or subdivision 1, paragraph (d), in the case of agricultural property, occupies and uses the property as a homestead.
(c) A family farm corporation, joint farm venture, limited liability company, or partnership operating a family farm in which the grantor or the grantor's surviving spouse is a shareholder, member, or partner rents the property; and, either (1) a shareholder, member, or partner of the corporation, joint farm venture, limited liability company, or partnership occupies and uses the property as a homestead; or (2) the property is at least 40 acres, including undivided government lots and correctional 40's, and a shareholder, member, or partner of the tenant-entity is actively farming the property on behalf of the corporation, joint farm venture, limited liability company, or partnership.
(d) A person who has received homestead classification for property taxes payable in 2000 on the basis of an unqualified legal right under the terms of the trust agreement to occupy the property as that person's homestead and who continues to use the property as a homestead; or, a person who received the homestead classification for taxes payable in 2005 under paragraph (c) who does not qualify under paragraph (c) for taxes payable in 2006 or thereafter but who continues to qualify under paragraph (c) as it existed for taxes payable in 2005.
(e) The qualifications under subdivision 14, paragraph (b), clause (i), are met. For purposes of this paragraph, "owner" means the grantor of the trust or the surviving spouse of the grantor.
(f) For purposes of this subdivision, the following terms have the meanings given them:
(1) "agricultural property" means the house, garage, other farm buildings and structures, and agricultural land;
(2) "agricultural land" has the meaning given in section 273.13, subdivision 23 , except that the phrases "owned by same person" or "under the same ownership" as used in that subdivision mean and include contiguous tax parcels owned by:
(i) an individual and a trust of which the individual, the individual's spouse, or the individual's deceased spouse is the grantor; or
(ii) different trusts of which the grantors of each trust are any combination of an individual, the individual's spouse, or the individual's deceased spouse; and
(3) "grantor" means the person creating or establishing a testamentary, inter vivos, revocable or irrevocable trust by written instrument or through the exercise of a power of appointment.
(g) Noncontiguous agricultural land is included as part of a homestead under this subdivision, only if the homestead is classified as class 2a, as defined in section
Minn. Stat. § 469.119
469.119 LOAN APPLICATION REQUIREMENTS.
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Subdivision 1. Application contents.
Prior to the loaning of any funds for a redevelopment project in a redevelopment area the local agency shall receive from the applicant and, in the case of department participation, shall forward to the state agency a loan application. The application shall be in the form adopted by the local agency, and shall contain among other things the following information:
(1) a general description of the redevelopment project and of the industrial, recreational, commercial, or manufacturing enterprise for which the project has been or is to be established;
(2) a legal description of all real estate necessary for the project;
(3) plans and other documents as may be required to show the type, structure, and general character of the redevelopment project;
(4) a general description of the type, classes, and number of employees employed or to be employed in the operation of the redevelopment project; and
(5) cost or estimates of cost of establishing the redevelopment project.
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Subd. 2.
[Repealed, 1987 c 291 s 244 ; 1987 c 386 art 2 s 24 ]
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Subd. 3.
[Repealed, 1987 c 291 s 244 ; 1987 c 386 art 2 s 24 ]
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Subd. 4.
[Repealed, 1987 c 291 s 244 ; 1987 c 386 art 2 s 24 ]
History:
1987 c 291 s 120 ; 2002 c 379 art 1 s 93
Minn. Stat. § 469.153
469.153 , if the following conditions are satisfied:
(a) the multifamily housing development is designed and intended to be used for rental occupancy;
(b) the multifamily housing development is designed and intended to be used primarily by elderly or physically disabled persons; and
(c) nursing, medical, personal care, and other health-related assisted living services are available on a 24-hour basis in the development to the residents.
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Subd. 8. Revenue agreement and financing lease.
Any revenue agreement or financing lease which includes a provision for a conveyance of real estate to the lessee or contracting party may be terminated in accordance with the revenue agreement or financing lease, notwithstanding that the revenue agreement or financing lease may constitute an equitable mortgage. No financing lease of any development is subject to section
Minn. Stat. § 469.155
469.155 , and interest on them, but only with the consent of the original issuer of such bonds. The municipality or redevelopment agency may issue and sell warrants which give to their holders the right to purchase refunding bonds issuable under this subdivision prior to a stipulated date. The warrants are not required to be sold at public sale and all or any agreed portion of the proceeds of the warrants may be paid to the contracting party under the revenue agreement required by subdivision 5 or to its designee under the conditions the municipality or redevelopment agency shall agree upon. Warrants shall not be issued which obligate a municipality or redevelopment agency to issue refunding bonds that are or will be subject to federal tax law as defined in section 474A.02, subdivision 8 . The warrants may provide a stipulated exercise price or a price that depends on the tax exempt status of interest on the refunding bonds at the time of issuance. The average interest rate on refunding bonds issued upon the exercise of the warrants to refund fixed rate bonds shall not exceed the average interest rate on fixed rate bonds to be refunded. The municipality or redevelopment agency may appoint a bank or trust company to serve as agent for the warrant holders and enter into agreements deemed necessary or incidental to the issuance of the warrants.
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Subd. 13. Termination of revenue agreement.
If so provided in the revenue agreement, it may terminate the agreement and reenter or repossess the project upon the default of the contracting party, and operate, lease, or sell the project in the manner authorized or required by the provisions of the revenue agreement or of the resolution or indenture securing the bonds issued for the project. If it undertakes to operate the project, it may hold in its own name all necessary operating licenses including licenses for the sale of food and intoxicating liquors. Any revenue agreement which includes provision for a conveyance of real estate to the contracting party may be terminated in accordance with the revenue agreement, notwithstanding that the revenue agreement may constitute an equitable mortgage.
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Subd. 14. Limitations on powers.
It may not operate any project referred to in sections
Minn. Stat. § 469.1731
469.1731 .
(c) "Pass-through entity" means a corporation that for the applicable tax year is treated as an S corporation or a general partnership, limited partnership, limited liability partnership, trust, or limited liability company and which for the applicable taxable year is not taxed as a corporation under chapter 290.
(d) "Primary sector business" means a qualified business that through the employment of knowledge or labor adds value to a product, process, or service and increases revenues to a Minnesota business generated by sales of products or services to customers outside of the state or increases revenues to a qualified business the customers of which previously were unable to acquire, or had limited availability of the product or service from a Minnesota provider.
(e) "Qualified business" means a business certified by the commissioner as meeting the requirements of subdivision 3.
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Subd. 3. Qualified business.
(a) The commissioner shall certify whether a business that has requested to become a qualified business meets the requirements of paragraph (b).
(b) For purposes of this section, a qualified business must be a primary sector business, other than a real estate investment trust, that:
(1) is incorporated or its satellite operation is incorporated as a for-profit corporation or is a partnership, limited partnership, limited liability company, limited liability partnership, or joint venture;
(2) is in compliance with the requirements for filings with the commissioner of commerce under the securities laws of this state;
(3) has Minnesota residents as a majority of its employees in its principal office or the satellite operation, which is located in a border city;
(4) has its principal office in a border city and has the majority of its business activity performed in a border city, except sales activity, or has a significant operation in a border city that has or is projected to have more than ten employees or $150,000 of sales annually; and
(5) relies on innovation, research, or the development of new products and processes in its plans for growth and profitability.
(c) The commissioner shall establish the necessary forms and procedures for certifying qualified businesses.
(d) A qualified business may apply to the commissioner for a recertification. Only one recertification is available to a qualified business. The application for recertification must be filed with the commissioner within 90 days before the original certification expiration date. The recertification issued by the director must comply with the provisions of paragraph (e).
(e) The commissioner shall issue a certification letter to a business the commissioner determines is a qualified business. The certification letter must include:
(1) the certification effective date; and
(2) the certification expiration date, which may not be more than four years from the certification effective date.
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Subd. 4. Seed capital investment credit reporting.
Within 30 days after the date that an investment in a qualified business is purchased, the qualified business shall file with the commissioner and the commissioner of revenue and provide to the investor completed forms prescribed by the commissioner of revenue that show as to each investment in the qualified business the following:
(1) the name, address, and Social Security number of the taxpayer who made the investment; and
(2) the dollar amount paid for the investment by the taxpayer.
History:
2008 c 366 art 5 s 1
Minn. Stat. § 469.1811
469.1811 PROPERTY TAX EXEMPT; AGRICULTURAL PROCESSING FACILITY.
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Subdivision 1. Definitions.
For purposes of this section:
(1) "Agricultural processing facility" means land, buildings, structures, fixtures, and improvements used or operated primarily for the processing or production of marketable products from agricultural crops, including waste and residues from agricultural crops, but not including livestock or livestock products, poultry or poultry products, or wood or wood products. As used in this subdivision, land is limited to land on which the buildings, structures, fixtures, and improvements are situated and the immediately surrounding land used for storage or other functions directly related to the processing or production, not including land used for the growing of agricultural crops.
(2) "Qualifying property" means taxable property: (i) that consists of an agricultural processing facility; and (ii) for which the agricultural processing facility project costs exceed $100,000,000.
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Subd. 2. City may exempt.
The governing body of a home rule or statutory city may by resolution exempt qualifying property from property taxation. The exemption may include the entire market value of the qualifying property as determined by the assessor, including the land and any improvements existing at the time the exemption is granted, any increases in the value of the land and improvements during the duration of the exemption, and the value of any improvements constructed or attached during the exemption period. The property tax exemption granted by the city may not exceed a ten-year period beginning with taxes payable the year following the year the exemption is granted. At the expiration of the exemption period, the facility shall be assessed and pay property taxes as otherwise provided by law.
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Subd. 3. Application; hearing.
A person proposing to construct an agricultural processing facility may apply for a property tax exemption to the city clerk of the city where the facility is proposed to be located. The application must contain a plan that includes a legal description of the real estate on which the exemption is sought, a description of the proposed facility, a detailed estimate of acquisition and construction costs, a construction time schedule, and any other information required by the city.
Before approving a tax exemption pursuant to this section, the governing body of the city must hold a public hearing. The municipal clerk or auditor shall publish a notice in the official newspaper of the time and place of a hearing to be held by the governing body on the application, not less than 30 days after the notice is published. The notice shall state that the applicant, local government officials, and any taxpayer of the municipality may be heard or may present their views in writing at or before the hearing. The hearing may be adjourned from time to time, but the governing body shall take action on the application by resolution within 30 days after the hearing ends. If disapproved, the reasons shall be set forth in the resolution. If the application for a tax exemption is approved, the city clerk shall forward a copy of the resolution approving the tax exemption to the county assessor who shall exempt the property from taxation under the terms of and for the period contained in the resolution.
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Subd. 4. Conditions; revocation.
(a) The governing body of the city may set conditions to its approval or continuation of a tax exemption under this section. The conditions may include construction specifications; time limits for construction; traffic, parking, safety, or environmental requirements; requirements as to the type and number of jobs to be created; valuation or assessment requirements after the exemption expires; or any other conditions reasonably required by the city to safeguard the public welfare.
(b) If the city proposes to revoke its approval of a tax exemption granted under this section, it must notify the owner of the property and give the person an opportunity to be heard. The city must give the person 30 days' notice before holding the hearing. A revocation by the city must be made by resolution and must state the findings on which the revocation is based.
History:
1994 c 587 art 5 s 22
Minn. Stat. § 46A.01
46A.01 DEFINITIONS.
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Subdivision 1. Terms.
For the purposes of this chapter, the terms defined in this section have the meanings given them.
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Subd. 2. Authorized user.
"Authorized user" means any employee, contractor, agent, or other person who: (1) participates in a financial institution's business operations; and (2) is authorized to access and use any of the financial institution's information systems and data.
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Subd. 3. Commissioner.
"Commissioner" means the commissioner of commerce.
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Subd. 4. Consumer.
(a) "Consumer" means an individual who obtains or has obtained from a financial institution a financial product or service that is used primarily for personal, family, or household purposes, or is used by the individual's legal representative. Consumer includes but is not limited to an individual who:
(1) applies to a financial institution for credit for personal, family, or household purposes, regardless of whether the credit is extended;
(2) provides nonpublic personal information to a financial institution in order to obtain a determination whether the individual qualifies for a loan used primarily for personal, family, or household purposes, regardless of whether the loan is extended;
(3) provides nonpublic personal information to a financial institution in connection with obtaining or seeking to obtain financial, investment, or economic advisory services, regardless of whether the financial institution establishes a continuing advisory relationship with the individual; or
(4) has a loan for personal, family, or household purposes in which the financial institution has ownership or servicing rights, even if the financial institution or one or more other institutions that hold ownership or servicing rights in conjunction with the financial institution hires an agent to collect on the loan.
(b) Consumer does not include an individual who:
(1) is a consumer of another financial institution that uses a different financial institution to act solely as an agent for, or provide processing or other services to, the consumer's financial institution;
(2) designates a financial institution solely for the purposes to act as a trustee for a trust;
(3) is the beneficiary of a trust for which the financial institution serves as trustee; or
(4) is a participant or a beneficiary of an employee benefit plan that the financial institution sponsors or for which the financial institution acts as a trustee or fiduciary.
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Subd. 5. Continuing relationship.
(a) "Continuing relationship" means a consumer:
(1) has a credit or investment account with a financial institution;
(2) obtains a loan from a financial institution;
(3) purchases an insurance product from a financial institution;
(4) holds an investment product through a financial institution, including but not limited to when the financial institution acts as a custodian for securities or for assets in an individual retirement arrangement;
(5) enters into an agreement or understanding with a financial institution whereby the financial institution undertakes to arrange or broker a home mortgage loan, or credit to purchase a vehicle, for the consumer;
(6) enters into a lease of personal property on a nonoperating basis with a financial institution;
(7) obtains financial, investment, or economic advisory services from a financial institution for a fee;
(8) becomes a financial institution's client to obtain tax preparation or credit counseling services from the financial institution;
(9) obtains career counseling while: (i) seeking employment with a financial institution or the finance, accounting, or audit department of any company; or (ii) employed by a financial institution or department of any company;
(10) is obligated on an account that a financial institution purchases from another financial institution, regardless of whether the account is in default when purchased, unless the financial institution does not locate the consumer or attempt to collect any amount from the consumer on the account;
(11) obtains real estate settlement services from a financial institution; or
(12) has a loan for which a financial institution owns the servicing rights.
(b) Continuing relationship does not include situations where:
(1) the consumer obtains a financial product or service from a financial institution only in isolated transactions, including but not limited to: (i) using a financial institution's automated teller machine to withdraw cash from an account at another financial institution; (ii) purchasing a money order from a financial institution; (iii) cashing a check with a financial institution; or (iv) making a wire transfer through a financial institution;
(2) a financial institution sells the consumer's loan and does not retain the rights to service the loan;
(3) a financial institution sells the consumer airline tickets, travel insurance, or traveler's checks in isolated transactions;
(4) the consumer obtains onetime personal or real property appraisal services from a financial institution; or
(5) the consumer purchases checks for a personal checking account from a financial institution.
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Subd. 6. Customer.
"Customer" means a consumer who has a customer relationship with a financial institution.
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Subd. 7. Customer information.
"Customer information" means any record containing nonpublic personal information about a financial institution's customer, whether the record is in paper, electronic, or another form, that is handled or maintained by or on behalf of the financial institution or the financial institution's affiliates.
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Subd. 8. Customer relationship.
"Customer relationship" means a continuing relationship between a consumer and a financial institution under which the financial institution provides to the consumer one or more financial products or services that are used primarily for personal, family, or household purposes.
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Subd. 9. Encryption.
"Encryption" means the transformation of data into a format that results in a low probability of assigning meaning without the use of a protective process or key, consistent with current cryptographic standards and accompanied by appropriate safeguards for cryptographic key material.
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Subd. 10. Federally insured depository financial institution.
"Federally insured depository financial institution" means a bank, credit union, savings and loan association, trust company, savings association, savings bank, industrial bank, or industrial loan company organized under the laws of the United States or any state of the United States, when the bank, credit union, savings and loan association, trust company, savings association, savings bank, industrial bank, or industrial loan company has federally insured deposits.
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Subd. 11. Financial product or service.
"Financial product or service" means any product or service that a financial holding company could offer by engaging in a financial activity under section 4(k) of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956, United States Code, title 12, section 1843(k). Financial product or service includes a financial institution's evaluation or brokerage of information that the financial institution collects in connection with a request or an application from a consumer for a financial product or service.
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Subd. 12. Financial institution.
"Financial institution" means a consumer small loan lender under section
Minn. Stat. § 47.015
47.015 , subdivision 1; a state or nationally chartered credit union; or a registered broker-dealer under the Securities and Exchange Act of 1934.
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Subd. 7a. Resident estate.
Resident estate means the estate of a deceased person where (1) the decedent was domiciled in Minnesota at the date of death, or (2) the personal representative or fiduciary was appointed by a Minnesota court in a proceeding other than an ancillary proceeding, or (3) the administration of the estate is carried on in Minnesota in a proceeding other than an ancillary proceeding.
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Subd. 7b. Resident trust.
(a) Resident trust means a trust, except a grantor type trust, which either (1) was created by a will of a decedent who at death was domiciled in this state or (2) is an irrevocable trust, the grantor of which was domiciled in this state at the time the trust became irrevocable. For the purpose of this subdivision, a trust is considered irrevocable to the extent the grantor is not treated as the owner thereof under sections 671 to 678 of the Internal Revenue Code. The term "grantor type trust" means a trust where the income or gains of the trust are taxable to the grantor or others treated as substantial owners under sections 671 to 678 of the Internal Revenue Code. This paragraph applies to trusts, except grantor type trusts, that became irrevocable after December 31, 1995, or are first administered in Minnesota after December 31, 1995.
(b) This paragraph applies to trusts, except grantor type trusts, that are not governed under paragraph (a). A trust, except a grantor type trust, is a resident trust only if two or more of the following conditions are satisfied:
(1) a majority of the discretionary decisions of the trustees relative to the investment of trust assets are made in Minnesota;
(2) a majority of the discretionary decisions of the trustees relative to the distributions of trust income and principal are made in Minnesota;
(3) the official books and records of the trust, consisting of the original minutes of trustee meetings and the original trust instruments, are located in Minnesota.
(c) For purposes of paragraph (b), if the trustees delegate decisions and actions to an agent or custodian, the actions and decisions of the agent or custodian must not be taken into account in determining whether the trust is administered in Minnesota, if:
(1) the delegation was permitted under the trust agreement;
(2) the trustees retain the power to revoke the delegation on reasonable notice; and
(3) the trustees monitor and evaluate the performance of the agent or custodian on a regular basis as is reasonably determined by the trustees.
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Subd. 8. Fiduciary.
The term "fiduciary" means a guardian, trustee, receiver, conservator, personal representative, or any person acting in any fiduciary capacity for any person or corporation.
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Subd. 8a. Personal representative.
The term "personal representative" includes executor, administrator, successor personal representative, special administrator, and persons who perform substantially the same function under the law governing their status.
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Subd. 9. Taxable year.
The term "taxable year" means the period for which the taxes levied by this chapter are imposed. It shall be a calendar year, a fiscal year, or, in cases where returns for a fractional part of a year are permitted or required, the period for which such return is made.
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Subd. 10. Fiscal year.
The term "fiscal year" means an accounting period of 12 months ending on the last day of any month other than December. In the case of any taxpayer who has made the election provided by section 289A.08, subdivision 5 , the term means the annual period (varying from 52 to 53 weeks) so elected.
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Subd. 11. Paid or incurred, paid or accrued, received, or received or accrued.
The terms "paid or incurred" and "paid or accrued" shall be construed according to the method of accounting upon the basis of which net income is computed for the purposes of the taxes imposed by this chapter; and the terms "received" and "received or accrued" shall be similarly construed.
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Subd. 12. Stock or share.
The term "stock" or "share" means the interest of a member in a corporation however evidenced.
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Subd. 13. Stockholder or shareholder.
The term "stockholder" or "shareholder" means the owner of any such "stock" or "share."
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Subd. 14. State or this state.
The term "state" or "this state" means the state of Minnesota.
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Subd. 14a. Surviving spouse.
The term "surviving spouse" means an individual who is a surviving spouse under section 2(a) of the Internal Revenue Code for the taxable year.
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Subd. 15. Includes.
The term "includes" and its derivatives, when used in a definition contained in this chapter, shall not exclude other things otherwise within the meaning of the term defined.
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Subd. 16. Commissioner.
The term "commissioner" means the commissioner of revenue of the state of Minnesota.
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Subd. 17. Property.
The term "property" includes every form of property, real, personal, or mixed, tangible or intangible, and every interest therein, legal or equitable, irrespective of how created or arising. Property pledged or mortgaged shall be treated as owned by the pledgor or mortgagor.
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Subd. 18. Duty on estate or trust.
When, in this chapter, the estate of a decedent or a trust is referred to as a taxable person, or a duty is imposed on such estate or trust, the reference may be construed as meaning the fiduciary in charge of the property of such estate or trust, and the duty shall be treated as imposed on such fiduciary.
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Subd. 19. Net income.
(a) For a trust or estate taxable under section
Minn. Stat. § 47.10
47.10 REAL ESTATE; ACQUISITION, HOLDING.
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Subdivision 1. Authority, approval, limitations.
(a) Except as otherwise specially provided, the net book value of land and buildings for the transaction of the business of the corporation, including parking lots and premises leased to others, shall not be more than as follows:
(1) for a bank, trust company, savings bank, or stock savings association, if investment is for acquisition and improvements to establish a new banking office, or is for improvements to existing property or acquisition and improvements to adjacent property, approval by the commissioner of commerce is not required if the total investment does not exceed 50 percent of its existing capital stock and paid-in surplus. Upon written prior approval of the commissioner of commerce, a bank, trust company, savings bank, or stock savings association may invest in the property and improvements in clause (1) or for acquisition of nonadjacent property for expansion or future use, if the aggregate of all such investments does not exceed 100 percent of its existing capital stock and paid-in surplus;
(2) for a mutual savings association, five percent of its net assets.
(b) For purposes of this subdivision, an intervening highway, street, road, alley, other public thoroughfare, or easement of any kind does not cause two parcels of real property to be nonadjacent.
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Subd. 2. Books and records.
With the exception of annual amortization charges which are made in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles, no state bank, trust company, savings bank, or savings association shall decrease the actual cost of the investment as shown on its books by a charge to any of its capital accounts unless approved by the commissioner.
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Subd. 3. Leasehold place of business; approval of certain lease agreements.
No bank, trust company, savings bank, or savings association may acquire real property and improvements of any nature to it for its place of business by lease agreement if the lessor has an existing direct or indirect interest in the management or ownership of the bank, trust company, savings bank, or savings association without prior written approval by the commissioner. This includes subsequent amendments and associated leasehold improvements. A lessee's expenditures to maintain the leasehold premises consistent with ordinary business conditions and within the preapproved lease agreement does not constitute an amendment requiring prior written approval.
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Subd. 4. Approval of certain insider agreements.
No bank, trust company, savings bank, or savings association may purchase, sell, or lease real property, personal property, improvements or equipment of a value of $25,000 or more if the purchaser, seller, lessor, or lessee other than the bank, trust company, savings bank, or savings association has an existing direct or indirect interest in the institution without prior written approval by the commissioner. Each bank, trust company, savings bank, or savings association must maintain documentation of transactions with interested parties, including personal property leases and purchases or sales of under $25,000, which demonstrates the commercial reasonableness and fair market value of the transaction.
History:
( 7648 ) RL s 2976 ; 1941 c 37 s 1 ; 1955 c 104 s 1 ; 1957 c 601 s 4 ; 1982 c 473 s 5 ; 1983 c 289 s 114 subd 1; 1984 c 655 art 1 s 92 ; 1987 c 349 art 1 s 5 ,6; 1992 c 587 art 1 s 7 ; 1995 c 171 s 8 ; 1995 c 202 art 1 s 25 ; art 2 s 2; 1996 c 414 art 1 s 6 ; 2001 c 56 s 1 ; 2005 c 118 s 1
Minn. Stat. § 47.206
47.206 INTEREST RATE OR DISCOUNT POINT AGREEMENTS.
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Subdivision 1. Definitions.
For the purposes of this section, the terms defined in this subdivision have the meanings given them.
(a) "Lender" means a person or entity referred to in section 47.20, subdivision 1 , a credit union, or a person making a conventional loan as defined under section 47.20, subdivision 2 , clause (3), or cooperative apartment loan as defined under section 47.20, subdivision 2 , clause (4), except that conventional loans or cooperative apartment loans include any loan or advance of credit in an original principal balance of less than $200,000. "Lender" also means a mortgage broker as defined in paragraph (e).
(b) "Loan" means loans and advances of credit authorized under section 47.20, subdivision 1 , clauses (1) to (4), and conventional loans as defined under section 47.20, subdivision 2 , clause (3), or cooperative apartment loans as defined under section 47.20, subdivision 2 , clause (4), except that conventional loans or cooperative apartment loans also include all loans and advances of credit in an original principal balance of less than $200,000. "Loan" does not include a loan or advance of credit secured by a mortgage upon real property containing more than one residential unit or secured by a security interest in shares of more than one residential unit in a building owned or leased by a cooperative apartment corporation.
(c) "Borrower" means a natural person who has submitted an application for a loan to a lender.
(d) "Interest rate or discount point agreement" or "agreement" means a contract between a lender and a borrower under which the lender agrees, subject to the lender's underwriting and approval requirements, to make a loan at a specified interest rate or number of discount points, or both, and the borrower agrees to make a loan on those terms. The term also includes an offer by a lender that is accepted by a borrower under which the lender promises to guarantee or lock in an interest rate or number of discount points, or both, for a specific period of time.
(e) "Mortgage broker" includes:
(1) a person who performs or offers to perform the activities of "mortgage brokering" or "soliciting, placing, or negotiating a residential mortgage loan" as defined by chapter 58; or
(2) the employees of a person described in clause (1).
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Subd. 2. Disclosures.
A lender offering borrowers the opportunity to enter into an agreement in advance of closing shall disclose, in writing, to the borrowers at the time the offer is made: (1) a definite expiration date or term of the agreement, which may not be less than the reasonably anticipated closing date or time required to process, approve, and close the loan; (2) the circumstances, if any, under which the borrower will be permitted to close at a lower rate of interest or points than expressed in the agreement; (3) the steps required to process, approve, and close the loan, including the actions required of the borrower and lender; (4) that the agreement is enforceable by the borrower; and (5) the consideration required for the agreement.
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Subd. 3. Agreements to be in writing.
A borrower or lender may not maintain an action on an agreement unless the agreement is in writing or is permitted by subdivision 4, expresses consideration, sets forth the relevant terms and conditions, and is signed by the borrower and the lender.
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Subd. 4. Oral agreements and acceptances prohibited.
A lender may not offer or induce a borrower to accept an oral agreement and a borrower may not be permitted to orally accept an agreement, provided that if the borrower and lender have not executed a written agreement, this subdivision does not prohibit the offer and acceptance of an oral agreement which is offered and accepted during a period no greater than ten days before closing.
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Subd. 5. Statement of current terms not an offer.
An oral or written statement of current loan terms and conditions, including interest rates and number of discount points, is not an offer or an inducement by a lender to enter into an agreement. A written statement of current loan terms and conditions must be accompanied by a disclaimer that the statement is not an offer to enter into an agreement and that an offer may only be made pursuant to subdivisions 3 and 4.
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Subd. 6. Prohibited acts.
A person, including a lender, may not advise, encourage, or induce a borrower or third party to misrepresent information that is the subject of a loan application or to violate the terms of the agreement. Neither a mortgage lender nor a mortgage broker shall advertise mortgage terms, including interest rate and discount points, which were not available from the lender or broker on the date or dates specified in the advertisement. For purposes of this section, "advertisement" shall include a list or sampler of mortgage terms compiled from information provided by the lender or broker, with or without charge to the lender or broker, by a newspaper, and shall also include advertising on the Internet.
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Subd. 7. Penalties.
(a) Except as provided in paragraph (c), a lender who violates this section or who causes unreasonable delay in processing a loan application beyond the expiration date of the agreement is liable to the borrower for a penalty in an amount not to exceed the borrower's actual out-of-pocket damages, including the present value of the increased interest costs over the normal life of the loan, or specific performance of the agreement. This paragraph applies to an agreement entered into after January 1, 1987.
(b) In addition to the penalty in paragraph (a), a lender is liable to the borrower for $500 for each violation of this section or for unreasonable delay in processing a loan application which causes the agreement to expire before closing.
(c) A lender who violates subdivision 4 is jointly and severally liable to the borrower for specific performance of the agreement or for a penalty in the amount of $500 or an amount not to exceed the borrower's actual out-of-pocket damages, including the present value of the increased costs over the normal life of the loan, whichever is greater, due to the good faith reliance of the borrower on the lender's oral representation.
(d) For purposes of this subdivision, evidence of unreasonable delay includes, but is not limited to:
(1) failure of the lender to return telephone calls or otherwise respond to the borrower's inquiries concerning the status of the loan;
(2) the addition by the lender of new requirements for processing or approving the loan that were not disclosed to the borrower under subdivision 2, clause (3), unless the requirements result from governmental agency or secondary mortgage market changes, other than changes in interest rates, that occur after the date of the agreement; or
(3) failure by the lender to take actions necessary to process or approve the loan within a reasonable period of time, if the borrower provided information requested by the lender in a timely manner.
History:
1987 c 336 s 5 ; 1996 c 439 art 5 s 1 ; 1997 c 157 s 9 ; 1998 c 343 art 2 s 1
Minn. Stat. § 47.207
47.207 CANCELLATION OF PRIVATE MORTGAGE INSURANCE.
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Subdivision 1. Definitions.
For the purposes of this section, the following terms have the meanings given:
(a) "Current fair market value" means the value of the mortgagor's property determined by an appraisal conducted within 90 days of a mortgagor's written request for cancellation of private mortgage insurance. The appraisal shall be conducted by a real estate appraiser, licensed or certified by a state or federal agency, who is reasonably acceptable to the servicer. The appraisal may be conducted at either the request of the lender, mortgagor, or servicer. The mortgagor is responsible for the cost of the appraisal.
(b) "Lender" means a person who makes or holds a residential mortgage loan.
(c) "Private mortgage insurance" means insurance paid for by the mortgagor, including any mortgage guaranty insurance, against the nonpayment of, or default on, a residential mortgage loan, other than mortgage insurance made available under the federal National Housing Act, United States Code, title 38, or title V of the federal Housing Act of 1949. "Private mortgage insurance" does not mean lender-paid mortgage insurance.
(d) "Residential mortgage loan" means a loan secured by either: (1) a mortgage on residential real property; or (2) by certificates of stock or other evidence of ownership interest in and proprietary lease from corporations, partnerships, or other forms of business organizations formed for the purpose of cooperative ownership of residential real property.
(e) "Servicer" means a person who, through any medium or mode of communication, engages in the collection or remittance for, or the right or obligation to collect or remit for, a lender, mortgagee, note owner, noteholder, or for a person's own account, of payments, interest, principal, and escrow items such as insurance and taxes for property subject to a residential mortgage loan.
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Subd. 2. Right to cancel.
With respect to an existing or future residential mortgage loan, a mortgagor shall have the right to elect, in writing, to cancel private mortgage insurance in connection with a residential mortgage loan if all of the following terms and conditions have been met:
(1) the current unpaid principal balance of the mortgage is 80 percent or less of the current fair market value of the property;
(2) the mortgagor has not:
(i) been 60 days or longer past due on a mortgage payment during the 12-month period beginning 24 months before the date on which the servicer receives the mortgagor's written request for cancellation; or
(ii) been 30 days or longer past due on a mortgage payment during the 12 months preceding the date on which the servicer receives the mortgagor's written request for cancellation;
(3) the mortgage was made at least 24 months prior to the receipt of a request for cancellation;
(4) the property securing the mortgage loan is owner-occupied; and
(5) the mortgage has not been pooled with other mortgages in order to constitute, in whole or in part, collateral for bonds issued by the state of Minnesota or any political subdivision of the state of Minnesota or of any agency of any political subdivision of the state of Minnesota.
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Subd. 3. Notice.
(a) With respect to each existing or future residential mortgage loan, a servicer must provide an annual written notice to the mortgagor currently paying premiums for private mortgage insurance. The notice must be in 12-point type or greater and appear substantially as follows:
NOTICE OF RIGHT TO CANCEL PRIVATE MORTGAGE INSURANCE
If you currently pay private mortgage insurance premiums, you may have the right under federal law or Minnesota law to cancel the insurance and stop paying premiums. This would reduce your total monthly payment .
You may have the right to cancel private mortgage insurance if the principal balance of your loan is 80 percent or less of the current market value of your home. Under Minnesota law, the value of your property can be determined by a professional appraisal. You need to pay for this appraisal, but in most cases you will be able to recover this cost in less than a year if your mortgage insurance is canceled.
If you wish to learn whether you are eligible to cancel this insurance, please contact us at (enter address and phone number of servicer).
(b) The notice required by this subdivision must be on its own page, but a disclosure notice concerning private mortgage insurance required by federal law may be included on the same page as the disclosure notice required by this subdivision. The page containing the notice required by this subdivision may be included with other disclosures or notices required by federal law that are sent to the mortgagor.
(c) If the mortgage has been pooled with other mortgages in order to constitute, in whole or in part, collateral for bonds issued by the state of Minnesota or any political subdivision of the state of Minnesota or of any agency of any political subdivision of the state of Minnesota and notice of right to cancel private mortgage insurance is required under federal law, no notice under this subdivision is required.
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Subd. 4. Servicer response to cancellation request.
(a) Within 30 days of receipt of a mortgagor's written request to cancel private mortgage insurance, a servicer shall:
(1) provide a written notice to the insurer to cancel the private mortgage insurance and written notice to the mortgagor that a request for cancellation has been sent to the insurer if the servicer determines that the private mortgage insurance should be canceled;
(2) provide a written response to the mortgagor identifying all additional information needed from the mortgagor if the servicer reasonably needs more information from the mortgagor to determine whether the mortgagor is eligible for cancellation of private mortgage insurance; or
(3) provide a written notice to the mortgagor of the reasons for the servicer's refusal to cancel the private mortgage insurance if the servicer determines that the mortgagor does not meet the requirements for cancellation of private mortgage insurance.
(b) If a lender, or any other person involved in the mortgage transaction, receives a written request for cancellation of private mortgage insurance, the lender or other person shall promptly forward the mortgagor's request for cancellation to the servicer, if the servicer is known to the lender or other person. If the servicer is not known to the lender or other person, the lender or other person shall advise the mortgagor to contact the company to which the mortgagor sends the monthly payment.
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Subd. 5. Lender charges; return of unearned premium.
(a) A lender requiring or offering private mortgage insurance shall make available to the borrower or other person paying the insurance premium the same premium payment plans as are available to the lender in paying the private mortgage insurance premium.
(b) Any refund or rebate for unearned private mortgage insurance premiums shall be paid to the mortgagor or other person actually providing the funds for payment of the premium.
(c) A lender or servicer shall not charge the mortgagor a fee or other consideration for cancellation of the private mortgage insurance or for any of the acts required by this section, except that the lender or servicer shall have the right to recover the cost of an appraisal if the mortgagor elects to have the lender or servicer perform or arrange for the appraisal.
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Subd. 6. Interpretation.
Nothing in this section shall be deemed to be inconsistent with the federal Homeowner's Protection Act of 1998, codified at United States Code, title 12, sections 4901 to 4910, within the meaning of "inconsistent" as used in section 9 of that act, codified at United States Code, title 12, section 4908.
History:
1999 c 151 s 11
Minn. Stat. § 47.208
47.208 DELIVERY OF SATISFACTION OF MORTGAGE.
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Subdivision 1. Delivery required.
Upon written request, a good and valid satisfaction of mortgage in recordable form shall be delivered to any party paying the full and final balance of a mortgage indebtedness that is secured by Minnesota real estate; such delivery shall be in hand or by certified mail postmarked within 45 days of the receipt of the written request to the holder of any interest of record in said mortgage and within 45 days of the payment of all sums due thereon.
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Subd. 2. Penalty.
If a lender fails to comply with the requirements of subdivision 1, the lender may be held liable to the party paying the balance of the mortgage debt, for a civil penalty of up to $500, in addition to any actual damages caused by the violation.
History:
1987 c 336 s 6
Minn. Stat. § 47.21
47.21 do not apply to loans made under this chapter, except as provided in this section. No loan secured by a first lien on a borrower's primary residence shall be made pursuant to this section if the proceeds of the loan are used to finance the purchase of the borrower's primary residence, unless:
(1) the proceeds of the loan are used to finance the purchase of a manufactured home or a prefabricated building; or
(2) the proceeds of the loan are used in whole or in part to satisfy the balance owed on a contract for deed.
If the proceeds of the loan are used to finance the purchase of the borrower's primary residence, the licensee shall consent to the subsequent transfer of the real estate if the existing borrower continues after transfer to be obligated for repayment of the entire remaining indebtedness. The licensee shall release the existing borrower from all obligations under the loan instruments, if the transferee (1) meets the standards of credit worthiness normally used by persons in the business of making loans, including but not limited to the ability of the transferee to make the loan payments and satisfactorily maintain the property used as collateral, and (2) executes an agreement in writing with the licensee whereby the transferee assumes the obligations of the existing borrower under the loan instruments. Any such agreement shall not affect the priority, validity or enforceability of any loan instrument. A licensee may charge a fee not in excess of one-tenth of one percent of the remaining unpaid principal balance in the event the loan is assumed by the transferee and the existing borrower continues after the transfer to be obligated for repayment of the entire assumed indebtedness. A licensee may charge a fee not in excess of one percent of the remaining unpaid principal balance in the event the remaining indebtedness is assumed by the transferee and the existing borrower is released from all obligations under the loan instruments, but in no event shall the fee exceed $456.
A licensee making a loan under this chapter secured by a lien on real estate shall comply with the requirements of section 47.20, subdivision 8 .
No licensee shall conduct the business of making loans under this chapter within any office, room, or place of business in which any other business is solicited or engaged in, or in association or conjunction therewith, if the commissioner finds that the character of the other business is such that it would facilitate evasions of this chapter or of the rules lawfully made hereunder. The commissioner may promulgate rules dealing with such other businesses.
No licensee shall transact the business or make any loan provided for by this chapter under any other name or at any other place of business than that named in the license. No licensee shall take any confession of judgment or any power of attorney. No licensee shall take any note or promise to pay that does not accurately disclose the principal amount of the loan, the time for which it is made, and the agreed rate or amount of charge, nor any instrument in which blanks are left to be filled in after execution. Nothing herein is deemed to prohibit the making of loans by mail or arranging for settlement and closing of real estate secured loans by an unrelated qualified closing agent at a location other than the licensed location.
History:
( 7774-52 ) 1939 c 12 s 12 ; 1959 c 573 s 7 ; 1967 c 261 s 2 ; 1974 c 412 s 2 ; 1981 c 258 s 10 ; 1982 c 547 s 5 ; 1982 c 642 s 13 ; 1984 c 576 s 6 ; 1985 c 248 s 70 ; 1Sp1985 c 1 s 17 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1987 c 349 art 1 s 36 ; 1992 c 587 art 1 s 24 ; 1993 c 257 s 37 ; 1995 c 202 art 1 s 20 ; 2013 c 135 art 2 s 3
Minn. Stat. § 471.462
471.462 WRITTEN ESTIMATE OF CONSULTANT FEES.
For the purposes of this section, "city" means a home rule charter or statutory city. When an applicant applies for a permit, license, or other approval relating to real estate development or construction, the applicant may request that the city provide a written nonbinding estimate of the consulting fees to be charged to the applicant based on information available at that time. If the applicant requests the estimate, the application shall not be deemed complete until the city has:
(1) provided an estimate to the applicant;
(2) received the required application fees, as specified by the city;
(3) received a signed acceptance of the fee estimate from the applicant; and
(4) received a signed statement that the applicant has not relied on the estimate of fees in its decision to proceed with the final application from the applicant.
History:
2019 c 27 s 1
Minn. Stat. § 471.90
471.90 STATUTORY CITIES, HOSPITAL; TRANSFER TO COUNTY.
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Subdivision 1. Authorization.
When duly authorized by unanimous vote of its governing body any statutory city owning real estate and a hospital building situated thereon and equipment jointly with the county in which said statutory city is located, may, for a nominal consideration or without consideration, transfer its title and interest in the real estate, hospital building, and equipment to said county.
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Subd. 2. County may accept.
Said county, when authorized by a majority vote of its governing body, may accept such grant and conveyance.
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Subd. 3. Statutory city obligations not assumed by county.
Such county does not assume and shall not be liable for any part of the obligations incurred by said statutory city in the joint enterprise of the statutory city and county in the construction or operation of said hospital.
History:
1951 c 497 s 1 -3; 1973 c 123 art 5 s 7
Minn. Stat. § 4717.1750
4717.1750 , subparts 4, 5, and 6.
(c) A spa pool intended for seated recreational use, including a hot tub or whirlpool, that is located on a houseboat that is rented to the public:
(1) is not a public pool;
(2) is exempt from the requirements for public pools under subdivisions 1 to 2c, 4, and 5 and Minnesota Rules, chapter 4717; and
(3) is exempt from the requirements under paragraph (b), clause (3).
(d) A political subdivision must not adopt a local law, rule, or ordinance that prohibits the operation of, or establishes additional requirements for, a spa pool that meets the criteria in paragraph (b) or (c).
(e) A spa pool under this subdivision must be conspicuously posted with the following notice and must be provided to renters upon check in:
"NOTICE
This spa is exempt from state and local anti-entrapment and sanitary requirements that prevent waterborne diseases such as Legionnaires' disease, Pseudomonas folliculitis (hot tub rash), and chemical burns and is not subject to inspection.
USE AT YOUR OWN RISK
This notice is required under Minnesota Statutes, section 144.1222, subdivision 2d ."
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Subd. 3. Enclosed sports arenas.
The commissioner of health shall be responsible for the adoption of rules and enforcement of applicable laws and rules relating to indoor air quality in the operation and maintenance of enclosed sports arenas.
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Subd. 4. Definitions.
(a) For purposes of this section, the following terms have the meanings given them.
(b) "ASME/ANSI standard" means a safety standard accredited by the American National Standards Institute and published by the American Society of Mechanical Engineers.
(c) "ASTM standard" means a safety standard issued by ASTM International, formerly known as the American Society for Testing and Materials.
(d) "Public pool" means any pool other than a private residential pool, that is: (1) open to the public generally, whether for a fee or free of charge; (2) open exclusively to members of an organization and their guests; (3) open to residents of a multiunit apartment building, apartment complex, residential real estate development, or other multifamily residential area; (4) open to patrons of a hotel or lodging or other public accommodation facility; or (5) operated by a person in a park, school, licensed child care facility, group home, motel, camp, resort, club, condominium, manufactured home park, or political subdivision with the exception of swimming pools at family day care homes licensed under section 142B.41, subdivision 9 , paragraph (a).
(e) "Unblockable suction outlet or drain" means a drain of any size and shape that a human body cannot sufficiently block to create a suction entrapment hazard and meets ASME/ANSI standards.
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Subd. 5. Exemptions.
(a) A public swimming pond in existence before January 1, 2008, is not a public pool for purposes of this section and section
Minn. Stat. § 473.121
473.121 , subdivision 2, that contains a portion of a state trail administered by the Department of Natural Resources. For purposes of item (i)(A), a paid booking of five or more nights shall be counted as two bookings. Class 4c property also includes commercial use real property used exclusively for recreational purposes in conjunction with other class 4c property classified under this clause and devoted to temporary and seasonal residential occupancy for recreational purposes, up to a total of two acres, provided the property is not devoted to commercial recreational use for more than 250 days in the year preceding the year of assessment and is located within two miles of the class 4c property with which it is used. In order for a property to qualify for classification under this clause, the owner must submit a declaration to the assessor designating the cabins or units occupied for 250 days or less in the year preceding the year of assessment by January 15 of the assessment year. Those cabins or units and a proportionate share of the land on which they are located must be designated class 4c under this clause as otherwise provided. The remainder of the cabins or units and a proportionate share of the land on which they are located will be designated as class 3a. The owner of property desiring designation as class 4c property under this clause must provide guest registers or other records demonstrating that the units for which class 4c designation is sought were not occupied for more than 250 days in the year preceding the assessment if so requested. The portion of a property operated as a (1) restaurant, (2) bar, (3) gift shop, (4) conference center or meeting room, and (5) other nonresidential facility operated on a commercial basis not directly related to temporary and seasonal residential occupancy for recreation purposes does not qualify for class 4c. For the purposes of this paragraph, "recreational activities" means renting ice fishing houses, boats and motors, snowmobiles, downhill or cross-country ski equipment; providing marina services, launch services, or guide services; or selling bait and fishing tackle;
(2) qualified property used as a golf course if:
(i) it is open to the public on a daily fee basis. It may charge membership fees or dues, but a membership fee may not be required in order to use the property for golfing, and its green fees for golfing must be comparable to green fees typically charged by municipal courses; and
(ii) it meets the requirements of section 273.112, subdivision 3 , paragraph (d).
A structure used as a clubhouse, restaurant, or place of refreshment in conjunction with the golf course is classified as class 3a property;
(3) real property up to a maximum of three acres of land owned and used by a nonprofit community service oriented organization and not used for residential purposes on either a temporary or permanent basis, provided that:
(i) the property is not used for a revenue-producing activity for more than six days in the calendar year preceding the year of assessment; or
(ii) the organization makes annual charitable contributions and donations at least equal to the property's previous year's property taxes and the property is allowed to be used for public and community meetings or events for no charge, as appropriate to the size of the facility.
For purposes of this clause:
(A) "charitable contributions and donations" has the same meaning as lawful gambling purposes under section 349.12, subdivision 25 , excluding those purposes relating to the payment of taxes, assessments, fees, auditing costs, and utility payments;
(B) "property taxes" excludes the state general tax;
(C) a "nonprofit community service oriented organization" means any corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution organized and operated exclusively for charitable, religious, fraternal, civic, or educational purposes, and which is exempt from federal income taxation pursuant to section 501(c)(3), (8), (10), or (19) of the Internal Revenue Code; and
(D) "revenue-producing activities" shall include but not be limited to property or that portion of the property that is used as an on-sale intoxicating liquor or 3.2 percent malt liquor establishment licensed under chapter 340A, a restaurant open to the public, bowling alley, a retail store, gambling conducted by organizations licensed under chapter 349, an insurance business, or office or other space leased or rented to a lessee who conducts a for-profit enterprise on the premises.
Any portion of the property not qualifying under either item (i) or (ii) is class 3a. The use of the property for social events open exclusively to members and their guests for periods of less than 24 hours, when an admission is not charged nor any revenues are received by the organization shall not be considered a revenue-producing activity.
The organization shall maintain records of its charitable contributions and donations and of public meetings and events held on the property and make them available upon request any time to the assessor to ensure eligibility. An organization meeting the requirement under item (ii) must file an application by May 1 with the assessor for eligibility for the current year's assessment. The commissioner shall prescribe a uniform application form and instructions;
(4) postsecondary student housing of not more than one acre of land that is owned by a nonprofit corporation organized under chapter 317A and is used exclusively by a student cooperative, sorority, or fraternity for on-campus housing or housing located within two miles of the border of a college campus;
(5)(i) manufactured home parks as defined in section 327.14, subdivision 3 , excluding manufactured home parks described in items (ii) and (iii), (ii) manufactured home parks as defined in section 327.14, subdivision 3 , that are described in section 273.124, subdivision 3a , and (iii) class I manufactured home parks as defined in section 327C.015, subdivision 2 ;
(6) real property that is actively and exclusively devoted to indoor fitness, health, social, recreational, and related uses, is owned and operated by a not-for-profit corporation, and is located within the metropolitan area as defined in section 473.121, subdivision 2 ;
(7) a leased or privately owned noncommercial aircraft storage hangar not exempt under section 272.01, subdivision 2 , and the land on which it is located, provided that:
(i) the land is on an airport owned or operated by a city, town, county, Metropolitan Airports Commission, or group thereof; and
(ii) the land lease, or any ordinance or signed agreement restricting the use of the leased premise, prohibits commercial activity performed at the hangar.
If a hangar classified under this clause is sold after June 30, 2000, a bill of sale must be filed by the new owner with the assessor of the county where the property is located within 60 days of the sale;
(8) a privately owned noncommercial aircraft storage hangar not exempt under section 272.01, subdivision 2 , and the land on which it is located, provided that:
(i) the land abuts a public airport; and
(ii) the owner of the aircraft storage hangar provides the assessor with a signed agreement restricting the use of the premises, prohibiting commercial use or activity performed at the hangar; and
(9) residential real estate, a portion of which is used by the owner for homestead purposes, and that is also a place of lodging, if all of the following criteria are met:
(i) rooms are provided for rent to transient guests that generally stay for periods of 14 or fewer days;
(ii) meals are provided to persons who rent rooms, the cost of which is incorporated in the basic room rate;
(iii) meals are not provided to the general public except for special events on fewer than seven days in the calendar year preceding the year of the assessment; and
(iv) the owner is the operator of the property.
The market value subject to the 4c classification under this clause is limited to five rental units. Any rental units on the property in excess of five, must be valued and assessed as class 3a. The portion of the property used for purposes of a homestead by the owner must be classified as class 1a property under subdivision 22;
(10) real property up to a maximum of three acres and operated as a restaurant as defined under section 157.15, subdivision 12 , provided it: (i) is located on a lake as defined under section 103G.005, subdivision 15 , paragraph (a), clause (3); and (ii) is either devoted to commercial purposes for not more than 250 consecutive days, or receives at least 60 percent of its annual gross receipts from business conducted during four consecutive months. Gross receipts from the sale of alcoholic beverages must be included in determining the property's qualification under item (ii). The property's primary business must be as a restaurant and not as a bar. Gross receipts from gift shop sales located on the premises must be excluded. Owners of real property desiring 4c classification under this clause must submit an annual declaration to the assessor by February 1 of the current assessment year, based on the property's relevant information for the preceding assessment year;
(11) lakeshore and riparian property and adjacent land, not to exceed six acres, used as a marina, as defined in section 86A.20, subdivision 5 , which is made accessible to the public and devoted to recreational use for marina services. The marina owner must annually provide evidence to the assessor that it provides services, including lake or river access to the public by means of an access ramp or other facility that is either located on the property of the marina or at a publicly owned site that abuts the property of the marina. No more than 800 feet of lakeshore may be included in this classification. Buildings used in conjunction with a marina for marina services, including but not limited to buildings used to provide food and beverage services, fuel, boat repairs, or the sale of bait or fishing tackle, are classified as class 3a property; and
(12) real and personal property devoted to noncommercial temporary and seasonal residential occupancy for recreation purposes.
Class 4c property has a classification rate of 1.5 percent of market value, except that (i) each parcel of noncommercial seasonal residential recreational property under clause (12) has the same classification rates as class 4bb property, (ii) manufactured home parks assessed under clause (5), item (i), have the same classification rate as class 4b property, the market value of manufactured home parks assessed under clause (5), item (ii), have a classification rate of 0.75 percent if more than 50 percent of the lots in the park are occupied by shareholders in the cooperative corporation or association and a classification rate of one percent if 50 percent or less of the lots are so occupied, and class I manufactured home parks as defined in section 327C.015, subdivision 2 , have a classification rate of 1.0 percent, (iii) commercial-use seasonal residential recreational property and marina recreational land as described in clause (11), has a classification rate of one percent for the first $500,000 of market value, and 1.25 percent for the remaining market value, (iv) the market value of property described in clause (4) has a classification rate of one percent, (v) the market value of property described in clauses (2), (6), and (10) has a classification rate of 1.25 percent, (vi) that portion of the market value of property in clause (9) qualifying for class 4c property has a classification rate of 1.25 percent, and (vii) property qualifying for classification under clause (3) that is owned or operated by a congressionally chartered veterans organization has a classification rate of one percent. The commissioner of veterans affairs must provide a list of congressionally chartered veterans organizations to the commissioner of revenue by June 30, 2017, and by January 1, 2018, and each year thereafter.
(e) Class 4d property includes:
(1) qualifying low-income rental housing certified to the assessor by the Housing Finance Agency under section 273.128, subdivision 3 . If only a portion of the units in the building qualify as low-income rental housing units as certified under section 273.128, subdivision 3 , only the proportion of qualifying units to the total number of units in the building qualify for class 4d(1). The remaining portion of the building shall be classified by the assessor based upon its use. Class 4d(1) also includes the same proportion of land as the qualifying low-income rental housing units are to the total units in the building. For all properties qualifying as class 4d(1), the market value determined by the assessor must be based on the normal approach to value using normal unrestricted rents; and
(2) a unit that is owned by the occupant and used as a homestead by the occupant, and otherwise meets all the requirements for community land trust property under section
Minn. Stat. § 475.53
475.53 ;
(b) the bonds, certificates of indebtedness or other interest-bearing obligations, payable out of a levy of ad valorem taxes, of any county, city, town, or school, drainage or other district, or public authority, created pursuant to law for public purposes in any state of the United States other than Minnesota, provided that the total bonded indebtedness of the county, municipality, district or authority, after deducting the amount of all sinking funds and of all revenue bonds or certificates (including among revenue bonds and certificates those which pledge the full faith and credit of the issuer, if the net revenues applicable to the payment of the bonds or certificates during the three fiscal years immediately preceding the date of purchase exceeded by at least five percent the amount required to pay principal and interest on those bonds or certificates during that period), shall not exceed ten percent of its assessed value; and provided further that if the county, municipality, district or authority is of any state other than Iowa, Wisconsin, North Dakota, or South Dakota, it contains at least 3,500 inhabitants;
(c) the bonds, certificates or other interest-bearing obligations, payable out of special revenues, of any county, city, town, or school, drainage, or other district, or public authority, created pursuant to law for public purposes in any state of the United States, provided that:
(1) if the county, municipality, district or authority is of any state other than Minnesota, it contains at least 3,500 inhabitants;
(2) the obligations were issued to finance the purpose of construction of or addition to a public enterprise furnishing water, sewer, lighting, power, gas, or road facilities, from which revenue is to be derived;
(3) the governing body or other legally constituted authority has covenanted or is required by law to establish and maintain rates to yield sufficient revenue for the payment of operating expenses, maintenance expenses, and principal and interest on the revenue obligations and to pledge that revenue irrevocably for those purposes;
(4) at the date of investment the public enterprise has been in operation for at least three years; and
(5) during the preceding three fiscal years its annual net earnings, after payment of operating expenses and maintenance expenses, have been on the average at least 1-1/4 times the average annual interest, principal, and sinking fund requirements on the revenue obligations during the period from the end of its most recent fiscal year to the final maturity of the obligations; and
(d) the bonds or other interest-bearing obligations, payable from revenues other than ad valorem taxes as contemplated in clause (a), validly issued by any state or insular possession of the United States, or by any agency, instrumentality, municipality, or governmental or public subdivision, district, corporation, commission, board, council, or authority of whatsoever kind, created for public purposes by or pursuant to the laws of any state, provided that the bonds or other interest-bearing obligations are at the time of purchase rated among the highest three quality categories, not applicable to bonds or other interest-bearing obligations in default as to principal, used by a nationally recognized rating agency for rating the quality of similar bonds or other interest-bearing obligations, and are not rated lower by any other such agency.
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Subd. 5. Class four.
(1) Class four shall be:
(a) notes or bonds secured by mortgages or trust deeds on unencumbered real estate, whether in fee or in a leasehold of a duration not less than ten years beyond the maturity of the loan, in any state of the United States, worth at least the amount loaned thereon;
(b) notes or bonds secured by mortgages or trust deeds on unencumbered real estate in clause (1)(a) where the notes or bonds do not exceed 80 percent of the appraised value of the security for the same, provided that the notes or bonds are payable in installments aggregating not less than five percent of the original principal a year in addition to the interest; or, are payable on a regular amortization basis in equal installments, including principal and interest, these installments to be payable monthly in amounts that the debt will be fully paid in not to exceed 30 years if the security is nonagricultural real estate, and these installments to be payable annually or semiannually in amounts that the debt will be fully paid in not to exceed 25 years if the security is agricultural real estate. A construction loan is deemed amortized as required by this clause if the first installment thereon is payable not later than 18 months after the date of the first advance in the case of residential construction or not later than 36 months after the date of the first advance in the case of nonresidential construction; and
(c) notes or bonds secured by mortgages or trust deeds on unencumbered real estate in clause (1)(a) which are in an original principal amount of $100,000 or more and which do not exceed 95 percent of the appraised value of the security for the same which may be payable in the manner as the directors of the savings bank prescribe, provided that construction loans made by a savings bank pursuant to this clause (1)(c) do not exceed in the aggregate five percent of the assets of the savings bank.
(2) Class four investments shall be made only on report of a committee directed to investigate the same and report its value, according to the judgment of its members, and its report shall be preserved among the bank's records.
(3) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in clause (1)(b), a savings bank organized under the laws of this state may invest in notes or bonds secured by mortgages or trust deed where the notes or bonds do not exceed 95 percent of the appraised value of the security for the same. Except as modified herein, the other provisions of clause (1)(b) apply.
(4) For purposes of this subdivision, real estate is deemed unencumbered if the only existing mortgage or lien against the real estate is a first mortgage lien in favor of the savings bank making a second mortgage loan or if the total unpaid aggregate of all outstanding liens against the same real estate does not exceed 80 percent of its appraised value.
(5) Renegotiable rate notes or bonds secured by mortgages or trust deeds where the notes or bonds do not exceed 95 percent of the appraised value of the security for the same.
For the purposes of this clause, a renegotiable rate mortgage loan is a loan issued for a term of three years to five years, secured by a mortgage maturing in not to exceed 30 years, and automatically renewable at equal intervals after the original loan term which may be up to six months shorter or longer than subsequent terms. The loan must be repayable in equal monthly installments of principal and interest during the loan term, in an amount at least sufficient to amortize a loan with the same principal and at the same interest rate over the remaining life of the mortgage.
In the mortgage documents, the savings bank must grant to the borrower an option to renew the loan for a new term, but not beyond the maturity date of the mortgage, at a new interest rate which shall be the savings bank's current market rate of interest on similar loans determined 60 days before the due date of the loan: provided, that the maximum interest rate increase shall be equal to one-half of one percent per year multiplied by the number of years in the loan term with a maximum net increase of five percent over the life of the mortgage. Interest rate increases are optional with the savings bank; net decreases from the previous loan term are mandatory.
The borrower may not be charged costs connected with the renewal of the loan.
Sixty days before the due date of the loan, the savings bank shall send a written notification to the borrower containing the following information: (i) the date on which the entire balance of borrower's loan is due and payable; (ii) a statement that the loan will be renewed automatically by the savings bank at the rate specified in the notice unless the borrower pays the loan by the due date; (iii) the amount of the monthly payment, calculated according to the new rate determined at the time of notice; (iv) a statement that the borrower may prepay the loan without penalty at any time after the original loan becomes due and payable; and (v) the name and phone number of a savings bank employee who will answer the borrowers' questions concerning the information in the notice.
An applicant for a renegotiable rate mortgage loan must be given, at the time an application is requested, written disclosure materials prepared in reasonably simple terms that contain at least the following information: (i) an explanation of how a renegotiable rate mortgage differs from a standard fixed rate mortgage; (ii) an example of a renegotiable rate mortgage indicating the maximum possible interest rate increase and monthly payment calculated on that rate at the time of the first renewal; and (iii) an explanation of how the savings bank determines what the rate will be at the end of each loan term.
(6) An investment in notes or bonds secured by mortgages or trust deeds on real estate in fee or in a leasehold may exceed the 80 percent requirement in paragraph (1), clause (b), and the 95 percent requirement in paragraph (2), if the amount of the loan in excess of those limits is insured or guaranteed by a private mortgage insurer that the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation or the Federal National Mortgage Association has determined to be a qualified private insurer.
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Subd. 6. Class five.
Class five shall be notes secured by such bonds or mortgages, as the bank under this section is authorized to invest in, but no such bond or mortgage shall be taken as collateral security for more than its par value, nor shall the aggregate amount of securities taken be less than the full amount loaned thereon, and no such loan shall be made for a longer time than one year, nor to a greater amount to any one person than three percent of the total deposits of the bank. No such bank shall loan in the aggregate, on the security specified in this paragraph, more than one-fourth of its deposits.
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Subd. 7. Class six.
Class six shall be the "eligible obligations" of "qualifying railroad corporations," both as hereinafter defined.
(a) A "qualifying railroad corporation" shall be one which at the time of investment
(1) Shall have been incorporated under the laws of the United States or of any state thereof or of the District of Columbia, and
(2) Shall own or operate within the United States not less than 500 miles of standard gauge railroad lines exclusive of sidings, or shall have had, for its five preceding fiscal years, average gross railway operating revenues of at least $10,000,000 annually, or shall own or operate railroad terminal property located in a city within the United States having at least 200,000 population, and
(3) Shall not have been in default in the payment of any part of the principal or interest owing by it upon any part of its funded indebtedness, at any times during its current fiscal year and its five consecutive fiscal years immediately prior thereto, except that if the corporation shall have been reorganized in receivership or bankruptcy within such period such corporation shall not have been in such default since the effective date of reorganization, and
(4) Shall not have fixed interest obligations in excess of 60 percent of the total sum of (a) its fixed interest obligations, (b) obligations, if any, bearing interest on a contingent basis, (c) preferred stock, if any, at par or stated value, (d) common stock at par or stated value and (e) earned surplus, and
(5) Shall have had net earnings (a) in its five fiscal years immediately preceding time of purchase, of an average annual amount not less than 1-1/2 times the fixed charges of the year immediately preceding time of purchase, and (b) in four of its five fiscal years immediately preceding time of purchase and in its fiscal year immediately preceding time of purchase, not less than the fixed charges of those respective years, except that if the corporation shall have been reorganized in receivership or bankruptcy within such period, its net earnings for each year shall have been not less than the fixed charges of the reorganized company. As used herein "net earnings" shall be defined as gross operating and nonoperating income of a railroad corporation or its predecessor corporation, minus traffic and transportation expenses, maintenance, depreciation, rent of equipment and joint facilities, and other operating expenses, and taxes excluding income and profits taxes. As used herein "fixed charges" shall be defined as interest on debt on which there is an unqualified obligation to pay interests, leased line rentals and amortization of debt discount and expense, except that if a corporation has been reorganized in receivership or bankruptcy within five years prior to time of purchase "fixed charges" shall be the fixed charges of the reorganized company.
(b) "Eligible obligations" shall be bonds, notes or other obligations which
(1) Shall have been issued by a qualifying railroad corporation, or shall have been assumed or guaranteed as to principal and interest by a qualifying railroad corporation, and
(2) Shall bear interest at a fixed rate, and
(3) Shall have a definite maturity date, and
(4) Shall be secured by either (a) a lien upon railroad lines which shall be a first lien upon at least two-thirds of the total mileage covered by such lien and upon at least 100 miles of main lines or (b) a first mortgage or lien on railroad terminal property and assumed or guaranteed as to principal and interest by two or more qualifying railroad corporations.
(c) No savings bank shall invest in securities of class six to an amount exceeding in the aggregate 15 percent of its deposits; nor in securities of class six secured by lien upon railroad lines, issued, guaranteed, or assumed by any one railroad corporation to an amount exceeding two percent of its deposits; nor in securities of class six secured by lien upon any one railroad terminal property to an amount exceeding one percent of its deposits.
The requirements set forth herein governing investments in securities under this subdivision shall affect only those securities acquired after the effective date of Laws 1945, chapter 140.
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Subd. 8. Class seven.
Class seven shall be farm loan bonds issued by any federal land bank, or by a joint stock land bank in the Federal Reserve district in which Minnesota is situated, in accordance with the provisions of an Act of Congress of the United States of July 17, 1916, known and designated as "The Federal Farm Loan Act," and acts amendatory thereto; stocks, bonds, and obligations of the Federal Home Loan Banks established by Act of Congress known as the Federal Home Loan Bank Act approved July 22, 1932, and acts amendatory thereto; and bonds issued by the federal land banks, federal intermediate credit banks, and the banks for cooperatives in accordance with the provisions of an Act of Congress of the United States known as the Farm Credit Act of 1971, and acts amendatory thereto.
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Subd. 9. Class eight.
Class eight shall be bankers' acceptances of the kind and character following:
(a) Bankers acceptances of the kind and maturities made eligible by law for rediscount with or purchase by Federal Reserve banks, providing the same are accepted or endorsed by a bank, or trust company incorporated under the laws of this state; or by any bank or trust company in the United States which is a member of the Federal Reserve System.
(b) Not more than 20 percent of the assets of any savings bank shall be invested in such acceptances. Not more than seven percent of the aggregate amount credited to the depositors of any savings bank shall be invested in the acceptances of or deposited with a trust and banking company or with a national bank of which a trustee of such savings bank is a director.
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Subd. 10. Class nine.
Class nine shall be railroad equipment trust obligations, comprising bonds, notes or certificates, which when issued are secured by new standard gauge rolling stock purchased or leased by any railroad incorporated in the United States or in Canada, or by the receiver or trustee of any such railroad, or by any corporation engaged in the business of leasing or furnishing railroad rolling stock, provided, that the entire issue of such obligations:
(a) Is required to be paid, in United States dollars within the United States, within 15 years from date of issue in approximately equal annual or semiannual installments commencing not later than three years after the date of issue, and
(b) Is of an aggregate amount not exceeding 80 percent of the cost of the equipment securing such issue; but if issued originally in an amount which exceeded such 80 percent, then investment in the obligations of such issue shall nevertheless be authorized as soon as or at any time after all the unpaid obligations of such issue are reduced to or are less than 50 percent of the cost of the equipment securing such issue.
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Subd. 11. Class ten.
Class ten shall be the bonds of any corporation which at the time of such investment is incorporated under the laws of the United States or any state thereof, or the District of Columbia, and transacting the business of supplying electrical energy, or artificial gas, or natural gas purchased from another corporation and supplied in substitution for or in mixture with artificial gas, for light, heat, power and other purposes, or transacting any or all of such business, provided that at least 75 percent of the gross operating revenues of any such corporation are derived from such business and that not more than 15 percent of the gross operating revenues are derived from any one kind of business other than supplying electricity or gas or electricity and gas, and provided further that such corporation, if operating outside of Minnesota, is subject to regulation by a public utilities commission or public utility commissioner or other similar regulatory body duly established by the laws of the United States or the states or state in which such corporation operates, subject to the following conditions:
(a) Such corporation shall have all franchises necessary to operate in the territory in which at least 75 percent of its gross income is earned, which franchises either shall be indeterminate permits or agreements with, or subject to the jurisdiction of, a public utilities commission or other duly constituted regulatory body, or shall extend at least five years beyond the maturity of such bonds, and such corporation shall file with the commissioner of commerce or make public each year a statement and a report giving the income account covering the previous fiscal year and the balance sheet showing in reasonable detail the assets and liabilities at the end of such fiscal year.
(b) The book value of the outstanding capital stock of such corporation shall at the time of such investment be equal to at least two-thirds of its total funded debt.
(c) Such corporation shall have been in existence for a period of not less than eight fiscal years and at no time within such period of eight fiscal years next preceding the date of such investment shall said corporation have failed to pay promptly and regularly the matured principal and interest of all its indebtedness direct, assumed or guaranteed, but the period of life of the corporation, together with the period of life of any predecessor corporation or corporations from which a substantial portion of its property was acquired by consolidation, merger, purchase, or as a successor corporation, shall be considered together in determining the required period.
(d) For a period of five fiscal years next preceding the date of such investment the net earnings of such corporation shall have been each year not less than twice the annual interest charges on its total funded debt applicable to that period, and for such period the gross operating revenues of any such corporation shall have averaged per year not less than $1,000,000.
(e) In determining the qualifications of any bond under this subdivision where a corporation shall have acquired its property or any substantial portion thereof within five years immediately preceding the date of such investment by consolidation, merger, purchase or as a successor corporation, the gross operating revenues, net earnings and interest charges of the predecessor or constituent corporations shall be consolidated and adjusted so as to ascertain whether the requirements of paragraph (d) have been complied with.
(f) The gross operating revenues and expenses of a corporation for the purpose of this subdivision shall be respectively the total amount earned from the operation of, and the total expense of maintaining and operating, all property owned and operated or leased and operated by such corporation, as determined by the system of accounts prescribed by the public utility commission or other similar regulatory body having jurisdiction in the matter. The gross operating revenues and expenses, as defined above, of subsidiary companies must be included, provided that all the mortgage bonds and a controlling interest in stock or stocks of such subsidiary companies are pledged as part security for the mortgage debt of the principal corporation.
(g) The net earnings of a corporation for the purpose of this subdivision shall be the balance obtained by deducting from its gross operating revenues its operating and maintenance expenses, taxes other than federal and state income taxes, rentals, depreciation and provision for renewals and retirements of the physical assets of the corporation, and by adding to said balance its income from securities and miscellaneous sources, but not, however, to exceed 15 percent of said balance. The term "funded debt" shall be construed to mean all interest-bearing debt excepting therefrom unsecured obligations maturing within one year of date of issue.
(h) Such bonds must be part of an original issue of not less than $1,000,000 and must be mortgage bonds secured by a first or refunding mortgage secured by property owned and operated by the corporation issuing or assuming them, or must be underlying mortgage bonds secured by property owned and operated by the corporation issuing or assuming them, provided that such bonds are to be refunded by a junior mortgage providing for their retirement and provided further that the bonds under such junior mortgage comply with the requirements of this subdivision and that such underlying mortgage either is a closed mortgage or remains open solely for the issuance of additional bonds which are to be pledged under such junior mortgage. The aggregate principal amount of bonds secured by such first or refunding mortgage plus the principal amount of all the underlying outstanding bonds shall not exceed 60 percent of the value of the physical property owned as shown by the books of the corporation and subject to the lien of such mortgage or mortgages securing the total mortgage debt, provided that if a refunding mortgage, it must provide for the retirement on or before the date of their maturity of all bonds secured by prior liens on the property. No such savings bank shall loan upon or invest in bonds of such public utility companies in an amount exceeding in the aggregate ten percent of its deposits and surplus, nor exceeding five percent thereof in the bonds of any one public utility company.
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Subd. 12. Class eleven.
Class eleven shall be the bonds of any corporation which at the time of such investment is incorporated under the laws of the United States or any state thereof, or the District of Columbia, and authorized to engage, and engaging, in the business of furnishing telephone service in the United States, provided that such corporation is subject to regulation by a public utility commission or similar federal or state regulatory body duly established by the laws of the United States or the states or state in which such corporation operates, subject to the following conditions:
(a) Such corporation shall have been in existence for a period of not less than eight fiscal years and at no time within such period of eight fiscal years next preceding the date of such investment shall said corporation have failed to pay promptly and regularly the matured principal and interest of all its indebtedness direct, assumed or guaranteed, but the period of life of the corporation, together with the period of life of any predecessor corporation or corporations from which a substantial portion of its property was acquired by consolidation, merger, purchase or as a successor corporation, shall be considered together in determining the required period; and such corporation shall file with the commissioner of commerce or make public in each year a statement and a report giving the income account covering the previous fiscal year and the balance sheet showing in reasonable detail the assets and liabilities at the end of such fiscal year.
(b) The book value of the outstanding capital stock of such corporation shall at the time of such investment be equal to at least two-thirds of its total funded debt.
(c) For a period of five fiscal years next preceding the date of such investment the net earnings of such corporation shall have been each year not less than twice the annual interest charges on its total funded debt applicable to that period, and for such period, the gross operating revenues of any such corporation shall have averaged per year not less than $5,000,000.
(d) In determining the qualifications of any bond under this subdivision where a corporation shall have acquired its property or any substantial portion thereof within five years immediately preceding the date of such investment by consolidation, merger, purchase or as a successor corporation, the gross operating revenues, net earnings and interest charges of the predecessor or constituent corporations shall be consolidated and adjusted so as to ascertain whether the requirements of paragraph (c) have been complied with.
(e) The gross operating revenues and expenses of a corporation for the purpose of this subdivision shall be respectively the total amount earned from the operation of, and the total expense of maintaining and operating, all property owned and operated or leased and operated by such corporation, as determined by the system of accounts prescribed by the public utility commission or similar federal or state regulatory body having jurisdiction in the matter.
(f) The net earnings of a corporation for the purpose of this subdivision shall be the balance obtained by deducting from its gross operating revenues its operating and maintenance expenses, taxes, other than federal and state income taxes, rentals, depreciation and provision, for renewals and retirements of the physical assets of the corporation, and by adding to said balance its income from securities and miscellaneous sources, but not, however, to exceed 15 percent of said balance. The term "funded debt" shall be construed to mean all interest-bearing debt excepting therefrom unsecured obligations maturing within one year of date of issue.
(g) Such bonds must be a part of an original issue or of a subsequent series of bonds of the aggregate amount of not less than $5,000,000, both the original issue and the subsequent series being protected by the same mortgage provisions, and must be secured by a first or refunding mortgage, and the aggregate principal amount of bonds secured by such first or refunding mortgage plus the principal amount of all the underlying outstanding bonds shall not exceed 60 percent of the value of the property, real and personal, owned absolutely as shown by the books of the corporation and subject to the lien of such mortgage, provided that if a refunding mortgage, it must provide for the retirement of all bonds secured by prior liens on the property. Not more than 33-1/3 percent of the property constituting the specific security for such bonds may consist of stock or unsecured obligations of affiliated or other telephone companies, or both. No such savings banks shall loan upon or invest in bonds of such telephone companies in an amount exceeding in the aggregate ten percent of its deposits and surplus, nor exceeding five percent thereof in the bonds of any one telephone company.
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Subd. 13. Class twelve.
Class twelve shall be:
(a) bonds and obligations of the Federal Home Loan Banks established by Act of Congress known as the Federal Home Loan Bank Act, approved July 23, 1932, and Acts amendatory thereto, and in bonds and obligations of the Home Owners' Loan Corporation established by Act of Congress known as the Home Owners' Loan Act of 1933, and Acts amendatory thereto;
(b) certificates of deposits of any bank or trust company, however organized, the deposits of which are insured in whole or in part by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, to the extent that such certificates of deposit are fully insured;
(c) loans secured by its own passbooks or other evidences of indebtedness;
(d) shares, accounts, or certificates of any savings association, however organized, the accounts of which are insured in whole or in part by the federal savings and loan insurance corporation, to the extent that such shares, accounts, or certificates are fully insured.
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Subd. 14. Trust or estate assets.
(a) The district court, upon petition of a trustee under a will or other instrument may, if the trust does not otherwise provide, authorize the trustee to invest the income or principal of the trust fund in policies of life or endowment insurance or annuity contracts issued by a life insurance company duly authorized to transact business in the state, on the life of any beneficiary of the trust or on the life of any person in whose life such beneficiary has an insurable interest.
(b) The district court, upon the application of a guardian, may authorize the guardian to invest income or principal of the estate of the ward in policies of life or endowment insurance or annuity contracts, issued by a life insurance company duly authorized to transact business in the state, on the life of the ward or on the life of a person in whose life the ward has an insurable interest.
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Subd. 15. Class thirteen.
Class thirteen shall be obligations payable in United States dollars issued or fully guaranteed by International Bank for Reconstruction and Development.
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Subd. 16. Class fourteen.
Class fourteen shall be obligations payable in United States dollars issued or fully guaranteed by the Asian Development Bank.
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Subd. 17. Class fifteen.
Class fifteen shall be obligations payable in United States dollars issued or fully guaranteed by the Inter-American Development Bank.
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Subd. 18. Class sixteen.
Class sixteen shall be obligations payable in United States dollars issued or fully guaranteed by the African Development Bank.
History:
( 7714 ) RL s 3022 ; 1907 c 468 s 7 ,8; 1913 c 124 s 1 ; 1913 c 506 s 1 ; 1917 c 88 s 1 ; 1919 c 181 s 1 ; 1923 c 421 s 1 ; 1927 c 368 s 1 ; 1927 c 422 s 1 ; 1931 c 296 s 1 ; 1933 c 256 s 1 ,2; 1933 c 307 s 1 ; 1933 c 368 s 1 ; Ex1933 c 50 s 1 ; 1939 c 105 s 1 ; 1939 c 141 s 1 ; 1939 c 409 s 1 ; 1941 c 380 s 1 -3; 1943 c 197 s 1 ; 1943 c 635 s 6 ; 1945 c 140 s 1 ; 1951 c 344 s 1 ; 1953 c 261 s 1 ; 1953 c 496 s 1 ; 1957 c 601 s 22 ; 1959 c 88 s 15 ; 1959 c 601 s 1 ; 1961 c 298 s 5 ,6; 1963 c 153 s 10 ; 1965 c 46 s 2 ; 1965 c 315 s 1 ; 1969 c 51 s 1 ; 1973 c 123 art 5 s 7 ; 1973 c 426 s 1 ; 1973 c 497 s 2 ; 1974 c 27 s 1 ; 1974 c 64 s 1 -3; 1976 c 2 s 33 ; 1977 c 5 s 1 ; 1978 c 674 s 11 ; 1980 c 524 s 1 ; 1980 c 551 s 1 ; 1980 c 599 s 2 ; 1980 c 614 s 123 ; 1980 c 618 s 12 ; 1Sp1981 c 4 art 2 s 6 ; 1983 c 289 s 114 subd 1; 1984 c 382 s 2 ; 1984 c 655 art 1 s 92 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1988 c 719 art 5 s 84 ; 1989 c 329 art 13 s 20 ; 1990 c 480 art 9 s 2 ; 1995 c 171 s 41 -44; 1995 c 189 s 8 ; 1995 c 202 art 1 s 25 ; 1996 c 277 s 1 ; 2003 c 2 art 4 s 1
Minn. Stat. § 48.16
48.16 BANKS MAY NOT PLEDGE ASSETS; EXCEPTIONS.
No bank or trust company shall pledge, hypothecate, assign, transfer, or create a lien upon or charge against any of its assets except as follows:
(1) to the state;
(2) to secure public deposits;
(3) to secure funds of trustees in bankruptcy;
(4) to secure money borrowed in good faith from other banks, trust companies, a financial agency created by act of Congress, or the state in programs specifically authorizing state banks to participate as an eligible local lender;
(5) to finance the acquisition of real estate to be carried as an asset as provided for in section
Minn. Stat. § 48.21
48.21 .
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Subd. 10. Treatment of grain forward sale contracts.
Obligations of any individual or organization, however organized, where the note is secured by a perfected first lien on stored grain and a perfected assignment of the proceeds of a forward contract for sale of the grain (1) with a recognized commodity buyer or broker, reasonably satisfactory to the bank, (2) where the delivery of grain under the contract will occur within 270 days, (3) where the grain is insured for full value against loss by fire or other casualty, and (4) where the value of the forward contract exceeds 115 percent of the face amount of the secured note, is subject under this subdivision to a limitation of ten percent of capital and surplus in addition to the 20 percent of capital and surplus as included in subdivision 1.
History:
( 7677 ) RL s 2993 ; 1907 c 156 s 1 ; 1911 c 160 s 1 ; 1919 c 103 s 1 ; 1927 c 258 s 1 ; 1931 c 9 s 1 ; Ex1933 c 70 s 1 ; 1943 c 23 s 1 ; 1945 c 62 s 1 ; 1947 c 82 s 1 ; 1957 c 601 s 13 -16; 1959 c 88 s 8 ,9,17; 1963 c 153 s 6 ; 1965 c 171 s 15 -17; 1967 c 102 s 7 ,8; 1969 c 438 s 1 ,2; 1969 c 772 s 3 ; 1971 c 100 s 1 ; 1973 c 35 s 18 ; 1973 c 123 art 5 s 7 ; 1976 c 210 s 11 ; 1980 c 523 s 1 ; 1981 c 365 s 9 ; 1983 c 289 s 114 subd 1; 1984 c 576 s 13 ; 1984 c 655 art 1 s 92 ; 1985 c 248 s 70 ; 1986 c 353 s 2 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1987 c 349 art 1 s 15 ; 1987 c 384 art 2 s 1 ; 1988 c 631 s 2 ,3; 1993 c 137 s 1 -3; 1993 c 257 s 18 -20; 1995 c 202 art 2 s 15 ; 1997 c 157 s 24 ,25; 1999 c 151 s 21 ,22; 2002 c 379 art 1 s 18 ; 2002 c 380 art 2 s 1 ; 2003 c 51 s 8 ; 1Sp2003 c 4 s 1 ; 2012 c 142 s 2 ; 2012 c 244 art 1 s 50 ; 2024 c 114 art 2 s 12
Minn. Stat. § 48.24
48.24 RESTRICTIONS UPON TOTAL LIABILITIES TO A BANK.
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Subdivision 1. Total liabilities of any individual.
The total liabilities to any such bank, as principal, guarantor or endorser of any individual, including the liabilities of any corporation or limited liability company in which the individual owns or controls a majority interest, any partnership, unincorporated association, limited liability company, or corporation, including the liabilities of the several members of an unincorporated association and including the liabilities of the general partners but not the limited partners of a partnership, and in case of a corporation or limited liability company, of all subsidiaries thereof in which such corporation or limited liability company owns or controls a majority interest, shall never exceed 20 percent of the bank's capital actually paid in cash and of its actual surplus fund, except that obligations not to exceed 25 percent of said capital and surplus to any one borrower shall not be included as liabilities for the purposes of this section, but shall be liabilities of the borrowers, provided they are secured by not less than a like amount of any one of the various types of obligations of the United States or which are fully guaranteed as to principal and interest by the United States, and providing that such bonds or obligations have a market value of at least ten percent in excess of the amount loaned thereon at the time each loan is made.
Liabilities include any credit exposure to an individual arising from a derivative transaction. The term "derivative transaction" includes any transaction that is a contract, agreement, swap, or note that is based, in whole or in part, on the value of, any interest in, or any quantitative measure or the occurrence of any event relating to, one or more currencies, interest or other rates, or interest rate indices, and that is subject to regulation by the commissioner of commerce.
For the purpose of this section the members of a family living together in one household, if borrowed funds are to be used in the conduct of a common enterprise, shall be regarded as one person and the total liabilities of the members of the family shall be limited as herein provided. The endorser or guarantor of any obligation which is exempt from loaning limits according to the provisions of this section shall also be exempt from such loaning limits to the extent of the amount of liability on such obligations for the purposes of this section but shall be liable thereon. Individual extensions of credit which result in liabilities of individuals, corporations, or limited liability companies exceeding the limitations set forth in this section shall be construed to conform to the provisions of this subdivision upon reduction in an amount sufficient to reduce the total liability to not more than the legal amount, but until paid in full shall not exempt the officer or employee of the bank from being personally liable to the bank for the amount of the original excess portion of the loan as set forth in subdivision 8.
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Subd. 2. Loan liabilities.
Loans not exceeding 25 percent of such capital and surplus made upon first mortgage security on improved real estate in any state in which the bank or a detached facility of the bank is located, or in any state adjoining a state in which the bank or a detached facility of the bank is located, shall not constitute a liability of the maker of the notes secured by such mortgages within the meaning of the foregoing provision limiting liability, but shall be an actual liability of the maker. These mortgage loans shall be limited to, and in no case exceed, 50 percent of the cash value of the security covered by the mortgage, except mortgage loans guaranteed as provided by the Servicemen's Readjustment Act of 1944, as now or hereafter amended, or for which there is a commitment to so guarantee or for which a conditional guarantee has been issued, which loans shall in no case exceed 60 percent of the cash value of the security covered by such mortgage. For the purposes of this subdivision, real estate is improved when substantial and permanent development or construction has contributed substantially to its value, and agricultural land is improved when farm crops are regularly raised on such land without further substantial improvements.
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Subd. 3. Treatment of certain sales or lease agreements.
Conditional sales contracts or other paper evidencing an agreement to purchase or lease personal property owned and guaranteed by the person discounting same, not to exceed 30 percent of the capital stock and surplus, taken from any one person, shall not constitute a liability within the meaning of this section, but the actual liabilities on such agreements are not to be construed as affected by the provisions of this subdivision: Provided, however, if information as to the financial condition of each purchaser or lessee is reasonably adequate by reason of the bank's own records or actual knowledge of an officer of the bank and, upon written certification by an officer appointed by the bank's board of directors for that purpose, that the responsibility of each purchaser or lessee has been evaluated and the bank is relying primarily upon the purchaser or lessee for the payment of the obligation, the limitations of subdivision 1 as to each purchaser or lessee shall be the sole applicable loan limitation.
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Subd. 4.
[Repealed, 1993 c 257 s 49 ]
§
Subd. 5. Treatment of secured or guaranteed loans.
Loans or obligations shall not be subject under this section to any limitation based upon such capital and surplus to the extent that they are secured or covered by guarantees, or by commitments or agreements to take over or to purchase the same, made by:
(1) the Minnesota Department of Agriculture;
(2) any Federal Reserve bank;
(3) the United States or any department, bureau, board, commission, or establishment of the United States, including any corporation wholly owned directly or indirectly by the United States;
(4) the Minnesota Employment and Economic Development Department; or
(5) a municipality or political subdivision within Minnesota to the extent that the guarantee or collateral is a valid and enforceable general obligation of that political body.
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Subd. 6. Treatment of discounts of certain classes of paper.
The discount of the following classes of paper shall not be regarded as creating liability within the meaning of this section:
(1) Bonds, orders, warrants, or other evidences of indebtedness of the United States, of federal land banks, of this state or of any county, city, town, hospital district, or school district in this state, or of the bonds, representing general obligation of any other state in the United States, or bonds and obligations of the federal home loan banks established by act of Congress known as the Federal Home Loan Bank Act, approved July 23, 1932, and acts amendatory thereto, or debentures and other obligations of the federal intermediate credit banks established by act of Congress known as the Federal Intermediate Credit Banks Act, approved March 4, 1923, and acts amendatory thereto, in obligations issued by the banks for cooperatives or any of them, and in bonds and obligations of the home owners' loan corporation established by act of Congress, known as the Home Owners' Loan Act of 1933, and acts amendatory thereto, in exchange for mortgages on homes, or contracts for deed, or real estate held by it.
(2) Bills of exchange drawn in good faith against actually existing values, including bills which are secured by shipping documents conveying or securing title to goods shipped, and which are not to be surrendered until such bills are paid in cash or solvent credits. This includes bankers' acceptances or participations in bankers' acceptances of the kind and maturities made eligible by law for rediscount with, or purchase by, Federal Reserve banks, providing the same are accepted or endorsed by a bank or trust company incorporated under the laws of this state; or by any bank or trust company in the United States which is a member of the Federal Reserve system.
(3) Paper based upon the collateral security of warehouse receipts covering agricultural or manufactured products stored in elevators or warehouses under the following conditions:
First, when the actual market value of the property covered by such receipts at all times exceeds by at least ten percent the amount loaned thereon, and
Second, when the full amount of every such loan is at all times covered by fire insurance in duly authorized companies, within the limit of their ability to cover such amounts, and the excess, if any, in companies having sufficient paid-up capital to authorize their admission, and payable, in case of loss, to the bank or holder of the warehouse receipt.
(4) Total loans to an obligor secured by segregated deposit accounts in the lending bank, provided that a security interest in the deposit has been perfected. Where the deposit is eligible for withdrawal before the secured loan matures, the bank shall establish internal procedures to prevent release of the deposit without the lending bank's prior consent.
(5) Debentures issued under the authority of the federal National Mortgage Association.
(6) Obligations representing loans from one business day to the next to any state bank or national banking association of excess reserve balances from time to time maintained under the provisions of section
Minn. Stat. § 48.37
48.37 , may exercise the powers and privileges set forth in this section.
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Subd. 2. Investment powers.
(a) The bank or trust company may acquire, use, and improve, and for that purpose mortgage, lease, sell, and convey, real and personal property that is necessary for the transaction of its business.
(b) The bank or trust company may sell or continue to hold and use for its interests or those of the estate or trust to which it belongs an estate or interest in real estate that the bank or trust company acquires through foreclosure of a mortgage, trust deed, or other security, or by the settlement of an obligation or otherwise in the course of its business.
(c) The bank or trust company may become the purchaser at a foreclosure or judicial sale to which it is a party as trustee or otherwise.
(d) The bank or trust company may accept or make a deed, mortgage, or other instrument necessary for the transaction of its business. It may loan money and secure the loans by mortgage, trust deed or pledge, and/or purchase. It may sell and assign notes, bonds, mortgages, and other evidences of indebtedness, and securities, and convert them into cash or into other authorized securities, or securities and property not expressly prohibited by this chapter.
(e) The investment of funds owned by the trust company, as distinguished from funds held by it in trust, are restricted to authorized securities.
(f) The bank or trust company may guarantee a title to securities sold and transferred by it.
(g) The bank or trust company may become sole surety upon a bond. For trust companies organized after April 10, 1965, the bond must pertain to its own fiduciary activities.
(h) The bank or trust company may maintain and operate safe deposit vaults.
(i) The bank or trust company shall not invest its capital or surplus in real estate except as authorized. It shall not invest deposits, trust funds, or property except as authorized, or under or by virtue of an express contract, judgment, or other instrument conferring or imposing special power and authority so to do.
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Subd. 3. Powers of court; annual report to the court.
The bank or trust company is subject at all times to the orders, judgments, and decrees of a court of record from which it has accepted a trust, appointment, or commission as to the trust. It shall provide to the court itemized and verified accounts, statements, and reports required by law, or as the court orders as to a particular trust. The bank or trust company is subject to the general jurisdiction and authority of the district court of the county of its principal place of business.
History:
1998 c 331 s 21
Minn. Stat. § 480.50
480.50 PERSONAL INFORMATION IN REAL PROPERTY RECORDS.
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Subdivision 1. Definitions.
(a) For the purposes of this section, the following terms have the meanings given.
(b) "County recorder" has the meaning given in section 13.045, subdivision 1 , clause (4).
(c) "Government entity" has the meaning given in section 13.02, subdivision 7a .
(d) "Judicial official" has the meaning given in section 480.40, subdivision 1 , paragraph (b), except that it does not include: (1) employees of the Minnesota judicial branch, the Office of Administrative Hearings, the Workers' Compensation Court of Appeals, or the Tax Court; or (2) judges or employees in the Department of Human Services Appeals Division.
(e) "Personal information" has the meaning given in section 480.40, subdivision 1 , paragraph (c).
(f) "Real property records" means any of the following:
(1) real property records as defined in section 13.045, subdivision 1 , clause (5);
(2) Uniform Commercial Code filings and tax liens maintained by the Secretary of State; and
(3) any other records maintained by a county recorder or other government entity evidencing title to, or any lien, judgment, or other encumbrance on, real or personal property.
(g) "Responsible authority" has the meaning given in section 13.02, subdivision 16 .
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Subd. 2. Classification of data.
(a) Subject to the provisions of this section, the personal information of all judicial officials collected, created, or maintained in real property records is private data on individuals, as defined in section 13.02, subdivision 12 .
(b) If the responsible authority or government entity violates this section, the remedies and penalties under chapter 13 are available only if the judicial official making a claim previously provided a real property notice that complies with subdivision 3. If the subject of the data is the spouse, domestic partner, or adult child of a judicial official who does not reside with the judicial official, the remedies and penalties under chapter 13 are available only if the spouse, domestic partner, or adult child previously provided a notification under subdivision 3 to the responsible authority confirming their status as the spouse, domestic partner, or adult child of a judicial official. In the case of county records, the notification shall be filed with the responsible authority that maintains the personal information for which protection is sought. A notification submitted under this section is private data on individuals, as defined in section 13.02, subdivision 12 .
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Subd. 3. Notification.
(a) For the classification in subdivision 2 to apply to personal information in real property records, a judicial official must submit a real property notice in writing to the county recorder in the county where the property identified in the real property notice is located and to the Office of the Secretary of State. To affect real property records maintained by any other government entity, a judicial official must submit a real property notice in writing to the other government entity's responsible authority. If the personal information is that of the spouse, domestic partner, or adult child of a judicial official who does not reside with the judicial official, the spouse, domestic partner, or adult child must submit a real property notice. The real property notice is classified as private data on individuals, as defined in section 13.02, subdivision 12 . A real property notice must be on a form provided by the judicial branch and must include:
(1) the full legal name of the individual submitting the form;
(2) the last four digits of the individual's Social Security number;
(3) the individual's date of birth;
(4) the individual's telephone number and email;
(5) the residential address of the individual in Minnesota;
(6) the legal description, parcel identification number, and street address, if any, of the real property affected by the notice;
(7) if applicable, the document number and certificate of title number; and
(8) a certification that the individual is a judicial official or the spouse, domestic partner, or adult child of a judicial official that contains the notarized signature of the individual.
(b) A notice submitted by a judicial official employed by the state must include the employer's business address and a verification of current employment signed by the employer's human resources office.
(c) A notice submitted pursuant to this subdivision by a spouse, domestic partner, or adult child of a judicial official not residing with the judicial official must include a notarized verification that the individual is the spouse, domestic partner, or adult child of a judicial official.
(d) Only one parcel of real property may be included in each notice, but an individual may submit more than one notice. A government entity may require an individual to provide additional information necessary to identify the records or the real property described in the notice. An individual submitting a notice must submit a new real property notice if their legal name changes.
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Subd. 4. Access to real property records.
(a) If an individual submits a notice under subdivision 3, the county recorder or other government entity must not disclose the individual's personal information in conjunction with the property identified in the written notice, unless:
(1) the individual has consented to sharing or dissemination of the personal information for the purpose identified in a writing signed by the individual and acknowledged by a notary public;
(2) the personal information is subject to dissemination pursuant to a court order under section 13.03, subdivision 6 ;
(3) the personal information is shared with a government entity for the purpose of administering assessment and taxation laws;
(4) the personal information is disseminated pursuant to subdivision 5; or
(5) the personal information is shared with the examiner of titles or deputy examiner as necessary to perform their statutory duties under chapters 508 and 508A, including the dissemination of personal information in Reports of Examiner.
(b) This subdivision does not prevent the county recorder from returning original documents to the person who submitted the documents for recording. Each county recorder shall establish procedures for recording documents to comply with this subdivision. These procedures may include masking personal information and making documents or certificates of title containing the personal information private and not viewable except as allowed by this paragraph. The procedure must comply with the requirements of chapters 386, 507, 508, and 508A, and other laws as appropriate, to the extent these requirements do not conflict with this section. The procedures must provide public notice of the existence of recorded documents and certificates of title that are not publicly viewable and the provisions for viewing them under this subdivision. Notice that a document or certificate is private and viewable only under this subdivision or subdivision 5 is deemed constructive notice of the document or certificate.
(c) A real property notice submitted under subdivision 3 shall apply retroactively to all online and digital real property records, but only to the extent the individual submitting the notice provides: (1) for county recorder records, the document number or certificate of title number of each record for which protection is sought, except digitized or scanned tract pages and books; and (2) for other government entity real property records, the parcel identification number of each record for which protection is sought. Otherwise, paragraph (a) applies only to the real property records recorded or filed concurrently with the real property notice specified in subdivision 3 and to real property records affecting the same real property recorded subsequent to the county recorder or other government entity's receipt of the real property notice.
(d) The county recorder or other government entity shall have 60 days from the date of receipt of a real property notice under subdivision 3 to process the request. If the individual cites exigent circumstances, the county recorder or other government entity shall process the request as soon as practicable.
(e) The prohibition on disclosure in paragraph (a) continues until:
(1) the individual has consented to the termination of the real property notice in a writing signed by the individual and acknowledged by a notary public;
(2) the real property notice is terminated pursuant to a court order;
(3) the individual no longer holds a record interest in the real property identified in the real property notice;
(4) the individual is deceased and a certified copy of the death certificate has been filed with the county recorder or other government entity to which a notice was given under subdivision 3; or
(5) the individual who filed a real property notice pursuant to subdivision 3 no longer qualifies for protection under this section because they are no longer a judicial official or the spouse, domestic partner, or adult child of a judicial official. If the individual no longer qualifies for protection under this section, the individual must notify each county recorder or other government entity to which a notice under subdivision 3 was given within 90 days after the individual no longer qualifies for protection.
(f) Upon termination of the prohibition of disclosure, the county recorder shall make publicly viewable all documents and certificates of title that were previously partially or wholly private and not viewable pursuant to a notice filed under subdivision 3.
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Subd. 5. Access to personal information in real property records; title examination.
(a) Upon request, the individual who submitted the real property notice under subdivision 3 shall verify that the individual's real property is the property subject to a bona fide title exam.
(b) The county recorder or other government entity shall provide the unredacted real property records of an individual who submitted a real property notice under subdivision 3 upon request of any of the following persons:
(1) a licensed title insurance company representative, a licensed title insurance agent, a licensed abstractor, or an attorney licensed to practice law in Minnesota;
(2) a mortgage loan originator;
(3) a real estate broker or a real estate salesperson; and
(4) an individual or entity that has made or received an offer for the purchase of real property to or from an individual who submitted a real property notice under subdivision 3 whose address is subject to nondisclosure, provided the request is accompanied by a written consent from the individual.
(c) A request made under paragraph (a) or (b) must be made on a notarized form and include:
(1) the full legal name, title, address, and place of employment, if applicable, of the person requesting the real property records;
(2) the lawful purpose for requesting the real property records;
(3) the requestor's relationship, if any, to the individual who submitted a real property notice under subdivision 3;
(4) the legal description of the property subject to the title examination; and
(5) proof of the requestor's licensure.
(d) Personal information provided under this subdivision may be used only for the purposes authorized in this subdivision or the lawful purposes set forth in the request for disclosure form and may not be further disseminated to any other person. A person receiving private data under this subdivision shall establish procedures to protect the data from further dissemination unless further dissemination is required by law. However, the dissemination of personal information in real property records by a licensed attorney or any employees in the office of the licensed attorney is permitted when reasonably necessary for the provision of legal services.
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Subd. 6. Service fees to county recorder or other government entity.
The county recorder or any other government entity is authorized to charge the following service fees:
(1) up to $75 for each real property notice under subdivision 3;
(2) up to $75 for each consent submitted under subdivision 4, paragraphs (a), clause (1), and (e), clause (1); and
(3) up to $75 for each request submitted under subdivision 5.
These service fees shall not be considered county recorder fees under section
Minn. Stat. § 485.23
485.23 DESTRUCTION OF CERTAIN RECORDS.
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Subdivision 1. Record destruction.
The court administrator of the district court in all counties is authorized to destroy, or otherwise dispose of, the following documents on file in their respective offices under the conditions herein specified:
(1) not less than ten years after filing:
(i) county board petit jury lists, order to draw petit jury, venire for petit jury, order appointing bailiffs, copies of certificates for per diem and mileage for jurors, witnesses, and bailiffs, and copies of court calendars;
(ii) delinquent personal property tax lists;
(iii) all warrants and citations of personal property tax delinquents in which judgment for such delinquent taxes has not been entered;
(iv) notice of election or appointment, and notice of qualification of city and township officers on file in the court administrator of district court office.
(2) not less than two years from the date thereof:
(i) copies of law library receipts;
(ii) copies of certificates for payment of local registrars of vital records;
(iii) affidavits or statements on application for certified copies of records for veterans purposes or for use by branches of military service;
(iv) affidavits and prescriptions filed with court administrator of district court as provided in Laws 1919, chapter 455;
(v) all copies of rules of state departments filed with the court administrator of district court.
(3) not less than one year after the final determination of any civil action, and with the order of approval of any judge of the respective district:
(i) all exhibits, except written instruments, X-ray negatives, maps, surveys, plats, and profiles in drainage proceedings or other actions or proceedings affecting real estate or the title thereto;
(ii) settled cases, including stipulations for and order settling such case.
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Subd. 2. Affect of statute.
This section shall not affect any existing statute for destruction of files and documents in the court administrator of district court office in certain counties, or any special rule for destruction of records of the court administrator of district court office which may now be in effect or hereafter be adopted by the judge or judges of the respective judicial districts.
History:
1957 c 132 s 1 ,2; 1973 c 123 art 5 s 7 ; 1985 c 248 s 70 ; 1Sp1986 c 3 art 1 s 82 ; 2015 c 21 art 1 s 109
Minn. Stat. § 48A.04
48A.04 .
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Subd. 4. Accepting and performing assignments or trusts.
The bank or trust company may act as assignee under an assignment for the benefit of creditors, or be appointed as a trustee, receiver, guardian, executor, or administrator, and may accept and perform any other lawful trust conferred by a court or by a corporation or individual. No oath or security is required of a bank or trust company accepting or performing a trust under this subdivision.
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Subd. 5. Court-ordered deposit of securities.
The judge or court having jurisdiction may direct an executor, administrator, guardian, assignee, receiver, or other trustee to deposit with the bank or trust company any securities belonging to the trust subject to the order of the trustee when countersigned by the judge of the court. The court may fix the security to be given by the trustee with reference only to the remainder of the trust estate. Securities may not be withdrawn and no part of the principal or interest of the securities may be collected without a court order. However, an officer of the bank or trust company, upon satisfactory proof that additional security has been furnished by the trustee or that the estate or fund has been so reduced that the deposit is no longer required, may withdraw securities or collect the principal of or interest on the securities.
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Subd. 6. Investment authority.
(a) The bank or trust company may, in its discretion, retain and continue an investment and security or securities coming into its possession in a fiduciary capacity.
(b) In the absence of an express prohibition in the trust instrument, the trustee may acquire and retain securities of an open-end or closed-end management company or unit investment trust registered under the federal Investment Company Act of 1940. The fact that the banking institution or an affiliate of the banking institution, is providing services to the investment company or trust as investment advisor, sponsor, broker, distributor, custodian, transfer agent, registrar, or otherwise, and receiving compensation for the services does not preclude the trustee from investing in the securities of that investment company or trust. The banking institution shall disclose to all current income beneficiaries of the trust the rate, formula, and method of the compensation. This paragraph does not alter the degree of care and judgment required of trustees by section
Minn. Stat. § 48A.07
48A.07 .
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Subd. 4. Retirement, health savings, and medical savings accounts.
(a) A state bank may act as trustee or custodian:
(1) of a self-employed retirement plan under the federal Self-Employed Individuals Tax Retirement Act of 1962, as amended;
(2) of a medical savings account under the federal Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996, as amended;
(3) of a health savings account under the Medicare Prescription Drug, Improvement, and Modernization Act of 2003, as amended; and
(4) of an individual retirement account under the federal Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, as amended, if the bank's duties as trustee or custodian are essentially ministerial or custodial in nature and the funds are invested only (i) in the bank's own savings or time deposits, except that health savings accounts may also be invested in transaction accounts. Health savings accounts invested in transaction accounts shall not be subject to the restrictions in section 48.512, subdivision 3 ; or (ii) in any other assets at the direction of the customer if the bank does not exercise any investment discretion, invest the funds in collective investment funds administered by it, or provide any investment advice with respect to those account assets.
(b) Affiliated discount brokers may be utilized by the bank acting as trustee or custodian for self-directed IRAs, if specifically authorized and directed in appropriate documents. The relationship between the affiliated broker and the bank must be fully disclosed. Brokerage commissions to be charged to the IRA by the affiliated broker should be accurately disclosed. Provisions should be made for disclosure of any changes in commission rates prior to their becoming effective. The affiliated broker may not provide investment advice to the customer.
(c) All funds held in the fiduciary capacity may be commingled by the financial institution in the conduct of its business, but individual records shall be maintained by the fiduciary for each participant and shall show in detail all transactions engaged under authority of this subdivision.
(d) The authority granted by this section is in addition to, and not limited by, section
Minn. Stat. § 49.05
49.05 POWERS AND DUTIES OF COMMISSIONER ON LIQUIDATION.
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Subdivision 1. General powers.
In all cases where the commissioner has taken possession of the property and business of any financial institution, or any such financial institution is in the process of liquidation by the commissioner, the commissioner may, in the name of the financial institution or of the commissioner acting as such, for its use, bring and carry to an end all necessary actions in the proper courts to reduce its assets to money and to protect its property and rights, and to that end may, in the name of the financial institution or of the commissioner acting as such, execute all bonds and other papers necessary to carry on any such actions, and may, in its name, satisfy, discharge, and assign, by written instrument, any and all real estate and chattel mortgages and all other liens held by it, and may foreclose in the manner provided by law any real estate mortgage held by it, and execute, in its name, to the attorney employed to foreclose any such mortgage, any power of attorney required by law.
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Subd. 2. Certificates prior to foreclosure sales.
Prior to any sale under any foreclosure proceedings, the commissioner shall record in the office of the county recorder of the county where any land affected by any such foreclosure sale is situated, a certificate under the commissioner's hand, as such commissioner, stating therein the corporate name of the financial institution affected; its principal place of business; that possession of its property and business has been taken by the commissioner under the laws of the state, and the date of taking possession thereof; and that it is in process of liquidation by the commissioner, pursuant to the laws of this state, if such be the fact. A like certificate shall be recorded by the commissioner in the office where any such mortgage or lien is recorded. This certificate, or a duly certified copy thereof, shall be prima facie evidence of the facts therein set forth. Only one such certificate need be recorded as hereinbefore provided in this section, for each financial institution in liquidation. All foreclosure proceedings heretofore conducted, whether the certificate was recorded as to each such foreclosure or not, are hereby validated if one such certificate has been recorded as to each financial institution in liquidation, or if the commissioner shall after any foreclosure sale record a certificate reciting the facts required to be set out in an original certificate, as they existed prior to the foreclosure sale.
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Subd. 3. Certificates prior to judgments and final orders.
A like certificate shall be filed by the commissioner in the office of the court administrator of the district court in any county where any action or proceeding affecting any such financial institution or its property shall be brought, in the name of such financial institution, or in the name of the commissioner for its use, prior to the entry of judgment or the making of any final order therein, and this certificate, or a duly certified copy thereof, shall be prima facie evidence of the facts therein set forth.
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Subd. 4. Certain actions, orders, and judgments validated.
Where the commissioner has heretofore taken possession of the property and business of any financial institution, or any financial institution has been liquidated, or the same is in process of liquidation by the commissioner, and actions or proceedings have been heretofore brought in the name of any such financial institution, or in the name of the commissioner for its use, in any court of the state, all such actions, and all orders and judgments that have heretofore been, or may hereafter be, made or entered therein, are hereby in all things validated, on the filing of a certificate reciting the facts required to be set out as provided for in subdivision 3, in the court wherein any such action or proceeding is or has been pending.
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Subd. 5. Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation as receiver or liquidator.
The Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation created by section 12B of the Federal Reserve Act, as amended, upon appointment by the commissioner, may act without bond as receiver or liquidator of a financial institution, the deposits in which are to any extent insured by this corporation, and that has been closed pursuant to section 49.04, subdivision 1 .
Notwithstanding any other provision of law the appropriate state authority having the right to appoint a receiver or liquidator of a financial institution may, in the event of the closing, tender to the corporation the appointment as receiver or liquidator of the financial institution; and, if the corporation accepts the appointment, the corporation shall have and possess all the powers and privileges provided by the laws of this state with respect to a receiver or liquidator, respectively, of a financial institution, its depositors, and other creditors.
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Subd. 6. Right of subrogation.
When a financial institution has been closed, and the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation has paid or made available for payment the insured deposit liabilities of the closed institution, the corporation, whether or not it has or shall thereafter become a liquidating agent of the closed institution is subrogated, by operation of law with like force and effect as if the closed institution were a national bank, to all rights of the owners of these deposits against the closed financial institution in the same manner and to the same extent as now or hereafter necessary to enable the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation under federal law to make insurance payments available to depositors of closed insured financial institutions; provided, that the rights of depositors and other creditors of the closed institution shall be determined in accordance with the laws of this state. The commissioner may, in the event of the closing of any financial institution pursuant to section 49.04, subdivision 1 , the deposits of which financial institution are to any extent insured by the corporation, tender to the corporation the appointment as liquidating agent of this financial institution and, if the corporation accepts the appointment, it shall have and possess all the powers and privileges provided by the laws of this state with respect to a special deputy examiner of the Department of Commerce in the management and liquidation of this institution, and be subject to all of the duties of the special deputy examiner; provided, that nothing contained in this subdivision shall be construed as a surrender of the right of the commissioner to liquidate financial institutions under the commissioner's supervision pursuant to the statute in such case made and provided; and the commissioner may waive the filing of a bond by the corporation as the special deputy examiner.
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Subd. 7. Commissioner may borrow money.
With respect to a banking institution which is or may be closed on account of inability to meet the demands of its depositors or by action of the commissioner or of a court or by action of its directors, or, in the event of its insolvency or suspension, the commissioner may borrow from the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation and furnish any part or all of the assets of the institution to the corporation as security for a loan from same. The order of a court of record of competent jurisdiction shall be first obtained approving this loan. The commissioner or receiver or liquidator appointed by the commissioner upon the order of a court of record of competent jurisdiction may sell to the corporation any part or all of the assets of the institution.
The provisions of this subdivision shall not be construed to limit the power of any banking institution, or the commissioner, to pledge or sell assets in accordance with any other law of this state.
History:
( 7690 ) 1913 c 447 s 1 ; 1933 c 10 s 1 ; 1945 c 128 s 6 ; 1976 c 181 s 2 ; 1Sp1985 c 1 s 2 ,3; 1Sp1985 c 13 s 183 ,184; 1Sp1985 c 16 art 2 s 37 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1Sp1986 c 3 art 1 s 82 ; 1987 c 349 art 1 s 24 ; 2005 c 4 s 2
Minn. Stat. § 491A.01
491A.01 on an accelerated basis if all of the requirements in subdivision 7 and paragraphs (b) to (f) have been satisfied.
(b) When any aggrieved person as defined in subdivision 7 obtains a judgment in any court of competent jurisdiction, regardless of whether the judgment has been discharged by a bankruptcy court against a licensee on grounds specified in subdivision 7, the aggrieved person may file a verified application with the commissioner for payment out of the recovery portion of the fund of the amount of actual and direct out-of-pocket loss in the transaction, but excluding any attorney fees, interest on the loss, and on any judgment obtained as a result of the loss, up to the conciliation court jurisdiction limits, of the amount unpaid upon the judgment. For purposes of this section, persons who are joint tenants or tenants in common are deemed to be a single claimant.
(c) The commissioner shall send the licensee a copy of the verified application by first-class mail to the licensee's address as it appears in the records of the Department of Commerce with a notice that the claim will be paid 15 days from the date of the notice unless the licensee notifies the commissioner before that date of the commencement of an appeal of the judgment, if the time for appeal has not expired, and that payment of the claim will result in automatic suspension of the licensee's license.
(d) If the licensee does not notify the commissioner of the commencement of an appeal, the commissioner shall pay the claim at the end of the 15-day period.
(e) If an appeal is commenced, the payment of the claim is stayed until the conclusion of the appeal.
(f) The commissioner may pay claims which total no more than $50,000 against the licensee under this accelerated process. The commissioner may prorate the amount of claims paid under this subdivision if claims in excess of $50,000 against the licensee are submitted. Any unpaid portions of these claims must be satisfied in the manner set forth in subdivision 7.
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Subd. 9. Application hearing.
The court shall conduct a hearing upon such application 30 days after service of the application upon the commissioner. Upon petition of the commissioner, the court shall continue the hearing up to 60 days further; and upon a showing of good cause may continue the hearing for such further period as the court deems appropriate. At the hearing the aggrieved person shall be required to show that the person:
(a) is not a spouse of debtor, or the personal representative of such spouse;
(b) has complied with all the requirements of this section;
(c) has obtained a judgment as set out in subdivision 7, stating the amount thereof and the amount owing thereon at the date of the application;
(d) has made all reasonable searches and inquiries to ascertain whether the judgment debtor is possessed of real or personal property or other assets, liable to be sold or applied in satisfaction of the judgment;
(e) by such search has discovered no personal or real property or other assets liable to be sold or applied, or has discovered certain of them, describing them, owned by the judgment debtor and liable to be so applied, and has taken all necessary action and proceedings for the realization thereof, and that the amount thereby realized was insufficient to satisfy the judgment, stating the amount so realized and the balance remaining due on the judgment after application of the amount realized;
(f) has diligently pursued remedies against all the judgment debtors and all other persons liable to that person in the transaction for which that person seeks recovery from the real estate education, research and recovery fund;
(g) is making said application no more than one year after the judgment becomes final, or no more than one year after the termination of any review or appeal of the judgment.
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Subd. 10. Effect of judgment.
Whenever the court proceeds upon an application as set forth in subdivision 7, it shall order payment out of the fund only upon a determination that the aggrieved party has a valid cause of action within the purview of subdivision 7 and has complied with the provisions of subdivision 9. The judgment shall be only prima facie evidence of such cause of action and for the purposes of this section shall not be conclusive. The commissioner may defend any such action on behalf of the fund and shall have recourse to all appropriate means of defense and review including examination of witnesses. The commissioner may move the court at any time to dismiss the application when it appears there are no triable issues and the petition is without merit. The motion may be supported by affidavit of any person or persons having knowledge of the facts, and may be made on the basis that the petition, and the judgment referred to therein, does not form the basis for a meritorious recovery claim within the purview of subdivision 7; provided, however, the commissioner shall give written notice at least ten days before such motion. The commissioner may, subject to court approval, compromise a claim based upon the application of an aggrieved party but shall not be bound by any prior compromise or stipulation of the judgment debtor.
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Subd. 11. Commissioner's duties.
The commissioner may defend any such action on behalf of the fund and shall have recourse to all appropriate means of defense and review, including examination of witnesses. The judgment debtor may defend any such action on the debtor's own behalf and shall have recourse to all appropriate means of defense and review, including examination of witnesses. Whenever an applicant's judgment is by default, stipulation, or consent, or whenever the action against the licensee was defended by a trustee in bankruptcy, the applicant shall have the burden of proving the cause of action for fraudulent, deceptive or dishonest practices, or conversion of trust funds. Otherwise, the judgment shall create a rebuttable presumption of the fraudulent, deceptive or dishonest practices, or conversion of trust funds. This presumption is a presumption affecting the burden of producing evidence.
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Subd. 12. Payment order.
If the court finds after the hearing that said claim should be levied against the fund, the court shall enter an order directed to the commissioner requiring payment from the fund of whatever sum it shall find to be payable upon the claim pursuant to the provisions of and in accordance with the limitations contained in this section.
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Subd. 13. License suspension.
Should the commissioner pay from the recovery portion of the fund any amount in settlement of a claim or toward satisfaction of a judgment against a licensee, the license shall be automatically suspended upon the effective date of an order by the court as set forth herein authorizing payment from the recovery portion of the fund. No broker, salesperson, or closing agent shall be granted reinstatement until the person has repaid in full, plus interest at the rate of 12 percent a year, twice the amount paid from the fund on the person's account, and has obtained a surety bond issued by an insurer authorized to transact business in this state in the amount of $40,000. The bond shall be filed with the commissioner, with the state of Minnesota as obligee, conditioned for the prompt payment to any aggrieved person entitled thereto, of any amounts received by the real estate broker, salesperson, or closing agent or to protect any aggrieved person from loss resulting from fraudulent, deceptive, or dishonest practices or conversion of trust funds arising out of any transaction when the real estate broker or salesperson was licensed and performed acts for which a license is required under this chapter. The bond shall remain operative for as long as that real estate broker, salesperson, or closing agent is licensed. No payment shall be made from the fund based upon claims against any broker, salesperson, or closing agent who is granted reinstatement pursuant to this subdivision. A discharge in bankruptcy shall not relieve a person from the penalties and disabilities provided in this section.
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Subd. 14. Satisfaction of claims.
The commissioner shall satisfy all claims against licensees for which an order pursuant to subdivision 12 directing payment from the recovery portion of the fund has become final during the calendar year. Each claim shall be satisfied by the commissioner by July 15 of the calendar year after the year in which the order directing payment of the claim becomes final, subject to the limitations of this section. If, at the end of any calendar year, the commissioner determines that the courts have issued orders that have become final during the year directing payment out of the recovery portion of the fund in a total amount in excess of the funds available for recovery purposes, the commissioner shall allocate the funds available for recovery purposes among all claimants in the ratio that the amount ordered paid to each claimant bears to the aggregate of all amounts ordered paid. The commissioner shall mail notice of the allocation to all claimants not less than 45 days following the end of the calendar year. Any claimant who objects to the plan of allocation shall file a petition in the District Court of Ramsey or Hennepin County within 20 days of the mailing of notice setting forth the grounds for objection. Upon motion of the commissioner, the court shall summarily dismiss the petition and order distribution in accordance with the proposed plan of allocation unless it finds substantial reason to believe that the distribution would be in violation of the provisions of this section. If a petition is filed, no distribution shall be made except in accordance with a final order of the court. In the event no petition is filed within 20 days of the mailing of notice, the commissioner shall make a distribution in accordance with the plan of allocation. Any distribution made by the commissioner in accordance with this subdivision shall be deemed to satisfy and extinguish the claims of any claimant receiving a distribution against the fund.
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Subd. 15. Appropriation.
Any sums received by the commissioner pursuant to any provisions of this section shall be deposited in the state treasury, and credited to the real estate education, research and recovery fund, and said sums shall be allocated exclusively for the purposes provided in this section. All moneys in the fund are appropriated annually to the commissioner for the purposes of this section.
All money credited to the fund under section
Minn. Stat. § 4A.02
4A.02 , whichever has the latest stated date of count or estimate.
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Subd. 2. Buildings.
The town board may construct or acquire structures needed for town purposes, and control, protect, and insure public buildings, property, and records.
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Subd. 3. Streets; sewers; sidewalks; public grounds.
The town board may:
(1) lay out, open, change, widen or extend streets, alleys, parks, squares, and other public ways and grounds and grade, pave, repair, control, and maintain them;
(2) establish and maintain drains, canals, and sewers;
(3) alter, widen or straighten watercourses; and
(4) lay, repair, or otherwise improve or discontinue sidewalks, paths and crosswalks.
It may by ordinance regulate the use of streets and other public grounds to prevent encumbrances or obstructions, and require the owners or occupants of buildings and the owners of vacant lots to remove snow, ice, dirt, or rubbish from the adjacent sidewalks. In default of compliance it may remove the encumbrances, obstructions, or substances and assess the cost against the property as a special assessment.
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Subd. 4. Parks; trees.
The town board may provide for, and by ordinance regulate, the setting out and protection of trees, shrubs, and flowers in the town or upon its property.
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Subd. 5. Cemeteries.
The town board may acquire by purchase, gift, devise, condemnation or otherwise, hold and manage cemetery grounds, enclose, lay out and ornament them and sell and convey lots in them. It may by ordinance regulate cemeteries and the disposal of dead bodies.
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Subd. 6. Waterworks.
The town board may provide and by ordinance regulate the use of wells, cisterns, reservoirs, waterworks and other means of water supply.
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Subd. 7. Tourist camps; parking facilities.
The town board may acquire, improve and operate, and by ordinance regulate tourist camps and automobile parking facilities.
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Subd. 8. Hospitals.
The town board may provide hospitals. The town board of a town operating a municipal hospital may by ordinance establish a hospital board with powers and duties to manage and operate the hospital that the town board confers on it. The town board may, by vote of all its members, abolish the hospital board. The hospital board shall consist of five members, each appointed by the town board for a term of five years. Terms of the first members shall be arranged so that the term of one member expires each year. A vacancy shall be filled for the unexpired term. A member may be removed by the town board for cause after a hearing.
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Subd. 9. Fire prevention.
The town board may establish a fire department, appoint its officers and members and prescribe their duties, and provide fire apparatus. It may adopt ordinances to prevent, control or extinguish fires.
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Subd. 10. Naming and numbering streets.
The town board may by ordinance name or rename town streets and public places and number or renumber its lots and blocks, or part of them. It may make and record a consolidated plat of the town.
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Subd. 11. Transient commerce.
The town board may by ordinance restrain or license and regulate auctioneers, transient merchants and dealers, hawkers, peddlers, solicitors, and canvassers.
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Subd. 12. Taxis, haulers, car renters.
The town board may by ordinance license and regulate baggage wagons, dray drivers, taxicabs, and automobile rental agencies and liveries. At a minimum, an ordinance to license or regulate taxicabs or small vehicle passenger service must provide for driver qualifications, insurance, vehicle safety, and periodic vehicle inspections. An ordinance that regulates pedicabs, rickshaws, or other similar vehicles used for passenger service may permit authorized vehicles to be equipped with an electric motor that meets the requirements for an electric-assisted bicycle under section 169.011, subdivision 27 , clause (3).
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Subd. 13. Animals.
The town board may by ordinance regulate the keeping of animals, restrain their running at large, authorize their impounding and sale or summary destruction, establish pounds, and license and regulate riding academies.
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Subd. 14. Health.
(a) The town board may by ordinance:
(1) prohibit or regulate slaughterhouses;
(2) prevent the bringing, depositing, or leaving within the town of any unwholesome substance or deposit of solid waste within the town not otherwise authorized by law;
(3) require the owners or occupants of lands to remove unwholesome substances or the unauthorized deposit of solid waste and, if not removed, provide for their removal at the expense of the owner or occupant, which expense shall be a lien upon the property and may be collected as a special assessment;
(4) provide for or regulate the disposal of sewage, garbage, and other refuse; and
(5) provide for the cleaning of, and removal of obstructions from waters in the town and prevent their obstruction or pollution.
(b) The town board may establish a community health board under section 145A.07, subdivision 2 , with all the powers of a community health board under the general laws.
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Subd. 15. Nuisances.
The town board may by ordinance define nuisances and provide for their prevention or abatement.
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Subd. 16. Amusements.
The town board may by ordinance:
(1) prevent or license and regulate the exhibition of circuses, theatrical performances, amusements, or shows of any kind, and the keeping of billiard tables and bowling alleys;
(2) prohibit gambling and gambling devices; and
(3) license, regulate or prohibit devices commonly used for gambling purposes.
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Subd. 17.
MS 1982 [Repealed, 1984 c 562 s 48 ]
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Subd. 18. Regulation of buildings.
The town board may by ordinance regulate the construction of buildings.
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Subd. 19. General welfare.
The town board may provide for the government and good order of the town, the suppression of vice and immorality, the prevention of crime, the protection of public and private property, the benefit of residence, trade, and commerce, and the promotion of health, safety, order, convenience, and the general welfare by ordinances consistent with the Constitution and laws of the United States and this state as it deems expedient.
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Subd. 20. Departments; boards.
The town board may create departments and advisory boards and appoint town officers, employees, and agents as deemed necessary for the proper management and operation of town affairs. It may prescribe the duties and compensation of all officers, appointive and elective, employees, and agents, if not otherwise prescribed by law. It may require any officer or employee to furnish a bond conditioned for the faithful exercise of duties and the proper application of, and payment upon demand of, all money officially received by the officer or employee. Unless otherwise prescribed by law, it shall fix the amount of the bonds. The bonds furnished by the clerk and treasurer shall be corporate surety bonds. It may provide for the payment from town funds of the premium on the official bond of any town officer or employee. It may, except as otherwise provided, remove any appointive officer or employee when in its judgment the public welfare will be promoted by the removal. This provision does not modify the laws relating to veterans preference or to members of a town police or fire civil service commission or public utilities commission.
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Subd. 21. Enactment of ordinances.
Every ordinance shall be enacted by a majority vote of all the members of the town board unless a larger number is required by law. It shall be signed by the chair of the town board, attested by the clerk and published once in a qualified newspaper having general circulation within the town. If the town board determines that publication of the title and a summary of an ordinance would clearly inform the public of the intent and effect of the ordinance, the town board may by a two-thirds vote of its members, or a four-fifths vote in a town having a five-member board, direct that only the title of the ordinance and a summary be published with notice that a printed copy of the ordinance is available for inspection by any person during regular office hours of the town clerk and at any other location which the town board designates. A copy of the entire text of the ordinance shall be posted in the community library, if there is one, or if not, in any other public location which the town board designates. Before the publication of the title and summary the town board shall approve the text of the summary and determine that it clearly informs the public of the intent and effect of the ordinance. Publishing the title and summary shall fulfill all legal publication requirements as completely as if the entire ordinance is published. The text of the summary shall be published in a body type no smaller than eight-point type. Proof of the publication shall be attached to and filed with the ordinance. Every ordinance shall be recorded in the ordinance book within 20 days after publication of the ordinance or its title and summary. All ordinances shall be suitably entitled and shall be substantially in the style: "The Town Board of Supervisors of ........ ordains:".
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Subd. 22. Penalties.
The town board may declare that the violation of any ordinance is a penal offense and prescribe penalties for it. No penalty shall exceed that provided by law for a misdemeanor, but the costs of prosecution may be added.
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Subd. 23. Financing purchase of certain equipment.
The town board may issue certificates of indebtedness within debt limits to purchase fire or police equipment or ambulance equipment or street construction or maintenance equipment. The certificates shall be payable in not more than five years and be issued on terms and in the manner as the board may determine. If the amount of the certificates to be issued to finance a purchase exceeds 0.24177 percent of the estimated market value of the town, they shall not be issued for at least ten days after publication in the official newspaper of a town board resolution determining to issue them. If before the end of that time, a petition asking for an election on the proposition signed by voters equal to ten percent of the number of voters at the last regular town election is filed with the clerk, the certificates shall not be issued until the proposition of their issuance has been approved by a majority of the votes cast on the question at a regular or special election. A tax levy shall be made for the payment of the principal and interest on the certificates as in the case of bonds.
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Subd. 24. Parks; parkways; recreational facilities.
A town may establish, improve, ornament, maintain and manage parks, parkways, and recreational facilities and by ordinance protect and regulate their use.
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Subd. 25. Vacation of streets.
The town board may by resolution vacate all or part of any street, alley, public grounds or public way on its own motion or on petition of a majority of the owners of land abutting the street, alley, public grounds, public way, or part to be vacated. When there has been no petition, the resolution may be adopted only by a vote of four-fifths of all members of the board of supervisors. No such vacation shall be made unless it appears in the interest of the public to do so after a hearing preceded by two weeks' published and posted notice. The board shall cause written notice of the hearing to be mailed to each property owner affected by the proposed vacation at least ten days before the hearing. The notice must contain, at minimum, a copy of the petition or proposed resolution as well as the time, place, and date of the hearing. In addition, if the street, alley, public grounds, public way, or any part of it, terminates at or abuts upon any public water, no vacation shall be made unless written notice of the petition or proposed resolution is served by certified mail upon the commissioner of natural resources at least 30 days before the hearing on the matter. The notice to the commissioner of natural resources is for notification purposes only and does not create a right of intervention by the commissioner. After a resolution of vacation is adopted, the clerk shall prepare a notice of completion of the proceedings which shall contain the name of the town, an identification of the vacation, a statement of the time of completion thereof and a description of the real estate and lands affected. The notice shall be presented to the county auditor who shall enter it in the transfer records and note upon the instrument, over the auditor's official signature, the words "entered in the transfer record." The notice shall then be filed with the county recorder. Failure to file the notice shall not invalidate the vacation proceedings.
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Subd. 26. Fines and penalties.
All fines, forfeitures, and penalties recovered for violation of a statute or ordinance to which the town is entitled by law shall be paid into the town treasury. Every court or officer receiving money for a violation, shall return it under oath in accordance with law, and be entitled to duplicate receipts for the amounts paid. One of the receipts shall be filed with the town clerk.
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Subd. 27. Power of eminent domain.
A town that has special powers under this section may acquire private property within or without its limits by eminent domain for any purpose for which it is authorized by law to take or hold property by purchase or gift. It may also acquire by eminent domain a right-of-way for sewerage or drainage purposes and an outlet for sewerage or drainage within or without its limits. The procedure shall be that prescribed by chapter 117.
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Subd. 28.
MS 1982 [Repealed, 1984 c 562 s 48 ]
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Subd. 29. Savings clause.
This section shall not be construed to repeal or rescind the powers of any town provided by other law.
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Subd. 30. Notice to auditor, secretary of state; filing.
The town clerk of each town exercising special powers under this section shall so notify in writing the county auditor of the county in which the town is located and the secretary of state. The written notice shall be filed by the county auditor and the secretary of state as a public record.
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Subd. 31. Continuing authority to exercise powers.
If a town exercises a power under this section it may continue to exercise the power notwithstanding any later change in population.
History:
( 1003 , 1004 ) 1907 c 193 s 1 ; 1907 c 397 s 1 ; 1949 c 722 s 1 ; 1953 c 462 s 1 ; 1959 c 686 s 14 ; Ex1959 c 75 s 1 ,2; 1961 c 46 s 1 ; 1963 c 257 s 1 ; 1965 c 574 s 1 ; 1971 c 24 s 46 ; 1973 c 48 s 1 ; 1973 c 123 art 5 s 7 ; 1976 c 181 s 2 ; 1976 c 239 s 112 ; 1981 c 219 s 2 ; 1982 c 507 s 3 -6; 1983 c 359 s 53 ; 1984 c 562 s 39 -43; 1985 c 65 s 2 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1987 c 309 s 24 ; 1988 c 719 art 5 s 84 ; 1989 c 329 art 13 s 20 ; 1Sp1989 c 1 art 20 s 23 ; 1990 c 401 art 2 s 1 ; 1990 c 433 s 1 ; 1990 c 480 art 9 s 9 ; 1991 c 345 art 2 s 54 ; 1999 c 238 art 2 s 72 ; 2013 c 143 art 14 s 47 ; 2015 c 21 art 1 s 109 ; 2016 c 96 s 2
Minn. Stat. § 5.25
5.25 ; or as the court may direct. Process is valid if it satisfies the requirements of due process of law, whether or not the defendant is doing business in Minnesota regularly or habitually.
(c) In determining the civil penalty amount and whether to order injunctive relief under paragraph (b), the court shall consider:
(1) the number of current violations;
(2) the gravity of the current violations, including but not limited to the harm caused by the violations;
(3) the culpability of the defendant as established by evidence of intent, willfulness, or negligence;
(4) the economic benefit, if any, gained by the person allowing or committing the current violations;
(5) the history of past violations, including the similarity of previous violations and the current violation, the time elapsed since previous violations, the number of previous violations, and the response of the person to previous violations; and
(6) any other factors as justice may require.
(d) If a court grants injunctive relief under paragraph (b), the court shall consider the factors in paragraph (c) in determining the requirements to include in an injunction. A court issuing an injunction under this section shall have the discretion to fashion an injunction that is reasonably intended to prevent a violator from committing future violations. Such authority shall include, but is not limited to, issuing an order for a period of 12 months which:
(1) requires a defendant to wait up to 15 days before scrapping, dismantling, selling, or otherwise disposing of any vehicle that the defendant has acquired without first having received proof of ownership in compliance with section 168A.1501, subdivision 7 , 8, or 9; or
(2) prohibits a defendant from acquiring, scrapping, dismantling, selling, or otherwise disposing of any vehicle without first having received proof of ownership in compliance with section 168A.1501, subdivision 7 , 8, or 9.
(e) A court issuing an injunction under this section shall not require the posting of any bond or other security.
(f) In an action brought under this section by a county attorney, all civil penalties collected under this section shall be deposited into the general fund of the county. In an action brought under this section by the attorney general or the commissioner, all civil penalties collected shall be deposited into the general fund of the state.
(g) Nothing in this subdivision limits the rights or remedies which are otherwise available to a person under common law or other statutes of this state.
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Subd. 20. Application to sale of other vehicles.
(a) This section does not apply:
(1) to any person, copartnership, or corporation engaged in the business of selling vehicles designed to operate exclusively over snow, motor scooters, motorized wheelchairs, utility trailers, farm wagons, farm trailers, or farm tractors or other farm implements, whether self-propelled or not and even though a vehicle listed in this clause may be equipped with a trailer hitch; or
(2) to any person licensed as a real estate broker or salesperson pursuant to chapter 82, who engages in the business of selling, who offers to sell, or who solicits or advertises the sale of manufactured homes affixed to land.
(b) However, this section does apply to a person, copartnership, or corporation described in paragraph (a) who is also engaged in the business of selling other motor vehicles or manufactured homes within the provisions of this section.
(c) As used in this subdivision, "utility trailer" means a motorless vehicle, other than a boat trailer or snowmobile trailer, equipped with one or two wheels, having a gross vehicle weight of 4,000 pounds or less, and used for carrying property on its own structure while being drawn by a motor vehicle.
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Subd. 21.
MS 1980 [Repealed, 1981 c 59 s 20 ]
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Subd. 22. Dealer license for trailers, motorized bicycles; plates, fees; exemptions.
(a) Any person, copartnership, or corporation having a permanent enclosed commercial building or structure either owned in fee or leased and engaged in the business, either exclusively or in addition to any other occupation, of selling motorized bicycles, boat trailers, horse trailers, or snowmobile trailers, may apply to the registrar for a dealer's license. Upon payment of a $10 fee the registrar must license the applicant as a dealer for the remainder of the calendar year in which the application was received. The license may be renewed on or before the second day of January of each succeeding year by payment of a fee of $10.
(b) The registrar must issue to each dealer, upon request of the dealer, up to 50 dealer plates as provided in subdivision 16 upon payment of $5 for each plate. The plates may be used in the same manner and for the same purposes as is provided in subdivision 16. Except for motorized bicycle dealers, the registrar must also issue to the dealer, upon request of the dealer, "in-transit" plates as provided in subdivision 17 upon payment of a fee of $5 for each plate.
(c) This subdivision does not abrogate any of the provisions of this section relating to the duties, responsibilities, and requirements of persons, copartnerships, or corporations engaged in the business, either exclusively or in addition to other occupations, of selling motor vehicles or manufactured homes, except that a seller of boat trailers, utility trailers, or snowmobile trailers who is licensed under this subdivision is not required to have a contract or franchise with a manufacturer or distributor of new boat trailers, utility trailers, or new snowmobile trailers the seller proposes to sell, broker, wholesale, or auction. This section does not require a manufacturer of snowmobile trailers whose manufacturing facility is located outside of the metropolitan area as defined in section
Minn. Stat. § 50.13
50.13 REAL ESTATE.
A savings bank may purchase, hold, or convey land sold upon foreclosure of mortgages owned by it, or upon judgments or decrees in its favor, or in settlement of debts, or received in exchange as part of the consideration of real estate sold by it. Real estate so received in exchange shall not be carried on the books of the bank at a price exceeding the cost of that exchanged, less the cash payment, and all real estate so acquired shall be sold within ten years after its acquirement, unless the time is extended by the commissioner of commerce on application of the board of directors.
History:
( 7713 ) RL s 3021 ; 1983 c 289 s 114 subd 1; 1984 c 655 art 1 s 92 ; 1995 c 171 s 40
Minn. Stat. § 50.1485
50.1485 LENDING AUTHORITY.
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Subdivision 1. Generally.
In addition to other investments authorized by law, a savings bank may make, purchase, or invest in:
(a) loans secured by the pledge of policies of life insurance, the assignment of which is properly acknowledged by the insurer;
(b) consumer loans, which may be unsecured or secured by personal or real property. Consumer loans include, but are not limited to, closed-end installment loans, single payment loans, nonamortizing loans, open-end revolving line of credit loans, credit card loans and extensions of credit, and overdraft protection loans. For the purpose of this paragraph, "consumer loan" means a loan made by the savings bank in which: (1) the debtor is a person other than an organization; (2) the debt is incurred primarily for personal, family, or household purpose; and (3) the debt is payable in installments or a finance charge is made;
(c) secured and unsecured loans to organizations and natural persons for business or commercial purposes. For the purpose of this paragraph, "organization" means a corporation, government or governmental subdivision, or agency, trust, estate, partnership, limited liability partnership, limited liability company, joint venture, cooperative, or association. "Business or commercial purpose" means a purpose other than personal, family, household, or agricultural purpose;
(d) secured and unsecured loans for agricultural purposes. For the purpose of this paragraph, "agricultural purpose" means a purpose relating to the production, harvest, exhibition, marketing, transportation, processing, or manufacture of agricultural products. "Agricultural products" includes agricultural, horticultural, viticultural, and dairy products, livestock, wildlife, poultry, bees, and forest products, and products raised or produced on farms, including processed or manufactured products;
(e) credit sale contracts, which means a sale of goods, services, or an interest in land in which credit is granted by a seller who regularly engages as a seller in credit transactions of the same kind, and the debt is payable in installments or a finance charge is made;
(f) loans on the security of deposit accounts;
(g) real estate loans, subject to the conditions applicable to savings associations under section
Minn. Stat. § 50.155
50.155 PURCHASE OF CERTAIN MORTGAGE LOANS.
Savings banks that are subject to the supervision of the commissioner of commerce are authorized to make or purchase loans secured by real estate mortgage the payment of which is guaranteed in whole or in part by the United States or any instrumentality thereof under the Servicemen's Readjustment Act of 1944 and amendments thereof provided that the unguaranteed portion of such loan does not exceed 70 percent of the appraised value of the security.
History:
1945 c 236 s 1 ; 1983 c 289 s 114 subd 1; 1984 c 655 art 1 s 92 ; 1995 c 171 s 50
Minn. Stat. § 50.18
50.18 METHOD OF DETERMINING SURPLUS.
In determining the percent of surplus held by any such bank, its interest paying stock, notes, and bonds shall be estimated at their market value; notes and bonds having not more than six months' unpaid interest at their face, and real estate not above cost. As to stocks, bonds, and notes having more than six months accrued and unpaid interest, and all other investments not herein enumerated, their value shall be determined by the commissioner of commerce, who may change their valuation from time to time.
History:
( 7718 ) RL s 3026 ; 1983 c 289 s 114 subd 1; 1984 c 655 art 1 s 92
Minn. Stat. § 500.17
500.17 FUTURE ESTATES; RENTS AND PROFITS.
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Subdivision 1. Disposal; rules governing.
Dispositions of the rents and profits of lands, to accrue and be received at any time subsequent to the execution of the instrument creating such disposition, shall be governed by the rules established in this chapter in relation to future estates in lands.
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Subd. 2. Accumulation.
Where the controlling will or other written instrument permits accumulation, either expressly or by necessary implication, income from personal property and rents and profits from real estate may be accumulated for the period during which the power of alienation may be suspended by future interests in real or personal property not held in trust under section 501C.1202, subdivision 3 . Where any will or other instrument authorizes accumulation beyond the period permissible under this section, such authorization shall be void only as to the excess period.
Reasonable sums set aside for depreciation and depletion shall not be deemed an accumulation within the meaning of this section.
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Subd. 3.
MS 1961 [Repealed, 1965 c 682 s 2 ]
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Subd. 4. Support of minor beneficiaries.
When such rents and profits are directed to be accumulated for the benefit of infants entitled to the expectant estate, and such infants are destitute of other sufficient means of support and education, the district court, upon the application of their guardian, may direct a suitable sum, out of such rents and profits, to be applied to their maintenance and education.
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Subd. 5. Ownership if alienation suspended.
When, in consequence of a valid limitation of an expectant estate, there is a suspension of the power of alienation, or of ownership, during the continuance of which the rents and profits are undisposed of, and no valid direction for their accumulation is given, such rents and profits shall belong to the person presumptively entitled to the next eventual estate.
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Subd. 6. Trustee's accumulation of rents, profits of realty.
The provisions of this section shall not apply to the accumulations of rents and profits of real estate held or owned by a trustee or trustees of a trust forming a part of a stock bonus, pension, retirement or profit-sharing plan or fund exempt from tax under the provisions of the Internal Revenue Code of the United States, and rents and profits of real estate held or owned by any such trustee or trustees may be accumulated without restriction as to time.
History:
( 8066 , 8067 , 8068 , 8069 , 8070 ) RL s 3225 , 3226, 3227, 3228, 3229; 1953 c 424 s 1 ; 1965 c 682 s 1 ; 1987 c 60 s 9 ; 1989 c 340 art 1 s 73 ; 2015 c 5 art 15 s 5
Minn. Stat. § 500.24
500.24 FARMING BY BUSINESS ORGANIZATIONS.
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Subdivision 1. Purpose.
The legislature finds that it is in the interests of the state to encourage and protect the family farm as a basic economic unit, to insure it as the most socially desirable mode of agricultural production, and to enhance and promote the stability and well-being of rural society in Minnesota and the nuclear family.
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Subd. 2. Definitions.
The definitions in this subdivision apply to this section.
(a) "Farming" means the production of (1) agricultural products; (2) livestock or livestock products; (3) milk or milk products; or (4) fruit or other horticultural products. It does not include the processing, refining, or packaging of said products, nor the provision of spraying or harvesting services by a processor or distributor of farm products. It does not include the production of timber or forest products, the production of poultry or poultry products, or the feeding and caring for livestock that are delivered to a corporation for slaughter or processing for up to 20 days before slaughter or processing.
(b) "Family farm" means an unincorporated farming unit owned by one or more persons residing on the farm or actively engaging in farming.
(c) "Family farm corporation" means a corporation founded for the purpose of farming and the ownership of agricultural land in which the majority of the stock is held by and the majority of the stockholders are persons, the spouses of persons, or current beneficiaries of one or more family farm trusts in which the trustee holds stock in a family farm corporation, related to each other within the third degree of kindred according to the rules of the civil law, and at least one of the related persons is residing on or actively operating the farm, and none of whose stockholders are corporations; provided that a family farm corporation shall not cease to qualify as such hereunder by reason of any:
(1) transfer of shares of stock to a person or the spouse of a person related within the third degree of kindred according to the rules of civil law to the person making the transfer, or to a family farm trust of which the shareholder, spouse, or related person is a current beneficiary; or
(2) distribution from a family farm trust of shares of stock to a beneficiary related within the third degree of kindred according to the rules of civil law to a majority of the current beneficiaries of the trust, or to a family farm trust of which the shareholder, spouse, or related person is a current beneficiary.
For the purposes of this section, a transfer may be made with or without consideration, either directly or indirectly, during life or at death, whether or not in trust, of the shares in the family farm corporation, and stock owned by a family farm trust are considered to be owned in equal shares by the current beneficiaries.
(d) "Family farm trust" means:
(1) a trust in which:
(i) a majority of the current beneficiaries are persons or spouses of persons who are related to each other within the third degree of kindred according to the rules of civil law;
(ii) all of the current beneficiaries are natural persons or nonprofit corporations or trusts described in the Internal Revenue Code, section 170(c), as amended, and the regulations under that section; and
(iii) one of the family member current beneficiaries is residing on or actively operating the farm; or the trust leases the agricultural land to a family farm unit, a family farm corporation, an authorized farm corporation, an authorized livestock farm corporation, a family farm limited liability company, a family farm trust, an authorized farm limited liability company, a family farm partnership, or an authorized farm partnership; or
(2) a charitable remainder trust as defined in the Internal Revenue Code, section 664, as amended, and the regulations under that section, and a charitable lead trust as set forth in the Internal Revenue Code, section 170(f), and the regulations under that section.
(e) "Authorized farm corporation" means a corporation meeting the following standards:
(1) it has no more than five shareholders, provided that for the purposes of this section, spouses are considered one shareholder;
(2) all its shareholders, other than any estate, are natural persons or a family farm trust;
(3) it does not have more than one class of shares;
(4) its revenue from rent, royalties, dividends, interest, and annuities does not exceed 20 percent of its gross receipts;
(5) shareholders holding 51 percent or more of the interest in the corporation reside on the farm or are actively engaging in farming;
(6) it does not, directly or indirectly, own or otherwise have an interest in any title to more than 1,500 acres of agricultural land; and
(7) none of its shareholders are shareholders in other authorized farm corporations that directly or indirectly in combination with the corporation own more than 1,500 acres of agricultural land.
(f) "Authorized livestock farm corporation" means a corporation formed for the production of livestock and meeting the following standards:
(1) it is engaged in the production of livestock other than dairy cattle;
(2) all its shareholders, other than any estate, are natural persons, family farm trusts, or family farm corporations;
(3) it does not have more than one class of shares;
(4) its revenue from rent, royalties, dividends, interest, and annuities does not exceed 20 percent of its gross receipts;
(5) shareholders holding 75 percent or more of the control, financial, and capital investment in the corporation are farmers, and at least 51 percent of the required percentage of farmers are actively engaged in livestock production;
(6) it does not, directly or indirectly, own or otherwise have an interest in any title to more than 1,500 acres of agricultural land; and
(7) none of its shareholders are shareholders in other authorized farm corporations that directly or indirectly in combination with the corporation own more than 1,500 acres of agricultural land.
(g) "Agricultural land" means real estate used for farming or capable of being used for farming in this state.
(h) "Pension or investment fund" means a pension or employee welfare benefit fund, however organized, a mutual fund, a life insurance company separate account, a common trust of a bank or other trustee established for the investment and reinvestment of money contributed to it, a real estate investment trust, or an investment company as defined in United States Code, title 15, section 80a-3.
(i) "Farm homestead" means a house including adjoining buildings that has been used as part of a farming operation or is part of the agricultural land used for a farming operation.
(j) "Family farm partnership" means a limited partnership formed for the purpose of farming and the ownership of agricultural land in which the majority of the interests in the partnership is held by and the majority of the partners are natural persons or current beneficiaries of one or more family farm trusts in which the trustee holds an interest in a family farm partnership related to each other within the third degree of kindred according to the rules of the civil law, and at least one of the related persons is residing on the farm, actively operating the farm, or the agricultural land was owned by one or more of the related persons for a period of five years before its transfer to the limited partnership, and none of the partners is a corporation. A family farm partnership does not cease to qualify as a family farm partnership because of a:
(1) transfer of a partnership interest to a person or spouse of a person related within the third degree of kindred according to the rules of civil law to the person making the transfer or to a family farm trust of which the partner, spouse, or related person is a current beneficiary; or
(2) distribution from a family farm trust of a partnership interest to a beneficiary related within the third degree of kindred according to the rules of civil law to a majority of the current beneficiaries of the trust, or to a family farm trust of which the partner, spouse, or related person is a current beneficiary.
For the purposes of this section, a transfer may be made with or without consideration, either directly or indirectly, during life or at death, whether or not in trust, of a partnership interest in the family farm partnership, and interest owned by a family farm trust is considered to be owned in equal shares by the current beneficiaries.
(k) "Authorized farm partnership" means a limited partnership meeting the following standards:
(1) it has been issued a certificate from the secretary of state or is registered with the county recorder and farming and ownership of agricultural land is stated as a purpose or character of the business;
(2) it has no more than five partners;
(3) all its partners, other than any estate, are natural persons or family farm trusts;
(4) its revenue from rent, royalties, dividends, interest, and annuities does not exceed 20 percent of its gross receipts;
(5) its general partners hold at least 51 percent of the interest in the land assets of the partnership and reside on the farm or are actively engaging in farming not more than 1,500 acres as a general partner in an authorized limited partnership;
(6) its limited partners do not participate in the business of the limited partnership including operating, managing, or directing management of farming operations;
(7) it does not, directly or indirectly, own or otherwise have an interest in any title to more than 1,500 acres of agricultural land; and
(8) none of its limited partners are limited partners in other authorized farm partnerships that directly or indirectly in combination with the partnership own more than 1,500 acres of agricultural land.
(l) "Family farm limited liability company" means a limited liability company founded for the purpose of farming and the ownership of agricultural land in which the majority of the membership interests is held by and the majority of the members are natural persons, or current beneficiaries of one or more family farm trusts in which the trustee holds an interest in a family farm limited liability company related to each other within the third degree of kindred according to the rules of the civil law, and at least one of the related persons is residing on the farm, actively operating the farm, or the agricultural land was owned by one or more of the related persons for a period of five years before its transfer to the limited liability company, and none of the members is a corporation or a limited liability company. A family farm limited liability company does not cease to qualify as a family farm limited liability company because of:
(1) a transfer of a membership interest to a person or spouse of a person related within the third degree of kindred according to the rules of civil law to the person making the transfer or to a family farm trust of which the member, spouse, or related person is a current beneficiary; or
(2) distribution from a family farm trust of a membership interest to a beneficiary related within the third degree of kindred according to the rules of civil law to a majority of the current beneficiaries of the trust, or to a family farm trust of which the member, spouse, or related person is a current beneficiary.
For the purposes of this section, a transfer may be made with or without consideration, either directly or indirectly, during life or at death, whether or not in trust, of a membership interest in the family farm limited liability company, and interest owned by a family farm trust is considered to be owned in equal shares by the current beneficiaries. Except for a state or federally chartered financial institution acquiring an encumbrance for the purpose of security or an interest under paragraph (x), a member of a family farm limited liability company may not transfer a membership interest, including a financial interest, to a person who is not otherwise eligible to be a member under this paragraph.
(m) "Authorized farm limited liability company" means a limited liability company meeting the following standards:
(1) it has no more than five members;
(2) all its members, other than any estate, are natural persons or family farm trusts;
(3) it does not have more than one class of membership interests;
(4) its revenue from rent, royalties, dividends, interest, and annuities does not exceed 20 percent of its gross receipts;
(5) members holding 51 percent or more of both the governance rights and financial rights in the limited liability company reside on the farm or are actively engaged in farming;
(6) it does not, directly or indirectly, own or otherwise have an interest in any title to more than 1,500 acres of agricultural land; and
(7) none of its members are members in other authorized farm limited liability companies that directly or indirectly in combination with the authorized farm limited liability company own more than 1,500 acres of agricultural land.
Except for a state or federally chartered financial institution acquiring an encumbrance for the purpose of security or an interest under paragraph (x), a member of an authorized farm limited liability company may not transfer a membership interest, including a financial interest, to a person who is not otherwise eligible to be a member under this paragraph.
(n) "Farmer" means a natural person who regularly participates in physical labor or operations management in the person's farming operation and files "Schedule F" as part of the person's annual Form 1040 filing with the United States Internal Revenue Service.
(o) "Actively engaged in livestock production" means performing day-to-day physical labor or day-to-day operations management that significantly contributes to livestock production and the functioning of a livestock operation.
(p) "Research or experimental farm" means a corporation, limited partnership, pension, investment fund, or limited liability company that owns or operates agricultural land for research or experimental purposes, provided that any commercial sales from the operation are incidental to the research or experimental objectives of the corporation. A corporation, limited partnership, limited liability company, or pension or investment fund seeking initial approval by the commissioner to operate agricultural land for research or experimental purposes must first submit to the commissioner a prospectus or proposal of the intended method of operation containing information required by the commissioner including a copy of any operational contract with individual participants.
(q) "Breeding stock farm" means a corporation, limited partnership, or limited liability company, that owns or operates agricultural land for the purpose of raising breeding stock, including embryos, for resale to farmers or for the purpose of growing seed, wild rice, nursery plants, or sod. An entity that is organized to raise livestock other than dairy cattle under this paragraph that does not qualify as an authorized farm corporation must:
(1) sell all castrated animals to be fed out or finished to farming operations that are neither directly nor indirectly owned by the business entity operating the breeding stock operation; and
(2) report its total production and sales annually to the commissioner.
(r) "Aquatic farm" means a corporation, limited partnership, or limited liability company, that owns or leases agricultural land as a necessary part of an aquatic farm as defined in section 17.47, subdivision 3 .
(s) "Religious farm" means a corporation formed primarily for religious purposes whose sole income is derived from agriculture.
(t) "Utility corporation" means a corporation regulated under Minnesota Statutes 1974, chapter 216B, that owns agricultural land for purposes described in that chapter, or an electric generation or transmission cooperative that owns agricultural land for use in its business if the land is not used for farming except under lease to a family farm unit, a family farm corporation, a family farm trust, a family farm partnership, or a family farm limited liability company.
(u) "Development organization" means a corporation, limited partnership, limited liability company, or pension or investment fund that has an interest in agricultural land for which the corporation, limited partnership, limited liability company, or pension or investment fund has documented plans to use and subsequently uses the land within six years from the date of purchase for a specific nonfarming purpose, or if the land is zoned nonagricultural, or if the land is located within an incorporated area. A corporation, limited partnership, limited liability company, or pension or investment fund may hold agricultural land in the amount necessary for its nonfarm business operation; provided, however, that pending the development of agricultural land for nonfarm purposes, the land may not be used for farming except under lease to a family farm unit, a family farm corporation, a family farm trust, an authorized farm corporation, an authorized livestock farm corporation, a family farm partnership, an authorized farm partnership, a family farm limited liability company, or an authorized farm limited liability company, or except when controlled through ownership, options, leaseholds, or other agreements by a corporation that has entered into an agreement with the United States under the New Community Act of 1968 (Title IV of the Housing and Urban Development Act of 1968, United States Code, title 42, sections 3901 to 3914) as amended, or a subsidiary or assign of such a corporation.
(v) "Exempt land" means agricultural land owned or leased by a corporation as of May 20, 1973, agricultural land owned or leased by a pension or investment fund as of May 12, 1981, agricultural land owned or leased by a limited partnership as of May 1, 1988, or agricultural land owned or leased by a trust as of the effective date of Laws 2000, chapter 477, including the normal expansion of that ownership at a rate not to exceed 20 percent of the amount of land owned as of May 20, 1973, for a corporation; May 12, 1981, for a pension or investment fund; May 1, 1988, for a limited partnership, or the effective date of Laws 2000, chapter 477, for a trust, measured in acres, in any five-year period, and including additional ownership reasonably necessary to meet the requirements of pollution control rules. A corporation, limited partnership, or pension or investment fund that is eligible to own or lease agricultural land under this section prior to May 1997, or a corporation that is eligible to own or lease agricultural land as a benevolent trust under this section prior to the effective date of Laws 2000, chapter 477, may continue to own or lease agricultural land subject to the same conditions and limitations as previously allowed.
(w) "Gifted land" means agricultural land acquired as a gift, either by grant or devise, by an educational, religious, or charitable nonprofit corporation, limited partnership, limited liability company, or pension or investment fund if all land so acquired is disposed of within ten years after acquiring the title.
(x) "Repossessed land" means agricultural land acquired by a corporation, limited partnership, limited liability company, or pension or investment fund by process of law in the collection of debts, or by any procedure for the enforcement of a lien or claim on the land, whether created by mortgage or otherwise if all land so acquired is disposed of within five years after acquiring the title. The five-year limitation is a covenant running with the title to the land against any grantee, assignee, or successor of the pension or investment fund, corporation, limited partnership, or limited liability company. The land so acquired must not be used for farming during the five-year period, except under a lease to a family farm unit, a family farm corporation, a family farm trust, an authorized farm corporation, an authorized livestock farm corporation, a family farm partnership, an authorized farm partnership, a family farm limited liability company, or an authorized farm limited liability company. Notwithstanding the five-year divestiture requirement under this paragraph, a financial institution may continue to own the agricultural land if the agricultural land is leased to the immediately preceding former owner, but must dispose of the agricultural land within ten years of acquiring the title. Livestock acquired by a pension or investment fund, corporation, limited partnership, or limited liability company in the collection of debts, or by a procedure for the enforcement of lien or claim on the livestock whether created by security agreement or otherwise after August 1, 1994, must be sold or disposed of within one full production cycle for the type of livestock acquired or 18 months after the livestock is acquired, whichever is earlier.
(y) "Commissioner" means the commissioner of agriculture.
(z) "Nonprofit corporation" means a nonprofit corporation organized under state nonprofit corporation or trust law or qualified for tax-exempt status under federal tax law that: (1) uses the land for a specific nonfarming purpose; (2) leases the agricultural land to a family farm unit, a family farm corporation, an authorized farm corporation, an authorized livestock farm corporation, a family farm limited liability company, a family farm trust, an authorized farm limited liability company, a family farm partnership, or an authorized farm partnership; or (3) actively farms less than 160 acres that were acquired by the nonprofit corporation prior to August 1, 2010, or actively farms less than 40 acres that were acquired by the nonprofit corporation after August 1, 2010, and the nonprofit corporation uses all profits from the agricultural land for educational purposes.
(aa) "Current beneficiary" means a person who at any time during a year is entitled to, or at the discretion of any person may, receive a distribution from the income or principal of the trust. It does not include a distributee trust, other than a trust described in section 170(c) of the Internal Revenue Code, as amended, but does include the current beneficiaries of the distributee trust. It does not include a person in whose favor a power of appointment could be exercised until the holder of the power of appointment actually exercises the power of appointment in that person's favor. It does not include a person who is entitled to receive a distribution only after a specified time or upon the occurrence of a specified event until the time or occurrence of the event. For the purposes of this section, a distributee trust is a current beneficiary of a family farm trust.
(bb) "De minimis" means that any corporation, pension or investment fund, limited liability company, or limited partnership that directly or indirectly owns, acquires, or otherwise obtains any interest in 40 acres or less of agricultural land and annually receives less than $150 per acre in gross revenue from rental or agricultural production.
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Subd. 3. Farming and ownership of agricultural land by corporations restricted.
(a) No corporation, limited liability company, pension or investment fund, trust, or limited partnership shall engage in farming; nor shall any corporation, limited liability company, pension or investment fund, trust, or limited partnership, directly or indirectly, own, acquire, or otherwise obtain any interest, in agricultural land other than a bona fide encumbrance taken for purposes of security. This subdivision does not apply to general partnerships. This subdivision does not apply to any agricultural land, corporation, limited partnership, trust, limited liability company, or pension or investment fund that meet any of the definitions in subdivision 2, paragraphs (b) to (f), (j) to (m), (p) to (x), (z), and (bb), has a conservation plan prepared for the agricultural land, and reports as required under subdivision 4.
(b) A corporation, pension or investment fund, trust, limited liability company, or limited partnership that cannot meet any of the definitions in subdivision 2, paragraphs (b) to (f), (j) to (m), (p) to (x), (z), and (bb), may petition the commissioner for an exemption from this subdivision. The commissioner may issue an exemption if the entity meets the following criteria:
(1) the exemption would not contradict the purpose of this section; and
(2) the petitioning entity would not have a significant impact upon the agriculture industry and the economy.
The commissioner shall review annually each entity that is issued an exemption under this paragraph to ensure that the entity continues to meet the criteria in clauses (1) and (2). If an entity fails to meet the criteria, the commissioner shall withdraw the exemption and the entity is subject to enforcement proceedings under subdivision 5. The commissioner shall submit a report with a list of each entity that is issued an exemption under this paragraph to the chairs of the senate and house of representatives agricultural policy committees by October 1 of each year.
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Subd. 3a. Lease agreement; conservation practice protection clause.
A corporation, pension or investment fund, limited partnership, or limited liability company other than those meeting any of the definitions in subdivision 2, paragraphs (c) to (f) or (j) to (m), when leasing farm land to a family farm unit, a family farm corporation, a family farm trust, an authorized farm corporation, an authorized livestock farm corporation, a family farm partnership, an authorized farm partnership, a family farm limited liability company, or an authorized farm limited liability company, under provisions of subdivision 2, paragraph (x), must include within the lease agreement a provision prohibiting intentional damage or destruction to a conservation practice on the agricultural land.
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Subd. 3b. Protection of conservation practices.
A corporation, pension or investment fund, or limited partnership, or limited liability company other than those meeting any of the definitions in subdivision 2, paragraphs (c) to (f) or (j) to (m), which, during the period of time it holds agricultural land under subdivision 2, paragraph (x), intentionally destroys a conservation practice as defined in section 103F.401, subdivision 3 , to which the state has made a financial contribution, must pay the commissioner, for deposit in the general fund, an amount equal to the state's total contributions to that conservation practice plus interest from the time of investment in the conservation practice. Interest must be calculated at an annual percentage rate of 12 percent.
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Subd. 4. Reports.
(a) The chief executive officer of every pension or investment fund, corporation, limited partnership, limited liability company, or entity that is seeking to qualify for an exemption from the commissioner, and the trustee of a family farm trust that holds any interest in agricultural land or land used for the breeding, feeding, pasturing, growing, or raising of livestock, dairy or poultry, or products thereof, or land used for the production of agricultural crops or fruit or other horticultural products, other than a bona fide encumbrance taken for purposes of security, or which is engaged in farming or proposing to commence farming in this state after May 20, 1973, shall file with the commissioner a report containing the following information and documents:
(1) the name of the pension or investment fund, corporation, limited partnership, or limited liability company and its place of incorporation, certification, or registration;
(2) the address of the pension or investment plan headquarters or of the registered office of the corporation in this state, the name and address of its registered agent in this state and, in the case of a foreign corporation, limited partnership, or limited liability company, the address of its principal office in its place of incorporation, certification, or registration;
(3) the acreage and location listed by quarter-quarter section, township, and county of each lot or parcel of agricultural land or land used for the keeping or feeding of poultry in this state owned or leased by the pension or investment fund, limited partnership, corporation, or limited liability company;
(4) the names and addresses of the officers, administrators, directors, or trustees of the pension or investment fund, or of the officers, shareholders owning more than ten percent of the stock, including the percent of stock owned by each such shareholder, the members of the board of directors of the corporation, and the members of the limited liability company, and the general and limited partners and the percentage of interest in the partnership by each partner;
(5) the farm products which the pension or investment fund, limited partnership, corporation, or limited liability company produces or intends to produce on its agricultural land;
(6) with the first report, a copy of the title to the property where the farming operations are or will occur indicating the particular exception claimed under subdivision 3; and
(7) with the first or second report, a copy of the conservation plan proposed by the soil and water conservation district, and with subsequent reports a statement of whether the conservation plan was implemented.
The report of a corporation, trust, limited liability company, or partnership seeking to qualify hereunder as a family farm corporation, an authorized farm corporation, an authorized livestock farm corporation, a family farm partnership, an authorized farm partnership, a family farm limited liability company, an authorized farm limited liability company, or a family farm trust or under an exemption from the commissioner shall contain the following additional information: the number of shares, partnership interests, or governance and financial rights owned by persons or current beneficiaries of a family farm trust residing on the farm or actively engaged in farming, or their relatives within the third degree of kindred according to the rules of the civil law or their spouses; the name, address, and number of shares owned by each shareholder, partnership interests owned by each partner or governance and financial rights owned by each member, and a statement as to percentage of gross receipts of the corporation derived from rent, royalties, dividends, interest, and annuities. No pension or investment fund, limited partnership, corporation, or limited liability company shall commence farming in this state until the commissioner has inspected the report and certified that its proposed operations comply with the provisions of this section.
(b) Every pension or investment fund, limited partnership, trust, corporation, or limited liability company as described in paragraph (a) shall, prior to April 15 of each year, file with the commissioner a report containing the information required in paragraph (a), based on its operations in the preceding calendar year and its status at the end of the year. A pension or investment fund, limited partnership, corporation, or limited liability company that does not file the report by April 15 must pay a $500 civil penalty. The penalty is a lien on the land being farmed under subdivision 3 until the penalty is paid.
(c) The commissioner may, for good cause shown, issue a written waiver or reduction of the civil penalty for failure to make a timely filing of the annual report required by this subdivision. The waiver or reduction is final and conclusive with respect to the civil penalty, and may not be reopened or modified by an officer, employee, or agent of the state, except upon a showing of fraud or malfeasance or misrepresentation of a material fact. The report required under paragraph (b) must be completed prior to a reduction or waiver under this paragraph. The commissioner may enter into an agreement under this paragraph only once for each corporation or partnership.
(d) A report required under paragraph (a) or (b) must be submitted with a filing fee of $15. The fee must be deposited in the state treasury and credited to an account in the agricultural fund. Money in the account, including interest, is appropriated to the commissioner for the administrative expenses of this section.
(e) Failure to file a required report or the willful filing of false information is a gross misdemeanor.
(f) The trustee of a revocable trust with respect to which either the settlor, the settlor's spouse, or both, are the primary beneficiaries during the settlor's lifetime shall not be required to file with the commissioner a report under this section during any period that the trust is revocable.
§
Subd. 5. Enforcement.
With reason to believe that a corporation, limited partnership, limited liability company, trust, or pension or investment fund is violating subdivision 3, the attorney general shall commence an action in the district court in which any agricultural lands relative to such violation are situated, or if situated in two or more counties, in any county in which a substantial part of the lands are situated. The attorney general shall file for record with the county recorder or the registrar of titles of each county in which any portion of said lands are located a notice of the pendency of the action as provided in section
Minn. Stat. § 501C.0901
501C.0901 , and 524.5-423 , or as otherwise ordered by the court. The standard of a fiduciary shall be applicable to all ABLE account investments by a conservator.
(d) The conservator shall have the power to revoke, suspend, or terminate all or any part of a durable power of attorney of which the person subject to conservatorship is the principal with the same power the principal would have if the principal were not incapacitated. If a durable power of attorney is in effect, a decision of the conservator takes precedence over that of an attorney-in-fact.
(e) Transaction set aside. If a person subject to conservatorship has made a financial transaction or gift or entered into a contract during the two-year period before establishment of the conservatorship, the conservator may petition for court review of the transaction, gift, or contract. If the court finds that the person subject to conservatorship was incapacitated or subject to duress, coercion, or undue influence when the transaction, gift, or contract was made, the court may declare the transaction, gift, or contract void except as against a bona fide transferee for value and order reimbursement or other appropriate relief. This paragraph does not affect any other right or remedy that may be available to the person subject to conservatorship with respect to the transaction, gift, or contract.
(f) After the filing of the petition, a certificate of the district court certified to that fact may be filed for record with the Minnesota secretary of state in the same manner as provided in section 336.9-501 . The certificate shall state that a petition is pending and the name and address of the person for whom a conservator is sought. If a conservator is appointed on the petition, and if the conservatorship order removes or restricts the right of the person subject to conservatorship to transfer property or to contract, then all contracts except for necessaries, and all transfers of personal property, tangible or intangible, including, but not limited to, cash or securities transfers at banks, brokerage houses, or other financial institutions, or transfers of cash or securities, made by the person subject to conservatorship after the filing and before the termination of the conservatorship shall be voidable.
(g) Unless otherwise ordered by the court, if the person subject to conservatorship shall at any time during the continuance of the conservatorship be employed, the wages or salary for employment of the person subject to conservatorship shall not be a part of the conservatorship estate and the wages and salaries shall be paid to the person subject to conservatorship and shall be subject to the control of the person subject to conservatorship to the same extent as if the conservatorship did not exist. The conservator shall not have to account for the wages and salary.
History:
2003 c 12 art 1 s 56 ; 2004 c 146 art 2 s 7 ; 2005 c 91 s 1 ; 2015 c 5 art 15 s 14 ; 2020 c 86 art 1 s 34
524.5-418 GENERAL POWERS AND DUTIES OF CONSERVATOR WITH RESPECT TO REAL PROPERTY.
This section is applicable only to conservatorships and not to decedents' estates. As used in this section, the word "mortgage" includes an extension of an existing mortgage, subject to the provisions of this section, and the word "lease" means a lease for one or more years, unless the context indicates otherwise. The conservator shall have the following powers and duties with respect to conservatorship real property.
(a) The court may direct a sale, mortgage, or lease of any real estate of a person subject to conservatorship when the personal property is insufficient to pay debts and other charges against the estate, or to provide for the support, maintenance, and education of the person subject to conservatorship, a spouse, and dependent children, or when it shall determine the sale, mortgage, or lease to be for the best interest of the person subject to conservatorship. The homestead of a person subject to conservatorship shall not be sold, mortgaged, or leased unless the written consent of the spouse has been filed.
(b) A conservator may file a petition to sell, mortgage, or lease alleging briefly the facts constituting the reasons for the application and describing the real estate involved therein. The petition may include all the real estate of the person subject to conservatorship or any part or parts thereof. It may apply for different authority as to separate parcels. It may apply in the alternative for authority to sell, mortgage, or lease.
(1) Upon the filing of such petition, the court shall fix the time and place for the hearing thereof. Notice of the hearing shall be given to interested persons and shall state briefly the nature of the application made by the petition. If publication of notice is required by the court, published notice shall be given by publication once a week for two consecutive weeks in a legal newspaper designated by the petitioner in the county wherein the proceedings are pending, or, if no such designation be made, in any legal newspaper in the county, or, if the city of the residence of the person subject to conservatorship is situated in more than one county, in any legal newspaper in the city. The first publication shall be had within two weeks after the date of the order fixing the time and place for the hearing. Proof of publication and mailing shall be filed before the hearing. No defect in any notice or in the publication or service thereof shall invalidate any proceedings.
(2) Upon the hearing, the court shall have full power to direct the sale, mortgage, or lease of all the real estate described in the petition, or to direct the sale, mortgage, or lease of any one or more parcels thereof, provided that any such direction shall be within the terms of the application made by the petition. The order shall describe the real estate to be sold, mortgaged, or leased, and may designate the sequence in which the several parcels shall be sold, mortgaged, or leased. If the order be for a sale, it shall direct whether the real estate shall be sold at private sale or public auction. An order to mortgage shall fix the maximum amount of the principal and the maximum rate of interest and shall direct the purpose for which the proceeds shall be used. An order for sale, mortgage, or lease shall remain in force until terminated by the court, but no private sale shall be made after one year from the date of the order unless the real estate shall have been reappraised under order of the court within six months preceding the sale.
(3) The court may order a sale of real estate for cash, part cash, and a purchase-money mortgage of not more than 50 percent of the purchase price, or on contract for deed. The initial payment under a sale on contract shall not be less than ten percent of the total purchase price, and the unpaid purchase price shall bear interest at a rate of not less than four percent per annum and shall be payable in reasonable monthly, quarterly, semiannual, or annual payments, and the final installment shall become due and payable not later than ten years from the date of the contract. Such contract shall provide for conveyance by conservator's or quitclaim deed, which deed shall be executed and delivered upon full performance of the contract without further order of the court. In the event of termination of the interest of the purchaser and assigns in such contract, the real estate may be resold under the original order and a reappraisal within six months preceding the sale. A sale of the vendor's interest in real estate sold by the conservator on contract may be made under order of the court, with or without notice, upon an appraisal of such interest within six months preceding the sale; no such sale shall be made for less than its value as fixed by such appraisal.
(4) If a sale at public auction is ordered, two weeks' published notice of the time and place of sale shall be given. Proof of publication shall be filed before the confirmation of the sale. Such publication and sale may be made in the county where the real estate is situated or in the county of the proceedings. If the parcels to be sold are contiguous and lie in more than one county, notice may be given and the sale may be made in either of such counties or in the county of the proceedings. The conservator may adjourn the sale from time to time, if for the best interests of the estate and the persons concerned, but not exceeding six months in all. Every adjournment shall be announced publicly at the time and place fixed for the sale and, if for more than one day, further notice thereof shall be given as the court may direct.
(5) If a private sale be ordered, the real estate shall be reappraised by two or more disinterested persons under order of the court unless a prior appraisal of the real estate has been made by two or more disinterested persons not more than six months before the sale, which reappraisal shall be filed before the confirmation of the sale. No real estate shall be sold at private sale for less than its value as fixed by such appraisal.
(6) If the bond is insufficient, before confirmation of a sale or lease, or before execution of a mortgage, the conservator shall file an additional bond in such amount as the court may require.
(7) Upon making a sale or lease, the conservator shall file a report thereof. Upon proof of compliance with the terms of the order, the court may confirm the sale or lease and order the conservator to execute and deliver the proper instrument.
(c) When a person subject to conservatorship is entitled under contract of purchase to any interest in real estate, such interest may be sold for the same reasons and in the same manner as other real estate of a person subject to conservatorship. Before confirmation, the court may require the filing of a bond conditioned to save the estate harmless. Upon confirmation, the conservator shall assign the contract and convey by conservator's or quitclaim deed.
(d) When the estate of a person subject to conservatorship is liable for any charge, mortgage, lien, or other encumbrance upon the real estate therein, the court may refuse to confirm the sale or lease until after the filing of a bond in such amount as the court may direct conditioned to save the estate harmless.
(e) When any real estate of a person subject to conservatorship is desired by any person, firm, association, corporation, or governmental agency having the power of eminent domain, the conservator may agree, in writing, upon the compensation to be made for the taking, injuring, damaging, or destroying thereof, subject to the approval of the court. When the agreement has been made, the conservator shall file a petition, of which the agreement shall be a part, setting forth the facts relative to the transaction.
(1) The court, with notice to interested persons, shall hear, determine, and act upon the petition. If publication of notice is required by the court, published notice shall be given by publication once a week for two consecutive weeks in a legal newspaper designated by the petitioner in the county wherein the proceedings are pending, or, if no such designation be made, in any legal newspaper in the county, or, if the city of the residence of the person subject to conservatorship is situated in more than one county, in any legal newspaper in the city. The first publication shall be within two weeks after the date of the order fixing the time and place for the hearing. Proof of publication and mailing shall be filed before the hearing. No defect in any notice or in the publication or service thereof shall invalidate any proceedings.
(2) If the court approves the agreement, the conservator, upon payment of the agreed compensation, shall convey the real estate sought to be acquired and execute any release which may be authorized.
(f) When it is for the best interests of the estate of a person subject to conservatorship, real estate may be platted by the conservator under such conditions and upon such notice as the court may order.
(g) When any person subject to conservatorship is legally bound to make a conveyance or lease, the court, without further notice, may direct the conservator to make the conveyance or lease to the person entitled thereto. The petition may be made by any person claiming to be entitled to the conveyance or lease, or by the conservator, or by any interested person or person claiming an interest in the real estate or contract, and shall show the description of the land and the facts upon which the claim for conveyance or lease is based. Upon proof of the petition, the court may order the conservator to execute and deliver an instrument of conveyance or lease upon performance of the contract.
(h) A conservator without order of the court may make an extension of an existing mortgage for a period of five years or less, if the extension agreement contains the same prepayment privileges and the rate of interest does not exceed the lowest rate in the mortgage extended.
(i) No conservator shall be liable personally on any mortgage note or by reason of the covenants in any instrument or conveyance executed in the capacity of conservator.
(j) No sale, mortgage, lease, or conveyance by a conservator shall be subject to collateral attack on account of any irregularity in the proceedings if the court which ordered the same had jurisdiction of the estate.
(k) No proceeding to have declared invalid the sale, mortgage, lease, or conveyance by a conservator shall be maintained by any person claiming under or through the person subject to conservatorship unless such proceeding is begun within five years immediately succeeding the date of such sale, mortgage, lease, or conveyance; provided, however, that in case of real estate sold by a conservator, no action for its recovery shall be maintained by or under the person subject to conservatorship unless it is begun within five years after the termination of the protective proceedings and that, in cases of fraud, minors, and others under legal disability to sue when the right of action first accrues may begin such action at any time within five years after the disability is removed.
(l) After the filing of the petition, a certificate of the district court certified to that fact may be filed for record in the office of the county recorder for abstract property, or with the registrar of titles for registered property, of any county in which any real estate owned by the person proposed to be subject to conservatorship is situated and, if the person subject to conservatorship is a resident of this state, in the county of residence. The certificate shall state that a petition is pending and the name and address of the person for whom a conservator is sought. If a conservator is appointed on the petition, and if the conservatorship order removes or restricts the right of the person subject to conservatorship to transfer property or to contract, then all contracts and all transfers of real property made by the person subject to conservatorship after the filing and before the termination of the conservatorship shall be void.
History:
2003 c 12 art 1 s 57 ; 2020 c 86 art 1 s 41
524.5-419 INVENTORY; RECORDS.
(a) Within 60 days after appointment, a conservator shall prepare and file with the appointing court a detailed inventory of the estate subject to the conservatorship, together with an oath or affirmation that the inventory is believed to be complete and accurate as far as information permits.
(b) A conservator shall keep records of the administration of the estate and make them available for examination on reasonable request of the court, person subject to guardianship, person subject to conservatorship, or any attorney representing such persons.
History:
2003 c 12 art 1 s 58 ; 2020 c 86 art 1 s 41
524.5-420 REPORTS; APPOINTMENT OF VISITOR; MONITORING; COURT ORDERS.
(a) A conservator shall report to the court for administration of the estate annually unless the court otherwise directs, upon resignation or removal, upon termination of the conservatorship, and at other times as the court directs. A copy of the report must be provided to the person subject to conservatorship and to interested persons of record with the court. An order, after notice and hearing, allowing an intermediate report of a conservator adjudicates liabilities concerning the matters adequately disclosed in the accounting. An order, after notice and hearing, allowing a final report adjudicates all previously unsettled liabilities relating to the conservatorship.
(b) A report must state or contain a listing of the assets of the estate under the conservator's control and a listing of the receipts, disbursements, and distributions during the reporting period.
(c) The report must also state an address or post office box and a telephone number where the conservator can be contacted.
(d) A conservator shall report to the court in writing within 30 days of the occurrence of any of the events listed in this paragraph. The conservator must report any of the occurrences in this paragraph and follow the same reporting requirements in this paragraph for any employee of the conservator responsible for exercising powers and duties under the conservatorship. A copy of the report must be provided to the person subject to conservatorship and to interested persons of record with the court. A conservator shall report when:
(1) the conservator is removed for cause from serving as a guardian or conservator, and if so, the case number and court location;
(2) the conservator has a professional license from an agency listed under section 524.5-118, subdivision 2a , denied, conditioned, suspended, revoked, or canceled, and if so, the licensing agency and license number, and the basis for denial, condition, suspension, revocation, or cancellation of the license;
(3) the conservator is found civilly liable in an action that involves fraud, misrepresentation, material omission, misappropriation, theft, or conversion, and if so, the case number and court location;
(4) the conservator files for or receives protection under the bankruptcy laws, and if so, the case number and court location;
(5) a civil monetary judgment is entered against the conservator, and if so, the case number, court location, and outstanding amount owed;
(6) the conservator is convicted of a crime other than a petty misdemeanor or traffic offense, and if so, the case number and court location; or
(7) an order for protection or harassment restraining order is issued against the conservator, and if so, the case number and court location.
(e) A person subject to conservatorship or an interested person of record with the court may submit to the court a written statement disputing account statements regarding the administration of the estate or addressing any disciplinary or legal action that is contained in the reports and may petition the court for any order that is in the best interests of the person subject to conservatorship and the estate or for other appropriate relief.
(f) An interested person may notify the court in writing that the interested person does not wish to receive copies of reports required under this section after which time neither the court nor any other person is required to give notice to any person who has waived notice.
(g) The court may appoint a visitor to review a report or plan, interview the person subject to conservatorship or conservator, and make any other investigation the court directs. In connection with a report, the court may order a conservator to submit the assets of the estate to an appropriate examination to be made in a manner the court directs.
(h) The court shall establish a system for monitoring of conservatorships, including the filing and review of conservators' reports and plans. If an annual report is not filed within 60 days of the required date, the court shall issue an order to show cause. Unless otherwise ordered by the court, a report under this section shall be filed publicly.
(i) If there is no acting guardian, a conservator that becomes aware of the death of the person subject to conservatorship shall notify in writing; orally; or by phone, text message, email, or electronic service, all known interested persons as defined by section 524.5-102 , subdivision 7, clauses (iii), (iv), (v), (vi), (ix), and (xi), and the court as soon as is reasonably practical, that the person subject to conservatorship has died. The conservator may delegate this task under reasonable circumstances.
(j) If a conservator fails to comply with this section, the court may decline to appoint that person as a guardian or conservator, or may remove a person as guardian or conservator.
History:
2003 c 12 art 1 s 59 ; 2009 c 150 s 16 ; 2010 c 254 s 11 ; 2013 c 86 art 2 s 7 ; 2020 c 86 art 1 s 35 ; 2025 c 35 art 8 s 5
524.5-421 TITLE AFTER APPOINTMENT.
(a) The appointment of a conservator does not vest title of the property of the person subject to conservatorship in the conservator.
(b) Letters of conservatorship are evidence of the conservator's power to act on behalf of the person subject to conservatorship. An order terminating a conservatorship terminates the conservator's powers to act on behalf of the person subject to conservatorship.
(c) Subject to the requirements of general statutes governing the filing or recordation of documents of title to land or other property, letters of conservatorship and orders terminating conservatorships may be filed or recorded to give notice of title as between the conservator and the person subject to conservatorship.
History:
2003 c 12 art 1 s 60 ; 2020 c 86 art 1 s 41
524.5-422 INTEREST OF PERSON SUBJECT TO CONSERVATORSHIP NONALIENABLE.
(a) Except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (c) and (d), the interest of a person subject to conservatorship in property is not transferable or assignable by the person subject to conservatorship. An attempted transfer or assignment by the person subject to conservatorship, although ineffective to affect property rights, may give rise to a claim against the person subject to conservatorship for restitution or damages which, subject to presentation and allowance, may be satisfied as provided in section 524.5-429 .
(b) Upon appointment of a conservator, property vested in a person subject to conservatorship is not subject to levy, garnishment, or similar process for claims against the person subject to conservatorship unless allowed pursuant to section 524.5-429 .
(c) A person without knowledge of the conservatorship who in good faith and for security or substantially equivalent value receives delivery from a person subject to conservatorship of tangible personal property of a type normally transferred by delivery of possession is protected as if the person subject to conservatorship or transferee had valid title.
(d) A third party who deals with the person subject to conservatorship with respect to property subject to a conservatorship is entitled to any protection provided in other law.
(e) Nothing in this section or in this article shall prevent the imposition, enforcement, or collection of a lien under sections
Minn. Stat. § 501C.1106
501C.1106 ENTITY DISTRIBUTIONS.
§
Subdivision 1. Distribution of ownership interests; shares; stock splits; stock dividends; subscription rights.
Distributions of shares of a distributing corporation or similar equity ownership interests in noncorporate entities, including distributions in the form of or equivalent to a stock split or stock dividend, are principal. An entity owner's right to subscribe to shares, ownership interests, or other securities of the distributing entity and the proceeds of any sale of that right are principal.
§
Subd. 2. Redemption; merger; reorganization; liquidation.
Subject to subdivisions 3 and 4, and except to the extent that the entity indicates that some part of an entity distribution is a settlement of preferred or guaranteed corporate dividends or distribution preferences based upon a return on invested capital accrued under the governing instrument since the trustee acquired the related ownership interest or is in lieu of an ordinary cash dividend or similar distribution from current earnings of the entity, an entity distribution is principal if the distribution is pursuant to:
(1) redemption of the ownership interest or a call of shares;
(2) a merger, consolidation, reorganization, or other plan by which assets of the entity are acquired by another entity; or
(3) a total or partial liquidation of the entity, including a distribution the entity indicates is a distribution in total or partial liquidation or distribution of assets, other than cash, pursuant to a court decree or final administrative order by a government agency ordering distribution of the particular assets.
§
Subd. 3. Regulated investment company; real estate investment trust.
Distributions made from ordinary income by a regulated investment company or by a trust qualifying and electing to be taxed under federal law as a real estate investment trust are income. All other distributions made by the company or trust, including distributions from short-term or long-term capital gains, depreciation, or depletion, whether in the form of cash or an option to take new stock or cash or an option to purchase additional shares, are principal.
§
Subd. 4. Distributions from pass-through entities.
Distributions from pass-through entities must be allocated between income and principal as reasonably and equitably determined by the trustee. This subdivision applies for any accounting period during which an entity is a pass-through entity for any portion of the accounting period. In making its determination, the trustee may consider the following:
(1) characterization of income, distributions, and transactions in financial or other information received from the entity, including financial statements and tax information;
(2) whether the entity completed a significant capital transaction outside of the ordinary course of business that the trustee believes has resulted in a distribution to the owners of the entity in the nature of a partial liquidating distribution;
(3) the extent to which the burden for income tax with respect to the income of the entity is to be paid by the trustee out of trust assets or by the beneficiaries of the trust;
(4) the net amount of distributions from the entity available to the trustee after estimating or accounting for tax payments by the trustee or distributions to beneficiaries for the purpose of paying taxes on income earned by the entity;
(5) whether distributions appear to be made out of or contributed to by income earned by the entity and subjected to income taxes in a prior accounting period which may include accounting periods prior to the date the trustee acquired the related ownership interest;
(6) whether the entity is consistently a pass-through entity during multiple accounting periods or a change to or from being a pass-through entity has or will occur in accounting periods preceding or subsequent to the current accounting period;
(7) if the trust owns a controlling interest or total interest in an entity, the trustee may reasonably allocate distributions between income and principal and not necessarily as if that business interest were owned by the trust as a proprietorship; and
(8) other facts and circumstances as the trustee reasonably considers relevant to its determination.
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Subd. 5. Other distributions.
Except as provided in subdivisions 1, 2, 3, and 4, all distributions from entities are income. "Entity distributions" includes cash dividends, distributions of or rights to subscribe to shares or securities or obligations of entities other than the distributing entity, and the proceeds of the rights or property distributions. Except as provided in subdivisions 1, 2, 3, and 4, if the distributing entity gives the owner of an ownership interest an option to receive a distribution either in cash or in an ownership interest in the entity, the distribution chosen is income.
§
Subd. 6. Reliance on statements.
The trustee may rely on a statement of the distributing entity as to a fact relevant under a provision of sections
Minn. Stat. § 504B.141
504B.141 URBAN REAL ESTATE; HOLDING OVER.
When a tenant of urban real estate, or any interest therein, holds over and retains possession after expiration of the lease without the landlord's express agreement, no tenancy for any period other than the shortest interval between the times of payment of rent under the terms of the expired lease shall be implied.
History:
1999 c 199 art 1 s 9
Minn. Stat. § 504B.301
504B.301 , except that the provision of this clause does not authorize a person who is not a licensed attorney-at-law to conduct a jury trial or to appear before a district court or the court of appeals or supreme court pursuant to an appeal, and provided that, except for a nonprofit corporation, a person who is not a licensed attorney-at-law shall not charge or collect a separate fee for services rendered pursuant to this clause;
(14) the delivery of legal services by a specialized legal assistant in accordance with a specialty license issued by the supreme court before July 1, 1995;
(15) the sole shareholder of a corporation from appearing on behalf of the corporation in court; or
(16) an officer, manager, partner, or employee or an agent of a condominium, cooperative, or townhouse association from appearing on behalf of a corporation, limited liability company, partnership, sole proprietorship, or association in conciliation court or in a district court action removed from conciliation court, in accordance with section 491A.02, subdivision 4 .
§
Subd. 3a. Real estate closing services.
Nothing in this section shall be construed to prevent a real estate broker, a real estate salesperson, or a real estate closing agent, as defined in section
Minn. Stat. § 505.07
505.07 CITY WITH NEW NAME MAY CONFORM PLAT NAMES.
The council of any statutory city in this state, the name of which has been changed, is hereby given power and authority to change, in the manner herein specified, the name of any and all plats of real estate located within the corporate limits of such statutory city to conform to the corporate name of such statutory city.
In case the statutory city council determines to change the name of any such plat, it shall adopt a resolution specifying the plat, the name of which is to be changed, and designating the name by which it shall thereafter be known, and a copy of the resolution, duly certified by the clerk or recorder of the statutory city, shall thereupon be filed for record in the office of the county recorder of each county in which the real estate covered by the plat is located.
After such a resolution has been adopted and a certified copy thereof recorded, the plat referred to therein shall thereafter be known and designated by the name specified in the resolution and all real estate embraced in the plat may thereafter be conveyed by reference to the name of the plat as changed or by reference to the name of the plat before its name was changed as the grantor may prefer.
History:
( 8242-1 , 8242-2 , 8242-3 ) 1927 c 31 s 1 -3; 1973 c 123 art 5 s 7 ; 1976 c 181 s 2
Minn. Stat. § 505.15
505.15 CERTAIN PLATS VALIDATED.
In all cases where the record owner of real estate in this state has heretofore conveyed the same, or any part thereof, by express reference in the instrument of such conveyance to a plat of such real estate on file in the office of the county recorder in the county in which such real estate is situated, and a plat so referred to in said conveyance is actually of record in such recorder's office at the time when such conveyance is made, such record owner and all persons claiming under such record owner, shall be forever estopped from questioning the validity of such plat, notwithstanding that at the time of the execution and record thereof, title to the premises covered thereby, appears of record to have been in the name of a person other than the person who executed such plat as proprietor of the premises covered thereby, and notwithstanding any irregularity or informality in the execution, acceptance, or record of such plat. In all such cases such plat shall be deemed and taken to be valid, confirmed, and legalized in all respects as if actually executed and recorded by the persons who appear of record to have been the owners of the premises covered thereby at the time of the execution and record thereof.
History:
( 8245 ) 1905 c 129 s 1 ; 1976 c 181 s 2
Minn. Stat. § 507.01
507.01 CONVEYANCE AND PURCHASER.
The word "purchaser," as used in this chapter, embraces every person to whom any estate or interest in real estate is conveyed for a valuable consideration and every assignee of a mortgage, lease, or other conditional estate. The word "conveyance," as so used, includes every instrument in writing whereby any interest in real estate is created, aliened, mortgaged, or assigned or by which the title thereto may be affected in law or in equity, except wills, leases for a term not exceeding three years, and powers of attorney.
History:
( 8195 ) RL s 3334
Minn. Stat. § 507.021
507.021 CONVEYANCES RECORDED 15 YEARS VALIDATED.
When a deed, assignment, or other instrument affecting the title to real estate shall have been filed or recorded in the office of the county recorder of any county, or in any public office authorized to receive such instrument for filing or recording, and shall have continued on record for 15 years and such instrument does not affirmatively show whether the grantor or assignor or person who executed the instrument was married such filing or recording and continuance thereof for such 15-year period shall be prima facie evidence that such grantor or assignor or person who executed the instrument was an unmarried person at the time of the making and delivery of such instrument, unless prior to January 1, 1924, any person claiming any estate in the land affected by such instrument, by, through or under such person or the person's spouse, heirs or devisees, shall commence an action to recover such estate and shall file a notice of lis pendens at the time of the commencement of the action in the office of the county recorder in the county where such land is situated.
History:
( 8197 ) 1923 c 208 s 1 ; 1976 c 181 s 2 ; 1986 c 444
Minn. Stat. § 507.05
507.05 CONVEYANCE BY CORPORATION; RESOLUTION APPOINTING ATTORNEY.
A corporation may convey its real estate by an attorney appointed by resolution of its directors or governing board, a copy of which, certified by its clerk or secretary, may be filed for record with the county recorder.
History:
( 8202 ) RL s 3339 ; 1976 c 181 s 2
Minn. Stat. § 507.091
507.091 CONVEYANCE TO INCLUDE NAME AND ADDRESS OF DRAFTER.
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Subdivision 1. Name and address required.
No instrument by which the title to real estate or any interest therein or lien thereon, is conveyed, created, encumbered, assigned or otherwise disposed of, shall be recorded by the county recorder or registered by the registrar of titles until the name and address of the person who or corporation which drafted the instrument is printed, typewritten, stamped or written on it in a legible manner. An instrument complies with this subdivision if it contains a statement in the following form: "This instrument was drafted by .......... (name) .................... (address)."
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Subd. 2. Exceptions.
Subdivision 1 does not apply to any instrument executed before January 1, 1970, nor to a decree, order, judgment or writ of any court, a will or death record, nor to any instrument executed or acknowledged outside the state.
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Subd. 3. If noncompliance.
The validity and effect of the record of any instrument in the office of the county recorder or registrar of titles shall not be lessened or impaired by the fact it does not comply with subdivision 1.
History:
1969 c 1118 s 1 -3; 1976 c 181 s 2 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1Sp2001 c 9 art 15 s 32
Minn. Stat. § 507.092
507.092 CONVEYANCE TO INCLUDE NAME AND ADDRESS OF PERSON TO RECEIVE TAX STATEMENTS.
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Subdivision 1. To get tax statements.
(a) No contract for deed or deed conveying fee title to real estate or affidavit of survivorship shall be recorded by the county recorder or registered by the registrar of titles until the name and address of the person to whom future tax statements should be sent, is printed, typewritten, stamped or written on it in a legible manner. An instrument complies with this subdivision if it contains a statement in the following form: "Tax statements for the real property described in this instrument should be sent to:
............... (legal name of grantee) ............... (residential or business address)."
(b) The name provided under paragraph (a) must be the legal name of the grantee and the address must be the residential or business address of the grantee.
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Subd. 2. Exceptions.
Subdivision 1 does not apply to any instrument executed before January 1, 1972, nor to a decree, order, judgment or writ of any court, a will or death record, a transfer on death deed or clearance certificate under section
Minn. Stat. § 507.0948
507.0948 . The Electronic Real Estate Recording Commission created under the Minnesota Real Property Electronic Recording Act may adopt or amend standards set by the task force created in Laws 2000, chapter 391 , and the Electronic Real Estate Recording Task Force created under Laws 2005, chapter 156 , article 2, section 41, and may set new or additional standards to the full extent permitted in section
Minn. Stat. § 507.13
507.13 STANDARD FORMS ESTABLISHED.
The intent is to establish a standard set of printed forms which may be used in the state for real estate conveyancing and to fix and make uniform the fee for recording instruments drawn on such forms and for other instruments which do not conform thereto, but sections
Minn. Stat. § 507.17
507.17 CONVEYANCE INCLUDES ABUTTING VACATED PUBLIC RIGHT-OF-WAY.
Every conveyance of real estate which abuts upon a vacated street, alley, or other public right-of-way shall be construed to include that part of such right-of-way or street which, either by operation or presumption of law, attaches thereto upon such vacation, unless such conveyance expresses a contrary intention.
History:
( 8208-1 ) 1939 c 386
Minn. Stat. § 507.20
507.20 GRANTOR TO MAKE KNOWN ENCUMBRANCE.
In all conveyances by deed or mortgage of real estate upon which any encumbrance exists, the grantor, whether executing the same in the grantor's own right, or as executor, administrator, assignee, trustee, or otherwise by authority of law, shall, before the consideration is paid, by exception in the deed or otherwise, make known to the grantee the existence and nature of such encumbrance, so far as the grantor has knowledge thereof.
History:
( 8211 ) RL s 3344 ; 1986 c 444
Minn. Stat. § 507.21
507.21 LIABILITY OF GRANTOR WHO COVENANTS AGAINST ENCUMBRANCES.
Whoever conveys real estate by deed or mortgage containing a covenant that it is free from all encumbrances, when an encumbrance, whether known to the person conveying or not, appears of record to exist thereon, but does not exist in fact, shall be liable in an action of contract to the grantee, the grantee's heirs, executors, administrators, successors, or assigns, for all damages sustained in removing the same.
History:
( 8212 ) RL s 3345 ; 1986 c 444
Minn. Stat. § 507.236
507.236 TRANSFER STATEMENT FOR CONTRACT FOR DEED.
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Subdivision 1. Definition.
In this section, "transfer statement for a contract for deed" means a document that:
(1) is a transfer statement made in compliance with section 336.9-619 (a); and
(2) transfers a seller's interest in an executory contract for the sale of real estate or of an interest in real estate that entitles the purchaser to possession of the real estate.
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Subd. 2. Recording of statement.
A transferee under a transfer statement for a contract for deed is entitled to have the statement recorded as provided in section 336.9-619 (b). Recording must be with the county recorder or registrar of titles in the county where the affected real estate is located.
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Subd. 3. Effects of recording.
Subject to compliance with any applicable provisions of section
Minn. Stat. § 507.24
507.24 and includes the nearest address and the legal description of the premises, the date of detection, the date of depopulation, the landowner requirements under this paragraph, and any other information required by the board. The legal description must be the legal description of record with the county recorder or registrar of titles and must not otherwise be the real estate tax statement legal description of the premises. The notice expires and has no effect ten years after the date of detection stated in the notice. The registrar of titles must omit an expired notice from future certificates of title.
(e) An owner of farmed Cervidae that test positive for chronic wasting disease is responsible for proper disposal of the animals, as determined by the board.
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Subd. 11a. Liability.
(a) A herd owner is liable in a civil action to a person injured by the owner's sale or unlawful disposal of farmed Cervidae if the herd owner knew or reasonably should have known that the farmed Cervidae were infected with or exposed to chronic wasting disease. Action may be brought in a county where the farmed Cervidae are sold, delivered, or unlawfully disposed.
(b) A herd owner is liable to the state for costs associated with the owner's unlawful disposal of farmed Cervidae infected with or exposed to chronic wasting disease. This paragraph may be enforced by the attorney general on behalf of any state agency affected.
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Subd. 12. Importation.
(a) A person must not import live Cervidae into the state from a state or province where chronic wasting disease has been detected in the farmed or wild cervid population in the last five years unless the animal has tested not detected for chronic wasting disease with a validated live-animal test.
(b) Live Cervidae or Cervidae semen must originate from a herd that has been subject to a state-, federal-, or provincial-approved chronic wasting disease herd certification program and that has reached a status equivalent to the highest certification.
(c) Cervidae imported in violation of this section may be seized and destroyed by the commissioner of natural resources.
(d) This subdivision does not apply to the interstate transfer of animals between two facilities accredited by the Association of Zoos and Aquariums.
(e) Notwithstanding this subdivision, the commissioner of natural resources may issue a permit allowing the importation of orphaned wild cervid species that are not susceptible to chronic wasting disease from another state to an Association of Zoos and Aquariums accredited institution in Minnesota following a joint risk-based assessment conducted by the commissioner and the institution.
(f) Notwithstanding this subdivision, the state veterinarian may issue a permit to a zoo that is a United States Department of Agriculture licensed exhibitor of regulated animals to import live reindeer from another state if the reindeer are part of a herd that is:
(1) in the United States Department of Agriculture Herd Certification Program; or
(2) subject to similar equivalent disease surveillance at the discretion of the state veterinarian.
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Subd. 13. Rules.
The Board of Animal Health shall adopt rules as necessary to implement this section and to otherwise provide for the control of Cervidae diseases.
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Subd. 14.
MS 2022 [Repealed, 2023 c 60 art 7 s 14 ]
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Subd. 15. Cooperation with Board of Animal Health.
(a) The commissioner of natural resources may contract with the Board of Animal Health to administer some or all of sections
Minn. Stat. § 507.251
507.251 CONSTRUCTIVE NOTICE, WHEN NOT AFFECTED.
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Subdivision 1. Attestation clause, acknowledgment; defect, absence.
In any case where an instrument affecting the title to real estate, or authorizing an act affecting the title to real estate, was heretofore or is hereafter filed for record and recorded in the office of the county recorder or filed in the office of the registrar of titles of the county in this state wherein the real estate, or any part thereof, is situated, and there is apparent on the face of the instrument or the record thereof a defect in the attestation of the instrument, or the absence of any attestation, or a defect in the acknowledgment of the instrument or in the certification of the acknowledgment, or the absence of any certificate of acknowledgment, or a combination of two or more of such defects, the instrument and the filing and record thereof and certified copies of the instrument and of the record thereof shall have the same force and effect as constructive notice and the same force and effect as evidence and the same force and effect for all purposes that they would have had if no such defect or omission in attestation, acknowledgment or certification of acknowledgment had been apparent on the face of the instrument or the record thereof.
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Subd. 2. Recording and filing of wills excepted.
This section shall not apply to the recording or filing of wills.
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Subd. 3. Recording officers, liability not affected.
This section shall not be construed as relieving the county recorder or the registrar of titles of any county in this state from any penalty or liability imposed by law for accepting and recording or filing an instrument not legally entitled to record or filing.
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Subd. 4. Limitation.
This section shall not affect any action pending on March 18, 1949, or commenced before January 1, 1950, in any court in this state.
History:
1949 c 134 s 1 -4; 1976 c 181 s 2
Minn. Stat. § 507.26
507.26 JUDGMENTS.
A certified copy of any judgment, decree, or order made by any court of record within the state, affecting title to real estate or any interest therein, may be recorded in any county where any of the lands lie, in the same manner and with like effect as a conveyance.
History:
( 8219 ) RL s 3350
Minn. Stat. § 507.29
507.29 AFFIDAVITS AS EVIDENCE.
Any affidavit relating to the identification, the marital status or relation, the relation as to service in the armed forces of the United States, the death, or the time of death, of any person who is a party to any instrument affecting the title to real estate, or an affidavit relating to the identification of any corporation or other legal entity which is a party to any instrument affecting the title to real estate, duly sworn to before any officer or person authorized to administer an oath under the laws of this state, shall be recordable in the office of the county recorder where such instrument is recorded.
Any such affidavit so recorded, or a certified copy thereof, is admissible as evidence in any action involving the instrument to which it relates or the title to the real estate affected by such instrument and is prima facie evidence of the facts stated therein.
History:
( 8221-1 , 8221-2 ) 1931 c 209 s 1 ,2; 1949 c 276 s 1 ; 1965 c 773 s 1 ; 1976 c 181 s 2
Minn. Stat. § 507.328
507.328 ; or
(3) a statute of another jurisdiction which provides for a security interest to be indicated on a certificate of title as a condition or result of the security interest's obtaining priority over the rights of a lien creditor with respect to the property.
(b) Compliance with other law. Compliance with the requirements of a statute, regulation, or treaty described in subsection (a) for obtaining priority over the rights of a lien creditor is equivalent to the filing of a financing statement under this article. Except as otherwise provided in subsection (d) and sections 336.9-313 and 336.9-316 (d) and (e) for goods covered by a certificate of title, a security interest in property subject to a statute, regulation, or treaty described in subsection (a) may be perfected only by compliance with those requirements, and a security interest so perfected remains perfected notwithstanding a change in the use or transfer of possession of the collateral.
(c) Duration and renewal of perfection. Except as otherwise provided in subsection (d) and section 336.9-316 (d) and (e), duration and renewal of perfection of a security interest perfected by compliance with the requirements prescribed by a statute, regulation, or treaty described in subsection (a) are governed by the statute, regulation, or treaty. In other respects, the security interest is subject to this article.
(d) Inapplicability to certain inventory. During any period in which collateral subject to a statute specified in subsection (a)(2) is inventory held for sale or lease by a person or leased by that person as lessor and that person is in the business of selling goods of that kind, this section does not apply to a security interest in that collateral created by that person.
History:
2000 c 399 art 1 s 31 ; 2001 c 195 art 1 s 8 ; 2005 c 69 art 1 s 21 ; 2011 c 31 art 1 s 4,16
336.9-312 MS 1998 [Repealed, 2000 c 399 art 1 s 140 ]
336.9-312 PERFECTION OF SECURITY INTERESTS IN CHATTEL PAPER, CONTROLLABLE ACCOUNTS, CONTROLLABLE ELECTRONIC RECORDS, CONTROLLABLE PAYMENT INTANGIBLES, DEPOSIT ACCOUNTS, DOCUMENTS, GOODS COVERED BY DOCUMENTS, INSTRUMENTS, INVESTMENT PROPERTY, LETTER OF CREDIT RIGHTS, AND MONEY; PERFECTION BY PERMISSIVE FILING; TEMPORARY PERFECTION WITHOUT FILING OR TRANSFER OF POSSESSION.
(a) Perfection by filing permitted. A security interest in chattel paper, controllable accounts, controllable electronic records, controllable payment intangibles, instruments, investment property, or negotiable documents may be perfected by filing.
(b) Control or possession of certain collateral. Except as otherwise provided in section 336.9-315 (c) and (d) for proceeds:
(1) a security interest in a deposit account may be perfected only by control under section 336.9-314 ;
(2) and except as otherwise provided in section 336.9-308 (d), a security interest in a letter of credit right may be perfected only by control under section 336.9-314 ;
(3) a security interest in tangible money may be perfected only by the secured party's taking possession under section 336.9-313 ; and
(4) a security interest in electronic money may be perfected only by control under section 336.9-314 .
(c) Goods covered by negotiable document. While goods are in the possession of a bailee that has issued a negotiable document covering the goods:
(1) a security interest in the goods may be perfected by perfecting a security interest in the document; and
(2) a security interest perfected in the document has priority over any security interest that becomes perfected in the goods by another method during that time.
(d) Goods covered by nonnegotiable document. While goods are in the possession of a bailee that has issued a nonnegotiable document covering the goods, a security interest in the goods may be perfected by:
(1) issuance of a document in the name of the secured party;
(2) the bailee's receipt of notification of the secured party's interest; or
(3) filing as to the goods.
(e) Temporary perfection: new value. A security interest in certificated securities, negotiable documents, or instruments is perfected without filing or the taking of possession or control for a period of 20 days from the time it attaches to the extent that it arises for new value given under a signed security agreement.
(f) Temporary perfection: goods or documents made available to debtor. A perfected security interest in a negotiable document or goods in possession of a bailee, other than one that has issued a negotiable document for the goods, remains perfected for 20 days without filing if the secured party makes available to the debtor the goods or documents representing the goods for the purpose of:
(1) ultimate sale or exchange; or
(2) loading, unloading, storing, shipping, transshipping, manufacturing, processing, or otherwise dealing with them in a manner preliminary to their sale or exchange.
(g) Temporary perfection: delivery of security certificate or instrument to debtor. A perfected security interest in a certificated security or instrument remains perfected for 20 days without filing if the secured party delivers the security certificate or instrument to the debtor for the purpose of:
(1) ultimate sale or exchange; or
(2) presentation, collection, enforcement, renewal, or registration of transfer.
(h) Expiration of temporary perfection. After the 20-day period specified in subsection (e), (f), or (g) expires, perfection depends upon compliance with this article.
History:
2000 c 399 art 1 s 32 ; 2004 c 162 art 5 s 24 ; 2024 c 93 art 9 s 19
336.9-313 MS 1998 [Repealed, 2000 c 399 art 1 s 140 ]
336.9-313 WHEN POSSESSION BY OR DELIVERY TO SECURED PARTY PERFECTS SECURITY INTEREST WITHOUT FILING.
(a) Perfection by possession or delivery. Except as otherwise provided in subsection (b), a secured party may perfect a security interest in goods, instruments, negotiable tangible documents, or tangible money by taking possession of the collateral. A secured party may perfect a security interest in certificated securities by taking delivery of the certificated securities under section 336.8-301 .
(b) Goods covered by certificate of title. With respect to goods covered by a certificate of title issued by this state, a secured party may perfect a security interest in the goods by taking possession of the goods only in the circumstances described in section 336.9-316(d) .
(c) Collateral in possession of person other than debtor. With respect to collateral other than certificated securities and goods covered by a document, a secured party takes possession of collateral in the possession of a person other than the debtor, the secured party, or a lessee of the collateral from the debtor in the ordinary course of the debtor's business, when:
(1) the person in possession signs a record acknowledging that it holds possession of the collateral for the secured party's benefit; or
(2) the person takes possession of the collateral after having signed a record acknowledging that it will hold possession of the collateral for the secured party's benefit.
(d) Time of perfection by possession; continuation of perfection. If perfection of a security interest depends upon possession of the collateral by a secured party, perfection occurs not earlier than the time the secured party takes possession and continues only while the secured party retains possession.
(e) Time of perfection by delivery; continuation of perfection. A security interest in a certificated security in registered form is perfected by delivery when delivery of the certificated security occurs under section 336.8-301 and remains perfected by delivery until the debtor obtains possession of the security certificate.
(f) Acknowledgment not required. A person in possession of collateral is not required to acknowledge that it holds possession for a secured party's benefit.
(g) Effectiveness of acknowledgment; no duties or confirmation. If a person acknowledges that it holds possession for the secured party's benefit:
(1) the acknowledgment is effective under subsection (c) or section 336.8-301(a) , even if the acknowledgment violates the rights of a debtor; and
(2) unless the person otherwise agrees or law other than this article otherwise provides, the person does not owe any duty to the secured party and is not required to confirm the acknowledgment to another person.
(h) Secured party's delivery to person other than debtor. A secured party having possession of collateral does not relinquish possession by delivering the collateral to a person other than the debtor or a lessee of the collateral from the debtor in the ordinary course of the debtor's business if the person was instructed before the delivery or is instructed contemporaneously with the delivery:
(1) to hold possession of the collateral for the secured party's benefit; or
(2) to redeliver the collateral to the secured party.
(i) Effect of delivery under subsection (h); no duties or confirmation. A secured party does not relinquish possession, even if a delivery under subsection (h) violates the rights of a debtor. A person to which collateral is delivered under subsection (h) does not owe any duty to the secured party and is not required to confirm the delivery to another person unless the person otherwise agrees or law other than this article otherwise provides.
History:
2000 c 399 art 1 s 33 ; 2004 c 162 art 5 s 25 ; 2013 c 125 art 1 s 66 ; 2024 c 93 art 9 s 20
336.9-314 MS 1998 [Repealed, 2000 c 399 art 1 s 140 ]
336.9-314 PERFECTION BY CONTROL.
(a) Perfection by control. A security interest in controllable accounts, controllable electronic records, controllable payment intangibles, deposit accounts, electronic documents, electronic money, investment property, or letter of credit rights may be perfected by control of the collateral under section 336.7-106 , 336.9-104 , 336.9-105A , 336.9-106 , 336.9-107 , or 336.9-107A .
(b) Specified collateral: time of perfection by control; continuation of perfection. A security interest in controllable accounts, controllable electronic records, controllable payment intangibles, deposit accounts, electronic documents, electronic money, or letter of credit rights is perfected by control under section 336.7-106 , 336.9-104 , 336.9-105A , 336.9-107 , or 336.9-107A not earlier than the secured party obtains control and remains perfected by control only while the secured party retains control.
(c) Investment property: time of perfection by control; continuation of perfection. A security interest in investment property is perfected by control under section 336.9-106 not earlier than the time the secured party obtains control and remains perfected by control until:
(1) the secured party does not have control; and
(2) one of the following occurs:
(A) if the collateral is a certificated security, the debtor has or acquires possession of the security certificate;
(B) if the collateral is an uncertificated security, the issuer has registered or registers the debtor as the registered owner; or
(C) if the collateral is a security entitlement, the debtor is or becomes the entitlement holder.
History:
2000 c 399 art 1 s 34 ; 2004 c 162 art 5 s 26 ; 2024 c 93 art 9 s 21
336.9-314A PERFECTION BY POSSESSION AND CONTROL OF CHATTEL PAPER.
(a) Perfection by possession and control. A secured party may perfect a security interest in chattel paper by taking possession of each authoritative tangible copy of the record evidencing the chattel paper and obtaining control of each authoritative electronic copy of the electronic record evidencing the chattel paper.
(b) Time of perfection; continuation of perfection. A security interest is perfected under subsection (a) not earlier than the time the secured party takes possession and obtains control and remains perfected under subsection (a) only while the secured party retains possession and control.
(c) Application of section 336.9-313 to perfection by possession of chattel paper. Section 336.9-313 (c) and (f) through (i) applies to perfection by possession of an authoritative tangible copy of a record evidencing chattel paper.
History:
2024 c 93 art 9 s 22
336.9-315 MS 1998 [Repealed, 2000 c 399 art 1 s 140 ]
336.9-315 SECURED PARTY'S RIGHTS ON DISPOSITION OF COLLATERAL AND IN PROCEEDS.
(a) Disposition of collateral: continuation of security interest or agricultural lien; proceeds. Except as otherwise provided in this article and in section 336.2-403 (2):
(1) a security interest or agricultural lien continues in collateral notwithstanding sale, lease, license, exchange, or other disposition thereof unless the secured party authorized the disposition free of the security interest or agricultural lien; and
(2) a security interest attaches to any identifiable proceeds of collateral.
(b) When commingled proceeds identifiable. Proceeds that are commingled with other property are identifiable proceeds:
(1) if the proceeds are goods, to the extent provided by section 336.9-336 ; and
(2) if the proceeds are not goods, to the extent that the secured party identifies the proceeds by a method of tracing, including application of equitable principles, that is permitted under law other than this article with respect to commingled property of the type involved.
(c) Perfection of security interest in proceeds. A security interest in proceeds is a perfected security interest if the security interest in the original collateral was perfected.
(d) Continuation of perfection. A perfected security interest in proceeds becomes unperfected on the 21st day after the security interest attaches to the proceeds unless:
(1) the following conditions are satisfied:
(A) a filed financing statement covers the original collateral;
(B) the proceeds are collateral in which a security interest may be perfected by filing in the office in which the financing statement has been filed; and
(C) the proceeds are not acquired with cash proceeds;
(2) the proceeds are identifiable cash proceeds; or
(3) the security interest in the proceeds is perfected other than under subsection (c) when the security interest attaches to the proceeds or within 20 days thereafter.
(e) When perfected security interest in proceeds becomes unperfected. If a filed financing statement covers the original collateral, a security interest in proceeds which remains perfected under subsection (d)(1) becomes unperfected at the later of:
(1) when the effectiveness of the filed financing statement lapses under section 336.9-515 or is terminated under section 336.9-513 ; or
(2) the 21st day after the security interest attaches to the proceeds.
History:
2000 c 399 art 1 s 35
336.9-316 MS 1998 [Repealed, 2000 c 399 art 1 s 140 ]
336.9-316 EFFECT OF CHANGE IN GOVERNING LAW.
(a) General rule: effect on perfection of change in governing law. A security interest perfected pursuant to the law of the jurisdiction designated in section 336.9-301 (1), 336.9-305 (c), 336.9-306A (d), or 336.9-306B (b) remains perfected until the earliest of:
(1) the time perfection would have ceased under the law of that jurisdiction;
(2) the expiration of four months after a change of the debtor's location to another jurisdiction; or
(3) the expiration of one year after a transfer of collateral to a person that thereby becomes a debtor and is located in another jurisdiction.
(b) Security interest perfected or unperfected under law of new jurisdiction. If a security interest described in subsection (a) becomes perfected under the law of the other jurisdiction before the earliest time or event described in that subsection, it remains perfected thereafter. If the security interest does not become perfected under the law of the other jurisdiction before the earliest time or event, it becomes unperfected and is deemed never to have been perfected as against a purchaser of the collateral for value.
(c) Possessory security interest in collateral moved to new jurisdiction. A possessory security interest in collateral, other than goods covered by a certificate of title and as-extracted collateral consisting of goods, remains continuously perfected if:
(1) the collateral is located in one jurisdiction and subject to a security interest perfected under the law of that jurisdiction;
(2) thereafter the collateral is brought into another jurisdiction; and
(3) upon entry into the other jurisdiction, the security interest is perfected under the law of the other jurisdiction.
(d) Goods covered by certificate of title from this state. Except as otherwise provided in subsection (e), a security interest in goods covered by a certificate of title which is perfected by any method under the law of another jurisdiction when the goods become covered by a certificate of title from this state remains perfected until the security interest would have become unperfected under the law of the other jurisdiction had the goods not become so covered.
(e) When subsection (d) security interest becomes unperfected against purchasers. A security interest described in subsection (d) becomes unperfected as against a purchaser of the goods for value and is deemed never to have been perfected as against a purchaser of the goods for value if the applicable requirements for perfection under section 336.9-311 (b) or 336.9-313 are not satisfied before the earlier of:
(1) the time the security interest would have become unperfected under the law of the other jurisdiction had the goods not become covered by a certificate of title from this state; or
(2) the expiration of four months after the goods had become so covered.
(f) Change in jurisdiction of chattel paper, controllable electronic record, bank, issuer, nominated person, securities intermediary, or commodity intermediary. A security interest in chattel paper, controllable accounts, controllable electronic records, controllable payment intangibles, deposit accounts, letter of credit rights, or investment property which is perfected under the law of the chattel paper's jurisdiction, the controllable electronic record's jurisdiction, the bank's jurisdiction, the issuer's jurisdiction, a nominated person's jurisdiction, the securities intermediary's jurisdiction, or the commodity intermediary's jurisdiction, as applicable, remains perfected until the earlier of:
(1) the time the security interest would have become unperfected under the law of that jurisdiction; or
(2) the expiration of four months after a change of the applicable jurisdiction to another jurisdiction.
(g) Subsection (f) security interest perfected or unperfected under law of new jurisdiction. If a security interest described in subsection (f) becomes perfected under the law of the other jurisdiction before the earlier of the time or the end of the period described in that subsection, it remains perfected thereafter. If the security interest does not become perfected under the law of the other jurisdiction before the earlier of that time or the end of that period, it becomes unperfected and is deemed never to have been perfected as against a purchaser of the collateral for value.
(h) Effect on filed financing statement of change in governing law. The following rules apply to collateral to which a security interest attaches within four months after the debtor changes its location to another jurisdiction:
(1) A financing statement filed before the change pursuant to the law of the jurisdiction designated in section 336.9-301 (1) or 336.9-305 (c) is effective to perfect a security interest in the collateral if the financing statement would have been effective to perfect a security interest in the collateral had the debtor not changed its location.
(2) If a security interest perfected by a financing statement that is effective under paragraph (1) becomes perfected under the law of the other jurisdiction before the earlier of the time the financing statement would have become ineffective under the law of the jurisdiction designated in section 336.9-301 (1) or 336.9-305 (c) or the expiration of the four-month period, it remains perfected thereafter. If the security interest does not become perfected under the law of the other jurisdiction before the earlier time or event, it becomes unperfected and is deemed never to have been perfected as against a purchaser of the collateral for value.
(i) Effect of change in governing law on financing statement filed against original debtor. If a financing statement naming an original debtor is filed pursuant to the law of the jurisdiction designated in section 336.9-301 (1) or 336.9-305 (c) and the new debtor is located in another jurisdiction, the following rules apply:
(1) The financing statement is effective to perfect a security interest in collateral acquired by the new debtor before, and within four months after, the new debtor becomes bound under section 336.9-203 (d), if the financing statement would have been effective to perfect a security interest in the collateral had the collateral been acquired by the original debtor.
(2) A security interest perfected by the financing statement and which becomes perfected under the law of the other jurisdiction before the earlier of the time the financing statement would have become ineffective under the law of the jurisdiction designated in section 336.9-301 (1) or 336.9-305 (c) or the expiration of the four-month period remains perfected thereafter. A security interest that is perfected by the financing statement but which does not become perfected under the law of the other jurisdiction before the earlier time or event becomes unperfected and is deemed never to have been perfected as against a purchaser of the collateral for value.
History:
2000 c 399 art 1 s 36 ; 2011 c 31 art 1 s 5,16 ; 2024 c 93 art 9 s 23
SUBPART 3. PRIORITY
336.9-317 MS 1998 [Repealed, 2000 c 399 art 1 s 140 ]
336.9-317 INTERESTS THAT TAKE PRIORITY OVER OR TAKE FREE OF SECURITY INTEREST OR AGRICULTURAL LIEN.
(a) Conflicting security interests and rights of lien creditors. A security interest or agricultural lien is subordinate to the rights of:
(1) a person entitled to priority under section 336.9-322 ; and
(2) except as otherwise provided in subsection (e), a person that becomes a lien creditor before the earlier of the time:
(A) the security interest or agricultural lien is perfected; or
(B) one of the conditions specified in section 336.9-203 (b)(3) is met and a financing statement covering the collateral is filed.
(b) Buyers that receive delivery. Except as otherwise provided in subsection (e), a buyer, other than a secured party, of goods, instruments, tangible documents, or a security certificate takes free of a security interest or agricultural lien if the buyer gives value and receives delivery of the collateral without knowledge of the security interest or agricultural lien and before it is perfected.
(c) Lessees that receive delivery. Except as otherwise provided in subsection (e), a lessee of goods takes free of a security interest or agricultural lien if the lessee gives value and receives delivery of the collateral without knowledge of the security interest or agricultural lien and before it is perfected.
(d) Licensees and buyers of certain collateral. Subject to subsections (f) through (i), a licensee of a general intangible or a buyer, other than a secured party, of collateral other than electronic money, goods, instruments, tangible documents, or a certificated security takes free of a security interest if the licensee or buyer gives value without knowledge of the security interest and before it is perfected.
(e) Purchase-money security interest. Except as otherwise provided in sections 336.9-320 and 336.9-321 , if a person files a financing statement with respect to a purchase-money security interest before or within 20 days after the debtor receives delivery of the collateral, the security interest takes priority over the rights of a buyer, lessee, or lien creditor which arise between the time the security interest attaches and the time of filing.
(f) Buyers of chattel paper. A buyer, other than a secured party, of chattel paper takes free of a security interest if, without knowledge of the security interest and before it is perfected, the buyer gives value and:
(1) receives delivery of each authoritative tangible copy of the record evidencing the chattel paper; and
(2) if each authoritative electronic copy of the record evidencing the chattel paper can be subjected to control under section 336.9-105 , obtains control of each authoritative electronic copy.
(g) Buyers of electronic documents. A buyer of an electronic document takes free of a security interest if, without knowledge of the security interest and before it is perfected, the buyer gives value and, if each authoritative electronic copy of the document can be subjected to control under section 336.7-106 , obtains control of each authoritative electronic copy.
(h) Buyers of controllable electronic records. A buyer of a controllable electronic record takes free of a security interest if, without knowledge of the security interest and before it is perfected, the buyer gives value and obtains control of the controllable electronic record.
(i) Buyers of controllable accounts and controllable payment intangibles. A buyer, other than a secured party, of a controllable account or a controllable payment intangible takes free of a security interest if, without knowledge of the security interest and before it is perfected, the buyer gives value and obtains control of the controllable account or controllable payment intangible.
History:
2000 c 399 art 1 s 37 ; 2001 c 195 art 1 s 9 ; 2004 c 162 art 5 s 27 ; 2011 c 31 art 1 s 6,16 ; 2024 c 93 art 9 s 24
336.9-318 MS 1998 [Repealed, 2000 c 399 art 1 s 140 ]
336.9-318 NO INTEREST RETAINED IN RIGHT TO PAYMENT THAT IS SOLD; RIGHTS AND TITLE OF SELLER OF ACCOUNT OR CHATTEL PAPER WITH RESPECT TO CREDITORS AND PURCHASERS.
(a) Seller retains no interest. A debtor that has sold an account, chattel paper, payment intangible, or promissory note does not retain a legal or equitable interest in the collateral sold.
(b) Deemed rights of debtor if buyer's security interest unperfected. For purposes of determining the rights of creditors of, and purchasers for value of an account or chattel paper from, a debtor that has sold an account or chattel paper, while the buyer's security interest is unperfected, the debtor is deemed to have rights and title to the account or chattel paper identical to those the debtor sold.
History:
2000 c 399 art 1 s 38
336.9-319 RIGHTS AND TITLE OF CONSIGNEE WITH RESPECT TO CREDITORS AND PURCHASERS.
(a) Consignee has consignor's rights. Except as otherwise provided in subsection (b), for purposes of determining the rights of creditors of, and purchasers for value of goods from, a consignee, while the goods are in the possession of the consignee, the consignee is deemed to have rights and title to the goods identical to those the consignor had or had power to transfer.
(b) Applicability of other law. For purposes of determining the rights of a creditor of a consignee, law other than this article determines the rights and title of a consignee while goods are in the consignee's possession if, under this part, a perfected security interest held by the consignor would have priority over the rights of the creditor.
History:
2000 c 399 art 1 s 39
336.9-320 BUYER OF GOODS.
(a) Buyer in ordinary course of business. Except as otherwise provided in subsection (e), a buyer in ordinary course of business, other than a person buying farm products from a person engaged in farming operations, takes free of a security interest created by the buyer's seller, even if the security interest is perfected and the buyer knows of its existence.
(b) Buyer of consumer goods. Except as otherwise provided in subsection (e), a buyer of goods from a person who used or bought the goods for use primarily for personal, family, or household purposes takes free of a security interest, even if perfected, if the buyer buys:
(1) without knowledge of the security interest;
(2) for value;
(3) primarily for the buyer's personal, family, or household purposes; and
(4) before the filing of a financing statement covering the goods.
(c) Effectiveness of filing for subsection (b). To the extent that it affects the priority of a security interest over a buyer of goods under subsection (b), the period of effectiveness of a filing made in the jurisdiction in which the seller is located is governed by section 336.9-316 (a) and (b).
(d) Buyer in ordinary course of business at wellhead or minehead. A buyer in ordinary course of business buying oil, gas, or other minerals at the wellhead or minehead or after extraction takes free of an interest arising out of an encumbrance.
(e) Possessory security interest not affected. Subsections (a) and (b) do not affect a security interest in goods in the possession of the secured party under section 336.9-313 .
History:
2000 c 399 art 1 s 40
336.9-321 LICENSEE OF GENERAL INTANGIBLE AND LESSEE OF GOODS IN ORDINARY COURSE OF BUSINESS.
(a) Licensee in ordinary course of business. In this section, "licensee in ordinary course of business" means a person that becomes a licensee of a general intangible in good faith, without knowledge that the license violates the rights of another person in the general intangible, and in the ordinary course from a person in the business of licensing general intangibles of that kind. A person becomes a licensee in the ordinary course if the license to the person comports with the usual or customary practices in the kind of business in which the licensor is engaged or with the licensor's own usual or customary practices.
(b) Rights of licensee in ordinary course of business. A licensee in ordinary course of business takes its rights under a nonexclusive license free of a security interest in the general intangible created by the licensor, even if the security interest is perfected and the licensee knows of its existence.
(c) Rights of lessee in ordinary course of business. A lessee in ordinary course of business takes its leasehold interest free of a security interest in the goods created by the lessor, even if the security interest is perfected and the lessee knows of its existence.
History:
2000 c 399 art 1 s 41
336.9-322 PRIORITIES AMONG CONFLICTING SECURITY INTERESTS IN AND AGRICULTURAL LIENS ON SAME COLLATERAL.
(a) General priority rules. Except as otherwise provided in this section, priority among conflicting security interests and agricultural liens in the same collateral is determined according to the following rules:
(1) Conflicting perfected security interests and agricultural liens rank according to priority in time of filing or perfection. Priority dates from the earlier of the time a filing covering the collateral is first made or the security interest or agricultural lien is first perfected, if there is no period thereafter when there is neither filing nor perfection.
(2) A perfected security interest or agricultural lien has priority over a conflicting unperfected security interest or agricultural lien.
(3) The first security interest or agricultural lien to attach or become effective has priority if conflicting security interests and agricultural liens are unperfected.
(b) Time of perfection: proceeds and supporting obligations. For the purposes of subsection (a)(1):
(1) the time of filing or perfection as to a security interest in collateral is also the time of filing or perfection as to a security interest in proceeds; and
(2) the time of filing or perfection as to a security interest in collateral supported by a supporting obligation is also the time of filing or perfection as to a security interest in the supporting obligation.
(c) Special priority rules: proceeds and supporting obligations. Except as otherwise provided in subsection (f), a security interest in collateral which qualifies for priority over a conflicting security interest under section 336.9-327 , 336.9-328 , 336.9-329 , 336.9-330 , or 336.9-331 also has priority over a conflicting security interest in:
(1) any supporting obligation for the collateral; and
(2) proceeds of the collateral if:
(A) the security interest in proceeds is perfected;
(B) the proceeds are cash proceeds or of the same type as the collateral; and
(C) in the case of proceeds that are proceeds of proceeds, all intervening proceeds are cash proceeds, proceeds of the same type as the collateral, or an account relating to the collateral.
(d) First-to-file priority rule for certain collateral. Subject to subsection (e) and except as otherwise provided in subsection (f), if a security interest in chattel paper, deposit accounts, negotiable documents, instruments, investment property, or letter of credit rights is perfected by a method other than filing, conflicting perfected security interests in proceeds of the collateral rank according to priority in time of filing.
(e) Applicability of subsection (d). Subsection (d) applies only if the proceeds of the collateral are not cash proceeds, chattel paper, negotiable documents, instruments, investment property, or letter of credit rights.
(f) Limitations on subsections (a) through (e). Subsections (a) through (e) are subject to:
(1) subsection (g) and the other provisions of this part;
(2) section 336.4-210 with respect to a security interest of a collecting bank;
(3) section 336.5-118 with respect to a security interest of an issuer or nominated person; and
(4) section 336.9-110 with respect to a security interest arising under article 2 or 2A.
(g) Priority under agricultural lien statute. A perfected agricultural lien on collateral has priority over a conflicting security interest in or agricultural lien on the same collateral if the statute creating the agricultural lien so provides.
History:
2000 c 399 art 1 s 42
336.9-323 FUTURE ADVANCES.
(a) When priority based on time of advance. Except as otherwise provided in subsection (c), for purposes of determining the priority of a perfected security interest under section 336.9-322 (a)(1), perfection of the security interest dates from the time an advance is made to the extent that the security interest secures an advance that:
(1) is made while the security interest is perfected only:
(A) under section 336.9-309 when it attaches; or
(B) temporarily under section 336.9-312 (e), (f), or (g); and
(2) is not made pursuant to a commitment entered into before or while the security interest is perfected by a method other than under section 336.9-309 or 336.9-312 (e), (f), or (g).
(b) Lien creditor. Except as otherwise provided in subsection (c), a security interest is subordinate to the rights of a person that becomes a lien creditor to the extent that the security interest secures an advance made more than 45 days after the person becomes a lien creditor unless the advance is made:
(1) without knowledge of the lien; or
(2) pursuant to a commitment entered into without knowledge of the lien.
(c) Buyer of receivables. Subsections (a) and (b) do not apply to a security interest held by a secured party that is a buyer of accounts, chattel paper, payment intangibles, or promissory notes or a consignor.
(d) Buyer of goods. Except as otherwise provided in subsection (e), a buyer of goods takes free of a security interest to the extent that it secures advances made after the earlier of:
(1) the time the secured party acquires knowledge of the buyer's purchase; or
(2) 45 days after the purchase.
(e) Advances made pursuant to commitment: priority of buyer of goods. Subsection (d) does not apply if the advance is made pursuant to a commitment entered into without knowledge of the buyer's purchase and before the expiration of the 45-day period.
(f) Lessee of goods. Except as otherwise provided in subsection (g), a lessee of goods takes the leasehold interest free of a security interest to the extent that it secures advances made after the earlier of:
(1) the time the secured party acquires knowledge of the lease; or
(2) 45 days after the lease contract becomes enforceable.
(g) Advances made pursuant to commitment: priority of lessee of goods. Subsection (f) does not apply if the advance is made pursuant to a commitment entered into without knowledge of the lease and before the expiration of the 45-day period.
History:
2000 c 399 art 1 s 43 ; 2024 c 93 art 9 s 25
336.9-324 PRIORITY OF PURCHASE-MONEY SECURITY INTERESTS.
(a) General rule: purchase-money priority. Except as otherwise provided in subsection (g), a perfected purchase-money security interest in goods other than inventory or livestock has priority over a conflicting security interest in the same goods, and, except as otherwise provided in section 336.9-327 , a perfected security interest in its identifiable proceeds also has priority, if the purchase-money security interest is perfected when the debtor receives possession of the collateral or within 20 days thereafter.
(b) Inventory purchase-money priority. Subject to subsection (c) and except as otherwise provided in subsection (g), a perfected purchase-money security interest in inventory has priority over a conflicting security interest in the same inventory, has priority over a conflicting security interest in chattel paper or an instrument constituting proceeds of the inventory and in proceeds of the chattel paper, if so provided in section 336.9-330 , and, except as otherwise provided in section 336.9-327 , also has priority in identifiable cash proceeds of the inventory to the extent the identifiable cash proceeds are received on or before the delivery of the inventory to a buyer, if:
(1) the purchase-money security interest is perfected when the debtor receives possession of the inventory;
(2) the purchase-money secured party sends a signed notification to the holder of the conflicting security interest;
(3) the holder of the conflicting security interest receives the notification within five years before the debtor receives possession of the inventory; and
(4) the notification states that the person sending the notification has or expects to acquire a purchase-money security interest in inventory of the debtor and describes the inventory.
(c) Holders of conflicting inventory security interests to be notified. Subsection (b)(2) through (4) apply only if the holder of the conflicting security interest had filed a financing statement covering the same types of inventory:
(1) if the purchase-money security interest is perfected by filing, before the date of the filing; or
(2) if the purchase-money security interest is temporarily perfected without filing or possession under section 336.9-312 (f), before the beginning of the 20-day period thereunder.
(d) Livestock purchase-money priority. Subject to subsection (e) and except as otherwise provided in subsection (g), a perfected purchase-money security interest in livestock that are farm products has priority over a conflicting security interest in the same livestock, and, except as otherwise provided in section 336.9-327 , a perfected security interest in their identifiable proceeds and identifiable products in their unmanufactured states also has priority, if:
(1) the purchase-money security interest is perfected when the debtor receives possession of the livestock;
(2) the purchase-money secured party sends a signed notification to the holder of the conflicting security interest;
(3) the holder of the conflicting security interest receives the notification within six months before the debtor receives possession of the livestock; and
(4) the notification states that the person sending the notification has or expects to acquire a purchase-money security interest in livestock of the debtor and describes the livestock.
(e) Holders of conflicting livestock security interests to be notified. Subsection (d)(2) through (4) apply only if the holder of the conflicting security interest had filed a financing statement covering the same types of livestock:
(1) if the purchase-money security interest is perfected by filing, before the date of the filing; or
(2) if the purchase-money security interest is temporarily perfected without filing or possession under section 336.9-312 (f), before the beginning of the 20-day period thereunder.
(f) Software purchase-money priority. Except as otherwise provided in subsection (g), a perfected purchase-money security interest in software has priority over a conflicting security interest in the same collateral, and, except as otherwise provided in section 336.9-327 , a perfected security interest in its identifiable proceeds also has priority, to the extent that the purchase-money security interest in the goods in which the software was acquired for use has priority in the goods and proceeds of the goods under this section.
(g) Conflicting purchase-money security interests. If more than one security interest qualifies for priority in the same collateral under subsection (a), (b), (d), or (f):
(1) a security interest securing an obligation incurred as all or part of the price of the collateral has priority over a security interest securing an obligation incurred for value given to enable the debtor to acquire rights in or the use of collateral; and
(2) in all other cases, section 336.9-322 (a) applies to the qualifying security interests.
History:
2000 c 399 art 1 s 44 ; 2024 c 93 art 9 s 26
336.9-325 PRIORITY OF SECURITY INTERESTS IN TRANSFERRED COLLATERAL.
(a) Subordination of security interest in transferred collateral. Except as otherwise provided in subsection (b), a security interest created by a debtor is subordinate to a security interest in the same collateral created by another person if:
(1) the debtor acquired the collateral subject to the security interest created by the other person;
(2) the security interest created by the other person was perfected when the debtor acquired the collateral; and
(3) there is no period thereafter when the security interest is unperfected.
(b) Limitation of subsection (a) subordination. Subsection (a) subordinates a security interest only if the security interest:
(1) otherwise would have priority solely under section 336.9-322 (a) or 336.9-324 ; or
(2) arose solely under section 336.2-711 (3) or 336.2A-508 (5).
History:
2000 c 399 art 1 s 45
336.9-326 PRIORITY OF SECURITY INTERESTS CREATED BY NEW DEBTOR.
(a) Subordination of security interest created by new debtor. Subject to subsection (b), a security interest that is created by a new debtor in collateral in which the new debtor has or acquires rights and is perfected solely by a filed financing statement that would be ineffective to perfect the security interest but for the application of section 336.9-316 (i)(1) or 336.9-508 is subordinate to a security interest in the same collateral which is perfected other than by such a filed financing statement.
(b) Priority under other provisions; multiple original debtors. The other provisions of this part determine the priority among conflicting security interests in the same collateral perfected by filed financing statements described in subsection (a). However, if the security agreements to which a new debtor became bound as debtor were not entered into by the same original debtor, the conflicting security interests rank according to priority in time of the new debtor's having become bound.
History:
2000 c 399 art 1 s 46 ; 2011 c 31 art 1 s 7,16
336.9-326A PRIORITY OF SECURITY INTEREST IN CONTROLLABLE ACCOUNT, CONTROLLABLE ELECTRONIC RECORD, AND CONTROLLABLE PAYMENT INTANGIBLE.
A security interest in a controllable account, controllable electronic record, or controllable payment intangible held by a secured party having control of the account, electronic record, or payment intangible has priority over a conflicting security interest held by a secured party that does not have control.
History:
2024 c 93 art 9 s 27
336.9-327 PRIORITY OF SECURITY INTERESTS IN DEPOSIT ACCOUNT.
The following rules govern priority among conflicting security interests in the same deposit account:
(1) A security interest held by a secured party having control of the deposit account under section 336.9-104 has priority over a conflicting security interest held by a secured party that does not have control.
(2) Except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (3) and (4), security interests perfected by control under section 336.9-314 rank according to priority in time of obtaining control.
(3) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (4), a security interest held by the bank with which the deposit account is maintained has priority over a conflicting security interest held by another secured party.
(4) A security interest perfected by control under section 336.9-104 (a)(3) has priority over a security interest held by the bank with which the deposit account is maintained.
History:
2000 c 399 art 1 s 47
336.9-328 PRIORITY OF SECURITY INTERESTS IN INVESTMENT PROPERTY.
The following rules govern priority among conflicting security interests in the same investment property:
(1) A security interest held by a secured party having control of investment property under section 336.9-106 has priority over a security interest held by a secured party that does not have control of the investment property.
(2) Except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (3) and (4), conflicting security interests held by secured parties each of which has control under section 336.9-106 rank according to priority in time of:
(A) if the collateral is a security, obtaining control;
(B) if the collateral is a security entitlement carried in a securities account and:
(i) if the secured party obtained control under section 336.8-106 (d)(1), the secured party's becoming the person for which the securities account is maintained;
(ii) if the secured party obtained control under section 336.8-106 (d)(2), the securities intermediary's agreement to comply with the secured party's entitlement orders with respect to security entitlements carried or to be carried in the securities account; or
(iii) if the secured party obtained control through another person under section 336.8-106 (d)(3), the time on which priority would be based under this paragraph if the other person were the secured party; or
(C) if the collateral is a commodity contract carried with a commodity intermediary, the satisfaction of the requirement for control specified in section 336.9-106 (b)(2) with respect to commodity contracts carried or to be carried with the commodity intermediary.
(3) A security interest held by a securities intermediary in a security entitlement or a securities account maintained with the securities intermediary has priority over a conflicting security interest held by another secured party.
(4) A security interest held by a commodity intermediary in a commodity contract or a commodity account maintained with the commodity intermediary has priority over a conflicting security interest held by another secured party.
(5) A security interest in a certificated security in registered form which is perfected by taking delivery under section 336.9-313 (a) and not by control under section 336.9-314 has priority over a conflicting security interest perfected by a method other than control.
(6) Conflicting security interests created by a broker, securities intermediary, or commodity intermediary which are perfected without control under section 336.9-106 rank equally.
(7) In all other cases, priority among conflicting security interests in investment property is governed by sections 336.9-322 and 336.9-323 .
History:
2000 c 399 art 1 s 48
336.9-329 PRIORITY OF SECURITY INTERESTS IN LETTER OF CREDIT RIGHT.
The following rules govern priority among conflicting security interests in the same letter of credit right:
(1) A security interest held by a secured party having control of the letter of credit right under section 336.9-107 has priority to the extent of its control over a conflicting security interest held by a secured party that does not have control.
(2) Security interests perfected by control under section 336.9-314 rank according to priority in time of obtaining control.
History:
2000 c 399 art 1 s 49
336.9-330 PRIORITY OF PURCHASER OF CHATTEL PAPER OR INSTRUMENT.
(a) Purchaser's priority: security interest claimed merely as proceeds. A purchaser of chattel paper has priority over a security interest in the chattel paper which is claimed merely as proceeds of inventory subject to a security interest if:
(1) in good faith and in the ordinary course of the purchaser's business, the purchaser gives new value, takes possession of each authoritative tangible copy of the record evidencing the chattel paper, and obtains control under section 336.9-105 of each authoritative electronic copy of the record evidencing the chattel paper; and
(2) the authoritative copies of the record evidencing the chattel paper do not indicate that the chattel paper has been assigned to an identified assignee other than the purchaser.
(b) Purchaser's priority: other security interests. A purchaser of chattel paper has priority over a security interest in the chattel paper which is claimed other than merely as proceeds of inventory subject to a security interest if the purchaser gives new value, takes possession of each authoritative
Minn. Stat. § 507.331
507.331 CERTAIN RECITALS DISREGARDED.
Where any instrument affecting the title to real estate in this state recites the existence of a contract for conveyance affecting such real property, or some part thereof, and the instrument containing such recital was recorded prior to 1910 in the office of the county recorder of the county wherein the real property, or some part thereof, is situated, and no action or proceeding has been taken upon such contract for conveyance and the time for performing the conditions contained in such contract expired prior to 1925, then such recital may be disregarded and shall not constitute notice of the contract for conveyance, either actual or constructive, to any subsequent purchaser or encumbrancer of the real property, or any part thereof.
History:
1941 c 192 s 1 ; 1976 c 181 s 2
Minn. Stat. § 507.35
507.35 WHEN DEED TO TRUSTEE INEFFECTIVE; CURE.
When any instrument, otherwise legal, affecting the title to real estate situate in this state, granting any interest therein to or evidencing any lien thereon in favor of any person, as trustee, shall be recorded in the office of the county recorder, or filed in the office of the registrar of titles, of the county in which such real estate is situate, and the powers of such trustee and the beneficiary of such trust are not set forth in the instrument expressly or by reference to an instrument so recorded or filed such designation of such grantee, as trustee, may be disregarded and shall not be deemed to give notice to any person of the rights of any beneficiary under such trust in the real estate unless and until an instrument defining or conferring such powers of such trustee and designating the beneficiary thereunder, with a certificate attached executed by the trustee in the same manner as deeds are required to be executed by the laws of this state describing such instrument so granting an interest or evidencing a lien and stating that the same is held subject to the provisions of such trust, shall be so recorded or filed after such recording or filing of such instrument granting the interest in or evidencing such lien on the real estate.
History:
( 8226-1 ) 1929 c 318 s 1 ; 1976 c 181 s 2
Minn. Stat. § 507.403
507.403 CERTIFICATE OF SATISFACTION; RELEASE OR PARTIAL RELEASE OF MORTGAGE BY ASSIGNEE.
§
Subdivision 1. Certificate of satisfaction; release or partial release.
A certificate that complies with this section is effective to satisfy or release the mortgage or release real estate described in the certificate from the lien of the mortgage even if one or more assignments of the mortgage have not been recorded.
§
Subd. 2. Execution and contents.
To be effective, the certificate under this section must be executed and acknowledged as required by law in the case of a deed, and must contain substantially all of the following:
(1) the name of the mortgagor, the name of the original mortgagee, the date of the mortgage, the date of recording, and the volume and page number or document number of the mortgage in the real property records where the mortgage is recorded; and
(2) a statement that the entity or person executing the certificate is the current holder, owner, assignee, or successor of the mortgagee's interest in the mortgage; and
(3) if a partial release, a legal description of the real property being released from the lien of the mortgage.
§
Subd. 3.
MS 2012 [Repealed by amendment, 2013 c 10 s 2 ]
§
Subd. 4. Effect.
For purposes of satisfying, releasing, or partially releasing the lien of a mortgage under this section, a certificate that complies with subdivision 2 is prima facie evidence of the facts contained in it, is entitled to be recorded with the county recorder or registrar of titles, operates as a satisfaction or release or partial release of the lien of the mortgage as described in the certificate. The county recorder and the registrar of titles shall rely upon it to satisfy or release or partially release the lien of the mortgage.
§
Subd. 5.
MS 2012 [Repealed by amendment, 2013 c 10 s 2 ]
§
Subd. 5a. Liability.
Execution or recording of a wrongful, erroneous, or unauthorized certificate under this section does not relieve the mortgagor or the mortgagor's successors or assigns from any personal liability on the obligations secured by the mortgage, and, in addition to any other remedies provided by law, a person or entity who wrongfully, erroneously, or without authority executes the certificate is liable to the mortgagee, the mortgagee's assigns, and any person or entity for actual damages sustained due to the execution or recording of the certificate, together with reasonable attorney fees, costs, and disbursements incurred by the damaged party as a result.
§
Subd. 6. Effective date.
This section is effective March 22, 2013, and applies to any mortgage and any certificate under this section wherever or whenever executed, and whether recorded before, on, or after March 22, 2013.
History:
2004 c 153 s 1 ; 2013 c 10 s 2 ; 2014 c 266 s 10
Minn. Stat. § 507.412
507.412 SATISFACTION OR RELEASE BY FEWER THAN ALL MORTGAGEES.
A real estate mortgage securing an undivided debt owned by more than one mortgagee or assignee, including joint tenants, may be satisfied or released by an instrument executed by any one of the mortgagees or assigns unless the mortgage specifically states otherwise. The debt is presumed to be undivided unless the mortgage specifically states otherwise. This section does not affect the rights or liabilities of the holders of the debt secured by the mortgage as among themselves. Unless the mortgage specifically states otherwise, this section does not permit fewer than all of the holders of a mortgage to assign, amend, extend, or foreclose the mortgage, or to discharge the secured debt, as distinguished from satisfying or releasing the mortgage.
History:
1992 c 463 s 2
Minn. Stat. § 507.42
507.42 CERTAIN DEEDS VALIDATED.
All deeds for the conveyance of real estate made and executed by a personal representative of the estate of a deceased person, pursuant to the order of any court of this state exercising probate jurisdiction authorizing and directing the making and execution of such instrument, where the execution thereof was otherwise valid, and in which instrument the description of the property conveyed does not correspond with the description set forth in the order of the court authorizing and directing the making and execution of such instrument, the same are hereby validated and legalized, and such conveyances are hereby made valid as to the property described in the order of the court authorizing and directing the making and execution of such instrument.
History:
1975 c 347 s 9 ; 1995 c 189 s 8 ; 1996 c 277 s 1
Minn. Stat. § 507.422
507.422 CERTAIN COUNTY CONVEYANCES VALIDATED.
No deed of conveyance of real estate made by a county in this state that has been of record with the county recorder or registrar of titles for more than five years shall be held invalid or void for failure to comply with the requirements of section 373.01, subdivision 1 , clause (4).
History:
2002 c 403 s 3
Minn. Stat. § 507.45
507.45 RESIDENTIAL REAL ESTATE CLOSINGS.
§
Subdivision 1. By whom; fee authorized.
Residential real estate closing services may be provided and a fee charged by a licensed attorney, real estate broker, real estate salesperson, and real estate closing agent.
§
Subd. 2. Notice of closing agent's fee.
No charge for closing services, except a charge disclosed under Regulation Z, Code of Federal Regulations, title 12, part 226, and except a charge for which an estimate has been given pursuant to the federal Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act, and regulations thereunder, may be made by a closing agent unless the party to be charged is informed of the charge in writing at least five business days before the closing by or on behalf of the party charging for the closing services.
§
Subd. 3. Requirements for real estate personnel.
If the closing services are to be provided by a real estate broker, real estate salesperson, or real estate closing agent, the following regulations shall apply.
(a) The written contract for closing services shall state in at least 10-point type that the real estate broker, real estate salesperson, or real estate closing agent has not and, under applicable state law, may not express opinions regarding the legal effect of the closing documents or of the closing itself.
(b) No closing fee may be charged in connection with the transfer of the legal or equitable ownership of a property if a closing is performed without either a mortgagee's or owner's title insurance commitment or a legal opinion regarding the status of title.
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Subd. 4. Choice of closer; notice.
(a) No real estate salesperson, broker, attorney, auctioneer, builder, title agent, financial institution, or other person making a mortgage loan may require a person to use any particular licensed attorney, real estate broker, real estate salesperson, or real estate closing agent in connection with a residential real estate closing.
(b) All listing agreements must include a notice informing sellers of their rights under this subdivision. The notice must require the seller to indicate in writing whether it is acceptable to the seller to have the licensee arrange for closing services or whether the seller wishes to arrange for others to conduct the closing. The notice must also include the disclosure of any controlled business arrangement, as the term is defined in United States Code, title 12, section 1602, between the licensee and the real estate closing agent through which the licensee proposes to arrange closing services.
History:
1988 c 695 s 6 ; 1989 c 217 s 22 ; 1989 c 347 s 42 ; 1991 c 113 s 1 ; 1993 c 309 s 28 ; 2001 c 208 s 26 ; 2014 c 198 art 4 s 24
Minn. Stat. § 507.46
507.46 CERTIFICATE OF TRANSLATION OF DOCUMENTS IN FOREIGN LANGUAGES.
§
Subdivision 1. Form of certificate.
A county recorder or registrar of titles shall accept for recording a document that is not prepared in the English language, but is otherwise in recordable form, if there is appended to the non-English language document a translation of the document into the English language and a certificate of translation in substantially the following form:
CERTIFICATE OF TRANSLATION
State of Minnesota
County of
.
I certify that the attached English language document is a complete and accurate translation of the attached document from the ................ language.
.
Signature of translator
.
Typed or printed name
.
Street Address
.
City, State, and Zip Code
.
Telephone number
.
Subscribed and sworn to before me this ....... day of ....................., 20.....
.
Notary public
§
Subd. 2. Certificate as evidence.
Any certificate of translation recorded under subdivision 1, or a certified copy, is admissible as evidence in any action involving the instrument to which it relates or the title to the real estate affected by the instrument and is prima facie evidence of the facts stated in it.
History:
2002 c 403 s 4 ; 2008 c 238 art 3 s 14
Minn. Stat. § 508.16
508.16 FORM OF SUMMONS; SERVICE ON VARIOUS PARTIES; PUBLICATION.
§
Subdivision 1. Subscribed by administrator; copies.
The summons shall be subscribed by the court administrator, directed to the defendants, and require them to appear and answer the application of the applicant, within 20 days after the service of the summons, exclusive of the day of such service. It shall be served in the manner as provided by law for the service of a summons in civil actions in the district court, except as herein otherwise provided. It shall be served upon the state by delivering a copy thereof to the attorney general, a deputy attorney general or an assistant attorney general. The attorney general shall represent the state in these proceedings. In those cases where the attorney general deems it appropriate, the attorney general may transmit the matter to the county attorney of the county in which the land described therein is situated, and thereupon such county attorney shall appear in such proceeding, and represent the state therein. It shall be served upon a domestic corporation governed by chapter 302A whose charter has terminated by dissolution, expiration, or otherwise, by delivering a copy of it to a person, known to the applicant, who held office in the corporation at the time of dissolution and can be found in the state or, if no officer known to the applicant can be found in the state, by publishing the summons in a newspaper printed and published in the county where the application is filed, once each week for three consecutive weeks. It shall be served upon all persons not personally served who are not residents of the state or who cannot be found therein, and upon domestic corporations not governed by chapter 302A whose charter has terminated by dissolution, expiration, or otherwise more than three years prior to the commencement of the action, and upon unknown successors in interests of such corporations, and upon "all other persons or parties unknown claiming any right, title, estate, lien, or interest in the real estate described in the application herein" by publishing the same in a newspaper printed and published in the county wherein the application is filed, once each week for three consecutive weeks; provided, if the order for summons or a supplemental order of the court, filed before, during or after the publication of the summons, shall so direct, the summons may be personally served without the state upon any one or more of the defendants who are nonresidents of the state or who cannot be found therein, in like manner and with like effect as such service in a summons in a civil action in the district court; and provided further, that any nonresident defendant, natural or corporate, who can be found in the state of Minnesota and can be personally served therein, may be served personally. The court administrator shall also, at least 20 days before the entry of the decree which shall be entered in the matter, send a copy of the summons by mail to all defendants not served personally who are not residents of the state, and whose place of address is known to applicant or stated in the application, or in the order directing the issuance of the summons. The certificate of the court administrator that the court administrator has mailed the summons, as herein provided, shall be conclusive evidence thereof. Other or further notice of the application for registration may be given in such manner and to such persons as the court or any judge thereof may direct. The summons shall be served at the expense of the applicant and proof of the service shall be made in the same manner as in civil actions. The summons shall be substantially in the following form:
SUMMONS IN APPLICATION FOR REGISTRATION OF LAND
State of Minnesota
ss.
County of ..................
District Court ................ Judicial District.
In the matter of the application of (name of applicant) to register the title to the following described real estate situated in ..................... county, Minnesota, namely: (description of land)
.
Applicant,
vs
(names of defendants) and "all other persons or parties unknown claiming any right, title, estate, lien or interest in the real estate described in the application herein."
Defendants.
THE STATE OF MINNESOTA TO THE ABOVE NAMED DEFENDANTS:
You are hereby summoned and required to answer the application of the applicant in the above entitled proceeding and to file your answer to the said application in the office of the court administrator of said court, in said county, within 20 days after service of this summons upon you exclusive of the day of such service, and, if you fail to answer the application within the time aforesaid, the applicant in this proceeding will apply to the court for the relief demanded therein.
Witness ................. court administrator of said court, and the seal thereof, at ..................., in said county, this ............. day of ..............., ..........
(Seal)
.
Court administrator
§
Subd. 2. Jurisdiction.
When the summons has been served, the court acquires jurisdiction of the subject matter of the proceeding, and of all persons who have, or may have, any right, title, interest, or estate in the real estate described in the application, or any lien or charge upon or against it. By the phrase in the summons "all other persons or parties unknown claiming any right, title, estate, lien, or interest in the real estate described in the application herein," all the world are made parties defendant, and shall be bound and concluded by the decree. Any person claiming any right, title, estate, or interest in or lien upon the land who has been served shall be bound by the decree without regard to the nature of the right, title, estate, or interest in or lien upon the land asserted by the person or described in the application, report of the examiner, summons, or otherwise, it being the public policy of the state of Minnesota to give effect to the decree of registration as set forth in section
Minn. Stat. § 508.22
508.22 DECREE OF REGISTRATION; EFFECT.
If, after hearing, the court finds the applicant has a title proper for registration, whether as stated in the application or otherwise, it shall make and file its decree therein, confirming the title of the applicant and ordering its registration. Except as herein otherwise provided, every decree of registration shall bind the land described in it, forever quiet the title to it, and be forever binding and conclusive upon all persons, regardless of whether they were mentioned in the application or in the report of the examiner or whether they possessed an interest in the land not referred to in the application or in the report of the examiner, whether they were mentioned by name in the summons, or included in the phrase, "all other persons or parties unknown claiming any right, title, estate, lien, or interest in the real estate described in the application herein." The decree shall not be opened, vacated, or set aside by reason of the absence, infancy, or other disability of any person affected by it, nor by any proceeding at law or in equity for opening, vacating, setting aside, or reversing judgments and decrees, except as herein especially provided. The decree shall forever determine, bind, and conclude all the right, title, interest, estate, or lien in the land described in it of the spouse of any defendant acquired or growing out of the marriage relation as though the spouse had been expressly named in the decree.
History:
( 8268 ) RL s 3390 ; 1905 c 305 s 21 ; 1983 c 92 s 5 ; 1986 c 444
Minn. Stat. § 508.36
508.36 CERTIFICATES AND COPIES AS EVIDENCE.
The certificate of title in the register of titles, any copy of it duly certified by the registrar, or by a deputy, and authenticated by the registrar's seal shall be received in evidence in all the courts of this state and be conclusive evidence of all matters and things contained in it. Deeds, mortgages, leases, or other conveyances of real estate, and all instruments in any manner affecting the title to registered land, together with any notations, endorsements, or memorials upon the same made by the registrar of titles, as required by law, heretofore or hereafter filed with the registrar, shall be received in evidence in all the courts of this state, without further or other proof, and be prima facie evidence of the contents of it. Duly authenticated copies of these instruments, or any of them, may likewise be received in evidence in any court in this state with like force and effect as the original instruments.
History:
( 8282 ) RL s 3404 ; 1905 c 305 s 35 ; 1983 c 92 s 10 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1991 c 199 art 1 s 79 ; 1999 c 11 art 1 s 17
Minn. Stat. § 508.48
508.48 INSTRUMENTS AFFECTING TITLE FILED WITH REGISTRAR; NOTICE.
(a) Every conveyance, lien, attachment, order, decree, or judgment, or other instrument or proceeding, which would affect the title to unregistered land under existing laws, if recorded, or filed with the county recorder, shall, in like manner, affect the title to registered land if filed and registered with the registrar in the county where the real estate is situated, and shall be notice to all persons from the time of such registering or filing of the interests therein created. Neither the reference in a registered instrument to an unregistered instrument or interest nor the joinder in a registered instrument by a party or parties with no registered interest shall constitute notice, either actual or constructive, of an unregistered interest.
(b) An instrument acknowledged in a representative capacity as defined in section
Minn. Stat. § 508.78
508.78 LIABILITY OF FUND.
No person shall recover from the general fund any sum by reason of any loss, damage, or deprivation occasioned solely by a breach of trust on the part of any registered owner who is trustee, or by the improper exercise of any power of sale in a mortgage, nor shall any person recover from the general fund any greater sum than the fair market value of the real estate at the time of the last payment into such fund, on account thereof.
History:
( 8324 ) RL s 3446 ; 1905 c 305 s 76 ; 1Sp1989 c 1 art 11 s 7
Minn. Stat. § 508A.47
508A.47 until the revocation is properly recorded in a county in which the real property is located.
(b) If a grantor owner conveys to a third party, subsequent to the recording of the transfer on death deed, by means other than a transfer on death deed, all or a part of such grantor owner's interest in the property described in the transfer on death deed, no transfer of the conveyed interest shall occur on such grantor owner's death and the transfer on death deed shall be ineffective as to the conveyed or transferred interests, but the transfer on death deed remains effective with respect to the conveyance or transfer on death of any other interests described in the transfer on death deed owned by the grantor owner at the time of the grantor owner's death.
(c) A transfer on death deed is a "governing instrument" within the meaning of section 524.2-804 and, except as may otherwise be specifically provided for in the transfer on death deed, is subject to the same provisions as to revocation, revival, and nonrevocation set forth in section 524.2-804 .
§
Subd. 11. Antilapse; deceased beneficiary; words of survivorship.
(a) Except when a successor grantee beneficiary is designated in the transfer on death deed for the grantee beneficiary who did not survive the grantor owner, if a grantee beneficiary who is a grandparent or lineal descendant of a grandparent of the grantor owner fails to survive the grantor owner, the issue of the deceased grantee beneficiary who survive the grantor owner take in place of the deceased grantee beneficiary. If they are all of the same degree of kinship to the deceased grantee beneficiary, they take equally. If they are of unequal degree, those of more remote degree take by right of representation.
(b) For the purposes of this subdivision, words of survivorship such as, in a conveyance to an individual, "if he or she survives me," or, in a class gift, to "my surviving children," are a sufficient indication of intent to condition the conveyance or transfer upon the beneficiary surviving the grantor owner.
(c) When issue of a deceased grantee beneficiary or members of a class take in place of the named grantee beneficiary pursuant to subdivision 5 or paragraph (a) or (b) or when a beneficiary dies and has no issue under paragraph (a), an affidavit of survivorship stating the names and shares of the beneficiaries or stating that a deceased beneficiary had no issue is not conclusive and a court order made in accordance with Minnesota probate law determining the beneficiaries and shares must also be recorded.
§
Subd. 12. Lapse.
If all beneficiaries and all successor beneficiaries, if any, designated in a transfer on death deed, and also all successor beneficiaries who would take under the antilapse provisions of subdivision 11, fail to survive the grantor owner or the last survivor of the grantor owners if there are multiple grantor owners, if the beneficiary is a trust which has been revoked prior to the grantor owner's death, or if the beneficiary is an entity no longer in existence at the grantor owner's death, no transfer shall occur and the transfer on death deed is void.
§
Subd. 13. Multiple transfer on death deeds.
If a grantor owner executes and records more than one transfer on death deed conveying the same interest in real property or a greater interest in the real property, or conveying part of the property in the earlier transfer on death deed, the transfer on death deed that has the latest acknowledgment date and that is recorded before the death of the grantor owner upon whose death the conveyance or transfer is conditioned is the effective transfer on death deed and all other transfer on death deeds, if any, executed by the grantor owner or the grantor owners are ineffective to transfer any interest and are void, except that if the later transfer on death deed included only part of the land of the earlier deed, the earlier deed is effective for the lands not included in the subsequent deed, absent language to the contrary in the subsequent deed.
§
Subd. 14. Nonademption; unpaid proceeds of sale, condemnation, or insurance; sale by conservator or guardian.
If at the time of the death of the grantor owner upon whose death the conveyance or transfer is stated to be effective, the grantor owner did not own a part or all of the real property described in the transfer on death deed, no conveyance or transfer to the beneficiary of the nonowned part of the real property shall occur upon the death of the grantor owner and the transfer on death deed is void as to the nonowned part of the real property, but the beneficiary shall have the same rights to unpaid proceeds of sale, condemnation or insurance, and, if sold by a conservator or guardian of the grantor owner during the grantor owner's lifetime, the same rights to a general pecuniary devise, as that of a specific devisee as set forth in section 524.2-606 .
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Subd. 15. Nonexoneration.
Except as otherwise provided in subdivision 3, a conveyance or transfer under a transfer on death deed passes the described property subject to any mortgage or security interest existing at the date of death of the grantor owner, without right of exoneration, regardless of any statutory obligations to pay the grantor owner's debts upon death and regardless of a general directive in the grantor owner's will to pay debts.
§
Subd. 16. Disclaimer by beneficiary.
A grantee beneficiary's interest under a transfer on death deed may be disclaimed as provided in sections 524.2-1101 to 524.2-1116 , or as otherwise provided by law.
§
Subd. 17. Effect on other conveyances.
This section does not prohibit other methods of conveying property that are permitted by law and that have the effect of postponing ownership or enjoyment of an interest in real property until the death of the owner. This section does not invalidate any deed that is not a transfer on death deed and that is otherwise effective to convey title to the interests and estates described in the deed that is not recorded until after the death of the owner.
§
Subd. 18. Notice, consent, and delivery not required.
The signature, consent or agreement of, or notice to, a grantee beneficiary under a transfer on death deed, or delivery of the transfer on death deed to the grantee beneficiary, is not required for any purpose during the lifetime of the grantor owner.
§
Subd. 19. Nonrevocation by will.
A transfer on death deed that is executed, acknowledged, and recorded in accordance with this section is not revoked by the provisions of a will.
§
Subd. 20. Proof of survivorship and clearance from public assistance claims and liens; recording.
An affidavit of identity and survivorship with a certified copy of a record of death as an attachment may be combined with a clearance certificate under this section and the combined documents may be recorded separately or as one document in each county in which the real estate described in the clearance certificate is located. The affidavit must include the name and mailing address of the person to whom future property tax statements should be sent. The affidavit, record of death, and clearance certificate, whether combined or separate, shall be prima facie evidence of the facts stated in each, and the registrar of titles may rely on the statements to transfer title to the property described in the clearance certificate, except in cases where a court order is required pursuant to the provisions of subdivision 11, paragraph (c).
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Subd. 21. After-acquired property.
Except as provided in this subdivision, a transfer on death deed is not effective to transfer any interest in real property acquired by a grantor owner subsequent to the date of signing of a transfer on death deed. A grantor owner may provide by specific language in a transfer on death deed that the transfer on death deed will apply to any interest in the described property acquired by the grantor owner after the signing or recording of the deed.
§
Subd. 22. Anticipatory alienation prohibited.
The interest of a grantee beneficiary under a transfer on death deed which has not yet become effective is not subject to alienation; assignment; encumbrance; appointment or anticipation by the beneficiary; garnishment; attachment; execution or bankruptcy proceedings; claims for alimony, support, or maintenance; payment of other obligations by any person against the beneficiary; or any other transfer, voluntary or involuntary, by or from any beneficiary.
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Subd. 23. Clearance for public assistance claims and liens.
Any person claiming an interest in real property conveyed or transferred by a transfer on death deed, or the person's attorney or other agent, may apply to the county agency in the county in which the real property is located for a clearance certificate for the real property described in the transfer on death deed. The application for a clearance certificate and the clearance certificate must contain the legal description of each parcel of property covered by the clearance certificate. The county agency shall provide a sufficient number of clearance certificates to allow a clearance certificate to be recorded in each county in which the real property described in the transfer on death deed is located. The real property described in the clearance certificate is bound by any conditions or other requirements imposed by the county agency as specified in the clearance certificate. If the real property is registered property, a new certificate of title must not be issued until the clearance certificate is recorded. If the clearance certificate shows the continuation of a medical assistance claim or lien after issuance of the clearance certificate, the real property remains subject to the claim or lien. If the real property is registered property, the clearance certificate must be carried forward as a memorial in any new certificate of title. The application shall contain the same information and shall be submitted, processed, and resolved in the same manner and on the same terms and conditions as provided in section
Minn. Stat. § 508A.78
508A.78 LIABILITY OF FUND.
No person shall recover from the general fund any sum by reason of any loss, damage, or deprivation occasioned solely by a breach of trust on the part of any registered owner who is trustee, or by the improper exercise of any power of sale in a mortgage, nor shall any person recover from the general fund any greater sum than the fair market value of the real estate at the time of the last payment into that fund, on account thereof.
History:
1982 c 396 s 69 ; 1Sp1989 c 1 art 11 s 12
Minn. Stat. § 513.04
513.04 CONVEYANCE OF INTEREST IN LAND EXCEPT UP TO ONE-YEAR LEASE.
No estate or interest in lands, other than leases for a term not exceeding one year, nor any trust or power over or concerning lands, or in any manner relating thereto, shall hereafter be created, granted, assigned, surrendered, or declared, unless by act or operation of law, or by deed or conveyance in writing, subscribed by the parties creating, granting, assigning, surrendering, or declaring the same, or by their lawful agent thereunto authorized by writing. This section shall not affect in any manner the power of a testator in the disposition of real estate by will; nor prevent any trust from arising or being extinguished by implication or operation of law.
History:
( 8459 ) RL s 3487 ; 1986 c 444
Minn. Stat. § 513.80
513.80 RESIDENTIAL REAL ESTATE SERVICE AGREEMENTS; UNFAIR SERVICE AGREEMENTS.
§
Subdivision 1. Definitions.
(a) For purposes of this section, the following terms have the meanings given.
(b) "County recorder" has the meaning given in section 13.045, subdivision 1 .
(c) "Person" means natural persons, corporations both foreign and domestic, trusts, partnerships both limited and general, incorporated or unincorporated associations, companies, business entities, and any other legal entity or any other group associated in fact although not a legal entity or any agent, assignee, heir, employee, representative, or servant thereof.
(d) "Record" or "recording" means placement of a document or instrument in the official county public land records.
(e) "Residential real property" means real property that is located in Minnesota occupied, or intended to be occupied, by one to four families as their residence.
(f) "Service agreement" means a contract under which a person agrees to provide real estate broker services as defined in section 82.55, subdivision 19 , in connection with the purchase or sale of residential real property.
(g) "Service provider" means an individual or entity that provides services to a person pursuant to a service agreement.
§
Subd. 2. Unfair service agreements; prohibition.
(a) A service agreement subject to this section is unfair and prohibited if any part of the agreement provides an exclusive right to a service provider for a term in excess of one year after the time the service agreement is entered into and:
(1) purports to run with the land or to be binding on future owners of interests in the real property;
(2) allows for assignment of the right to provide service without notice to and consent of the residential real property's owner, including a contract for deed vendee;
(3) is recorded or purports to create a lien, encumbrance, or other real property security interest; or
(4) contains a provision that purports to automatically renew the agreement upon its expiration.
(b) The following are not unfair service agreements under this section:
(1) a home warranty or similar product that covers the cost of maintaining a major home system or appliance for a fixed period;
(2) an insurance contract;
(3) a mortgage loan or a commitment to make or receive a mortgage loan;
(4) an option or right of refusal to purchase a residential real property;
(5) a declaration of any covenants, conditions, or restrictions created in the formation of a homeowners association, a group of condominium owners, or other common interest community or an amendment to the covenants, conditions, or restrictions;
(6) a maintenance or service agreement entered by a homeowners association in a common interest community;
(7) a security agreement governed by chapter 336 that relates to the sale or rental of personal property or fixtures; or
(8) a contract with a gas, water, sewer, electric, telephone, cable, or other utility service provider.
(c) This section does not impair any lien right granted under Minnesota law or that is judicially imposed.
§
Subd. 3. Recording prohibited.
(a) A person is prohibited from:
(1) presenting or sending an unfair service agreement or notice or memorandum of an unfair service agreement to any county recorder to record; or
(2) causing an unfair service agreement or notice or memorandum of an unfair service agreement to be recorded by a county recorder.
(b) If a county recorder records an unfair service agreement, the county recorder does not incur liability.
(c) If an unfair service agreement is recorded, the recording does not create a lien or provide constructive notice to any third party, bona fide purchaser, or creditor.
§
Subd. 4. Unfair service agreements unenforceable.
A service agreement that is unfair under this section is unenforceable and does not create a contractual obligation or relationship. Any waiver of a consumer right, including a right to trial by jury, in an unfair service agreement is void.
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Subd. 5. Unfair service agreements; solicitation.
Encouraging any consumer to enter into an unfair service agreement by any service provider constitutes:
(1) an unfair method of competition; and
(2) an unfair or deceptive act or practice under section 82.81, subdivision 12 , paragraph (c), and section
Minn. Stat. § 514.15
514.15 JUDGMENT, SALE, REDEMPTION.
The judgment shall direct a sale of the real estate or other property for the satisfaction of all liens charged thereon, and the manner of such sale, subject to the rights of all persons which are paramount to such liens or any of them. It shall require the officer making such sale to pay over and distribute the proceeds of the sale, after deducting all lawful charges and expenses, to and among the lienors to the amount of their respective claims, if there is sufficient therefor; and if there is not sufficient then to divide and distribute the same among the several lienors in proportion to the amount due to each, and without priority among themselves. If the estate sold be a leasehold having not more than two years to run, or be the interest of a vendee under an executory contract of sale the conditions whereof are to be performed within the same period, no redemption shall be allowed; in all other cases the right of redemption shall be the same as upon execution sales under section
Minn. Stat. § 514.76
514.76 SATISFACTION; PENALTY FOR REFUSAL.
Every lien claimed under any provision of this chapter shall be satisfied of record, at the expense of the claimant, upon payment or tender to the claimant of the amount actually due thereon, or upon written demand made at any time after expiration of the time within which it may be asserted in an action or other proceeding to enforce the same, if it has not been so asserted. Refusal to cause satisfaction to be entered within ten days after such payment, tender, or demand shall render the party so refusing liable in a civil action, to any person interested, for $25 as liquidated damages if the lien was claimed upon real estate; otherwise, $10; and in either case for any further damages which the plaintiff may have suffered therefrom.
History:
( 8560 ) RL s 3551 ; 1986 c 444
LAUNDERERS
Minn. Stat. § 515.29
515.29 . If the amendment grants to any person any rights, powers or privileges permitted by sections 515A.1-101 to 515A.4-117 , all correlative obligations, liabilities, and restrictions in sections 515A.1-101 to 515A.4-117 also apply to that person.
History:
1980 c 582 art 1 s 515 .1-102; 1983 c 216 art 1 s 73 ; 1984 c 655 art 1 s 72 ; 1986 c 342 s 4 ; 1989 c 98 s 1
515A.1-103 DEFINITIONS.
In the declaration and bylaws, unless specifically provided otherwise or the context otherwise requires, and in sections 515A.1-101 to 515A.4-117 :
(1) "Additional real estate" means real estate that may be added to a flexible condominium.
(2) "Affiliate of a declarant" means any person who controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with a declarant. A person "controls" a declarant if the person (i) is a general partner, officer, director, or employer of the declarant or (ii) directly or indirectly or acting in concert with one or more other persons, or through one or more subsidiaries, owns, controls, holds with power to vote, or holds proxies representing, more than 20 percent of the voting interest in the declarant, or (iii) controls in any manner the election of a majority of the directors of the declarant, or (iv) has contributed more than 20 percent of the capital of the declarant. A person "is controlled by" a declarant if the declarant (i) is a general partner, officer, director, or employer of the person or (ii) directly or indirectly or acting in concert with one or more other persons, or through one or more subsidiaries, owns, controls, holds with power to vote, or holds proxies representing, more than 20 percent of the voting interest in the person, or (iii) controls in any manner the election of a majority of the directors of the person, or (iv) has contributed more than 20 percent of the capital of the person. Control does not exist if the powers described in this paragraph are held solely as security for an obligation and are not exercised.
(3) "Association" or "unit owners' association" means the unit owners' association organized under section 515A.3-101 .
(4) "Common element" means all portions of a condominium other than the units.
(5) "Common expenses" means expenditures made or liabilities incurred by or on behalf of the association, together with any allocations to reserves.
(6) "Common expense liability" means the liability for common expenses allocated to each unit pursuant to section 515A.2-108 .
(7) "Condominium" means real estate, portions of which are designated for separate ownership and the remainder of which is designated for common ownership solely by the owners of those portions. Real estate is not a condominium unless the undivided interests in the common elements are vested in the unit owners.
(8) "Conversion condominium" means a condominium in which a building was at any time before the recording of the declaration wholly or partially occupied by persons other than purchasers and persons who occupied with the consent of the purchasers.
(9) "Declarant" means:
(a) if the condominium has been created, (1) any person who has executed a declaration or an amendment to a declaration to add additional real estate, other than persons holding interests in the real estate solely as security for an obligation, persons whose interests in the real estate will not be conveyed to unit owners, or, in the case of a leasehold condominium, a lessor who possesses no special declarant rights and who is not an affiliate of a declarant who possesses special declarant rights, or (2) any person who succeeds under section 515A.3-104 to any special declarant rights; or
(b) any person who has offered prior to creation of a condominium to dispose of the person's interest in a unit to be created and not previously disposed of.
(10) "Dispose" or "disposition" means a voluntary transfer of any legal or equitable interest in a unit, other than as security for an obligation.
(11) "Flexible condominium" means a condominium to which additional real estate may be added.
(12) "Leasehold condominium" means a condominium in which all of the real estate is subject to a lease, the expiration or termination of which will terminate the condominium.
(13) "Limited common element" means a portion of the common elements allocated by the declaration or by operation of section 515A.2-102 (2) or (4) for the exclusive use of one or more but fewer than all of the units.
(14) "Person" means a natural person, corporation, partnership, trust, or other entity, or any combination thereof.
(15) "Purchaser" means any person, other than a declarant, who prior to creation of the condominium enters into a purchase agreement with a declarant or who by means of a voluntary transfer after creation of the condominium holds a legal or equitable interest in a unit, other than (i) a leasehold interest (including renewal options) of less than three years, or (ii) as security for an obligation.
(16) "Real estate" means any leasehold for three years or more or other estate or interest in, over, or under land, including structures, fixtures, and other improvements and interests which by custom, usage, or law pass with a conveyance of land though not described in the contract of sale or instrument of conveyance. "Real estate" includes parcels with or without upper or lower boundaries.
(17) "Security for an obligation" means the vendor's interest in a contract for deed, mortgagee's interest in a mortgage, purchaser's interest under a sheriff's certificate of sale during the period of redemption, or the holder's interest in a lien.
(18) "Special declarant rights" means rights reserved for the benefit of a declarant to complete improvements indicated on the condominium plat (section 515A.2-110 ); to add additional real estate to a flexible condominium (section 515A.2-111 ); to subdivide or convert a unit (section 515A.2-115 ); to maintain sales offices, management offices, signs advertising the condominium, and models (section 515A.2-117 ); to use easements through the common elements for the purpose of making improvements within the condominium or any additional real estate (section 515A.2-118 ); or to appoint or remove any board member during any period of declarant control (section 515A.3-103 (a)).
(19) "Unit" means a portion of the condominium, whether or not contained solely or partially within a building, designated for separate ownership, the boundaries of which are described pursuant to section 515A.2-110 .
(20) "Unit owner" means a declarant who owns a unit, a person to whom ownership of a unit has been conveyed or transferred, or in a leasehold condominium a lessee of a unit whose lease expires simultaneously with any lease the expiration or termination of which will remove the unit from the condominium, but does not include a holder of an interest as security for an obligation.
History:
1980 c 582 art 1 s 515 .1-103; 1986 c 342 s 5 ; 1986 c 444
515A.1-104 VARIATION BY AGREEMENT.
Except as expressly otherwise provided in sections 515A.1-101 to 515A.4-117 , provisions of sections 515A.1-101 to 515A.4-117 may not be varied by agreement, and rights conferred by sections 515A.1-101 to 515A.4-117 may not be waived. A declarant may not act under a power of attorney, or use any other device, to evade the limitations or prohibitions of sections 515A.1-101 to 515A.4-117 or the declaration.
History:
1980 c 582 art 1 s 515 .1-104
515A.1-105 PROPERTY TAXATION.
§
Subdivision 1. Homestead.
(a) Each unit together with its common element interest constitutes for all purposes a separate parcel of real estate.
(b) If a declaration is recorded prior to 30 days before any installment of real estate taxes becomes payable, the local taxing authority shall split the taxes so payable on the condominium among the units. Interest and penalties which would otherwise accrue shall not begin to accrue until at least 30 days after the split is accomplished.
(c) A unit used for residential purposes together with not more than two units used for vehicular parking and their common element interests shall be treated the same as any other real estate in determining whether homestead exemptions or classifications shall apply.
§
Subd. 2. Market valuation.
For purposes of property taxation, the residential units in a structure or building which are initially constructed as condominiums or are being converted into condominiums shall be valued as provided in section 273.11, subdivision 9 .
History:
1980 c 582 art 1 s 515 .1-105; 1983 c 342 art 2 s 26 ; 1991 c 291 art 12 s 28
515A.1-106 APPLICABILITY OF LOCAL ORDINANCES, REGULATIONS, AND BUILDING CODES.
(a) Except as provided in subsections (b) and (c), a zoning, subdivision, building code, or other real estate use law, ordinance, charter provision, or regulation may not directly or indirectly prohibit the condominium form of ownership or impose any requirement upon a condominium, upon the creation or disposition of a condominium or upon any part of the condominium conversion process which it would not impose upon a physically similar development under a different form of ownership. Otherwise, no provision of sections 515A.1-101 to 515A.4-117 invalidates or modifies any provision of any zoning, subdivision, building code, or other real estate use law, ordinance, charter provision, or regulation.
(b) Subsection (a) shall not apply to any ordinance, rule, regulation, charter provision or contract provision relating to the financing of housing construction, rehabilitation, or purchases provided by or through a housing finance program established and operated pursuant to state or federal law by a state or local agency or local unit of government.
(c) A statutory or home rule charter city, pursuant to an ordinance or charter provision establishing standards to be applied uniformly within its jurisdiction, may prohibit or impose reasonable conditions upon the conversion of buildings to the condominium form of ownership only if there exists within the city a significant shortage of suitable rental dwellings available to low and moderate income individuals or families or to establish or maintain the city's eligibility for any federal or state program providing direct or indirect financial assistance for housing to the city. Prior to the adoption of an ordinance pursuant to the authority granted in this subsection, the city shall conduct a public hearing.
Any ordinance or charter provision adopted pursuant to this subsection shall not apply to any conversion condominium or proposed conversion condominium for which a bona fide loan commitment for a consideration has been issued by a lender and is in effect on the date of adoption of the ordinance or charter provision, or for which a notice of condominium conversion or intent to convert prescribed by section 515A.4-110 (a), containing a termination of tenancy, has been given to at least 75 percent of the tenants and subtenants in possession prior to the date of adoption of the ordinance or charter provision.
(d) For purposes of providing marketable title, a statement in the declaration showing that the condominium is not subject to an ordinance or showing that any conditions required under an ordinance have been complied with shall be prima facie evidence that the condominium was not created in violation thereof.
(e) A violation of an ordinance or charter provision adopted pursuant to the provisions of subsections (b) or (c) shall not affect the validity of a condominium. This subsection shall not be construed to in any way limit the power of a city to enforce the provisions of an ordinance or charter provision adopted pursuant to subsections (b) or (c).
Any ordinance or charter provision enacted hereunder shall not be effective for a period exceeding 18 months.
History:
1980 c 582 art 1 s 515 .1-106
515A.1-107 EMINENT DOMAIN.
(a) If a unit is acquired by eminent domain, or if part of a unit is acquired by eminent domain leaving the unit owner with a remnant which may not practically or lawfully be used for any purpose permitted by the declaration, the award shall compensate the unit owner and holders of an interest as security for an obligation in the unit and its common element interest as their interests may appear, whether or not any common element interest is acquired. Upon acquisition, unless the decree otherwise provides, that unit's entire common element interest, votes in the association, and common expense liability are automatically reallocated to the remaining units in proportion to the respective interests, votes, and liabilities of those units prior to the taking, and the association shall promptly prepare, execute, and record an amendment to the declaration reflecting the reallocations. Any remnant of a unit remaining after part of a unit is taken under this subsection is thereafter a common element.
(b) Except as provided in subsection (a), if part of a unit is acquired by eminent domain, the award shall compensate the unit owner and the holders of an interest as security for an obligation as their interests may appear for the reduction in value of the unit and its common element interest. Upon acquisition, unless the apportionment thereof pursuant to the declaration is based upon equality, (1) that unit's common element interest, votes in the association, and common expense liability are reduced in proportion to the reduction in the size of the unit, and (2) the portion of common element interest, votes, and common expense liability divested from the partially acquired unit are automatically reallocated to that unit and the remaining units in proportion to the respective interests, votes, and liabilities of those units prior to the taking, with the partially acquired unit participating in the reallocation on the basis of its reduced interests, votes, and liabilities.
(c) If part of the common elements is acquired by eminent domain, the award shall be paid to the association. The association shall divide any portion of the award not used for any restoration or repair of the remaining common elements among the unit owners and holders of an interest as security for an obligation as their interests may appear in proportion to their respective interests in the common elements before the taking, but the portion of the award attributable to the acquisition of a limited common element shall be equally divided among the owners of the units to which that limited common element was allocated at the time of acquisition and the respective holders of an interest as security for an obligation of the units as their interests may appear of the units to which that limited common element was allocated at the time of acquisition, or in such other manner as the declaration may provide.
(d) The court decree shall be recorded in every county in which any portion of the condominium is located.
History:
1980 c 582 art 1 s 515 .1-107
515A.1-108 SUPPLEMENTAL GENERAL PRINCIPLES OF LAW APPLICABLE.
The principles of law and equity, including the law of corporations, the law of real property and the law relative to capacity to contract, principal and agent, eminent domain, estoppel, fraud, misrepresentation, duress, coercion, mistake, receivership, substantial performance, or other validating or invalidating cause supplement the provisions of sections 515A.1-101 to 515A.4-117 , except to the extent inconsistent with sections 515A.1-101 to 515A.4-117 . Documents required by sections 515A.1-101 to 515A.4-117 to be recorded shall in the case of registered land be filed.
History:
1980 c 582 art 1 s 515 .1-108
515A.1-109 CONSTRUCTION AGAINST IMPLICIT REPEAL.
Sections 515A.1-101 to 515A.4-117 being a general act intended as a unified coverage of its subject matter, no part of it shall be construed to be impliedly repealed by subsequent legislation if that construction can reasonably be avoided.
History:
1980 c 582 art 1 s 515 .1-109
515A.1-110 UNIFORMITY OF APPLICATION AND CONSTRUCTION.
Sections 515A.1-101 to 515A.4-117 shall be applied and construed so as to effectuate its general purpose to make uniform the law with respect to the subject of sections 515A.1-101 to 515A.4-117 among states enacting it.
History:
1980 c 582 art 1 s 515 .1-110
515A.1-111 SEVERABILITY.
If any provision of sections 515A.1-101 to 515A.4-117 or the application thereof to any person or circumstances is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of sections 515A.1-101 to 515A.4-117 which can be given effect without the invalid provisions or application, and to this end the provisions of sections 515A.1-101 to 515A.4-117 are severable.
History:
1980 c 582 art 1 s 515 .1-111
515A.1-112 UNCONSCIONABLE AGREEMENT OR TERM OF CONTRACT.
(a) The court, upon finding as a matter of law that a contract or contract clause to which the declarant or the affiliate of a declarant is a party was unconscionable at the time the contract was made, may refuse to enforce the contract, enforce the remainder of the contract without the unconscionable clause, or limit the application of any unconscionable clause in order to avoid an unconscionable result.
(b) Whenever it is claimed, or appears to the court that such a contract or contract clause is or may be unconscionable, the parties, in order to aid the court in making the determination, shall be afforded a reasonable opportunity to present evidence as to:
(1) the commercial setting of the negotiations;
(2) whether a party has knowingly taken advantage of the inability of the other party reasonably to protect the other party's interests by reason of physical or mental infirmity, illiteracy, or inability to understand the language of the agreement or similar factors;
(3) the effect and purpose of the contract or clause; and
(4) if a sale, any gross disparity, at the time of contracting, between the amount charged for the real estate and the value of the real estate measured by the price at which similar real estate was readily obtainable in similar transactions, but a disparity between the contract price and the value of the real estate measured by the price at which similar real estate was readily obtainable in similar transactions does not, of itself, render the contract unconscionable.
History:
1980 c 582 art 1 s 515 .1-112; 1986 c 444
515A.1-113 OBLIGATION OF GOOD FAITH.
Every contract or duty governed by sections 515A.1-101 to 515A.4-117 imposes an obligation of good faith in its performance or enforcement.
History:
1980 c 582 art 1 s 515 .1-113
515A.1-114 REMEDIES TO BE LIBERALLY ADMINISTERED.
(a) The remedies provided by sections 515A.1-101 to 515A.4-117 shall be liberally administered to the end that the aggrieved party is put in as good a position as though the other party had fully performed, provided that rights of bona fide purchasers shall be protected. However, consequential, special, or punitive damages may not be awarded except as specifically provided in sections 515A.1-101 to 515A.4-117 or by other rule of law.
(b) Any right or obligation declared by sections 515A.1-101 to 515A.4-117 is enforceable by judicial proceeding unless the provision declaring it provides otherwise.
History:
1980 c 582 art 1 s 515 .1-114
515A.1-115 NOTICE.
Except as otherwise stated in sections 515A.1-101 to 515A.4-117 all notices required by sections 515A.1-101 to 515A.4-117 shall be in writing and shall be effective upon hand delivery or upon mailing if properly addressed with postage prepaid and deposited in the United States mail.
History:
1980 c 582 art 1 s 515 .1-115
515A.1-116 EFFECTIVE DATE.
Section 515A.1-106 is effective April 17, 1980.
History:
1980 c 582 art 1 s 515 .1-116
ARTICLE 2 CREATION, ALTERATION, AND TERMINATION OF CONDOMINIUMS
515A.2-101 CREATION OF CONDOMINIUM.
(a) A condominium may be created pursuant to sections 515A.1-101 to 515A.4-117 only by recording a declaration executed, in the same manner as a deed, by all persons whose interests in the real estate will be conveyed to unit owners, except vendors under contracts for deed, and by every lessor of a lease the expiration or termination of which will terminate the condominium. The condominium shall not include real estate covered by a lease affecting less than all of the condominiums and the expiration or termination of which will reduce the size of the condominium. The declaration and bylaws shall be recorded in every county in which any portion of the condominium is located. Failure of any party to join in a declaration shall have no effect on the validity of a condominium provided that after the recording of the declaration the party acknowledges the condominium in a recorded instrument or the interest of the party is extinguished.
(b) A declaration, or an amendment to a declaration adding units to a condominium, may not be recorded unless all structural components and mechanical systems serving more than one unit of all buildings containing or comprising any units thereby created are substantially completed consistent with the floor plans, as evidenced by a certificate executed by a registered professional engineer or architect and recorded or attached to the floor plans.
(c) No possessory interest in a unit may be conveyed until the unit is substantially completed as evidenced by a recorded certificate of completion executed by a registered professional engineer or architect. For the purpose of this section "substantially completed" means entirely completed consistent with the floor plans. This subsection does not prevent the conveyance prior to substantial completion of all units owned by the declarant to a person who is a transferee of special declarant rights.
(d) The declaration, any amendment or amendments thereof, and every instrument affecting a condominium or any unit shall be entitled to be recorded.
(e) In addition to the records and indexes required to be maintained by the recording officer, the recording officer shall maintain an index or indexes whereby the record of each declaration contains a reference to the record of each conveyance of a unit affected by the declaration.
(f) The recording officer shall upon request assign a number to a condominium to be formed.
(g) The recording officer shall separate the floor plans from the declaration and the floor plans shall be kept by the recording officer in a separate file for each condominium indexed in the same manner as a conveyance entitled to record indicating the number of the condominium.
History:
1980 c 582 art 2 s 515 .2-101
515A.2-102 UNIT BOUNDARIES.
Except as otherwise provided by the declaration:
(1) If walls, floors, or ceilings are designated as boundaries of a unit, all lath, furring, wallboard, plasterboard, plaster, paneling, tiles, wallpaper, paint, finished flooring, and any other materials constituting any part of the finished surfaces thereof are a part of the unit, and all other portions of the walls, floors, or ceilings are a part of the common elements.
(2) If any chute, flue, duct, pipe, wire, conduit, bearing wall, bearing column, or any other fixture lies partially within and partially outside of the designated boundaries of a unit, any portion thereof serving only that unit is a limited common element allocated solely to that unit, and any portion thereof serving more than one unit or any portion of the common elements is a part of the common elements.
(3) Subject to the provisions of paragraph (2), all spaces, interior partitions, and other fixtures and improvements within the boundaries of a unit are a part of the unit.
(4) All exterior doors and windows and any shutters, awnings, window boxes, doorsteps, stoops, porches, balconies, patios, or other fixtures designed to serve a single unit, but located outside the unit's boundaries, are limited common elements allocated exclusively to that unit.
History:
1980 c 582 art 2 s 515 .2-102
515A.2-103 CONSTRUCTION AND VALIDITY OF DECLARATION AND BYLAWS.
(a) All provisions of the declaration and bylaws are severable.
(b) The rule against perpetuities may not be applied to defeat any provision of the declaration or sections 515A.1-101 to 515A.4-117 , or any instrument executed pursuant to the declaration or sections 515A.1-101 to 515A.4-117 .
(c) In the event of a conflict between the provisions of the declaration and the bylaws, the declaration prevails except to the extent that the declaration is inconsistent with sections 515A.1-101 to 515A.4-117 .
History:
1980 c 582 art 2 s 515 .2-103
515A.2-104 DESCRIPTION OF UNITS.
After the declaration is recorded, a description of a unit which sets forth the number of the condominium, the county in which the condominium is located, and the identifying number of the unit, is a sufficient legal description of that unit and its common element interest whether or not the common element interest is described or referred to therein.
History:
1980 c 582 art 2 s 515 .2-104
515A.2-105 CONTENTS OF DECLARATION; ALL CONDOMINIUMS.
The declaration for a condominium shall contain:
(1) the name and number of the condominium, which shall include the word "condominium" or be followed by the words "a condominium";
(2) the name of every county in which any part of the condominium is situated;
(3) a legally sufficient description of the real estate included in the condominium;
(4) a description or delineation of the boundaries of a unit;
(5) the condominium plat as required by section 515A.2-110 ;
(6) an allocation to each unit of an undivided interest in the common elements, a portion of the votes in the association, and a percentage or fraction of the common expenses of the association (section 515A.2-108 );
(7) a statement of the maximum number of any units which may be created by the subdivision or conversion of units owned by the declarant pursuant to section 515A.2-115 (c);
(8) an allocation of any limited common elements, as provided in section 515A.2-109 ;
(9) any restrictions on use, occupancy, and alienation of the units;
(10) a statement showing that the condominium is not subject to an ordinance provided for in section 515A.1-106 or showing that any conditions required under an ordinance have been complied with;
(11) any other matters the declarant deems appropriate.
History:
1980 c 582 art 2 s 515 .2-105; 1986 c 342 s 6
515A.2-106 CONTENTS OF DECLARATION; FLEXIBLE CONDOMINIUMS.
The declaration for a flexible condominium shall include, in addition to the matters specified in section 515A.2-105 :
(1) an explicit reservation of any options to add additional real estate;
(2) a statement of any time limit, not exceeding seven years after the recording of the declaration, upon which any option reserved under paragraph (1) will lapse, together with a statement of any circumstances that will terminate the option before the expiration of the time limit. If no time limit is set forth in the declaration, the time limit shall be seven years after the recording of the declaration;
(3) a statement of any limitations on any option reserved under paragraph (1), other than limitations created by or imposed pursuant to law;
(4) legally sufficient descriptions of each portion of additional real estate;
(5) if portions of any additional real estate may be added at different times, a statement to that effect together with a statement fixing the boundaries of those portions and regulating the order in which they may be added or a statement that no assurances are made in those regards;
(6) a statement of (i) the maximum number of units that may be created within any additional real estate and within any portion, the boundaries of which are fixed pursuant to paragraph (5), and (ii) how many of those units will be restricted exclusively to residential use;
(7) a statement that any buildings and units that may be erected upon the additional real estate or a portion thereof will be compatible with the other buildings and units in the condominium in terms of architectural style, quality of construction, principal materials employed in construction, and size, or a statement of any differences with respect to the buildings or units, or a statement that no assurances are made respecting those matters;
(8) a statement that all restrictions in the declaration affecting use, occupancy, and alienation of units will apply to units created in the additional real estate, or a statement of any differentiations that may be made as to those units;
(9) general descriptions of all other improvements and common elements that may be made or created upon or within the additional real estate or each portion thereof;
(10) a statement of the extent to which any assurances made in the declaration regarding additional real estate pursuant to paragraphs (5) to (9) apply in the event any additional real estate is not added to the condominium, or a statement that those assurances do not apply if the real estate is not added to the condominium.
History:
1980 c 582 art 2 s 515 .2-106
515A.2-107 LEASEHOLD CONDOMINIUMS.
(a) Any lease the expiration or termination of which may terminate the condominium shall be recorded and the declaration shall include, in addition to the matters specified in section 515A.2-105 :
(1) the county of recording and recorder's document number for the lease;
(2) the date on which the lease is scheduled to expire;
(3) any right of the unit owners to purchase the lessor's interest in the real estate and the manner whereby those rights may be exercised, or a statement that they do not have those rights;
(4) any right of the unit owners to remove any improvements within a reasonable time after the expiration or termination of the lease, or a statement that they do not have those rights; and
(5) any rights of the unit owners to renew the lease and the conditions of any renewal, or a statement that they do not have those rights.
(b) After the declaration for a leasehold condominium is recorded, neither the lessor nor a successor in interest may terminate the leasehold interest of a unit owner who makes timely payment of the unit owner's share of the rent which shall be the same portion thereof as that of that unit owner's common area expense and who otherwise complies so far as practicable with a share of all other covenants which, if violated, would entitle the lessor to terminate the lease. No unit owner's leasehold interest is affected by failure of any other person to pay rent or fulfill any other covenant.
(c) Acquisition of the leasehold interest of any unit owner by the lessor does not merge the leasehold and fee simple interests and the lessor shall hold the title to the unit subject to the declaration unless the leasehold interests of all unit owners subject to the lease are so acquired.
History:
1980 c 582 art 2 s 515 .2-107; 1986 c 444
515A.2-108 ALLOCATION OF COMMON ELEMENT INTERESTS, VOTES, AND COMMON EXPENSE LIABILITIES.
(a) The declaration shall allocate a fraction or percentage of the undivided interests in the common elements, common expenses and votes in the association to each unit in such manner that each of the items is equally allocated or is allocated according to the proportion of the area or volume of each unit to the area or volume of all units, and the items need not be allocated the same for all purposes. The declaration may provide that a portion of each common expense assessment may be allocated on the basis of equality and the remainder on the basis of area or volume of each unit. The sum of the percentages or fractions shall equal 100 percent or 1.
(b) Except in the case of eminent domain (section 515A.1-107 ), expansion of a flexible condominium (section 515A.2-111 ), relocation of boundaries between adjoining units (section 515A.2-114 ), or subdivision of units (section 515A.2-115 ), the common element interest, votes and common expense liability allocated to any unit may not be altered, except as an amendment to the declaration which is signed by all unit owners and first mortgagees, and which complies with section 515A.2-119 . The common elements are not subject to partition, and any purported conveyance, encumbrance, judicial sale or other voluntary or involuntary transfer of an undivided interest or involuntary transfer of an undivided interest in the common elements without the unit to which the interest is allocated is void.
(c) The association may assess certain common expenses against fewer than all units pursuant to section 515A.3-114 .
History:
1980 c 582 art 2 s 515 .2-108
515A.2-109 COMMON ELEMENTS AND LIMITED COMMON ELEMENTS.
Common elements other than limited common elements may be used in common with all unit owners. Except for the limited common elements described in section 515A.2-102 (2) and (4), the declaration shall specify to which unit each limited common element is allocated.
History:
1980 c 582 art 2 s 515 .2-109
515A.2-110 CONDOMINIUM PLATS.
(a) Condominium plats are a part of the declaration. The condominium plat shall contain a certification by a registered professional land surveyor or registered professional architect, as to the parts of the plat prepared by each, that the condominium plat accurately depicts all information required by this section. The portions of the condominium plat depicting the dimensions of the portions of the condominium described in paragraphs (b)(3), (8), (9), (10), and (11), may be prepared by either a land surveyor or an architect. The other portions of the plat must be prepared only by a land surveyor. All measurements must be undertaken in accordance with good professional practice. The certification must indicate that the work was undertaken by or under the supervision of the certifying architect or land surveyor. Certification by the architect or land surveyor does not constitute a guaranty or warranty of the nature, suitability, or quality of construction of the condominium.
(b) Each condominium plat shall show:
(1) the number of the condominium and the boundaries and dimensions of the land included in the condominium;
(2) the dimensions and location of all existing structural improvements and roadways;
(3) the intended location and dimensions of any contemplated common element improvements to be constructed within the condominium labeled either "MUST BE BUILT" or "NEED NOT BE BUILT";
(4) the location and dimensions of any additional real estate, labeled as such;
(5) the extent of any encroachments by or upon any portion of the condominium;
(6) the location and dimensions of all recorded easements within the condominium serving or burdening any portion of the condominium;
(7) the distance between noncontiguous parcels of real estate;
(8) the location and dimensions of limited common elements, including porches, balconies and patios, other than limited common elements described in section 515A.2-102 (2) and (4);
(9) the location and dimensions of the vertical boundaries of each unit and that unit's identifying number;
(10) the location and dimensions of the horizontal unit boundaries with reference to established or assumed datum and that unit's identifying number;
(11) any units which may be converted by the declarant to create additional units or common elements (section 515A.2-115 ) identified separately.
(c) When adding additional real estate (section 515A.2-111 ), the declarant shall record supplemental condominium plats for that real estate conforming to the requirements of subsection (b). If less than all additional real estate is being added, the supplemental condominium plats shall also show the location and dimensions of the remaining portion.
(d) If a declarant subdivides or converts any unit into two or more units, common elements or limited common elements (section 515A.2-115 ), the declarant shall record an amendment to the condominium plat showing the location and dimensions of any new units, common elements and limited common elements thus created.
History:
1980 c 582 art 2 s 515 .2-110; 1986 c 342 s 7 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1987 c 387 s 5
515A.2-111 EXPANSION OF FLEXIBLE CONDOMINIUMS.
(a) To add additional real estate pursuant to an option reserved under section 515A.2-106 (1), all persons having an interest in the additional real estate, excepting any holder of an easement or any holder of an interest to secure an obligation which interest was recorded or created subsequent to the recording of the declaration, shall prepare and execute and, after notice as provided in subsection (b), record an amendment to the declaration. The amendment to the declaration shall assign an identifying number to each unit formed in the additional real estate, and reallocate common element interests, votes in the association, and common expense liabilities according to section 515A.2-108 . The amendment shall describe or delineate any limited common elements formed out of the additional real estate, showing or designating the unit to which each is allocated to the extent required by section 515A.2-109 (Limited Common Elements).
(b) The declarant shall serve notice of an intention to add additional real estate as follows:
(1) To the association in the same manner as service of summons in a civil action in district court at least 30 days prior to recording the amendment. The amendment shall be attached to the notice and shall not thereafter be changed so as to materially affect the rights of unit owners.
(2) To the occupants of each unit by notice given in the manner provided in section 515A.1-115 not less than 20 days prior to recording the amendment addressed to "Occupant Entitled to Legal Notice" at each unit. Attached to the notice shall be a statement that the amendment has been served on the association.
(3) Proof of service upon the association and the occupants shall be attached to the recorded amendment.
(c) A lien upon the additional real estate that is not also upon the existing condominium is a lien only upon the units and their percentage of the common elements that are created from the additional real estate. Units within the condominium as it existed prior to expansion are transferred free of liens that are liens only upon the additional real estate, notwithstanding the fact that the percentage of common elements for the units is a percentage of the entire condominium, including the additional real estate.
History:
1980 c 582 art 2 s 515 .2-111; 1986 c 444 ; 1989 c 98 s 2
515A.2-113 ALTERATIONS OF UNITS.
Subject to the provisions of the declaration and other provisions of law, a unit owner:
(1) may make any improvements or alterations to the unit that do not impair the structural integrity or mechanical systems or lessen the support of any portion of the condominium;
(2) after acquiring an adjoining unit or an adjoining part of an adjoining unit, may with consent of the association and first mortgagees of the affected units, remove or alter any intervening partition or create apertures therein, even if the partition in whole or in part is a common element, if those acts do not impair the structural integrity or mechanical systems or lessen the support of any portion of the condominium. The adjoining unit owners shall have the exclusive license to use the space occupied by the common elements, but the use shall not create an easement or vested right. Removal of partitions or creation of apertures under this paragraph is not an alteration of boundaries. The association may reasonably require that the owner or owners of units affected replace or restore any such partition.
History:
1980 c 582 art 2 s 515 .2-113; 1986 c 444
515A.2-114 RELOCATION OF BOUNDARIES BETWEEN ADJOINING UNITS.
(a) Subject to the provisions of the declaration and other provisions of law, the boundaries between adjoining units may be relocated by an amendment to the declaration upon application to the association by the owners of those units. The owners of the adjoining units shall specify the proposed reallocation between their units of their common element interests, votes in the association, and common expense liabilities in the application and in accord with section 515A.2-108 . Unless the board of directors determines within 60 days after receipt of the application by the association that the proposed amendment is not in the best interests of the condominium, the unit owners shall prepare an amendment which shall identify the units involved, state the reallocation, be executed by those unit owners and by any holder of an interest as security for an obligation, contain words of conveyance between them, contain written consent of the association, and upon recordation be indexed in the name of the grantor and the grantee. The amendment shall include an amended floor plan or if amended after July 31, 1986, an amended condominium plat, to show the altered boundaries between the adjoining units and their dimensions and identifying numbers. If a holder of an interest as security for an obligation joins in the amendment pursuant to this section, the extent of the interest and the remedies shall be deemed to be modified as provided in the amendment. The association shall incur no liability to any party by reason of performing those acts enumerated in this section.
(b) The association may require the owners of the affected units to build a boundary wall and other common elements between the units.
(c) The applicant shall deliver a certified copy of the amendment to the association.
History:
1980 c 582 art 2 s 515 .2-114; 1986 c 342 s 8
515A.2-115 SUBDIVISION OR CONVERSION OF UNITS.
(a) If the declaration expressly so permits, (i) a unit may be subdivided into two or more units, or, (ii) if owned by a declarant, a unit may be subdivided or converted into two or more units, limited common elements, common elements, or a combination of units, limited common elements and common elements. Subject to the provisions of the declaration and other provisions of law, the unit owner shall prepare and execute an amendment to the declaration, including the floor plans or if amended after July 31, 1986, the condominium plat, subdividing or converting that unit. The amendment to the declaration shall be executed by the unit owner and any holder of an interest as security for an obligation of the unit to be subdivided or converted, assign an identifying number to each unit created, and reallocate the common element interest, votes in the association, and common expense liability formerly allocated to the subdivided unit to the units in accord with section 515A.2-108 .
(b) The unit owner shall deliver a certified copy of the recorded amendment to the association.
(c) In the case of a unit owned by a declarant, if a declarant converts part or all of a unit to common elements, the amendment to the declaration shall reallocate among the other units the common element interest, votes in the association, and common expense liability formerly allocated to the converted unit or portion thereof on the same basis used for the initial allocation thereof.
(d) If a holder of an interest as security for an obligation joins in the amendment pursuant to this section, the interest and remedies shall be deemed to apply to the units and the common element interests that result from the subdivision or conversion under this section. In the event of enforcement of any remedy, including foreclosure by advertisement, all instruments and notices shall describe the subject property in terms of the amended description.
History:
1980 c 582 art 2 s 515 .2-115; 1986 c 342 s 9
515A.2-116 MINOR VARIATION IN BOUNDARIES.
The existing physical boundaries of a unit or of a unit reconstructed in substantial accordance with the condominium plat are conclusively presumed to be its boundaries regardless of settling or lateral movement of the building.
History:
1980 c 582 art 2 s 515 .2-116; 1986 c 342 s 10
515A.2-117 USE FOR SALES PURPOSES.
If the declaration so provides and specifies the rights of a declarant with regard to their number, size, location and relocation, a declarant may maintain sales offices, management offices, and models in the condominium. Any sales office, management office, or model not designated a unit by the declaration is a common element, and a declarant ceasing to be a unit owner, ceases to have any rights with regard thereto unless it is removed promptly from the condominium in accordance with a right to remove reserved in the declaration. Subject to any limitations in the declaration, a declarant may maintain signs on the common elements advertising the condominium.
History:
1980 c 582 art 2 s 515 .2-117; 1986 c 444
515A.2-118 EASEMENT TO FACILITATE COMPLETION, CONVERSION, AND EXPANSION.
Subject to the provisions of the declaration, a declarant has an easement through the common elements as may be reasonably necessary for the purpose of discharging a declarant's obligations or exercising special declarant rights, whether arising under sections 515A.1-101 to 515A.4-117 or reserved in the declaration.
History:
1980 c 582 art 2 s 515 .2-118
515A.2-119 AMENDMENT OF DECLARATION.
(a) Except in cases of amendments which may be executed by a declarant under sections 515A.2-110 (c) and (d), 515A.2-111 (a); the association under section 515A.1-107 (a); or certain unit owners under sections 515A.2-114 , 515A.2-115 , or 515A.2-120 (b), and except as limited by subsection (d), the declaration may be amended by the association only by a vote or written agreement of unit owners to which at least 67 percent of the votes in the association are allocated, and 67 percent of the first mortgagees of the units (each mortgagee having one vote per unit financed) or any larger or smaller majority the declaration specifies. The declaration may specify any percentage if all of the units are restricted exclusively to nonresidential use.
(b) Every amendment to the declaration shall be recorded in every county in which any portion of the condominium is located, and is effective only when recorded.
(c) Except to the extent expressly permitted or required by other provisions of sections 515A.1-101 to 515A.4-117 , no amendment may create or increase special declarant rights, increase the number of units, convert common elements to limited common elements, or change the boundaries of any unit, the common element interest, commo
Minn. Stat. § 518.11
518.11 SERVICE; ALTERNATE SERVICE; PUBLICATION.
(a) Unless a proceeding is brought by both parties, copies of the summons and petition shall be served on the respondent personally.
(b) When service is made out of this state and within the United States, it may be proved by the affidavit of the person making the same. When service is made without the United States it may be proved by the affidavit of the person making the same, taken before and certified by any United States minister, charge d'affaires, commissioner, consul or commercial agent, or other consular or diplomatic officer of the United States appointed to reside in such country, including all deputies or other representatives of such officer authorized to perform their duties; or before an officer authorized to administer an oath with the certificate of an officer of a court of record of the country wherein such affidavit is taken as to the identity and authority of the officer taking the same.
(c) If personal service cannot be made, the court may order service of the summons by alternate means. The application for alternate service must include the last known location of the respondent; the petitioner's most recent contacts with the respondent; the last known location of the respondent's employment; the names and locations of the respondent's parents, siblings, children, and other close relatives; the names and locations of other persons who are likely to know the respondent's whereabouts; and a description of efforts to locate those persons.
The court shall consider the length of time the respondent's location has been unknown, the likelihood that the respondent's location will become known, the nature of the relief sought, and the nature of efforts made to locate the respondent. The court shall order service by first class mail, forwarding address requested, to any addresses where there is a reasonable possibility that mail or information will be forwarded or communicated to the respondent or, if no address so qualifies, then to the respondent's last known address.
If the petitioner seeks disposition of real estate located within the state of Minnesota, the court shall order that the summons, which shall contain the legal description of the real estate, be published in the county where the real estate is located. The court may also order publication, within or without the state, but only if it might reasonably succeed in notifying the respondent of the proceeding. Also, the court may require the petitioner to make efforts to locate the respondent by telephone calls to appropriate persons. Service shall be deemed complete 21 days after mailing or 21 days after court-ordered publication.
History:
( 8590 ) RL s 3579 ; 1909 c 434 ; 1913 c 57 s 1 ; 1974 c 107 s 8 ; 1978 c 772 s 27 ; 1994 c 630 art 12 s 2 ; 1997 c 9 s 5
Minn. Stat. § 518.191
518.191 SUMMARY REAL ESTATE DISPOSITION JUDGMENT.
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Subdivision 1. Abbreviated judgment and decree.
If real estate is described in a judgment and decree of dissolution, the court shall direct either of the parties or their legal counsel to prepare and submit to the court a proposed summary real estate disposition judgment. Upon approval by the court and filing of the summary real estate disposition judgment with the court administrator, the court administrator shall provide to any party upon request certified copies of the summary real estate disposition judgment.
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Subd. 2. Required information.
A summary real estate disposition judgment must contain the following information:
(1) the full caption and file number of the case and the title "Summary Real Estate Disposition Judgment";
(2) the dates of the parties' marriage and of the entry of the judgment and decree of dissolution;
(3) the names of the parties' attorneys or if either or both appeared pro se;
(4) the name of the judge and referee, if any, who signed the order for judgment and decree;
(5) whether the judgment and decree resulted from a stipulation, a default, or a trial and the appearances at the default or trial;
(6) if the judgment and decree resulted from a stipulation, whether the real property was described by a legal description;
(7) if the judgment and decree resulted from a default, whether the petition contained the legal description of the property and whether disposition was made in accordance with the request for relief;
(8) whether the summons and petition were served personally upon the respondent pursuant to the Rules of Civil Procedure, rule 4.03(a) , or section 543.19;
(9) if the summons and petition were served on the respondent only by publication, the name of each legal newspaper and county in which the summons and petition were published and the dates of publications;
(10) whether either party changed the party's name through the judgment and decree;
(11) the legal description of each parcel of real estate;
(12) the name or names of the persons awarded an interest in each parcel of real estate and a description of the interest awarded;
(13) liens, mortgages, encumbrances, or other interests in the real estate described in the judgment and decree; and
(14) triggering or contingent events set forth in the judgment and decree affecting the disposition of each parcel of real estate.
§
Subd. 2a. Amended summary real estate disposition judgment.
(a) On the court's own motion or on application by an interested person, the court shall issue an order authorizing the court administrator to issue an amended summary real estate disposition judgment to correct an erroneous legal description of real estate contained in the judgment and decree of dissolution.
(b) An application to correct a legal description under this subdivision must contain:
(1) the erroneous legal description contained in the judgment and decree;
(2) the correct legal description of the real estate;
(3) written evidence satisfactory to the court to show the correct legal description, or a request for an evidentiary hearing to produce evidence of the correct legal description; and
(4) a proposed amended summary real estate disposition judgment.
(c) The court shall consider an application under this subdivision on an expedited basis. The court's order must be based on the evidence provided in the application, the evidence produced at an evidentiary hearing, or the evidence already in the record of the proceeding. If the court is satisfied that an erroneous legal description should be corrected under this subdivision, the court may issue its order without a hearing or notice to any person. A filing fee is not required for an application under this subdivision. The court's order must be treated as an amendment of the court's findings of fact regarding the legal description of the property in question, without the need to amend the original judgment and decree. The court shall issue the order if the court specifically finds that the court had jurisdiction over the respondent in the dissolution proceeding and that the property was sufficiently identified in the original proceedings to prevent prejudice to the rights of either party to the dissolution and that the amendment will not prejudice their rights. The court's order is effective retroactive to the date of entry of the original judgment and decree of dissolution.
(d) An amended summary real estate disposition judgment must be treated the same as the prior summary real estate disposition judgment for all purposes.
(e) On request by any interested person, the court administrator shall provide a certified copy of an amended summary real estate disposition judgment showing the correct legal description of the real property affected by the judgment and decree.
(f) This subdivision may not be used to add omitted property to a judgment and decree of dissolution, unless the court determines that the omitted property is an integral or appurtenant part of real property already properly included in the judgment and decree.
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Subd. 3. Court order.
An order or provision in a judgment and decree that provides that the judgment and decree must be recorded in the office of the county recorder or filed in the office of the registrar of titles means, if a summary real estate disposition judgment has been approved by the court, that the summary real estate disposition judgment, rather than the judgment and decree, must be recorded in the office of the county recorder or filed in the office of the registrar of titles. The recorder or registrar of titles is not responsible for determining if a summary real estate disposition judgment has been approved by the court.
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Subd. 4. Transfer of property.
The summary real estate disposition judgment operates as a conveyance and transfer of each interest in the real estate in the manner and to the extent described in the summary real estate disposition judgment. A summary real estate disposition judgment, or an amended summary real estate disposition judgment that supersedes an earlier judgment, is prima facie evidence of the facts stated in the summary real estate disposition judgment. A purchaser for value without notice of any defect in the dissolution proceedings may rely on a summary real estate disposition judgment or a later amended summary real estate disposition judgment to establish the facts stated in the judgment.
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Subd. 5. Conflict.
If a conflict exists between the judgment and decree and the summary real estate disposition judgment, the summary real estate disposition judgment recorded in the office of the county recorder or filed in the office of the registrar of titles controls as to the interest acquired in real estate by any subsequent purchaser in good faith and for a valuable consideration, who is in possession of the interest or whose interest is recorded with the county recorder or registrar of titles, before the recording of the judgment and decree in the same office.
History:
1990 c 575 s 7 ; 2006 c 221 s 17 -19; 2023 c 52 art 19 s 27 ,28
Minn. Stat. § 518.195
518.195 SUMMARY DISSOLUTION PROCESS.
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Subdivision 1. Criteria.
A couple desirous of dissolving their marriage may use the streamlined procedure in this section if:
(1) no living minor children have been born to or adopted by the parties before or during the marriage, unless someone other than the spouse has been adjudicated the father;
(2) the spouse is not pregnant;
(3) they have been married fewer than eight years as of the date they file their joint declaration;
(4) neither party owns any real estate;
(5) there are no unpaid debts in excess of $8,000 incurred by either or both of the parties during the marriage, excluding encumbrances on automobiles;
(6) the total fair market value of the marital assets does not exceed $25,000, including net equity on automobiles;
(7) neither party has nonmarital assets in excess of $25,000; and
(8) neither party has been a victim of domestic abuse by the other.
§
Subd. 2. Procedure.
A couple qualifying under all of the criteria in subdivision 1, may obtain a judgment and decree by:
(1) filing a sworn joint declaration, on which both of their signatures must be notarized, containing or appending the following information:
(i) the demographic data required in section
Minn. Stat. § 518A.71
518A.71 SECURITY; SEQUESTRATION; CONTEMPT.
In all cases when maintenance or support payments are ordered, the court may require sufficient security to be given for the payment of them according to the terms of the order. Upon neglect or refusal to give security, or upon failure to pay the maintenance or support, the court may sequester the obligor's personal estate and the rents and profits of real estate of the obligor, and appoint a receiver of them. The court may cause the personal estate and the rents and profits of the real estate to be applied according to the terms of the order. The obligor is presumed to have an income from a source sufficient to pay the maintenance or support order. A child support or maintenance order constitutes prima facie evidence that the obligor has the ability to pay the award. If the obligor disobeys the order, it is prima facie evidence of contempt. The court may cite the obligor for contempt under this section, section
Minn. Stat. § 519.03
519.03 RESPONSIBLE FOR TORTS AND BOUND BY CONTRACT.
Every married woman is bound by her contracts and responsible for her torts, and her property shall be liable for her debts and torts to the same extent as if unmarried. She may make any contract which she could make if unmarried, and shall be bound thereby, except that every conveyance and contract for the sale of her real estate or any interest therein, shall be subject to and governed by the provisions of section
Minn. Stat. § 519.07
519.07 BARRING INTEREST OF SPOUSE; RIGHTS RECIPROCAL.
A person who has an interest in real estate may bring an action in any county in which all or a part of the real estate is located, seeking a decree that will bar any inchoate interest of the person's spouse in the real estate. The court may grant such a petition if the court finds by clear and convincing evidence that the person's spouse is an incapacitated person as defined in section 524.5-102, subdivision 6 , that the person has been deserted by the spouse for a period of at least one year, or that other similar circumstances warrant. The decree may grant the person full control of all the person's real estate located in Minnesota, with power to sell, convey, mortgage, lease, or transfer title to it, subject to any limitations the court considers proper in the circumstances. The decree may not be granted or must be vacated if the petitioner caused or contributed to the incapacity or disappearance of the petitioner's spouse. A certified copy of such decree may be recorded in the office of the county recorder or filed in the office of registrar of titles in any county wherever such real estate, or any part thereof, may be situated.
History:
( 8622 ) RL s 3610 ; 1976 c 181 s 2 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1995 c 130 s 7 ; 2004 c 146 art 3 s 38
Minn. Stat. § 519.11
519.11 .
History:
1994 c 472 s 27
524.2-214 PROTECTION OF PAYORS AND OTHER THIRD PARTIES.
(a) Although under section 524.2-205 a payment, item of property, or other benefit is included in the decedent's nonprobate transfers to others, a payor or other third party is not liable for having made a payment or transferred an item of property or other benefit to a beneficiary designated in a governing instrument, or for having taken any other action in good faith reliance on the validity of a governing instrument, upon request and satisfactory proof of the decedent's death, before the payor or other third party received written notice from the surviving spouse or spouse's representative of an intention to file a petition for the elective share or that a petition for the elective share has been filed. A payor or other third party is liable for payments made or other actions taken after the payor or other third party received written notice of an intention to file a petition for the elective share or that a petition for the elective share has been filed.
(b) A written notice of intention to file a petition for the elective share or that a petition for the elective share has been filed must be mailed to the payor's or other third party's main office or home by registered or certified mail, return receipt requested, or served upon the payor or other third party in the same manner as a summons in a civil action. Upon receipt of written notice of intention to file a petition for the elective share or that a petition for the elective share has been filed, a payor or other third party may pay any amount owed or transfer or deposit any item of property held by it to or with the court having jurisdiction of the probate proceedings relating to the decedent's estate or, if no proceedings have been commenced, to or with the court having jurisdiction of probate proceedings relating to decedents' estates located in the county of the decedent's residence. The court shall hold the funds or item of property and, upon its determination under section 524.2-211, paragraph (d) , shall order disbursement in accordance with the determination. If no petition is filed in the court within the specified time under section 524.2-211, paragraph (a) , or, if filed, the demand for an elective share is withdrawn under section 524.2-211, paragraph (c) , the court shall order disbursement to the designated beneficiary. Payments or transfers to the court or deposits made into court discharge the payor or other third party from all claims for amounts so paid or the value of property so transferred or deposited.
(c) Upon petition to the court described in paragraph (b) by the beneficiary designated in the governing instrument, the court may order that all or part of the property be paid to the beneficiary in an amount and subject to conditions consistent with this part.
History:
1994 c 472 s 28
524.2-215 SURVIVING SPOUSE RECEIVING MEDICAL ASSISTANCE.
(a) Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, if a surviving spouse is receiving medical assistance under chapter 256B, when the person's spouse dies, then the provisions in paragraphs (b) to (f) apply.
(b) Any time before an order or decree is entered under section 524.3-1001 or 524.3-1002 or a closing statement is filed under section 524.3-1003 the surviving spouse may:
(1) exercise the right to take an elective share amount of the decedent's estate under section 524.2-211 , in which case the decedent's nonprobate transfers to others shall be included in the augmented estate for purposes of computing the elective share and supplemental elective share amounts;
(2) petition the court for an extension of time for exercising the right to an elective share amount under section 524.2-211 , in which case the decedent's nonprobate transfers to others shall be included in the augmented estate for purposes of computing the elective share and supplemental elective share amounts; or
(3) elect statutory rights in the homestead or petition the court for an extension of time to make the election as provided in section 524.2-211, paragraph (f) .
(c) Notwithstanding any law or rule to the contrary, the personal representative of the estate of the surviving spouse may exercise the surviving spouse's right of election and statutory right to the homestead in the manner provided for making those elections or petition for an extension of time as provided for in this section.
(d) If choosing the elective share will result in the surviving spouse receiving a share of the decedent's estate greater in value than the share of the estate under the will or intestate succession, then the guardian or conservator for the surviving spouse shall exercise the surviving spouse's right to an elective share amount and a court order is not required.
(e) A party petitioning to establish a guardianship or conservatorship for the surviving spouse may file a certified copy of the petition in the decedent's estate proceedings and serve a copy of the petition on the personal representative or the personal representative's attorney. The filing of the petition shall toll all of the limitations provided in this section until the entry of a final order granting or denying the petition. The decedent's estate may not close until the entry of a final order granting or denying the petition.
(1) Distributees of the decedent's estate shall be personally liable to account for and turn over to the ward, the conservatee, or the estate of the ward or conservatee any and all amounts which the ward or conservatee is entitled to receive from the decedent's estate.
(2) No distributee shall be liable for an amount in excess of the value of the distributee's distribution as of the time of the distribution.
(3) The ward, conservatee, guardian, conservator, or personal representative may bring proceedings in district court to enforce the rights in this section.
(f) Notwithstanding any oral or written contract, agreement, or waiver made by the surviving spouse to waive in whole or in part the surviving spouse's right of election against the decedent's will, statutory right to the homestead, exempt property, or family allowance, the surviving spouse or the surviving spouse's guardian or conservator may exercise these rights to the full extent permitted by law. The surviving spouse's rights under this paragraph do not apply to the extent there is a valid antenuptial agreement between the surviving spouse and the decedent under which the surviving spouse has waived some or all of these rights.
History:
2000 c 400 s 5 ; 2016 c 158 art 2 s 117
Part 3 SPOUSE AND CHILDREN UNPROVIDED FOR IN WILLS
524.2-301 ENTITLEMENT OF SPOUSE; PREMARITAL WILL.
(a) If a testator married after making a will and the spouse survives the testator, the surviving spouse shall receive a share of the estate of the testator equal in value to that which the surviving spouse would have received if the testator had died intestate, unless:
(1) provision has been made for, or waived by, the spouse by prenuptial or postnuptial agreement;
(2) the will or other written evidence discloses an intention not to make provision for the spouse;
(3) the person, who was the surviving spouse at death, was designated as a devisee, or is the beneficiary of a trust referenced, in the will; or
(4) the testator provided for the spouse by transfer outside the will and the intent that the transfer be in lieu of a testamentary provision is shown by the testator's written statements or may be reasonably inferred from the amount of the transfer or other evidence.
(b) In satisfying the share provided by this section, devises made by the will other than a devise to a child of the testator who was born before the testator married the surviving spouse and who is not a child of the surviving spouse or a devise or substitute gift under section 524.2-603 or 524.2-604 to a descendant of such a child, abate first as otherwise provided in section 524.3-902 .
History:
1985 c 250 s 21 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1994 c 472 s 29 ; 2002 c 379 art 1 s 101 ; 2008 c 341 art 4 s 1 ; 2016 c 135 art 2 s 24
524.2-302 OMITTED CHILDREN.
(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b), if a testator's will fails to provide for any of the testator's children born or adopted after the execution of the will, the omitted after-born or after-adopted child receives a share in the estate as follows:
(1) If the testator had no child living when the will was executed, an omitted after-born or after-adopted child receives a share in the estate equal in value to that which the child would have received had the testator died intestate, unless the will devised all or substantially all the estate to the other parent of the omitted child and that other parent survives the testator and is entitled to take under the will.
(2) If the testator had one or more children living when the will was executed, and the will devised property or an interest in property to one or more of the then-living children, an omitted after-born or after-adopted child is entitled to share in the testator's estate as follows:
(i) The portion of the testator's estate in which the omitted after-born or after-adopted child is entitled to share is limited to devises made to the testator's then-living children under the will.
(ii) The omitted after-born or after-adopted child is entitled to receive the share of the testator's estate, as limited in item (i), that the child would have received had the testator included all omitted after-born and after-adopted children with the children to whom devises were made under the will and had given an equal share of the estate to each child.
(iii) To the extent feasible, the interest granted an omitted after-born or after-adopted child under this section must be of the same character, whether equitable or legal, present or future, as that devised to the testator's then-living children under the will.
(iv) In satisfying a share provided by this paragraph, devises to the testator's children who were living when the will was executed abate ratably. In abating the devises of the then-living children, the court shall preserve to the maximum extent possible the character of the testamentary plan adopted by the testator.
(b) Neither paragraph (a), clause (1) or (2), nor paragraph (c), applies if:
(1) it appears from the will that the omission was intentional; or
(2) the testator provided for the omitted after-born or after-adopted child by transfer outside the will and the intent that the transfer be in lieu of a testamentary provision is shown by the testator's statements or is reasonably inferred from the amount of the transfer or other evidence.
(c) If at the time of execution of the will the testator fails to provide in the will for a living child solely because the testator believes the child to be dead, the child receives a share in the estate equal in value to that which the child would have received had the testator died intestate, unless the will devised all or substantially all of the estate to the other parent of the child the testator believes to be dead and the other parent survives the testator and is entitled to take under the will.
(d) If a deceased omitted child would have been entitled to a share under this section if the omitted child had not predeceased the testator and the deceased omitted child leaves issue who survive the testator, the issue who represent the deceased omitted child are entitled to take the deceased omitted child's share.
(e) In satisfying a share provided by paragraph (a), clause (1), or (c), devises made by the will abate under section 524.3-902 .
History:
1985 c 250 s 22 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1994 c 472 s 30 ; 2005 c 26 s 6
Part 4 EXEMPT PROPERTY AND ALLOWANCES
524.2-401 APPLICABLE LAW.
This part applies to the estate of a decedent who dies domiciled in this state. Rights to homestead, exempt property, and family allowance for a decedent who dies not domiciled in this state are governed by the law of the decedent's domicile at death.
History:
1994 c 472 s 31
524.2-402 DESCENT OF HOMESTEAD.
(a) If there is a surviving spouse, the homestead, including a manufactured home which is the family residence, descends free from any testamentary or other disposition of it to which the spouse has not consented in writing or as provided by law, as follows:
(1) if there is no surviving descendant of decedent, to the spouse; or
(2) if there are surviving descendants of decedent, then to the spouse for the term of the spouse's natural life and the remainder in equal shares to the decedent's descendants by representation.
(b) If there is no surviving spouse and the homestead has not been disposed of by will it descends as other real estate.
(c) If the homestead passes by descent or will to the spouse or decedent's descendants or to a trustee of a trust of which the spouse or the decedent's descendants are the sole current beneficiaries, it is exempt from all debts which were not valid charges on it at the time of decedent's death except that the homestead is subject to a claim filed pursuant to section
Minn. Stat. § 51A.19
51A.19 RECORDS.
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Subdivision 1. Records to be kept at home office.
Every association shall keep at the home office correct and complete books of account and minutes of the proceedings of members, directors, stockholders, and the executive committee. Complete records of all business transacted at the home office shall be maintained at the home office. Control records of all business transacted at other offices shall be maintained at the home office.
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Subd. 2.
[Repealed, 1988 c 666 s 75 ]
§
Subd. 3.
[Repealed, 1988 c 666 s 75 ]
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Subd. 4. Books to be closed at least annually.
Every association shall close its books at the close of business on December 31 of each year, or more often if desired by the association.
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Subd. 5. Charging off or setting up reserves against bad assets.
The commissioner may order that assets, individually or in the aggregate, to the extent that such assets are overvalued on an association's books, be charged off, or that a special reserve or reserves equal to such overvaluation be set up by transfers from undivided profits or reserves.
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Subd. 6. Bonds and other obligations to be carried at cost.
The bonds or other interest bearing obligations purchased by an association shall not be carried on its books at more than the cost thereof.
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Subd. 7. Real estate to be carried at amount invested in same.
An association shall not carry any real estate on its books at a sum in excess of the total amount invested by such association on account of such real estate, including advances, costs, and improvements but excluding accrued but uncollected interest.
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Subd. 8. Appraisal of real estate owned and that securing delinquent loans.
Every association shall have appraised each parcel of real estate at the time of acquisition. The report of each appraisal shall be kept in the records of the association. In addition to the powers under section 51A.44, subdivision 6 , the commissioner may require the appraisal of real estate securing loans which are delinquent more than four months.
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Subd. 9. Maintenance of loan and investment records.
Every association shall maintain complete loan and investment records, and shall do so in a manner satisfactory to the commissioner. Detailed records necessary to make determinations of compliance by an association with the requirements of sections
Minn. Stat. § 51A.23
51A.23 SAVINGS ACCOUNT.
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Subdivision 1. Ownership.
Trust funds received by a real estate broker or the broker's salespersons in trust may be deposited in a savings association. Deposit accounts shall be represented only by the account of each deposit account holder on the books of the association, and the accounts or any interest therein shall be transferable only on the books of the association and upon proper written application by the transferee. The association may treat the holder of record of a savings account as the owner of it for all purposes without being affected by any notice to the contrary unless the association has acknowledged in writing notice of a pledge of the deposit account. Notwithstanding the foregoing, an association or federal association may offer negotiable time deposits.
An association may issue deposit accounts to or in the name of a minor, which shall be held for the exclusive right and benefit of the minor, free from the control or lien of all other persons, except creditors, and, together with dividends thereon, shall be paid to the minor, and receipt or acquittance in any form, shall be sufficient release and discharge of the association for withdrawal, until a guardian appointed in this state for the minor shall have delivered a certificate of appointment.
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Subd. 2.
[Repealed, 1988 c 666 s 75 ]
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Subd. 3.
[Repealed, 1988 c 666 s 75 ]
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Subd. 4.
[Repealed, 1988 c 666 s 75 ]
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Subd. 5.
[Repealed, 1988 c 666 s 75 ]
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Subd. 6. Insurance of accounts.
Every association incorporated pursuant to or operating under the provisions of sections
Minn. Stat. § 51A.37
51A.37 INVESTMENT IN LOANS.
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Subdivision 1. Generally.
Every association shall have power to invest in loans and other investments as set forth in this section.
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Subd. 2. Savings account loans.
Loans secured by its savings accounts.
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Subd. 3. Real estate loans.
Real estate loans in any amount, subject to the following conditions:
(a) An association may participate with one or more financial institutions or other entities in any real estate loan of the type in which the association is authorized to invest on its own account.
(b) The aggregate balances outstanding of real estate loans on real estate located outside the primary lending area of an association shall at no time exceed ten percent of the assets of the association, except that (1) loans insured or guaranteed in whole or in part by the United States, or a federal agency and (2) loans in which an association owns or has purchased no more than a 75 percent participation interest are not subject to this restriction.
(c) Real estate loans on home property by mortgage or contract for deed, as provided in paragraphs (a) and (b) with no limit on purchase or sale thereof; and may participate with other lenders in the making, purchasing, or selling of the loans.
(d) An association may purchase, at any sheriff's, judicial, or other sale, public or private, any real estate upon which it has a mortgage, judgment, or other lien, or in which it has any interest. It may acquire title to any real estate on which it holds any lien, in full or part satisfaction thereof, and may sell, convey, hold, lease, or mortgage the same. In transactions involving the purchase by a vendee of real estate, an association may, when authorized by its bylaws, acquire the title thereof, and it may give to the vendee a contract to convey the same as upon a sale thereof. Provided, that no association shall hereafter invest more than 50 percent of its assets in such contracts to convey. Upon default in the conditions of the contract, the association may terminate the interest of the vendee or the vendee's representatives or assigns by serving the notice provided by section
Minn. Stat. § 51A.385
51A.385 . "Real estate loans" which include a loan or other obligation secured by a first lien on real estate in fee or in a leasehold extending or renewable automatically for a period of at least ten years beyond the date scheduled for the final principal payment of the loan or obligation, or a transaction out of which a first lien or claim is created against the real estate, including the purchase of the real estate in fee by a savings bank and the concurrent or immediate sale of it on installment contract;
(h) secured or unsecured loans for the purpose of repair, improvement, rehabilitation, or furnishing of real estate;
(i) loans for the purpose of financing or refinancing an ownership interest in certificates of stock, certificates of beneficial interest, or other evidence of an ownership interest in, or a proprietary lease from, a corporation, limited liability company, trust, limited liability partnership, or partnership formed for the purpose of the cooperative ownership of real estate, secured by the assignment or transfer of certificates or other evidence of ownership of the borrower;
(j) loans guaranteed or insured, in whole or in part, by the United States or any of its instrumentalities;
(k) issuance of letters of credit or other similar arrangements; and
(l) any other type of loan authorized by rules adopted by the commissioner.
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Subd. 2. Loans and extensions of credit.
(a) A savings bank may extend credit and make loans under section
Minn. Stat. § 51A.40
51A.40 DEALING WITH SUCCESSORS IN INTEREST.
In the case of any investment made by an association in a loan secured by a mortgage on real property, including a real estate loan, in the event the ownership of the real estate security or any part thereof becomes vested in a person other than the party or parties originally executing the security instruments, and provided there is not an agreement in writing to the contrary, an association may, without notice to such party or parties, deal with such successor or successors in interest with reference to said mortgage and the debt thereby secured in the same manner as with such party or parties, and may forbear to sue or may extend time for payment of or otherwise modify the terms of the debt secured thereby, without discharging or in any way affecting the original liability of such party or parties thereunder or upon the debt thereby secured.
History:
1969 c 490 s 40 ; 1988 c 666 s 67 ; 1996 c 414 art 1 s 44 ; 1997 c 157 s 67 ; 1998 c 260 s 1
Minn. Stat. § 51A.44
51A.44 REPORTS AND EXAMINATIONS.
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Subdivision 1. Annual report.
On or before the last day of April in each year, every association shall make an annual written report to the commissioner, upon a form to be prescribed and furnished by the commissioner, of its affairs and operations, which shall include a complete statement of its financial condition, including a statement of income and expense since its last previous similar report, for the 12 months ending on the 31st day of December of the previous year. Every such report shall be verified by the president and treasurer.
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Subd. 2. Other reports.
Every association also shall make such other reports as the commissioner may from time to time require, which shall be in such form and filed on such date as the commissioner may prescribe and shall, if required, be verified in the same manner as the annual report.
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Subd. 3.
[Repealed, 1984 c 576 s 27 ]
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Subd. 4. Commissioner may accept examinations made by certain federal agencies.
In lieu of such examination, the commissioner may accept any examination made by a federal home loan bank, the federal home loan bank board, or by the Federal Savings and Loan Insurance Corporation. One copy of any examination, signed and certified by the agencies making such examination, shall be filed promptly with the commissioner.
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Subd. 5. Extra or additional examinations; reports.
Whenever, in the judgment of the commissioner, the condition of any association renders it necessary or expedient to make an extra examination of audit or to devote any extraordinary attention to its affairs, the commissioner shall cause the same to be done. A full and complete copy of the report of all examinations and audits shall be furnished to the association examined. Such report of examination or audit shall be presented by the president to the board of directors at its next regular or special meeting.
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Subd. 6. Commissioner authorized to have appraisals made at expense of association.
The commissioner is authorized in connection with any examination or audit of any association to cause to be made appraisal so real estate held by the association or securing the association's assets when specific facts or information with respect to real estate held, secured loans or lending, or when in the commissioner's opinion the association's policies, practices, operating results and trends give evidence that an association's appraisals may be excessive, that lending or investment may be of a marginal nature, that appraisal policies and practices may not conform with generally accepted and established professional standards, or that real estate held by the association or assets secured by real estate are overvalued. In lieu of causing such appraisals to be made, the commissioner may accept any appraisal caused to be made by a federal home loan bank, the Federal Home Loan Bank Board, or by the Federal Savings and Loan Insurance Corporation or other insuring agency of an insured association. Unless otherwise ordered by the commissioner, appraisal of real estate in connection with any examination or audit pursuant to this section shall be made by a professional appraiser or appraisers selected by the commissioner, and the cost of such appraisal promptly shall be paid by such association directly to such appraiser or appraisers upon receipt by the association of a statement of such cost bearing the written approval of the commissioner. A copy of the report of each appraisal caused to be made by the commissioner pursuant to this subdivision shall be furnished to the association within a reasonable time, not to exceed 60 days, following the completion of such appraisals, and may in the case of an insured association be furnished to the insuring agency.
History:
1969 c 490 s 44 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1988 c 666 s 68 ; 1996 c 414 art 1 s 44 ; 1997 c 157 s 67 ; 1998 c 260 s 1
Minn. Stat. § 52.04
52.04 POWERS.
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Subdivision 1. Generally.
A credit union has the following powers:
(1) to offer its members and other credit unions various classes of shares, share certificates, deposits, or deposit certificates;
(2) to receive the savings of its members either as payment on shares or as deposits, including the right to conduct Christmas clubs, vacation clubs, and other thrift organizations within its membership. Trust funds received by a real estate broker or the broker's salespersons in trust may be deposited in a credit union;
(3) to make loans to members for provident or productive purposes as provided in section
Minn. Stat. § 52.141
52.141 LOAN EXPENSES.
In addition to the interest charged on loans, the borrowing member may be required to pay all reasonable expenses incurred in connection with the making, closing, disbursing, extending, readjusting, or renewing of personal or real estate loans. The commissioner of commerce may prescribe by rule which of said expenses may be charged to the member and may further prescribe maximum amounts which may be charged.
History:
1967 c 301 s 5 ; 1983 c 289 s 114 subd 1; 1984 c 655 art 1 s 92 ; 1985 c 248 s 70
Minn. Stat. § 52.16
52.16 , whereunder initial periodic repayments are lower than those under the standard real estate loan having equal periodic repayments, and gradually rise to a predetermined point after which they remain constant.
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Subd. 2. Authorization.
Notwithstanding the provisions of section 334.01, subdivision 1 , and subject to the provisions of section
Minn. Stat. § 523.24
523.24 CONSTRUCTION.
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Subdivision 1. Real property transactions.
In a statutory short form power of attorney, the language conferring general authority with respect to real estate transactions, means that the principal authorizes the attorney-in-fact:
(1) to accept as a gift, or as security for a loan, to reject, to demand, to buy, to lease, to receive, or otherwise to acquire either ownership or possession of any estate or interest in real property;
(2) to sell, exchange, convey either with or without covenants, quitclaim, release, surrender, mortgage, encumber, partition or consent the partitioning, plat or consent platting, grant options concerning, lease or sublet, or otherwise to dispose of, any estate or interest in real property;
(3) to release in whole or in part, assign the whole or a part of, satisfy in whole or in part, and enforce by action, proceeding or otherwise, any mortgage, encumbrance, lien, or other claim to real property which exists, or is claimed to exist, in favor of the principal;
(4) to do any act of management or of conservation with respect to any estate or interest in real property owned, or claimed to be owned, by the principal, including by way of illustration, but not of restriction, power to insure against any casualty, liability, or loss, to obtain or regain possession or protect such estate or interest by action, proceeding or otherwise, to pay, compromise or contest taxes or assessments, to apply for and receive refunds in connection therewith, to purchase supplies, hire assistance or labor, and make repairs or alterations in the structures or lands;
(5) to use in any way, develop, modify, alter, replace, remove, erect, or install structures or other improvements upon any real property in which the principal has, or claims to have, any estate or interest;
(6) to demand, receive, obtain by action, proceeding, or otherwise, any money, or other thing of value to which the principal is, or may become, or may claim to be entitled as the proceeds of an interest in real property or of one or more of the transactions enumerated in this subdivision, to conserve, invest, disburse, or utilize anything so received for purposes enumerated in this subdivision, and to reimburse the attorney-in-fact for any expenditures properly made by the attorney-in-fact in the execution of the powers conferred on the attorney-in-fact by the statutory short form power of attorney;
(7) to participate in any reorganization with respect to real property and receive and hold any shares of stock or instrument of similar character received in accordance with a plan of reorganization, and to act with respect to the shares, including, by way of illustration but not of restriction, power to sell or otherwise to dispose of the shares, or any of them, to exercise or sell any option, conversion or similar right with respect to the shares, and to vote on the shares in person or by the granting of a proxy;
(8) to agree and contract, in any manner, and with any person and on any terms, which the attorney-in-fact may select, for the accomplishment of any of the purposes enumerated in this subdivision, and to perform, rescind, reform, release, or modify such an agreement or contract or any other similar agreement or contract made by or on behalf of the principal;
(9) to execute, acknowledge, seal, and deliver any deed, revocation, mortgage, lease, notice, check, or other instrument which the attorney-in-fact deems useful for the accomplishment of any of the purposes enumerated in this subdivision;
(10) to prosecute, defend, submit to arbitration, settle, and propose or accept a compromise with respect to, any claim existing in favor of, or against, the principal based on or involving any real estate transaction or to intervene in any action or proceeding relating to the claim;
(11) to hire, discharge, and compensate any attorney, accountant, expert witness, or other assistant or assistants when the attorney-in-fact deems that action to be desirable for the proper execution of any of the powers described in this subdivision, and for the keeping of needed records; and
(12) in general, and in addition to all the specific acts in this subdivision, to do any other act with respect to any estate or interest in real property.
All powers described in this subdivision are exercisable equally with respect to any estate or interest in real property owned by the principal at the giving of the power of attorney or acquired after that time, and whether located in the state of Minnesota or elsewhere except when a legal description of certain real property is included in the statutory short form power of attorney, in which case the powers described in this subdivision are exercisable only with respect to the estate or interest owned by the principal in the property described in the form.
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Subd. 2. Tangible personal property transactions.
In a statutory short form power of attorney, the language conferring general authority with respect to tangible personal property transactions, means that the principal authorizes the attorney-in-fact:
(1) to accept as a gift, or as security for a loan, reject, demand, buy, receive, or otherwise to acquire either ownership or possession of any tangible personal property or any interest in tangible personal property;
(2) to sell, exchange, convey either with or without covenants, release, surrender, mortgage, encumber, pledge, hypothecate, pawn, grant options concerning, lease or sublet to others, or otherwise to dispose of any tangible personal property or any interest in any tangible personal property;
(3) to release in whole or in part, assign the whole or a part of, satisfy in whole or in part, and enforce by action, proceeding or otherwise, any mortgage, encumbrance, lien, or other claim, which exists, or is claimed to exist, in favor of the principal, with respect to any tangible personal property or any interest in tangible personal property;
(4) to do any act of management or of conservation, with respect to any tangible personal property or to any interest in any tangible personal property owned, or claimed to be owned, by the principal, including by way of illustration, but not of restriction, power to insure against any casualty, liability, or loss, to obtain or regain possession, or protect the tangible personal property or interest in any tangible personal property, by action, proceeding, or otherwise, to pay, compromise, or contest taxes or assessments, to apply for and receive refunds in connection with taxes or assessments, move from place to place, store for hire or on a gratuitous bailment, use, alter, and make repairs or alterations of any tangible personal property, or interest in any tangible personal property;
(5) to demand, receive, or obtain by action, proceeding, or otherwise any money or other thing of value to which the principal is, or may become, or may claim to be entitled as the proceeds of any tangible personal property or of any interest in any tangible personal property, or of one or more of the transactions enumerated in this subdivision, to conserve, invest, disburse or utilize anything so received for purposes enumerated in this subdivision, and to reimburse the attorney-in-fact for any expenditures properly made by the attorney-in-fact in the execution of the powers conferred on the attorney-in-fact by the statutory short form power of attorney;
(6) to agree and contract in any manner and with any person and on any terms which the attorney-in-fact may select, for the accomplishment of any of the purposes enumerated in this subdivision, and to perform, rescind, reform, release, or modify any agreement or contract or any other similar agreement or contract made by or on behalf of the principal;
(7) to execute, acknowledge, seal, and deliver any conveyance, mortgage, lease, notice, check, or other instrument which the attorney-in-fact deems useful for the accomplishment of any of the purposes enumerated in this subdivision;
(8) to prosecute, defend, submit to arbitration, settle, and propose or accept a compromise with respect to any claim existing in favor of or against the principal based on or involving any tangible personal property transaction or to intervene in any action or proceeding relating to such a claim;
(9) to hire, discharge, and compensate any attorney, accountant, expert witness, or other assistant when the attorney-in-fact deems that action to be desirable for the proper execution by the attorney-in-fact of any of the powers described in this subdivision, and for the keeping of needed records; and
(10) in general, and in addition to all the specific acts listed in this subdivision, to do any other acts with respect to any tangible personal property or interest in any tangible personal property.
All powers described in this subdivision are exercisable equally with respect to any tangible personal property or interest in any tangible personal property owned by the principal at the giving of the power of attorney or acquired after that time, and whether located in the state of Minnesota or elsewhere.
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Subd. 3. Bond, share, and commodity transactions.
In a statutory short form power of attorney, the language conferring general authority with respect to bond, share, and commodity transactions means that the principal authorizes the attorney-in-fact:
(1) to accept as a gift or as security for a loan, reject, demand, buy, receive, or otherwise to acquire either ownership or possession of any bond, share, instrument of similar character, commodity interest, or any instrument with respect to the bond, share, or interest, together with the interest, dividends, proceeds, or other distributions connected with any of those instruments;
(2) to sell or sell short and to exchange, transfer either with or without a guaranty, release, surrender, hypothecate, pledge, grant options concerning, loan, trade in, or otherwise to dispose of any bond, share, instrument of similar character, commodity interest, or any instrument with respect to the bond, share, or interest;
(3) to release in whole or in part, assign the whole or a part of, satisfy in whole or in part, and enforce by action, proceeding or otherwise, any pledge, encumbrance, lien, or other claim as to any bond, share, instrument of similar character, commodity interest or any interest with respect to the bond, share, or interest, when the pledge, encumbrance, lien, or other claim is owned, or claimed to be owned, by the principal;
(4) to do any act of management or of conservation with respect to any bond, share, instrument of similar character, commodity interest or any instrument with respect thereto, owned or claimed to be owned by the principal or in which the principal has or claims to have an interest, including by way of illustration but not of restriction, power to insure against any casualty, liability, or loss, to obtain or regain possession or protect the principal's interest therein by action, proceeding or otherwise, to pay, compromise or contest taxes or assessments, to apply for and receive refunds in connection with taxes or assessments, to consent to and participate in any reorganization, recapitalization, liquidation, merger, consolidation, sale or lease, or other change in or revival of a corporation or other association, or in the financial structure of any corporation or other association, or in the priorities, voting rights, or other special rights with respect to the corporation or association, to become a depositor with any protective, reorganization, or similar committee of the bond, share, other instrument of similar character, commodity interest, or any instrument with respect to the bond, share, or interest, belonging to the principal, to make any payments reasonably incident to the foregoing, to exercise or sell any option, conversion, or similar right, to vote in person or by the granting of a proxy with or without the power of substitution, either discretionary, general or otherwise, for the accomplishment of any of the purposes enumerated in this subdivision;
(5) to carry in the name of a nominee selected by the attorney-in-fact any evidence of the ownership of any bond, share, other instrument of similar character, commodity interest, or instrument with respect to the bond, share, or interest, belonging to the principal;
(6) to employ, in any way believed to be desirable by the attorney-in-fact, any bond, share, other instrument of similar character, commodity interest, or any instrument with respect to the bond, share, or interest, in which the principal has or claims to have any interest, for the protection or continued operation of any speculative or margin transaction personally begun or personally guaranteed, in whole or in part, by the principal;
(7) to demand, receive, or obtain by action, proceeding or otherwise, any money or other thing of value to which the principal is, or may become, or may claim to be entitled as the proceeds of any interest in a bond, share, other instrument of similar character, commodity interest, or any instrument with respect to the bond, share, or interest, or of one or more of the transactions enumerated in this subdivision, to conserve, invest, disburse, or utilize anything so received for purposes enumerated in this subdivision, and to reimburse the attorney-in-fact for any expenditures properly made by the attorney-in-fact in the execution of the powers conferred on the attorney-in-fact by the statutory short form power of attorney;
(8) to agree and contract, in any manner, with any broker or other person, and on any terms which the attorney-in-fact selects, for the accomplishment of any of the purposes enumerated in this subdivision, and to perform, rescind, reform, release, or modify the agreement or contract or any other similar agreement made by or on behalf of the principal;
(9) to execute, acknowledge, seal, and deliver any consent, agreement, authorization, assignment, revocation, notice, waiver of notice, check, or other instrument which the attorney-in-fact deems useful for the accomplishment of any of the purposes enumerated in this subdivision;
(10) to execute, acknowledge, and file any report or certificate required by law or governmental regulation;
(11) to prosecute, defend, submit to arbitration, settle, and propose or accept a compromise with respect to, any claim existing in favor of or against the principal based on or involving any bond, share, or commodity transaction or to intervene in any related action or proceeding;
(12) to hire, discharge, and compensate any attorney, accountant, expert witness or other assistant or assistants when the attorney-in-fact deems that action to be desirable for the proper execution of any of the powers described in this subdivision, and for the keeping of needed records; and
(13) in general, and in addition to all the specific acts listed in this subdivision, to do any other acts with respect to any interest in any bond, share, other instrument of similar character, commodity, or instrument with respect to a commodity.
All powers described in this subdivision are exercisable equally with respect to any interest in any bond, share or other instrument of similar character, commodity, or instrument with respect to a commodity owned by the principal at the giving of the power of attorney or acquired after that time, whether located in the state of Minnesota or elsewhere.
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Subd. 4. Banking transactions.
In a statutory short form power of attorney, the language conferring general authority with respect to banking transactions, means that the principal authorizes the attorney-in-fact:
(1) to continue, modify, and terminate any deposit account or other banking arrangement made by or on behalf of the principal prior to the execution of the power of attorney;
(2) to open in the name of the principal alone, or in a way that clearly evidences the principal and attorney-in-fact relationship, a deposit account of any type with any bank, trust company, savings association, credit union, thrift company, brokerage firm, or other institution which serves as a depository for funds selected by the attorney-in-fact, to hire safe deposit box or vault space and to make other contracts for the procuring of other services made available by the banking institution as the attorney-in-fact deems desirable;
(3) to make, sign, and deliver checks or drafts for any purpose, to withdraw by check, order, or otherwise any funds or property of the principal deposited with or left in the custody of any banking institution, wherever located, either before or after the execution of the power of attorney;
(4) to prepare any necessary financial statements of the assets and liabilities or income and expenses of the principal for submission to any banking institution;
(5) to receive statements, vouchers, notices, or other documents from any banking institution and to act with respect to them;
(6) to enter at any time any safe deposit box or vault which the principal could enter if personally present;
(7) to borrow money at any interest rate the attorney-in-fact selects, to pledge as security any assets of the principal the attorney-in-fact deems desirable or necessary for borrowing, to pay, renew, or extend the time of payment of any debt of the principal;
(8) to make, assign, draw, endorse, discount, guarantee, and negotiate, all promissory notes, bills of exchange, checks, drafts, or other negotiable or nonnegotiable paper of the principal, or payable to the principal or the principal's order, to receive the cash or other proceeds of any of those transactions, to accept any bill of exchange or draft drawn by any person upon the principal, and to pay it when due;
(9) to receive for the principal and to deal in and to deal with any sight draft, warehouse receipt, or other negotiable or nonnegotiable instrument in which the principal has or claims to have an interest;
(10) to apply for and to receive letters of credit from any banking institution selected by the attorney-in-fact, giving indemnity or other agreement in connection with the letters of credit which the attorney-in-fact deems desirable or necessary;
(11) to consent to an extension in the time of payment with respect to any commercial paper or any banking transaction in which the principal has an interest or by which the principal is, or might be, affected in any way;
(12) to demand, receive, obtain by action, proceeding, or otherwise any money or other thing of value to which the principal is, or may become, or may claim to be entitled as the proceeds of any banking transaction, and to reimburse the attorney-in-fact for any expenditures properly made in the execution of the powers conferred upon the attorney-in-fact by the statutory short form power of attorney;
(13) to execute, acknowledge, and deliver any instrument of any kind, in the name of the principal or otherwise, which the attorney-in-fact deems useful for the accomplishment of any of the purposes enumerated in this subdivision;
(14) to prosecute, defend, submit to arbitration, settle, and propose or accept a compromise with respect to any claim existing in favor of or against the principal based on or involving any banking transaction or to intervene in any related action or proceeding;
(15) to hire, discharge, and compensate any attorney, accountant, expert witness, or other assistant when the attorney-in-fact deems that action to be desirable for the proper execution of any of the powers described in this subdivision, and for the keeping of needed records; and
(16) in general, and in addition to all the specific acts listed in this subdivision, to do any other acts in connection with any banking transaction which does or might in any way affect the financial or other interests of the principal.
All powers described in this subdivision are exercisable equally with respect to any banking transaction engaged in by the principal at the giving of the power of attorney or engaged in after that time, and whether conducted in the state of Minnesota or elsewhere.
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Subd. 5. Business operating transactions.
In a statutory short form power of attorney, the language conferring general authority with respect to business operating transactions, means that the principal authorizes the attorney-in-fact:
(1) to discharge and perform any duty or liability and also to exercise any right, power, privilege, or option which the principal has, or claims to have, under any partnership agreement whether the principal is a general or limited partner, to enforce the terms of a partnership agreement for the protection of the principal, by action, proceeding, or otherwise, as the attorney-in-fact deems desirable or necessary, and to defend, submit to arbitration, settle, or compromise any action or other legal proceeding to which the principal is a party because of membership in the partnership;
(2) to exercise in person or by proxy or to enforce by action, proceeding, or otherwise, any right, power, privilege, or option which the principal has as the holder of any bond, share, or other instrument of similar character and to defend, submit to arbitration, settle or compromise any action or other legal proceeding to which the principal is a party because of a bond, share, or other instrument of similar character;
(3) with respect to any business enterprise which is owned solely by the principal:
(a) to continue, modify, renegotiate, extend, and terminate any contractual arrangements made with any person or entity, firm, association, or corporation by or on behalf of the principal with respect to the business enterprise prior to the granting of the power of attorney;
(b) to determine the policy of the business enterprise as to the location of the site or sites to be used for its operation, the nature and extent of the business to be undertaken by it, the methods of manufacturing, selling, merchandising, financing, accounting, and advertising to be employed in its operation, the amount and types of insurance to be carried, the mode of securing, compensating, and dealing with accountants, attorneys, servants, and other agents and employees required for its operation, and to agree and to contract in any manner, with any person, and on any terms which the attorney-in-fact deems desirable or necessary for effectuating any or all of the decisions of the attorney-in-fact as to policy, and to perform, rescind, reform, release, or modify the agreement or contract or any other similar agreement or contract made by or on behalf of the principal;
(c) to change the name or form of organization under which the business enterprise is operated and to enter into a partnership agreement with other persons or to organize a corporation to take over the operation of the business or any part of the business, as the attorney-in-fact deems desirable or necessary;
(d) to demand and receive all money which is or may become due to the principal or which may be claimed by or for the principal in the operation of the business enterprise, and to control and disburse the funds in the operation of the enterprise in any way which the attorney-in-fact deems desirable or necessary, and to engage in any banking transactions which the attorney-in-fact deems desirable or necessary for effectuating the execution of any of the powers of the attorney-in-fact described in clauses (a) to (d);
(4) to prepare, sign, file, and deliver all reports, compilations of information, returns, or other papers with respect to any business operating transaction of the principal, which are required by any governmental agency, department, or instrumentality or which the attorney-in-fact deems desirable or necessary for any purpose, and to make any related payments;
(5) to pay, compromise, or contest taxes or assessments and to do any act or acts which the attorney-in-fact deems desirable or necessary to protect the principal from illegal or unnecessary taxation, fines, penalties, or assessments in connection with the principal's business operations, including power to attempt to recover, in any manner permitted by law, sums paid before or after the execution of the power of attorney as taxes, fines, penalties, or assessments;
(6) to demand, receive, obtain by action, proceeding, or otherwise, any money or other thing of value to which the principal is, may become, or may claim to be entitled as the proceeds of any business operation of the principal, to conserve, to invest, to disburse, or to use anything so received for purposes enumerated in this subdivision, and to reimburse the attorney-in-fact for any expenditures properly made by the attorney-in-fact in the execution of the powers conferred upon the attorney-in-fact by the statutory short form power of attorney;
(7) to execute, acknowledge, seal, and deliver any deed, assignment, mortgage, lease, notice, consent, agreement, authorization, check, or other instrument which the attorney-in-fact deems useful for the accomplishment of any of the purposes enumerated in this subdivision;
(8) to prosecute, defend, submit to arbitration, settle, and propose or accept a compromise with respect to, any claim existing in favor of, or against, the principal based on or involving any business operating transaction or to intervene in any related action or proceeding;
(9) to hire, discharge, and compensate any attorney, accountant, expert witness, or other assistant when the attorney-in-fact deems that action to be desirable for the proper execution by the attorney-in-fact of any of the powers described in this subdivision, and for the keeping of needed records; and
(10) in general, and in addition to all the specific acts listed in this subdivision, to do any other act which the attorney-in-fact deems desirable or necessary for the furtherance or protection of the interests of the principal in any business.
All powers described in this subdivision are exercisable equally with respect to any business in which the principal is interested at the time of giving of the power of attorney or in which the principal becomes interested after that time, and whether operated in the state of Minnesota or elsewhere.
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Subd. 6. Insurance transactions.
In a statutory short form power of attorney, the language conferring general authority with respect to insurance transactions, means that the principal authorizes the attorney-in-fact:
(1) to continue, pay the premium or assessment on, modify, rescind, release, or terminate any contract of life, accident, health, or disability insurance or for the provision of health care services, or any combination of these contracts procured by or on behalf of the principal prior to the granting of the power of attorney which insures either the principal or any other person, without regard to whether the principal is or is not a beneficiary under the contract;
(2) to procure new, different, or additional contracts of life, accident, health, or disability insurance for the principal or for provision of health care services for the principal, to select the amount, the type of insurance and the mode of payment under each contract, to pay the premium or assessment on, modify, rescind, release or terminate, any contract so procured by the attorney-in-fact, and to designate the beneficiary of the contract, provided, however, that the attorney-in-fact cannot be named a beneficiary except, if permitted under subdivision 8, the attorney-in-fact can be named the beneficiary of death benefit proceeds under an insurance contract, or, if the attorney-in-fact was named as a beneficiary under the contract which was procured by the principal prior to the granting of the power of attorney, then the attorney-in-fact can continue to be named as the beneficiary under the contract or under any extension or renewal of or substitute for the contract;
(3) to apply for and receive any available loan on the security of the contract of insurance, whether for the payment of a premium or for the procuring of cash, to surrender and then to receive the cash surrender value, to exercise any election as to beneficiary or mode of payment, to change the manner of paying premiums, to change or convert the type of insurance contract, with respect to any contract of life, accident, health, disability, or liability insurance as to which the principal has, or claims to have, any one or more of the powers described in this subdivision and to change the beneficiary of the contract of insurance, provided, however, that the attorney-in-fact cannot be a new beneficiary except, if permitted under subdivision 8, the attorney-in-fact can be the beneficiary of death benefit proceeds under an insurance contract, or, if the attorney-in-fact was named as a beneficiary under the contract which was procured by the principal prior to the granting of the power of attorney, then the attorney-in-fact can continue to be named as the beneficiary under the contract or under any extension or renewal of or substitute for the contract;
(4) to demand, receive, obtain by action, proceeding, or otherwise, any money, dividend, or other thing of value to which the principal is, or may become, or may claim to be entitled as the proceeds of any contract of insurance or of one or more of the transactions enumerated in this subdivision, to conserve, invest, disburse, or utilize anything so received for purposes enumerated in this subdivision, and to reimburse the attorney-in-fact for any expenditures properly made by the attorney-in-fact in the execution of the powers conferred on the attorney-in-fact by the statutory short form power of attorney;
(5) to apply for and procure any available governmental aid in the guaranteeing or paying of premiums of any contract of insurance on the life of the principal;
(6) to sell, assign, hypothecate, borrow upon, or pledge the interest of the principal in any contract of insurance;
(7) to pay from any proceeds or otherwise, compromise, or contest, and to apply for refunds in connection with, any tax or assessment levied by a taxing authority with respect to any contract of insurance or the proceeds of the refunds or liability accruing by reason of the tax or assessment;
(8) to agree and contract in any manner, with any person, and on any terms which the attorney-in-fact selects for the accomplishment of any of the purposes enumerated in this subdivision, and to perform, rescind, reform, release, or modify the agreement or contract;
(9) to execute, acknowledge, seal, and deliver any consent, demand, request, application, agreement, indemnity, authorization, assignment, pledge, notice, check, receipt, waiver, or other instrument which the attorney-in-fact deems useful for the accomplishment of any of the purposes enumerated in this subdivision;
(10) to continue, procure, pay the premium or assessment on, modify, rescind, release, terminate, or otherwise deal with any contract of insurance, other than those enumerated in clause (1) or (2), whether fire, marine, burglary, compensation, liability, hurricane, casualty, or other type, or any combination of insurance, to do any act or acts with respect to the contract or with respect to its proceeds or enforcement which the attorney-in-fact deems desirable or necessary for the promotion or protection of the interests of the principal;
(11) to prosecute, defend, submit to arbitration, settle, and propose or accept a compromise with respect to any claim existing in favor of or against the principal based on or involving any insurance transaction or to intervene in any related action or proceeding;
(12) to hire, discharge, and compensate any attorney, accountant, expert witness, or other assistants when the attorney-in-fact deems the action to be desirable for the proper execution by the attorney-in-fact of any of the powers described in this subdivision and for the keeping of needed records; and
(13) in general, and in addition to all the specific acts listed in this subdivision, to do any other acts in connection with procuring, supervising, managing, modifying, enforcing, and terminating contracts of insurance or for the provisions of health care services in which the principal is the insured or is otherwise in any way interested.
All powers described in this subdivision are exercisable with respect to any contract of insurance or for the provision of health care service in which the principal is in any way interested, whether made in the state of Minnesota or elsewhere.
§
Subd. 7. Beneficiary transactions.
In the statutory short form power of attorney, the language conferring general authority with respect to beneficiary transactions, means that the principal authorizes the attorney-in-fact:
(1) to represent and act for the principal in all ways and in all matters affecting any trust, probate estate, guardianship, conservatorship, escrow, custodianship, qualified benefit plan, nonqualified benefit plan, individual retirement asset, or other fund out of which the principal is entitled, or claims to be entitled, as a beneficiary or participant, to some share or payment, including, but not limited to the following:
(a) to accept, reject, disclaim, receive, receipt for, sell, assign, release, pledge, exchange, or consent to a reduction in or modification of any share in or payment from the fund;
(b) to demand or obtain by action, proceeding, or otherwise any money or other thing of value to which the principal is, may become, or may claim to be entitled by reason of the fund, to initiate, to participate in, and to oppose any proceeding, judicial, or otherwise, for the ascertainment of the meaning, validity, or effect of any deed, declaration of trust, or other transaction affecting in any way the interest of the principal, to initiate, participate in, and oppose any proceeding, judicial or otherwise, for the removal, substitution, or surcharge of a fiduciary, to conserve, invest, disburse, or use anything so received for purposes listed in this subdivision, and to reimburse the attorney-in-fact for any expenditures properly made by the attorney-in-fact in the execution of the powers conferred on the attorney-in-fact by the statutory short form power of attorney;
(c) to prepare, sign, file, and deliver all reports, compilations of information, returns, or papers with respect to any interest had or claimed by or on behalf of the principal in the fund, to pay, compromise, or contest, and apply for and receive refunds in connection with, any tax or assessment, with respect to any interest had or claimed by or on behalf of the principal in the fund or with respect to any property in which an interest is had or claimed;
(d) to agree and contract in any manner, with any person, and on any terms the attorney-in-fact selects, for the accomplishment of the purposes listed in this subdivision, and to perform, rescind, reform, release, or modify the agreement or contract or any other similar agreement or contract made by or on behalf of the principal;
(e) to execute, acknowledge, verify, seal, file, and deliver any deed, assignment, mortgage, lease, consent, designation, pleading, notice, demand, election, conveyance, release, assignment, check, pledge, waiver, admission of service, notice of appearance, or other instrument which the attorney-in-fact deems useful for the accomplishment of any of the purposes enumerated in this subdivision;
(f) to submit to arbitration or settle and propose or accept a compromise with respect to any controversy or claim which affects the administration of the fund, in any one of which the principal has, or claims to have, an interest, and to do any and all acts which the attorney-in-fact deems to be desirable or necessary in effectuating the compromise;
(g) to hire, discharge, and compensate any attorney, accountant, expert witness, or other assistant, when the attorney-in-fact deems that action to be desirable for the proper execution by the attorney-in-fact of any of the powers described in this subdivision, and for the keeping of needed records;
(h) to transfer any part or all of any interest which the principal may have in any interests in real estate, stocks, bonds, bank accounts, insurance, and any other assets of any kind and nature, to the trustee of any revocable trust created by the principal as grantor.
For the purposes of clauses (a) to (h), "the fund" means any trust, probate estate, guardianship, conservatorship, escrow, custodianship, qualified benefit plan, nonqualified benefit plan, individual retirement asset, or other fund in which the principal has or claims to have an interest.
(2) in general, and in addition to all the specific acts listed in this subdivision, to do any other acts with respect to the administration of a trust, probate estate, guardianship, conservatorship, escrow, custodianship, qualified benefit plan, nonqualified benefit plan, individual retirement asset, or other fund, in which the principal has, or claims to have, an interest as a beneficiary or participant.
All powers described in this subdivision are exercisable equally with respect to the administration or disposition of any trust, probate estate, guardianship, conservatorship, escrow, custodianship, qualified benefit plan, nonqualified benefit plan, individual retirement asset, or other fund in which the principal is interested at the giving of the power of attorney or becomes interested after that time, as a beneficiary or participant, and whether located in the state of Minnesota or elsewhere.
§
Subd. 8. Gift transactions.
In the statutory short form power of attorney, the language conferring general authority with respect to gift transactions, means that the principal authorizes the attorney-in-fact:
(1) to make gifts to organizations, whether charitable or otherwise, to which the principal has made gifts, and to satisfy pledges made to organizations by the principal;
(2) to make gifts on behalf of the principal to the principal's spouse, children, and other descendants or the spouse of any child or other descendant, and, if authorized by the principal in part Third, to the attorney-in-fact, either outright or in trust, for purposes which the attorney-in-fact deems to be in the best interest of the principal, specifically including minimization of income, estate, inheritance, or gift taxes, provided that, notwithstanding that the principal in part Third may have authorized the attorney-in-fact to transfer the principal's property to the attorney-in-fact, no attorney-in-fact nor anyone the attorney-in-fact has a legal obligation to support may be the recipient of any gifts in any one calendar year which, in the aggregate, exceed the federal annual gift tax exclusion amount in the year of the gift;
(3) to prepare, execute, consent to on behalf of the principal, and file any return, report, declaration, or other document required by the laws of the United States, any state or subdivision of a state, or any foreign government, which the attorney-in-fact deems to be desirable or necessary with respect to any gift made under the authority of this subdivision;
(4) to execute, acknowledge, seal, and deliver any deed, assignment, agreement, authorization, check, or other instrument which the attorney-in-fact deems useful for the accomplishment of any of the purposes enumerated in this subdivision;
(5) to prosecute, defend, submit to arbitration, settle, and propose or accept a compromise with respect to any claim existing in favor of or against the principal based on or involving any gift transaction or to intervene in any related action or proceeding;
(6) to hire, discharge, and compensate any attorney, accountant, expert witness, or other assistant when the attorney-in-fact deems that action to be desirable for the proper execution by the attorney-in-fact of any of the powers described in this subdivision, and for the keeping of needed records; and
(7) in general, and in addition to but not in contravention of all the specific acts listed in this subdivision, to do any other acts which the attorney-in-fact deems desirable or necessary to complete any gift on behalf of the principal.
All powers described in this subdivision are exercisable equally with respect to a gift of any property in which the principal is interested at the giving of the power of attorney or becomes interested after that time, and whether located in the state of Minnesota or elsewhere.
§
Subd. 9. Fiduciary transactions.
In a statutory short form power of attorney, the language conferring general authority with respect to fiduciary transactions, means that the principal authorizes the agent:
(1) to represent and act for the principal in all ways and in all matters affecting any fund with respect to which the principal is a fiduciary;
(2) to initiate, participate in, and oppose any proceeding, judicial or otherwise, for the removal, substitution, or surcharge of a fiduciary, to conserve, to invest or to disburse anything received for the purposes of the fund for which it is received, and to reimburse the attorney-in-fact for any expenditures properly made by the attorney-in-fact in the execution of the powers conferred on the attorney-in-fact by the statutory short form power of attorney;
(3) to agree and contract, in any manner, with any person, and on any terms which the attorney-in-fact selects for the accomplishment of the purposes enumerated in this subdivision, and to perform, rescind, reform, release, or modify the agreement or contract or any other similar agreement or contract made by or on behalf of the principal;
(4) to execute, acknowledge, verify, seal, file, and deliver any consent, designation, pleading, notice, demand, election, conveyance, release, assignment, check, pledge, waiver, admission of service, notice of appearance, or other instrument which the attorney-in-fact deems useful for the accomplishment of any of the purposes enumerated in this subdivision;
(5) to hire, discharge, and compensate any attorney, accountant, expert witness, or other assistants, when the attorney-in-fact deems that action to be desirable for the proper execution by the attorney-in-fact of any of the powers described in this subdivision, and for the keeping of needed records; and
(6) in general, and in addition to all the specific acts listed in this subdivision, to do any other acts with respect to a fund of which the principal is a fiduciary.
Nothing in this subdivision authorizes delegation of any power of a fiduciary unless the power is one the fiduciary is authorized to delegate under the terms of the instrument governing the exercise of the power or under local law.
For the purposes of clauses (1) to (6), "fund" means any trust, probate estate, guardianship, conservatorship, escrow, custodianship, or any other fund in which the principal has, or claims to have, an interest as a fiduciary.
All powers described in this subdivision are exercisable equally with respect to any fund of which the principal is a fiduciary prior to the giving of the power of attorney or becomes a fiduciary after that time, and whether located in the state of Minnesota or elsewhere.
§
Subd. 10. Claims and litigation.
In a statutory short form power of attorney, the language conferring general authority with respect to claims and litigation, means that the principal authorizes the attorney-in-fact:
(1) to assert and prosecute before any court, administrative board, department, commissioner, or other tribunal, any cause of action, claim, counterclaim, offset, or defense, which the principal has, or claims to have, against any individual, partnership, association, corporation, government, or other person or instrumentality, including, by way of illustration and not of restriction, power to sue for the recovery of land or of any other thing of value, for the recovery of damages sustained by the principal in any manner, for the elimination or modification of tax liability, for an injunction, for specific performance, or for any other relief;
(2) to bring an action of interpleader or other action to determine adverse claims, to intervene or interplead in any action or proceeding, and to act in any litigation as amicus curiae;
(3) in connection with any action or proceeding or controversy at law or otherwise, to apply for and, if possible, procure a libel, an attachment, a garnishment, an order of arrest, or other preliminary, provisional, or intermediate relief and to resort to and to utilize in all ways permitted by law any available procedure for the effectuation or satisfaction of the judgment, order, or decree obtained;
(4) in connection with any action or proceeding, at law or otherwise, to perform any act which the principal might perform, including by way of illustration and not of restriction, acceptance of tender, offer of judgment, admission of any facts, submission of any controversy on an agreed statement of facts, consent to examination before trial, and generally to bind the principal in the conduct of any litigation or controversy as seems desirable to the attorney-in-fact;
(5) to submit to arbitration, settle, and propose or accept a compromise with respect to any claim existing in favor of or against the principal or any litigation to which the principal is, may become, or may be designated a party;
(6) to waive the issuance and service of a summons, citation, or other process upon the principal, accept service of process, appear for the principal, designate persons upon whom process directed to the principal may be served, execute and file or deliver stipulations on the principal's behalf, verify pleadings, appeal to appellate tribunals, procure and give surety and indemnity bonds at the times and to the extent the attorney-in-fact deems desirable or necessary, contract and pay for the preparation and printing of records and briefs, receive and execute and file or deliver any consent, waiver, release, confession of judgment, satisfaction of judgment, notice, agreement, or other instrument which the attorney-in-fact deems desirable or necessary in connection with the prosecution, settlement, or defense of any claim by or against the principal or of any litigation to which the principal is or may become or be designated a party;
(7) to appear for, represent, and act for the principal with respect to bankruptcy or insolvency proceedings, whether voluntary or involuntary, whether of the principal or of some other person, with respect to any reorganization proceeding, or with respect to any receivership or application for the appointment of a receiver or trustee which, in any way, affects any interest of the principal in any real property, bond, share, commodity interest, tangible personal property, or other thing of value;
(8) to hire, discharge, and compensate any attorney, accountant, expert witness or other assistant when the attorney-in-fact deems that action to be desirable for the proper execution of any of the powers described in this subdivision;
(9) to pay, from funds in the control of the attorney-in-fact or for the account of the principal, any judgment against the principal or any settlement which may be made in connection with any transaction enumerated in this subdivision, and to receive and conserve any money or other things of value paid in settlement of or as proceeds of one or more of the transactions enumerated in this subdivision, and to receive, endorse, and deposit checks; and
(10) in general, and in addition to all the specific acts listed in this subdivision, to do any other acts in connection with any claim by or against the principal or with litigation to which the principal is or may become or be designated a party.
All powers described in this subdivision are exercisable equally with respect to any claim or litigation existing at the giving of the p
Minn. Stat. § 525.091
525.091 DESTRUCTION AND REPRODUCTION OF PROBATE RECORDS.
§
Subdivision 1. Original documents.
(a) The court administrator of any county upon order of the judge exercising probate jurisdiction may destroy all the original documents in any probate proceeding of record in the office provided a Minnesota state archives commission approved photographic, photostatic, microphotographic, microfilmed, digitally imaged, electronic, or similarly reproduced copy of the original are on file in the office. After the file in the proceeding has been closed, only the following enumerated documents need to be retained:
(1) in estates, the jurisdictional petition and proof of publication of the notice of hearing thereof; will and certificate of probate; letters; inventory and appraisal; orders directing and confirming sale, mortgage, lease, or for conveyance of real estate; order setting apart statutory selection; receipts for federal estate taxes and state estate taxes; orders of distribution and general protection; decrees of distribution; federal estate tax closing letter, consent to discharge by commissioner of revenue and order discharging representative; and any amendment of the listed documents. When an estate is deemed closed as provided in paragraph (b), the enumerated documents shall include all claims of creditors;
(2) in guardianships or conservatorships, the jurisdictional petition and order for hearing thereof with proof of service; letters; orders directing and confirming sale, mortgage, lease or for conveyance of real estate; order for restoration to capacity and order discharging guardian; and any amendment of the listed documents; and
(3) in mental, inebriety, and indigent matters, the jurisdictional petition; report of examination; warrant of commitment; notice of discharge from institution, or notice of death and order for restoration to capacity; and any amendment of the listed documents.
(b) Except for the enumerated documents described in this subdivision, the court administrator may destroy all other documents in any probate proceeding without retaining any reproduction of the document. For the purpose of this subdivision, a proceeding is deemed closed if no document has been filed in the proceeding for a period of 15 years, except in the cases of wills filed for safekeeping and those containing wills of decedents not adjudicated upon.
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Subd. 2.
MS 2006 [Repealed, 2008 c 277 art 1 s 98 ]
§
Subd. 3. Effect of copies.
A photographic, photostatic, microphotographic, microfilmed, digitally imaged, electronic, or similarly reproduced record is of the same force and effect as the original and may be used as the original document or book of record in all proceedings.
§
Subd. 4. Exception.
This section does not apply to the court of any county until the county board of the county adopts a resolution authorizing the destruction of probate records pursuant to the provisions of this section. When the county board has complied with this subdivision, section
Minn. Stat. § 525.095
525.095 COURT ADMINISTRATOR MAY ISSUE ORDERS UNDER DIRECTION OF THE COURT.
The judge may authorize the court administrator or any deputy court administrator to issue orders for hearing petitions for general administration, for the probate of any will, for determination of descent, for sale, lease, mortgage, or conveyance of real estate, for the settlement and allowance of any account, for partial or final distribution, for commitment, orders limiting the time to file claims and fixing the time and place for the hearing thereon, and to issue notice of the entry of any order. The issuance of any such order or notice by the court administrator or deputy court administrator shall be prima facie evidence of authority to issue it.
History:
( 8992-15 ) 1935 c 72 s 15 ; 1937 c 435 s 5 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1Sp1986 c 3 art 1 s 82
Minn. Stat. § 525.313
525.313 .
(b) For the purposes of this section, the person's estate must consist of:
(1) the person's probate estate;
(2) all of the person's interests or proceeds of those interests in real property the person owned as a life tenant or as a joint tenant with a right of survivorship at the time of the person's death;
(3) all of the person's interests or proceeds of those interests in securities the person owned in beneficiary form as provided under sections 524.6-301 to 524.6-311 at the time of the person's death, to the extent the interests or proceeds of those interests become part of the probate estate under section 524.6-307 ;
(4) all of the person's interests in joint accounts, multiple-party accounts, and pay-on-death accounts, brokerage accounts, investment accounts, or the proceeds of those accounts, as provided under sections 524.6-201 to 524.6-214 at the time of the person's death to the extent the interests become part of the probate estate under section 524.6-207 ; and
(5) assets conveyed to a survivor, heir, or assign of the person through survivorship, living trust, transfer-on-death of title or deed, or other arrangements.
(c) For the purpose of this section and recovery in a surviving spouse's estate for medical assistance paid for a predeceased spouse, the estate must consist of all of the legal title and interests the deceased individual's predeceased spouse had in jointly owned or marital property at the time of the spouse's death, as defined in subdivision 2b, and the proceeds of those interests, that passed to the deceased individual or another individual, a survivor, an heir, or an assign of the predeceased spouse through a joint tenancy, tenancy in common, survivorship, life estate, living trust, or other arrangement. A deceased recipient who, at death, owned the property jointly with the surviving spouse shall have an interest in the entire property.
(d) For the purpose of recovery in a single person's estate or the estate of a survivor of a married couple, "other arrangement" includes any other means by which title to all or any part of the jointly owned or marital property or interest passed from the predeceased spouse to another including, but not limited to, transfers between spouses which are permitted, prohibited, or penalized for purposes of medical assistance.
(e) A claim shall be filed if medical assistance was rendered for either or both persons under one of the following circumstances:
(1) the person resided in a medical institution for six months or longer, received services under this chapter, and, at the time of institutionalization or application for medical assistance, whichever is later, the person could not have reasonably been expected to be discharged and returned home, as certified in writing by the person's treating physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant. For purposes of this section only, a "medical institution" means a skilled nursing facility, intermediate care facility, intermediate care facility for persons with developmental disabilities, nursing facility, or inpatient hospital;
(2) the person received general assistance medical care services under the program formerly codified under chapter 256D; or
(3) the person was 55 years of age or older and received medical assistance services that consisted of nursing facility services, home and community-based services, or related hospital and prescription drug benefits.
(f) The claim shall be considered an expense of the last illness of the decedent for the purpose of section 524.3-805 . Notwithstanding any law or rule to the contrary, a state or county agency with a claim under this section must be a creditor under section 524.6-307 . Any statute of limitations that purports to limit any county agency or the state agency, or both, to recover for medical assistance granted hereunder shall not apply to any claim made hereunder for reimbursement for any medical assistance granted hereunder. Notice of the claim shall be given to all heirs and devisees of the decedent, and to other persons with an ownership interest in the real property owned by the decedent at the time of the decedent's death, whose identity can be ascertained with reasonable diligence. The notice must include procedures and instructions for making an application for a hardship waiver under subdivision 5; time frames for submitting an application and determination; and information regarding appeal rights and procedures. Counties are entitled to one-half of the nonfederal share of medical assistance collections from estates that are directly attributable to county effort. Counties are entitled to ten percent of the collections for alternative care directly attributable to county effort.
§
Subd. 1b.
[Repealed, 2001 c 203 s 19 ]
§
Subd. 1c. Notice of potential claim.
(a) A state agency with a claim or potential claim under this section may file a notice of potential claim under this subdivision anytime before or within one year after a medical assistance recipient dies. The claimant shall be the state agency. A notice filed prior to the recipient's death shall not take effect and shall not be effective as notice until the recipient dies. A notice filed after a recipient dies shall be effective from the time of filing.
(b) The notice of claim shall be filed or recorded in the real estate records in the office of the county recorder or registrar of titles for each county in which any part of the property is located. The recorder shall accept the notice for recording or filing. The registrar of titles shall accept the notice for filing if the recipient has a recorded interest in the property. The registrar of titles shall not carry forward to a new certificate of title any notice filed more than one year from the date of the recipient's death.
(c) The notice must be dated, state the name of the claimant, the medical assistance recipient's name and last four digits of the Social Security number if filed before their death and their date of death if filed after they die, the name and date of death of any predeceased spouse of the medical assistance recipient for whom a claim may exist, a statement that the claimant may have a claim arising under this section, generally identify the recipient's interest in the property, contain a legal description for the property and whether it is abstract or registered property, a statement of when the notice becomes effective and the effect of the notice, be signed by an authorized representative of the state agency, and may include such other contents as the state agency may deem appropriate.
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Subd. 1d. Effect of notice.
From the time it takes effect, the notice shall be notice to remainderpersons, joint tenants, or to anyone else owning or acquiring an interest in or encumbrance against the property described in the notice that the medical assistance recipient's life estate, joint tenancy, or other interests in the real estate described in the notice:
(1) shall, in the case of life estate and joint tenancy interests, continue to exist for purposes of this section, and be subject to liens and claims as provided in this section;
(2) shall be subject to a lien in favor of the claimant effective upon the death of the recipient and dealt with as provided in this section;
(3) may be included in the recipient's estate, as defined in this section; and
(4) may be subject to administration and all other provisions of chapter 524 and may be sold, assigned, transferred, or encumbered free and clear of their interest or encumbrance to satisfy claims under this section.
§
Subd. 1e. Full or partial release of notice.
(a) The claimant may fully or partially release the notice and the lien arising out of the notice of record in the real estate records where the notice is filed or recorded at any time. The claimant may give a full or partial release to extinguish any life estates or joint tenancy interests which are or may be continued under this section or whose existence or nonexistence may create a cloud on the title to real property at any time whether or not a notice has been filed. The recorder or registrar of titles shall accept the release for recording or filing. If the release is a partial release, it must include a legal description of the property being released.
(b) At any time, the claimant may, at the claimant's discretion, wholly or partially release, subordinate, modify, or amend the recorded notice and the lien arising out of the notice.
§
Subd. 1f. Agency lien.
(a) The notice shall constitute a lien in favor of the Department of Human Services against the recipient's interests in the real estate it describes for a period of 20 years from the date of filing or the date of the recipient's death, whichever is later. Notwithstanding any law or rule to the contrary, a recipient's life estate and joint tenancy interests shall not end upon the recipient's death but shall continue according to subdivisions 1h, 1i, and 1j. The amount of the lien shall be equal to the total amount of the claims that could be presented in the recipient's estate under this section.
(b) If no estate has been opened for the deceased recipient, any holder of an interest in the property may apply to the lienholder for a statement of the amount of the lien or for a full or partial release of the lien. The application shall include the applicant's name, current mailing address, current home and work telephone numbers, and a description of their interest in the property, a legal description of the recipient's interest in the property, and the deceased recipient's name, date of birth, and last four digits of the Social Security number. The lienholder shall send the applicant by certified mail, return receipt requested, a written statement showing the amount of the lien, whether the lienholder is willing to release the lien and under what conditions, and inform them of the right to a hearing under section
Minn. Stat. § 525.38
525.38 REALTY ACQUIRED.
When a foreclosure sale or a sale on execution for the recovery of a debt due the estate is had or redemption is made the personal representative shall receive the money paid and execute the necessary satisfaction or release. If bid in by the personal representative or if bid in by the decedent or ward and the redemption period expired during the administration of the estate or guardianship or conservatorship without redemption, the real estate shall be treated as personal property. If not so sold, mortgaged, or leased, the real estate or, if so sold, mortgaged, or leased, the proceeds shall be assigned or distributed to the same persons and in the same proportions as if it had been part of the personal estate of the decedent, unless otherwise provided in the will.
History:
1975 c 347 s 102
Minn. Stat. § 525.483
525.483 RECORDING DECREE.
A certified copy of any decree of distribution may be filed for record in the office of the county recorder of any county. It shall not be necessary to pay real estate taxes in order to record such certified copy, but the same shall be first presented to the county auditor for entry upon the transfer record and shall have noted thereon "Transfer entered" over that person's official signature. Upon request, the court shall furnish a certified copy of any decree of distribution, omitting the description of any property except that specified in the request, but indicating omissions by the words "other property omitted." Such copy and its record shall have the same force and effect as to property therein described as though the entire decree had been so certified and recorded.
History:
( 8992-117 ) 1935 c 72 s 117 ; 1976 c 181 s 2 ; 1986 c 444
Minn. Stat. § 525.71
525.71 APPEALABLE ORDERS.
(a) Appeals to the court of appeals may be taken from any of the following orders, judgments, and decrees issued by a judge of the court under this chapter or chapter 524:
(1) an order admitting, or refusing to admit, a will to probate;
(2) an order appointing, or refusing to appoint, or removing, or refusing to remove, a representative other than a special administrator, temporary or emergency guardian, agent, or conservator;
(3) an order authorizing, or refusing to authorize, the sale, mortgage, or lease of real estate, or confirming, or refusing to confirm, the sale or lease of real estate;
(4) an order directing, or refusing to direct, a conveyance or lease of real estate under contract;
(5) an order permitting, or refusing to permit, the filing of a claim, or allowing or disallowing a claim or counterclaim, in whole or in part, when the amount in controversy exceeds $100;
(6) an order setting apart, or refusing to set apart, property, or making, or refusing to make, an allowance for the spouse or children;
(7) an order determining, or refusing to determine, venue; an order transferring, or refusing to transfer, venue;
(8) an order directing, or refusing to direct, the payment of a bequest or distributive share when the amount in controversy exceeds $100;
(9) an order allowing, or refusing to allow, an account of a representative or any part of it when the amount in controversy exceeds $100;
(10) an order adjudging a person in contempt;
(11) an order vacating, or refusing to vacate, a previous appealable order, judgment, or decree alleged to have been procured by fraud or misrepresentation, or through surprise or excusable inadvertence or neglect;
(12) a judgment or decree of partial or final distribution or an order determining or confirming distribution or any order of general protection;
(13) an order entered pursuant to section
Minn. Stat. § 525.881
525.881 FEDERAL PATENTS.
When any person holding a homestead or tree claim entry under the laws of the United States has died before making final proof and final proof has afterwards been made by the heirs, devisees, or representatives, and a patent has been granted to the "heirs" or "devisees," the district court of the county in which the real estate so patented is situated, may determine who are such heirs or devisees, and may determine their respective shares in such homestead or tree claim. The provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure relating to the determination of adverse claims to real estate in so far as the same may be applicable, shall pertain to and govern the procedure in the action provided for in this section.
History:
( 8992-195 ) 1921 c 36 s 2 ; 1935 c 72 s 195 ; 1986 c 444
Minn. Stat. § 527.21
527.21 DEFINITIONS.
For purposes of this chapter:
(1) "Adult" means an individual who has attained the age of 21 years, notwithstanding any law to the contrary.
(2) "Benefit plan" means an employer's plan for the benefit of an employee or partner.
(3) "Broker" means a person lawfully engaged in the business of effecting transactions in securities or commodities for the person's own account or for the account of others.
(4) "Conservator" means a person appointed or qualified by a court to act as general, limited, or temporary guardian of a minor's property or a person legally authorized to perform substantially the same functions.
(5) "Court" means a court that exercises probate jurisdiction.
(6) "Custodial property" means (i) any interest in property transferred to a custodian under this chapter and (ii) the income from and proceeds of that interest in property.
(7) "Custodian" means a person so designated under section
Minn. Stat. § 527.405
527.405 CONVEYANCE BY CUSTODIAN.
§
Subdivision 1. Affidavit of custodian.
In support of a real property transaction where an interest in real property is held in a custodianship, a custodian shall furnish to the grantee or other party to the transaction an affidavit attesting that:
(1) the custodian has not resigned or been removed prior to executing the conveyance; and
(2) the custodianship has not terminated, or if the custodianship has terminated that the conveyance is to the minor or to the personal representative of the minor's estate.
§
Subd. 2. Form of affidavit.
An affidavit under this section must be substantially in the following form:
AFFIDAVIT OF CUSTODIAN
State of Minnesota
County of.............................
........., being first duly sworn on oath says, that:
-
Affiant was appointed or designated as custodian in the document dated ....... and filed for record ....... as Document No. ...., (or in book .. of page ..) in the office of the (County Recorder) (Registrar of Titles) of ..... County, Minnesota (being the document which originally conveyed the real estate to the custodian).
-
Affiant is the grantor custodian for the minor in the document dated ..., conveying to .......... an interest in the real property in ..... County, Minnesota, legally described as:
(insert legal description here)
-
The name of the minor is ..........................
-
The custodianship (check one) ....... has not terminated prior to the date of the document described in paragraph 2 above (or) ....... has terminated and the conveyance is to the minor or to the personal representative of the minor's estate.
-
Affiant's address is: ........................
-
Affiant has not resigned and does not have actual knowledge of affiant's removal as custodian.
Affiant knows the matters herein stated are true and makes this affidavit for the purpose of inducing the passing of title to the real property.
........................................
Affiant
Subscribed and sworn to before me this day of ...., 20..
........................................
Notary Public
This instrument was drafted by ..........................
§
Subd. 3. Effect of affidavit.
An affidavit by a custodian under this section is conclusive proof that the custodian has not resigned or been removed as custodian prior to executing the conveyance and that the custodianship has not terminated, or that if the custodianship has terminated, the conveyance is to the minor or to the personal representative of the minor's estate. However, the affidavit is not conclusive as to a party dealing directly with the custodian who has actual knowledge that the custodian has resigned or been removed or that the custodianship has terminated and the conveyance is not to the minor or the personal representative of the minor's estate.
History:
2002 c 403 s 5
Minn. Stat. § 529.02
529.02 are satisfied by:
(1) the execution and either delivery to the custodial trustee or recording of an instrument in substantially the following form:
TRANSFER UNDER THE MINNESOTA UNIFORM CUSTODIAL TRUST ACT
I, ........... (name of transferor or name and representative capacity if a fiduciary), transfer to .......... (name of trustee other than transferor), as custodial trustee for ............. (name of beneficiary) as beneficiary and .............. as distributee on termination of the trust in absence of direction by the beneficiary under the Minnesota Uniform Custodial Trust Act, the following: (insert a description of the custodial trust property legally sufficient to identify and transfer each item of property).
Dated: ....................
................................
(Signature); or
(2) the execution and the recording or giving notice of its execution to the beneficiary of an instrument in substantially the following form:
DECLARATION OF TRUST UNDER THE MINNESOTA
UNIFORM CUSTODIAL TRUST ACT
I, ............. (name of owner of property), declare that henceforth I hold as custodial trustee for ............ (name of beneficiary other than transferor) as beneficiary and ............ as distributee on termination of the trust in absence of direction by the beneficiary under the Minnesota Uniform Custodial Trust Act, the following: (insert a description of the custodial trust property legally sufficient to identify and transfer each item of property).
Dated: ..................
..............................
(Signature)
(b) Customary methods of transferring or evidencing ownership of property may be used to create a custodial trust, including any of the following:
(1) registration of a security in the name of a trust company, an adult other than the transferor, or the transferor if the beneficiary is other than the transferor, designated in substance "as custodial trustee for ........... (name of beneficiary) under the Minnesota Uniform Custodial Trust Act";
(2) delivery of a certificated security, or a document necessary for the transfer of an uncertificated security, together with any necessary endorsement, to an adult other than the transferor or to a trust company as custodial trustee, accompanied by an instrument in substantially the form prescribed in subsection (a)(1);
(3) payment of money or transfer of a security held in the name of a broker or a financial institution or its nominee to a broker or financial institution for credit to an account in the name of a trust company, an adult other than the transferor, or the transferor if the beneficiary is other than the transferor, designated in substance; "as custodial trustee for ............. (name of beneficiary) under the Minnesota Uniform Custodial Trust Act";
(4) registration of ownership of a life or endowment insurance policy or annuity contract with the issuer in the name of a trust company, an adult other than the transferor, or the transferor if the beneficiary is other than the transferor, designated in substance: "as custodial trustee for ............ (name of beneficiary) under the Minnesota Uniform Custodial Trust Act";
(5) delivery of a written assignment to an adult other than the transferor or to a trust company whose name in the assignment is designated in substance by the words: "as custodial trustee for ........... (name of beneficiary) under the Minnesota Uniform Custodial Trust Act";
(6) irrevocable exercise of a power of appointment, pursuant to its terms, in favor of a trust company, an adult other than the donee of the power, or the donee who holds the power if the beneficiary is other than the donee, whose name in the appointment is designated in substance: "as custodial trustee for ............. (name of beneficiary) under the Minnesota Uniform Custodial Trust Act";
(7) delivery of a written notification or assignment of a right to future payment under a contract to an obligor which transfers the right under the contract to a trust company, an adult other than the transferor, or the transferor if the beneficiary is other than the transferor, whose name in the notification or assignment is designated in substance: "as custodial trustee for ........... (name of beneficiary) under the Minnesota Custodial Trust Act";
(8) execution, delivery, and recordation of a conveyance of an interest in real property in the name of a trust company, an adult other than the transferor, or the transferor if the beneficiary is other than the transferor, designated in substance: "as custodial trustee for .............. (name of beneficiary) under the Minnesota Uniform Custodial Trust Act";
(9) issuance of a certificate of title by an agency of a state or of the United States which evidences title to tangible personal property:
(i) issued in the name of a trust company, an adult other than the transferor, or the transferor if the beneficiary is other than the transferor, designated in substance: "as custodial trustee for ............ (name of beneficiary) under the Minnesota Uniform Custodial Trust Act"; or
(ii) delivered to a trust company or an adult other than the transferor or endorsed by the transferor to that person designated in substance: "as custodial trustee for ............. (name of beneficiary) under the Minnesota Uniform Custodial Trust Act"; or
(10) execution and delivery of an instrument of gift to a trust company or an adult other than the transferor, designated in substance: "as custodial trustee for .......... (name of beneficiary) under the Minnesota Uniform Custodial Trust Act."
History:
1990 c 476 s 17
Minn. Stat. § 53C.01
53C.01 is subject to the finance charge limitations in paragraphs (a) and (b).
(a) The finance charge authorized by this subdivision in a retail installment sale may not exceed the following annual percentage rates applied to the principal balance determined in the same manner as in section 53C.08, subdivision 2 , clause (5):
(1) Class 1. A motor vehicle designated by the manufacturer by a year model of the same or not more than one year before the year in which the sale is made, 18 percent per year.
(2) Class 2. A motor vehicle designated by the manufacturer by a year model of two to three years before the year in which the sale is made, 19.75 percent per year.
(3) Class 3. Any motor vehicle not in Class 1 or Class 2, 23.25 percent per year.
(b) A sale of a manufactured home made after July 31, 1983, is governed by this subdivision for purposes of determining the lawful finance charge rate, except that the maximum finance charge for a Class 1 manufactured home may not exceed 14.5 percent per year. A retail installment sale of a manufactured home that imposes a finance charge that is greater than the rate permitted by this subdivision is lawful and enforceable in accordance with its terms until the indebtedness is fully satisfied if the rate was lawful when the sale was made.
§
Subd. 5. Extensions, deferments, and conversion to interest bearing.
(a) The parties may agree in writing, either in the loan contract or credit sale contract or in a subsequent agreement, to a deferment of wholly unpaid installments. For precomputed loans and credit sale contracts, the manner of deferment charge shall be determined as provided for in this section. A deferment postpones the scheduled due date of the earliest unpaid installment and all subsequent installments as originally scheduled, or as previously deferred, for a period equal to the deferment period. The deferment period is that period during which no installment is scheduled to be paid by reason of the deferment. The deferment charge for a one-month period may not exceed the applicable charge for the installment period immediately following the due date of the last undeferred payment. A proportionate charge may be made for deferment periods of more or less than one month. A deferment charge is earned pro rata during the deferment period and is fully earned on the last day of the deferment period. If a loan or credit sale is prepaid in full during a deferment period, the financial institution shall make or credit to the borrower a refund of the unearned deferment charge in addition to any other refund or credit made for prepayment of the loan or credit sale in full.
For the purpose of this subdivision, "applicable charge" means the amount of finance charge attributable to each monthly installment period for the loan or credit sale contract. The applicable charge is computed as if each installment period were one month and any charge for extending the first installment period beyond the one month, or reduction in charge for a first installment less than one month, is ignored. The applicable charge for any installment period is that which would have been made for the period had the loan been made on an interest-bearing basis at the single annual percentage rate provided for in the contract based upon the assumption that all payments were made according to schedule. For convenience in computation, the financial institution may round the single annual rate to the nearest one quarter of one percent.
(b) Subject to a refund of unearned finance or deferment charge required by this section, a financial institution may convert a loan or credit sale contract to an interest bearing balance, if:
(1) the loan contract or credit sale contract so provides and is subject to a change of the terms of the written agreement between the parties; or
(2) the loan contract so provides and two or more installments are delinquent one full month or more on any due date.
Thereafter, the single annual percentage rate and other charges must be determined as provided under this section for interest-bearing transactions.
§
Subd. 6. Additional charges.
(a) For purposes of this subdivision, "financial institution" includes a person described in subdivision 4, paragraph (a). In addition to the finance charges permitted by this section, a financial institution may contract for and receive the following additional charges that may be included in the principal amount of the loan or credit sale unpaid balances:
(1) official fees and taxes;
(2) charges for insurance as described in paragraph (b);
(3) with respect to a loan or credit sale contract secured by real estate, the following "closing costs," if they are bona fide, reasonable in amount, and not for the purpose of circumvention or evasion of this section:
(i) fees or premiums for title examination, abstract of title, title insurance, surveys, or similar purposes;
(ii) fees for preparation of a deed, mortgage, settlement statement, or other documents, if not paid to the financial institution;
(iii) escrows for future payments of taxes, including assessments for improvements, insurance, and water, sewer, and land rents;
(iv) fees for notarizing deeds and other documents;
(v) appraisal and credit report fees; and
(vi) fees for determining whether any portion of the property is located in a flood zone and fees for ongoing monitoring of the property to determine changes, if any, in flood zone status;
(4) a delinquency charge on a payment, including the minimum payment due in connection with open-end credit, not paid in full on or before the tenth day after its due date in an amount not to exceed five percent of the amount of the payment or $9.88, whichever is greater;
(5) for a returned check or returned automatic payment withdrawal request, an amount not in excess of the service charge limitation in section
Minn. Stat. § 541.02
541.02 RECOVERY OF REAL ESTATE, 15 YEARS.
No action for the recovery of real estate or the possession thereof shall be maintained unless it appears that the plaintiff, the plaintiff's ancestor, predecessor, or grantor was seized or possessed of the premises in question within 15 years before the beginning of the action.
Such limitations shall not be a bar to an action for the recovery of real estate assessed as tracts or parcels separate from other real estate, unless it appears that the party claiming title by adverse possession or the party's ancestor, predecessor, or grantor, or all of them together, shall have paid taxes on the real estate in question at least five consecutive years of the time during which the party claims these lands to have been occupied adversely.
The provisions of the preceding paragraph shall not apply to actions relating to the boundary line of lands, which boundary lines are established by adverse possession, or to actions concerning lands included between the government or platted line and the line established by such adverse possession, or to lands not assessed for taxation.
History:
( 9187 ) RL s 4073 ; 1913 c 239 s 1 ; 1986 c 444
Minn. Stat. § 541.023
541.023 ACTIONS AFFECTING TITLE TO REAL ESTATE.
§
Subdivision 1. Commencement.
As against a claim of title based upon a source of title, which source has then been of record at least 40 years, no action affecting the possession or title of any real estate shall be commenced by a person, partnership, corporation, other legal entity, state, or any political division thereof, to enforce any right, claim, interest, incumbrance, or lien founded upon any instrument, event or transaction which was executed or occurred more than 40 years prior to the commencement of such action, unless within 40 years after such execution or occurrence there has been recorded in the office of the county recorder in the county in which the real estate affected is situated, a notice sworn to by the claimant or the claimant's agent or attorney setting forth the name of the claimant, a description of the real estate affected and of the instrument, event or transaction on which such claim is founded, and stating whether the right, claim, interest, incumbrance, or lien is mature or immature. If such notice relates to vested or contingent rights claimed under a condition subsequent or restriction it shall affirmatively show why such condition or restriction is not, or has not become nominal so that it may be disregarded under the provisions of section 500.20, subdivision 1 .
§
Subd. 2. Application.
(a) This section shall apply to every right, claim, interest, incumbrance, or lien founded by any instrument, event, or transaction that is at least 40 years old.
(b) This section applies to repurchase options or other rights of repurchase that encumber an interest in land based upon an instrument other than a deed of conveyance granted by a governmental body, agency, or subdivision, unless within 40 years of the recording of the instrument a notice is recorded under subdivision 1. This paragraph does not revive repurchase options or rights of repurchase barred by subdivision 1.
(c) This section does not apply to actions to enforce rights, claims, interests, encumbrances, or liens arising out of private covenants, conditions, or restrictions to which section 500.20, subdivision 2a , or successor statutes do not apply.
§
Subd. 2a. Registered property not affected.
(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b), this section does not apply to real property while it remains registered according to chapter 508 or 508A.
(b) This subdivision does not affect an action or proceeding involving the validity of a claim of title based upon a source of title which has been of record at least 40 years if:
(i) the action or proceeding is pending on August 1, 2001, or is commenced before February 1, 2002; and
(ii) a notice of the pendency of the action or proceeding is recorded before February 1, 2002, in the office of the registrar of titles of the county in which the real property affected by the action or proceeding is located.
§
Subd. 3. Extent of section.
This section does not extend the right to commence any action beyond the date at which such right would be extinguished by any other statute.
§
Subd. 4. Notices, recording; fee.
County recorders are hereby directed to accept for recording notices conforming with the provisions hereof, and to charge therefor fees corresponding with the fees charged for recording notices of lis pendens of similar length. Such notices may be discharged in the same manner as notices of lis pendens, and, when so discharged, shall, together with all information included therein, cease to constitute either actual or constructive notice.
§
Subd. 5. Abandonment presumed.
Any claimant under any instrument, event or transaction barred by the provisions of this section shall be conclusively presumed to have abandoned all right, claim, interest, incumbrance, or lien based upon such instrument, event, or transaction; and the title in the name of any adverse claimant to the real estate which would otherwise be affected thereby shall not be deemed unmarketable by reason of the existence of such instrument, event, or transaction; it being hereby declared as the policy of the state of Minnesota that, except as herein provided, ancient records shall not fetter the marketability of real estate.
§
Subd. 6. Limitations; certain titles not affected.
This section shall not affect any rights of the federal government; nor increase the effect as notice, actual or constructive, of any instrument now of record; nor bar the rights of any person, partnership, state agency or department, or corporation in possession of real estate. This section shall not impair the record title or record interest, or title obtained by or through any congressional or legislative grant, of any railroad corporation or other public service corporation or any trustee or receiver thereof or of any educational or religious corporation in any real estate by reason of any failure to record further evidence of such title or interest even though the record thereof is now or hereafter more than 40 years old; nor shall this section require the recording of any notice as provided for in this section as to any undischarged mortgage or deed of trust executed by any such corporation or any trustee or receiver thereof or to any claim or action founded upon any such undischarged mortgage or deed of trust. The exceptions of this subdivision shall not include (1) reservations or exceptions of land for right-of-way or other railroad purposes contained in deeds of conveyance made by a railroad company or by trustees or receivers thereof, unless said reserved or excepted land shall have been put to railroad use within 40 years after the date of said deeds of conveyance, (2) nor any rights under any conditions subsequent or restrictions contained in any such deeds of conveyance.
§
Subd. 7. Source of title.
For the purposes of this section, the words "source of title" as used in subdivision 1 hereof shall mean any deed, judgment, decree, sheriff's certificate, or other instrument which transfers or confirms, or purports to transfer or confirm, a fee simple title to real estate, including any such instrument which purports to transfer, or to confirm the transfer of a fee simple title from a person who was not the record owner of the real estate. However, any such instrument which purports to transfer, or to confirm the transfer of, a fee simple title from a person who was not the record owner of the real estate to the grantee or transferee named in such instrument shall be deemed a source of title "of record at least 40 years" within the meaning of subdivision 1 only if, during the period of 40 years after it was recorded, the following two conditions are fulfilled: (1) another instrument was recorded which purports to transfer a fee simple title from said grantee or transferee to another person and (2) no instrument was recorded which purports to be or confirm a transfer of any interest in the real estate by or from whoever was the record owner in fee simple immediately before the commencement of said period of 40 years. The purpose of the next preceding sentence is to limit the effect of erroneous descriptions or accidental conveyances.
History:
1943 c 529 ; 1945 c 124 s 1 ; 1947 c 118 s 1 ; 1959 c 492 s 1 ; 1976 c 181 s 2 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1989 c 229 s 4 ; 1993 c 222 art 5 s 4 ; 2001 c 7 s 86 ; 2001 c 50 s 31 -36; 2005 c 4 s 125 -128; 2009 c 86 art 1 s 80 ; 2023 c 52 art 19 s 29
Minn. Stat. § 541.024
541.024 LIMITATION OF ACTIONS AFFECTING TITLE TO OR POSSESSION OF TAX-FORFEITED LANDS.
§
Subdivision 1. Limitation.
As against a real estate title based upon or derived from a county auditor's certificate of forfeiture, or auditor's certificate of sale or state assignment certificate which has been of record for at least four years in the office of the county recorder or in the office of the registrar of titles, no action affecting the possession or title of the real estate shall be commenced on or after June 15, 1978, to enforce any adverse right, claim, interest, incumbrance, or lien, based upon the alleged invalidity of the county auditor's certificate of forfeiture, or auditor's certificate of sale or state assignment certificate.
§
Subd. 2. Not affect.
This section shall not affect any rights of the federal government or any rights of a person in actual, open, hostile, notorious, and exclusive possession of the real estate on the date of the placing of record of the county auditor's certificate of forfeiture, auditor's certificate of sale or state assignment certificate and continuously thereafter to the time of the commencement of an action.
§
Subd. 3. Abandonment of right.
A claimant under any instrument, event or transaction barred by this section shall be conclusively presumed to have abandoned all right, claim, interest, incumbrance or lien based thereon; and the title based upon or derived from the county auditor's certificate of forfeiture, auditor's certificate of sale, or state assignment certificate shall be deemed marketable. It is the policy of the state of Minnesota that, except as provided by Laws 1977, Chapter 265, unadjudicated adverse rights shall not fetter the marketability of tax titles of real estate.
§
Subd. 4. Limit of extension of right.
This section does not extend the right to commence any action beyond the date on which the right would be extinguished under section
Minn. Stat. § 541.03
541.03 FORECLOSURE OF REAL ESTATE MORTGAGE.
§
Subdivision 1. Limitation.
No action or proceeding to foreclose a real estate mortgage, whether by action or advertisement or otherwise, shall be maintained unless commenced within 15 years from the maturity of the whole of the debt secured by the mortgage, and this limitation shall not be extended by the nonresidence of any plaintiff or defendant or any party interested in the land upon which the mortgage is a lien in any action commenced to foreclose such mortgage, nor by reason of any payment made after such maturity, nor by reason of any extension of the time of payment of the mortgage or the debt or obligation thereby secured or any portion thereof, unless such extension shall be in writing and shall have been recorded in the same office in which the original mortgage is recorded, within the limitation period herein provided, or prior to the expiration of any previously recorded extension of such mortgage or debt, nor by reason of any disability of any party interested in the mortgage.
§
Subd. 2. When time begins to run; commencement of proceedings.
The time within which any such action or proceeding may be commenced shall begin to run from the date of such mortgage, unless the time of the maturity of the debt or obligation secured by such mortgage shall be clearly stated in such mortgage. Any action or proceeding to foreclose a real estate mortgage, whether by action, by advertisement, or otherwise, commenced within the period of limitation herein provided, may be prosecuted to completion notwithstanding the expiration of the period of limitation, and proceedings to foreclose a real estate mortgage by advertisement shall be deemed commenced on the date of the first publication of the notice of sale.
History:
( 9188 , 9189 ) 1909 c 181 s 1 ,2
Minn. Stat. § 541.051
541.051 .
This section does not apply to claims against sellers of goods for damages to property caused by the goods where the property that is damaged is not the goods and the sale is not a sale between parties who are each merchants in goods of the kind.
History:
1965 c 811 s 336 .2-725; 1989 c 187 s 1 ; 1991 c 352 s 1 ; 1993 c 305 s 1
Article 2A LEASES Part 1 GENERAL PROVISIONS
336.2A-101 SHORT TITLE.
This article shall be known and may be cited as the Uniform Commercial Code - Leases.
History:
1989 c 232 art 1 s 2 A-101
336.2A-102 SCOPE.
(1) This article applies to any transaction, regardless of form, that creates a lease and, in the case of a hybrid lease, it applies to the extent provided in subsection (2).
(2) In a hybrid lease:
(a) if the lease-of-goods aspects do not predominate:
(i) only the provisions of this article which relate primarily to the lease-of-goods aspects of the transaction apply, and the provisions that relate primarily to the transaction as a whole do not apply;
(ii) section 336.2A-209 applies if the lease is a finance lease; and
(iii) section 336.2A-407 applies to the promises of the lessee in a finance lease to the extent the promises are consideration for the right to possession and use of the leased goods; and
(b) if the lease-of-goods aspects predominate, this article applies to the transaction, but does not preclude application in appropriate circumstances of other law to aspects of the lease which do not relate to the lease of goods.
History:
1989 c 232 art 1 s 2 A-102; 2024 c 93 art 3 s 1
336.2A-103 DEFINITIONS AND INDEX OF DEFINITIONS.
(1) In this article unless the context otherwise requires:
(a) "Buyer in ordinary course of business" means a person who in good faith and without knowledge that the sale is in violation of the ownership rights or security interest or leasehold interest of a third party in the goods, buys in ordinary course from a person in the business of selling goods of that kind but does not include a pawnbroker. "Buying" may be for cash or by exchange of other property or on secured or unsecured credit and includes acquiring goods or documents of title under a preexisting contract for sale but does not include a transfer in bulk or as security for or in total or partial satisfaction of a money debt.
(b) "Cancellation" occurs when either party puts an end to the lease contract for default by the other party.
(c) "Commercial unit" means a unit of goods that by commercial usage is a single whole for purposes of lease and division of which materially impairs its character or value on the market or in use. A commercial unit may be a single article, as a machine, or a set of articles, as a suite of furniture or a line of machinery, or a quantity, as a gross or carload, or any other unit treated in use or in the relevant market as a single whole.
(d) "Conforming" goods or performance under a lease contract means goods or performance that are in accordance with the obligations under the lease contract.
(e) "Consumer lease" means a lease that a lessor regularly engaged in the business of leasing or selling makes to a lessee who is an individual and who takes under the lease primarily for a personal, family, or household purpose, if the total payments to be made under the lease contract, excluding payments for options to renew or buy, do not exceed $25,000.
(f) "Fault" means wrongful act, omission, breach, or default.
(g) "Finance lease" means a lease in which
(1) the lessor does not select, manufacture, or supply the goods,
(2) the lessor acquires the goods or the right to possession and use of the goods in connection with the lease, and
(3) either
(i) the lessee receives a copy of the contract evidencing the lessor's purchase of the goods or a disclaimer statement on or before signing the lease contract, or
(ii) the lessee's approval of the contract evidencing the lessor's purchase of the goods or a disclaimer statement is a condition to effectiveness of the lease contract.
"Disclaimer statement" means a written statement that is part of or separate from the lease contract that discloses all warranties and other rights provided to the lessee by the lessor and supplier in connection with the lease contract and informs the lessee in a conspicuous manner that there are no warranties or other rights provided to the lessee by the lessor and supplier other than those disclosed in the statement.
(h) "Goods" means all things that are movable at the time of identification to the lease contract, or are fixtures (section 336.2A-309 ), but the term does not include money, documents, instruments, accounts, chattel paper, general intangibles, or minerals or the like, including oil and gas, before extraction. The term also includes the unborn young of animals.
(h.1) "Hybrid lease" means a single transaction involving a lease of goods and:
(i) the provision of services;
(ii) a sale of other goods; or
(iii) a sale, lease, or license of property other than goods.
(i) "Installment lease contract" means a lease contract that authorizes or requires the delivery of goods in separate lots to be separately accepted, even though the lease contract contains a clause "each delivery is a separate lease" or its equivalent.
(j) "Lease" means a transfer of the right to possession and use of goods for a term in return for consideration, but a sale, including a sale on approval or a sale or return, or retention or creation of a security interest is not a lease. Unless the context clearly indicates otherwise, the term includes a sublease.
(k) "Lease agreement" means the bargain, with respect to the lease, of the lessor and the lessee in fact as found in their language or by implication from other circumstances including course of dealing or usage of trade or course of performance as provided in this article. Unless the context clearly indicates otherwise, the term includes a sublease agreement.
(l) "Lease contract" means the total legal obligation that results from the lease agreement as affected by this article and any other applicable rules of law. Unless the context clearly indicates otherwise, the term includes a sublease contract.
(m) "Leasehold interest" means the interest of the lessor or the lessee under a lease contract.
(n) "Lessee" means a person who acquires the right to possession and use of goods under a lease. Unless the context clearly indicates otherwise, the term includes a sublessee.
(o) "Lessee in ordinary course of business" means a person who in good faith and without knowledge that the lease is in violation of the ownership rights or security interest or leasehold interest of a third party in the goods leases in ordinary course from a person in the business of selling or leasing goods of that kind but does not include a pawnbroker. "Leasing" may be for cash or by exchange of other property or on secured or unsecured credit and includes acquiring goods or documents of title under a preexisting lease contract but does not include a transfer in bulk or as security for or in total or partial satisfaction of a money debt.
(p) "Lessor" means a person who transfers the right to possession and use of goods under a lease. Unless the context clearly indicates otherwise, the term includes a sublessor.
(q) "Lessor's residual interest" means the lessor's interest in the goods after expiration, termination, or cancellation of the lease contract.
(r) "Lien" means a charge against or interest in goods to secure payment of a debt or performance of an obligation, but the term does not include a security interest.
(s) "Lot" means a parcel or a single article that is the subject matter of a separate lease or delivery, whether or not it is sufficient to perform the lease contract.
(t) "Merchant lessee" means a lessee that is a merchant with respect to goods of the kind subject to the lease.
(u) "Present value" means the amount as of a date certain of one or more sums payable in the future, discounted to the date certain. The discount is determined by the interest rate specified by the parties if the rate was not manifestly unreasonable at the time the transaction was entered into; otherwise, the discount is determined by a commercially reasonable rate that takes into account the facts and circumstances of each case at the time the transaction was entered into.
(v) "Purchase" includes taking by sale, lease, mortgage, security interest, pledge, gift, or any other voluntary transaction creating an interest in goods.
(w) "Sublease" means a lease of goods the right to possession and use of which was acquired by the lessor as a lessee under an existing lease.
(x) "Supplier" means a person from whom a lessor buys or leases goods to be leased under a finance lease.
(y) "Supply contract" means a contract under which a lessor buys or leases goods to be leased.
(z) "Termination" occurs when either party pursuant to a power created by agreement or law puts an end to the lease contract otherwise than for default.
(2) Other definitions applying to this article and the sections in which they appear are:
"Accessions." Section 336.2A-310 (1).
"Construction mortgage." Section 336.2A-309 (1)(d).
"Encumbrance." Section 336.2A-309 (1)(e).
"Fixtures." Section 336.2A-309 (1)(a).
"Fixture filing." Section 336.2A-309 (1)(b).
"Purchase money lease." Section 336.2A-309 (1)(c).
(3) The following definitions in other articles apply to this article:
"Account." Section 336.9-102 (a)(2).
"Between merchants." Section 336.2-104 (3).
"Buyer." Section 336.2-103 (1)(a).
"Chattel paper." Section 336.9-102 (a)(11).
"Consumer goods." Section 336.9-102 (a)(23).
"Document." Section 336.9-102 (a)(30).
"Entrusting." Section 336.2-403 (3).
"General intangible." Section 336.9-102 (a)(42).
"Instrument." Section 336.9-102 (a)(47).
"Merchant." Section 336.2-104 (1).
"Mortgage." Section 336.9-102 (a)(55).
"Pursuant to commitment." Section 336.9-102 (a)(69).
"Receipt." Section 336.2-103 (1)(c).
"Sale." Section 336.2-106 (1).
"Sale on approval." Section 336.2-326 .
"Sale or return." Section 336.2-326 .
"Seller." Section 336.2-103 (1)(d).
(4) In addition, sections 336.1-101 to 336.1-310 contain general definitions and principles of construction and interpretation applicable throughout this article.
History:
1989 c 232 art 1 s 2 A-103; 1991 c 171 art 1 s 1 ; 2000 c 399 art 2 s 8 ; 2004 c 162 art 2 s 3 ; art 5 s 12; 2011 c 31 art 1 s 16 ; art 2 s 5; 2024 c 93 art 3 s 2
336.2A-104 LEASES SUBJECT TO OTHER STATUTES.
(1) A lease, although subject to this article, is also subject to any applicable:
(a) statute of the United States;
(b) certificate of title statute of this state: sections
Minn. Stat. § 542.02
542.02 ACTIONS RELATING TO LAND, SITUS TO GOVERN.
Actions for the recovery of real estate, the foreclosure of a mortgage or other lien thereon, the partition thereof, the determination in any form of an estate or interest therein, and for injuries to lands within this state, shall be tried in the county where such real estate or some part thereof is situated, subject to the power of the court to change the place of trial in the cases specified in section
Minn. Stat. § 548.10
548.10 NEW COUNTY; DOCKETING OLD JUDGMENTS; REAL ESTATE TAX JUDGMENTS.
When a new county is created, the court administrator of the district court thereof shall transcribe into the court administrator's records all the docket entries relative to judgments for the payment of money, including real estate tax judgments, against lands situated in such new county, rendered within the ten years next preceding such creation and docketed in the counties from which such new county was set off, and such transcribed entries shall have the same effect as transcripts of dockets of judgments made by the court administrator of the county where the originals were docketed and filed in another county. For such transcription the court administrator shall receive from the new county 15 cents for each judgment.
History:
( 9401 ) RL s 4273 ; 1907 c 159 s 1 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1Sp1986 c 3 art 1 s 82
Minn. Stat. § 548.12
548.12 LIEN DISCHARGED BY DEPOSIT OF MONEY, WHEN.
Whenever an appeal shall be taken from a docketed judgment, or any motion shall be pending to set the same aside or for a new trial, the judgment debtor may deposit in court an amount sufficient to secure the payment of such judgment, with all interest and costs likely to accrue thereon pending the appeal or motion. The court shall make an order approving such deposit, and thereupon the judgment lien upon the real estate of the debtor shall cease and be transferred to the money so deposited. A certified copy of such order may be filed with the court administrator in any county in which a transcript of the judgment shall have been docketed.
History:
( 9403 ) RL s 4275 ; 1Sp1986 c 3 art 1 s 82
Minn. Stat. § 548.25
548.25 VACATING REAL ESTATE JUDGMENT; WITHIN WHAT TIME.
No judgment or decree quieting title to land or determining the title thereto or adverse claims therein heretofore entered or hereafter to be entered shall be adjudged invalid or set aside, unless the action or proceeding to vacate or set aside such judgment or decree shall be commenced, or application for leave to defend be made, within five years from the time of recording a certified copy of such judgment or decree in the office of the county recorder of the county in which the lands affected by such judgment or decree are situated.
History:
( 9284 ) 1909 c 451 s 1 ; 1976 c 181 s 2 ; 2005 c 4 s 130
Minn. Stat. § 549.09
549.09 .
(c) Except as provided by the declaration any common expense associated with the maintenance, repair, or replacement of a limited common element shall be assessed against the unit or in equal shares against the units to which that limited common element was assigned at the time the expense was incurred.
(d) If the declaration so provides, the association may assess any common expense benefiting less than all of the units against the units benefited. In that case the common expense shall be allocated among units benefited in proportion to their common expense liability.
History:
1980 c 582 art 3 s 515 .3-114
515A.3-115 LIEN FOR ASSESSMENTS.
(a) The association has a lien on a unit for any assessment levied against that unit from the time the assessment becomes payable. The association's lien may be foreclosed as provided by the laws of this state as if it were a lien under a mortgage containing a power of sale but the association shall give reasonable notice of its action to all lienholders of the unit whose interest would be affected. The rights of the parties shall be the same as those provided by law except that the period of redemption for unit owners shall be six months from the date of sale. Unless the declaration otherwise provides, fees, charges, late charges, and interest charges pursuant to section 515A.3-102 (a), (9), and (11) are enforceable as assessments under this section.
(b) A lien under this section is prior to all other liens and encumbrances on a unit except (1) liens and encumbrances recorded before the recordation of the declaration, (2) any recorded mortgage on the unit securing a first mortgage holder, and (3) liens for real estate taxes and other governmental assessments or charges against the unit. This subsection does not affect the priority of mechanics' or material suppliers' liens.
(c) Recording of the declaration constitutes record notice and perfection of the lien, and no further recordation of any claim of lien for assessment under this section is required.
(d) Proceedings to enforce an assessment must be instituted within three years after the last installment of the assessment becomes payable.
(e) Unit owners at the time an assessment is payable are personally liable to the association for payment of the assessments.
(f) A foreclosure sale, judgment, or decree in any action, proceeding, or suit brought under this section shall include costs and reasonable attorney's fees for the prevailing party.
(g) The association shall furnish to a unit owner or the owner's authorized agent upon written request of the unit owner or the authorized agent a recordable statement setting forth the amount of unpaid assessments currently levied against the owner's unit. The statement shall be furnished within ten business days after receipt of the request and is binding on the association and every unit owner.
History:
1980 c 582 art 3 s 515 .3-115; 1985 c 251 s 14 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1989 c 209 art 1 s 41
515A.3-116 ASSOCIATION RECORDS.
The association shall keep financial records sufficiently detailed to enable the association to comply with section 515A.4-107 . All financial records shall be made reasonably available for examination by any unit owner and the unit owner's authorized agents.
History:
1980 c 582 art 3 s 515 .3-116; 1986 c 444
515A.3-117 ASSOCIATION AS TRUSTEE.
With respect to a third person dealing with the association in the association's capacity as a trustee, the existence of trust powers and their proper exercise by the association may be assumed without inquiry. A third person is not bound to inquire whether the association has power to act as trustee or is properly exercising trust powers and a third person, without actual knowledge that the association is exceeding its powers or improperly exercising them, is fully protected in dealing with the association as if it possessed and properly exercised the powers it purports to exercise. A third person is not bound to assure the proper application of trust assets paid or delivered to the association in its capacity as trustee.
History:
1980 c 582 art 3 s 515 .3-117
ARTICLE 4 PROTECTION OF PURCHASERS
515A.4-101 APPLICABILITY; WAIVER.
(a) Sections 515A.4-101 to 515A.4-118 apply to all units subject to sections 515A.1-101 to 515A.4-117 except as provided in subsection (b) and section 515A.4-113 or as modified or waived by agreement of purchasers of units in a condominium in which all units are restricted to nonresidential use.
(b) A disclosure statement need not be prepared in case of:
(1) a gratuitous transfer of a unit;
(2) a disposition pursuant to court order;
(3) a disposition by a government or governmental agency;
(4) a disposition by foreclosure or deed in lieu of foreclosure and subsequent disposition by the purchaser at mortgage foreclosure sale, or grantee in the deed in lieu of foreclosure;
(5) a transfer to which section 515A.4-107 (Resales of Units) applies.
History:
1980 c 582 art 4 s 515 .4-101
515A.4-102 DISCLOSURE STATEMENT; GENERAL PROVISIONS.
A disclosure statement shall fully disclose:
(a) the name and principal address of the declarant and the address and the name, if any, and number, if available, of the condominium;
(b) a general description of the condominium; including without limitation the types and number of all buildings, units and amenities, and declarant's schedule of commencement and completion of construction thereof;
(c) the total number of additional units that may be included in the condominium and whether the declarant intends to rent or market blocks of units to investors;
(d) a copy of the declaration other than the condominium plat, condominium plat for the particular unit, bylaws, articles of incorporation, rules and regulations, and any contracts and leases to which the unit owners or association will be subject and which may not be canceled upon 30 days' notice by the association;
(e) any current balance sheet and a projected budget for the association for the first full or partial year during which a unit is conveyed to a unit owner other than a declarant and any projected budget for future years which the association has adopted, and a statement of who prepared the balance sheet, projected budget or budget. The budget or projected budget shall include, without limitation:
(1) a statement of the amount, or a statement that there is no amount, included in the budget as a reserve for repairs and replacement;
(2) a statement of any other reserves;
(3) the projected common expense assessment by category of expenditures for the association;
(4) the projected monthly common expense assessment for each type of unit;
(f) any supplies and services not reflected in the budget or projected budget which the declarant provides, or expenses which the declarant pays, and which the declarant expects may become at any subsequent time a common expense of the association and the projected common expense assessment attributable to each of those services or expenses for the association and for each type of unit;
(g) any initial or special fee due from the purchaser to the declarant or the association at closing, together with a description of the purpose and method of calculating the fee;
(h) a description of any liens, defects, or encumbrances on or affecting the title to the condominium after the contemplated conveyance;
(i) a description of any financing offered by the declarant;
(j) the terms of any warranties provided by the declarant, including the warranties set forth in sections 515A.4-111 and 515A.4-112 , and limitations imposed by the declarant on the enforcement thereof;
(k) a statement that:
(1) within 15 days after receipt of a disclosure statement, a purchaser may, prior to conveyance, cancel any purchase agreement of a unit from a declarant;
(2) if a declarant fails to provide a disclosure statement to a purchaser before conveying a unit, that purchaser may recover from the declarant an amount not to exceed five percent of the sales price of the unit; and
(3) if a purchaser received the disclosure statement more than 15 days before signing a purchase agreement, the purchaser cannot cancel the agreement;
(l) a statement disclosing, to the extent of the actual knowledge of the declarant or an affiliate of the declarant after reasonable inquiry, any judgments against the association, the status of any pending suits to which the association is a party, and the status of any pending suits material to the condominium;
(m) a statement that any earnest money paid in connection with the purchase of a unit will be held in an escrow account until closing and will be returned to the purchaser if the purchaser cancels the purchase agreement pursuant to section 515A.4-106 ;
(n) a description of the insurance coverage to be provided for the benefit of unit owners;
(o) any current or expected fees or charges to be paid by unit owners for the use of the common elements and other facilities related to the condominium;
(p) whether financial arrangements have been provided for completion of all improvements labeled "MUST BE BUILT" pursuant to section 515A.4-117 (Declarant's Obligation to Complete and Restore); and
(q) a statement (1) that there are no delinquent taxes on the property or, if there are delinquent taxes on the property, the amount of the delinquent taxes and the length of the delinquency, and (2) that discloses the amount, if known, of taxes due in the current year.
History:
1980 c 582 art 4 s 515 A.4-102; 1986 c 342 s 11 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1991 c 291 art 1 s 52
515A.4-104 SAME; CONVERSION CONDOMINIUMS.
The disclosure statement of a conversion condominium the units of which may be used for residential purposes shall contain, in addition to the information required by section 515A.4-102 :
(a) A professional opinion prepared by an architect licensed in this state or a registered professional engineer licensed in this state, describing the present condition of all structural components and mechanical and electrical installations material to the use and enjoyment of the condominium to the extent reasonably ascertainable without disturbing the improvements or dismantling the equipment;
(b) A statement by the declarant of the expected useful life of each item reported on in subsection (a) or a statement that no representations are made in this regard;
(c) A list of any outstanding notices of uncured violations of building code or other municipal regulations, which will be outstanding at the time of the first conveyance of a unit, together with the estimated cost of curing those violations.
History:
1980 c 582 art 4 s 515 .4-104
515A.4-106 PURCHASER'S RIGHT TO CANCEL.
(a) Unless delivery of a disclosure statement is not required under section 515A.4-101 (b), a declarant shall provide at least one of the purchasers of a unit with a copy of a disclosure statement not later than the date of any purchase agreement. Unless a purchaser is given the disclosure statement more than 15 days prior to execution of a purchase agreement for the unit, the purchaser may, prior to the conveyance, cancel the agreement within 15 days after receiving the disclosure statement.
If the conveyance occurs within 15 days after the date of the execution of the purchase agreement by the purchaser, any purchaser may waive in writing all rights to receive a disclosure statement under this section.
(b) A purchaser who elects to cancel a purchase agreement pursuant to subsection (a), may do so by hand delivering notice thereof to the declarant or by mailing notice thereof by postage prepaid United States mail to the declarant or to the declarant's agent for service of process. Cancellation is without penalty, and all payments made by the purchaser pursuant to the purchase agreement shall be refunded promptly.
(c) If a declarant fails to provide a purchaser to whom a unit is conveyed with a disclosure statement and all amendments thereto as required by subsections (a) and (d), that purchaser, in addition to any rights to damages or other relief, is entitled to receive from the declarant an amount not to exceed five percent of the sales price of the unit.
(d) The disclosure statement and any information furnished in connection therewith may be amended prior to conveyance if the amendment is delivered to the purchaser to whom the disclosure statement was delivered. If the amendment materially adversely affects a purchaser, then the purchaser shall have 15 days after delivery of the amendment to cancel the purchase agreement in accordance with this section.
History:
1980 c 582 art 4 s 515 .4-106; 1986 c 444
515A.4-107 RESALES OF UNITS.
(a) In the event of a resale of a unit by a unit owner other than a declarant, the unit owner shall furnish to a purchaser before execution of any purchase agreement for a unit, or otherwise before conveyance, a copy of the declaration, other than the condominium plat, the bylaws, the rules and regulations of the association, and any amendments thereto, and a certificate dated not more than 90 days prior to the date of the purchase agreement or otherwise before conveyance, containing:
(1) a statement disclosing any right of first refusal or other restraint on the free alienability of the unit contained in the declaration, bylaws, rules and regulations, or any amendment thereof;
(2) a statement setting forth the amount of periodic installments of common expense assessments and special assessments and any unpaid common expense or special assessment currently payable;
(3) a statement of any other fees payable by unit owners;
(4) a statement of any capital expenditures approved by the association for the current and next succeeding two fiscal years;
(5) a statement that a copy of the condominium plat and any amendments thereof are available in the office of the association for inspection;
(6) a statement of the amount of any reserves for capital expenditures and of any portions of those reserves designated by the association for any specified projects;
(7) the most recent regularly prepared balance sheet and income and expense statement, if any, of the association;
(8) the current budget of the association;
(9) a statement of any judgments against the association and the status of any pending suits to which the association is a party;
(10) a statement describing any insurance coverage provided for the benefit of unit owners.
(b) The association shall, within seven days after a request by a unit owner or the unit owner's authorized agent, furnish a certificate containing the information necessary to enable the unit owner to comply with this section. A unit owner without actual knowledge providing a certificate pursuant to subsection (a) shall have no liability to the purchaser for any erroneous information provided by the association and included in the certificate.
(c) A purchaser is not liable for any unpaid assessment or fee existing as of the date of the certificate greater than the amount set forth in the certificate prepared by the association. A unit owner is not responsible to a purchaser for the failure or delay of the association to provide the certificate in a timely manner.
History:
1980 c 582 art 4 s 515 .4-107; 1986 c 342 s 12 ; 1986 c 444
515A.4-1075 PURCHASER'S RIGHT TO CANCEL.
(a) The information required to be delivered by section 515A.4-107 shall be delivered to a purchaser not later than the date of any purchase agreement. Unless a purchaser is given the information more than 15 days prior to the execution of the purchase agreement for the unit the purchaser may, prior to the conveyance, cancel the agreement within 15 days after receiving the information.
(b) A purchaser who elects to cancel a purchase agreement pursuant to subsection (a), may do so by hand delivering notice thereof to the seller or the seller's agent or by mailing notice thereof by postage prepaid United States mail to the seller or the agent. Cancellation is without penalty and all payments made by the purchaser shall be refunded promptly.
History:
1980 c 582 art 4 s 515 .4-1075; 1986 c 444
515A.4-108 ESCROW OF DEPOSITS.
Any earnest money paid in connection with the purchase or reservation of a unit from a declarant shall be escrowed and held in this state in an account, savings deposit or certificate of deposit designated solely for that purpose in an institution whose accounts are insured by a governmental agency or instrumentality until (1) delivered to the declarant at closing; (2) delivered to the declarant because of purchaser's default under the purchase agreement or reservation; or (3) delivered to the purchaser.
History:
1980 c 582 art 4 s 515 .4-108
515A.4-109 RELEASE OF INTERESTS AS SECURITY FOR AN OBLIGATION.
(a) Before conveying a unit to a purchaser other than a declarant, the seller shall furnish to the purchaser releases for that unit and its common element interest of all interests as security for an obligation affecting more real estate than that unit and its common element interest, or if the purchaser expressly agrees, a policy of title insurance insuring against loss or damage by reason of such interests. Failure to furnish the releases does not of itself invalidate the lien or the conveyance. This subsection does not apply to conveyance of all of the units in the condominium or to deeds in lieu of foreclosure.
(b) Whether perfected before or after creation of the condominium, if a lien other than a mortgage, including a lien attributable to work performed or materials supplied before creation of the condominium, becomes effective against two or more units, the unit owner of such a unit may pay to the lienholder the amount of the lien attributable to that owner's unit, and the lienholder, upon receipt of payment, shall promptly deliver a release of the lien covering that unit and its common element interest. The amount of the payment shall be proportionate to the ratio which that unit owner's common expense liability bears to the common expense liabilities of all unit owners whose units are subject to the lien. After payment, the association may not assess or have a lien against that unit owner's unit for any portion of the common expenses incurred in connection with that lien.
(c) Labor performed or materials furnished for the common elements, if duly authorized by the association, shall be deemed to be performed or furnished with the express consent of each unit owner and shall be the basis for the filing of a lien pursuant to the lien law against each of the units and shall be subject to the provisions of subsection (b).
History:
1980 c 582 art 4 s 515 .4-109; 1986 c 444
515A.4-110 CONVERSION CONDOMINIUMS.
(a) A declarant of a conversion condominium shall give each of the tenants and any subtenant in possession of buildings subject to sections 515A.1-101 to 515A.4-117 notice of the conversion or the intent to convert no later than 120 days before the declarant will require them to vacate. The notice shall set forth generally the rights conferred by this section and shall have attached thereto a form of purchase agreement setting forth the terms of sale contemplated by subsection (b) and a statement of any significant restrictions on the use and occupancy of the unit to be imposed by the declarant and shall be hand delivered or mailed by postage prepaid United States mail to the tenant and subtenant at the address of the unit. The notice shall further state that the tenants or subtenants in possession of a residential unit may demand to be given 60 additional days before being required to vacate, if any of them, or any person residing with them, is 62 years of age or older, disabled as defined in section
Minn. Stat. § 549.211
549.211 to the party against whom the claim is made.
(c) In determining attorney's fees, the amount of the recovery on behalf of the claimant under subsections (1) and (2) is not controlling.
History:
1989 c 232 art 1 s 2 A-108; 1997 c 213 art 2 s 1
336.2A-109 OPTION TO ACCELERATE AT WILL.
A term providing that one party or the party's successor in interest may accelerate payment or performance or require collateral or additional collateral "at will" or "when the party deems self insecure" or in words of similar import must be construed to mean that the party has power to do so only if the party in good faith believes that the prospect of payment or performance is impaired.
History:
1989 c 232 art 1 s 2 A-109
Part 2 FORMATION AND CONSTRUCTION OF LEASE CONTRACT
336.2A-201 STATUTE OF FRAUDS.
(1) A lease contract is not enforceable by way of action or defense unless:
(a) the total payments to be made under the lease contract, excluding payments for options to renew or buy, are less than $1,000; or
(b) there is a record, signed by the party against whom enforcement is sought or by that party's authorized agent, sufficient to indicate that a lease contract has been made between the parties and to describe the goods leased and the lease term.
(2) Any description of leased goods or of the lease term is sufficient and satisfies subsection (1)(b), whether or not it is specific, if it reasonably identifies what is described.
(3) A record is not insufficient because it omits or incorrectly states a term agreed upon, but the lease contract is not enforceable under subsection (1)(b) beyond the lease term and the quantity of goods shown in the record.
(4) A lease contract that does not satisfy the requirements of subsection (1), but which is valid in other respects, is enforceable:
(a) if the goods are to be specially manufactured or obtained for the lessee and are not suitable for lease or sale to others in the ordinary course of the lessor's business, and the lessor, before notice of repudiation is received and under circumstances that reasonably indicate that the goods are for the lessee, has made either a substantial beginning of their manufacture or commitments for their procurement;
(b) if the party against whom enforcement is sought admits in that party's pleading, testimony, or otherwise in court that a lease contract was made, but the lease contract is not enforceable under this provision beyond the quantity of goods admitted; or
(c) with respect to goods that have been received and accepted by the lessee.
(5) The lease term under a lease contract referred to in subsection (4) is:
(a) if there is a record signed by the party against whom enforcement is sought or by that party's authorized agent specifying the lease term, the term so specified;
(b) if the party against whom enforcement is sought admits in that party's pleading, testimony, or otherwise in court a lease term, the term so admitted; or
(c) a reasonable lease term.
History:
1989 c 232 art 1 s 2 A-201; 2024 c 93 art 3 s 4
336.2A-202 FINAL EXPRESSION; PAROL OR EXTRINSIC EVIDENCE.
Terms with respect to which the confirmatory memoranda of the parties agree or which are otherwise set forth in a record intended by the parties as a final expression of their agreement with respect to the included terms may not be contradicted by evidence of any prior agreement or of a contemporaneous oral agreement but may be explained or supplemented:
(a) by course of dealing or usage of trade or by course of performance; and
(b) by evidence of consistent additional terms unless the court finds the record to have been intended also as a complete and exclusive statement of the terms of the agreement.
History:
1989 c 232 art 1 s 2 A-202; 2024 c 93 art 3 s 5
336.2A-203 SEALS INOPERATIVE.
The affixing of a seal to a record evidencing a lease contract or an offer to enter into a lease contract does not render the record a sealed instrument and the law with respect to sealed instruments does not apply to the lease contract or offer.
History:
1989 c 232 art 1 s 2 A-203; 2024 c 93 art 3 s 6
336.2A-204 FORMATION IN GENERAL.
(1) A lease contract may be made in any manner sufficient to show agreement, including conduct by both parties which recognizes the existence of a lease contract.
(2) An agreement sufficient to constitute a lease contract may be found although the moment of its making is undetermined.
(3) Although one or more terms are left open, a lease contract does not fail for indefiniteness if the parties have intended to make a lease contract, and there is a reasonably certain basis for giving an appropriate remedy.
History:
1989 c 232 art 1 s 2 A-204
336.2A-205 FIRM OFFERS.
An offer by a merchant to lease goods to or from another person in a signed record that by its terms gives assurance it will be held open is not revocable, for lack of consideration, during the time stated or, if no time is stated, for a reasonable time, but in no event may the period of irrevocability exceed three months. Any term of assurance on a form supplied by the offeree must be separately signed by the offeror.
History:
1989 c 232 art 1 s 2 A-205; 2024 c 93 art 3 s 7
336.2A-206 OFFER AND ACCEPTANCE IN FORMATION OF LEASE CONTRACT.
(1) Unless otherwise unambiguously indicated by the language or circumstances, an offer to make a lease contract must be construed as inviting acceptance in any manner and by any medium reasonable in the circumstances.
(2) If the beginning of a requested performance is a reasonable mode of acceptance, an offeror who is not notified of acceptance within a reasonable time may treat the offer as having lapsed before acceptance.
History:
1989 c 232 art 1 s 2 A-206
336.2A-207 [Repealed, 2004 c 162 art 2 s 17 ]
336.2A-208 MODIFICATION, RESCISSION AND WAIVER.
(1) An agreement modifying a lease contract needs no consideration to be binding.
(2) A signed lease agreement that excludes modification or rescission except by a signed record may not be otherwise modified or rescinded, but, except as between merchants, this requirement on a form supplied by a merchant must be separately signed by the other party.
(3) Although an attempt at modification or rescission does not satisfy the requirements of subsection (2), it may operate as a waiver.
(4) A party who has made a waiver affecting an executory portion of a lease contract may retract the waiver by reasonable notification received by the other party that strict performance will be required of any term waived, unless the retraction would be unjust in view of a material change of position in reliance on the waiver.
History:
1989 c 232 art 1 s 2 A-208; 2024 c 93 art 3 s 8
336.2A-209 LESSEE UNDER FINANCE LEASE AS BENEFICIARY OF SUPPLY CONTRACT.
(1) The benefit of a supplier's promises to the lessor under the supply contract and of all warranties, whether express or implied, including those of any third party provided in connection with or as part of the supply contract, extends to the lessee to the extent of the lessee's leasehold interest under a finance lease related to the supply contract, but is subject to the terms of the warranty and of the supply contract and all defenses or claims arising from the supply contract.
(2) The extension of the benefit of a supplier's promises and of warranties to the lessee (section 336.2A-209 (1)) does not: (i) modify the rights and obligations of the parties to the supply contract, whether arising from the supply contract or otherwise, or (ii) impose any duty or liability under the supply contract on the lessee.
(3) Any modification or rescission of the supply contract by the supplier and the lessor is effective between the supplier and the lessee unless, before the modification or rescission, the supplier has received notice that the lessee has entered into a finance lease related to the supply contract. If the modification or rescission is effective between the supplier and the lessee, the lessor is deemed to have assumed, in addition to the obligations of the lessor to the lessee under the lease contract, promises of the supplier to the lessor and warranties that were so modified or rescinded as they existed and were available to the lessee before modification or rescission.
(4) In addition to the extension of the benefit of the supplier's promises and of warranties to the lessee under subsection (1), the lessee retains all rights that the lessee may have against the supplier that arise from an agreement between the lessee and the supplier or under other law.
History:
1989 c 232 art 1 s 2 A-209; 1991 c 171 art 1 s 2
336.2A-210 EXPRESS WARRANTIES.
(1) Express warranties by the lessor are created as follows:
(a) Any affirmation of fact or promise made by the lessor to the lessee which relates to the goods and becomes part of the basis of the bargain creates an express warranty that the goods will conform to the affirmation or promise.
(b) Any description of the goods which is made part of the basis of the bargain creates an express warranty that the goods will conform to the description.
(c) Any sample or model that is made part of the basis of the bargain creates an express warranty that the whole of the goods will conform to the sample or model.
(2) It is not necessary to the creation of an express warranty that the lessor use formal words, such as "warrant" or "guarantee," or that the lessor have a specific intention to make a warranty, but an affirmation merely of the value of the goods or a statement purporting to be merely the lessor's opinion or commendation of the goods does not create a warranty.
History:
1989 c 232 art 1 s 2 A-210
336.2A-211 WARRANTIES AGAINST INTERFERENCE AND AGAINST INFRINGEMENT; LESSEE'S OBLIGATION AGAINST INFRINGEMENT.
(1) There is in a lease contract a warranty that for the lease term no person holds a claim to or interest in the goods that arose from an act or omission of the lessor, other than a claim by way of infringement or the like, which will interfere with the lessee's enjoyment of its leasehold interest.
(2) Except in a finance lease there is in a lease contract by a lessor who is a merchant regularly dealing in goods of the kind a warranty that the goods are delivered free of the rightful claim of any person by way of infringement or the like.
(3) A lessee who furnishes specifications to a lessor or a supplier shall hold the lessor and the supplier harmless against any claim by way of infringement or the like that arises out of compliance with the specifications.
History:
1989 c 232 art 1 s 2 A-211
336.2A-212 IMPLIED WARRANTY OF MERCHANTABILITY.
(1) Except in a finance lease, a warranty that the goods will be merchantable is implied in a lease contract if the lessor is a merchant with respect to goods of that kind.
(2) Goods to be merchantable must be at least goods that:
(a) pass without objection in the trade under the description in the lease agreement;
(b) in the case of fungible goods, are of fair average quality within the description;
(c) are fit for the ordinary purposes for which goods of that type are used;
(d) run, within the variation permitted by the lease agreement, of even kind, quality, and quantity within each unit and among all units involved;
(e) are adequately contained, packaged, and labeled as the lease agreement may require; and
(f) conform to any promises or affirmations of fact made on the container or label.
(3) Other implied warranties may arise from course of dealing or usage of trade.
History:
1989 c 232 art 1 s 2 A-212
336.2A-213 IMPLIED WARRANTY OF FITNESS FOR PARTICULAR PURPOSE.
Except in a finance lease, if the lessor at the time the lease contract is made has reason to know of any particular purpose for which the goods are required and that the lessee is relying on the lessor's skill or judgment to select or furnish suitable goods, there is in the lease contract an implied warranty that the goods will be fit for that purpose.
History:
1989 c 232 art 1 s 2 A-213
336.2A-214 EXCLUSION OR MODIFICATION OF WARRANTIES.
(1) Words or conduct relevant to the creation of an express warranty and words or conduct tending to negate or limit a warranty must be construed wherever reasonable as consistent with each other; but, subject to the provisions of section 336.2A-202 on parol or extrinsic evidence, negation or limitation is inoperative to the extent that the construction is unreasonable.
(2) Subject to subsection (3), to exclude or modify the implied warranty of merchantability or any part of it the language must mention "merchantability," be by a writing, and be conspicuous. Subject to subsection (3), to exclude or modify any implied warranty of fitness the exclusion must be by a writing and be conspicuous. Language to exclude all implied warranties of fitness is sufficient if it is in writing, is conspicuous and states, for example, "There is no warranty that the goods will be fit for a particular purpose."
(3) Notwithstanding subsection (2), but subject to subsection (4):
(a) unless the circumstances indicate otherwise, all implied warranties are excluded by expressions like "as is" or "with all faults" or by other language that in common understanding calls the lessee's attention to the exclusion of warranties and makes plain that there is no implied warranty, if in writing and conspicuous;
(b) if the lessee before entering into the lease contract has examined the goods or the sample or model as fully as desired or has refused to examine the goods, there is no implied warranty with regard to defects that an examination ought in the circumstances to have revealed; and
(c) an implied warranty may also be excluded or modified by course of dealing, course of performance, or usage of trade.
(4) To exclude or modify a warranty against interference or against infringement (section 336.2A-211 ) or any part of it, the language must be specific, be by a writing, and be conspicuous, unless the circumstances, including course of performance, course of dealing, or usage of trade, give the lessee reason to know that the goods are being leased subject to a claim or interest of any person.
History:
1989 c 232 art 1 s 2 A-214
336.2A-215 CUMULATION AND CONFLICT OF WARRANTIES EXPRESS OR IMPLIED.
Warranties, whether express or implied, must be construed as consistent with each other and as cumulative, but if that construction is unreasonable, the intention of the parties determines which warranty is dominant. In ascertaining that intention the following rules apply:
(a) Exact or technical specifications displace an inconsistent sample or model or general language of description.
(b) A sample from an existing bulk displaces inconsistent general language of description.
(c) Express warranties displace inconsistent implied warranties other than an implied warranty of fitness for a particular purpose.
History:
1989 c 232 art 1 s 2 A-215
336.2A-216 THIRD-PARTY BENEFICIARIES OF EXPRESS AND IMPLIED WARRANTIES.
A warranty to or for the benefit of a lessee under this article, whether express or implied, extends to any person who may reasonably be expected to use, consume, or be affected by the goods and who is injured by breach of the warranty. The operation of this section may not be excluded, modified, or limited, but an exclusion, modification, or limitation of the warranty, including any with respect to rights and remedies, effective against the lessee is also effective against the beneficiary designated under this section.
History:
1989 c 232 art 1 s 2 A-216
336.2A-217 IDENTIFICATION.
Identification of goods as goods to which a lease contract refers may be made at any time and in any manner explicitly agreed to by the parties. In the absence of explicit agreement, identification occurs:
(a) when the lease contract is made if the lease contract is for a lease of goods that are existing and identified;
(b) when the goods are shipped, marked, or otherwise designated by the lessor as goods to which the lease contract refers, if the lease contract is for a lease of goods that are not existing and identified; or
(c) when the young are conceived, if the lease contract is for a lease of unborn young of animals.
History:
1989 c 232 art 1 s 2 A-217
336.2A-218 INSURANCE AND PROCEEDS.
(1) A lessee obtains an insurable interest when existing goods are identified to the lease contract even though the goods identified are nonconforming and the lessee has an option to reject them.
(2) If a lessee has an insurable interest only by reason of the lessor's identification of the goods, the lessor, until default or insolvency or notification to the lessee that identification is final, may substitute other goods for those identified.
(3) Notwithstanding a lessee's insurable interest under subsections (1) and (2), the lessor retains an insurable interest until an option to buy has been exercised by the lessee and risk of loss has passed to the lessee.
(4) Nothing in this section impairs any insurable interest recognized under any other statute or rule of law.
(5) The parties by agreement may determine that one or more parties have an obligation to obtain and pay for insurance covering the goods and by agreement may determine the beneficiary of the proceeds of the insurance.
History:
1989 c 232 art 1 s 2 A-218
336.2A-219 RISK OF LOSS.
(1) Except in the case of a finance lease, risk of loss is retained by the lessor and does not pass to the lessee. In the case of a finance lease, risk of loss passes to the lessee.
(2) Subject to the provisions of this article on the effect of default on risk of loss (section 336.2A-220 ), if risk of loss is to pass to the lessee and the time of passage is not stated, the following rules apply:
(a) If the lease contract requires or authorizes the goods to be shipped by carrier
(i) and it does not require delivery at a particular destination, the risk of loss passes to the lessee when the goods are duly delivered to the carrier; but
(ii) if it does require delivery at a particular destination and the goods are there duly tendered while in the possession of the carrier, the risk of loss passes to the lessee when the goods are there duly so tendered as to enable the lessee to take delivery.
(b) If the goods are held by a bailee to be delivered without being moved, the risk of loss passes to the lessee on acknowledgment by the bailee of the lessee's right to possession of the goods.
(c) In any case not within subsection (a) or (b), the risk of loss passes to the lessee on the lessee's receipt of the goods if the lessor, or, in the case of a finance lease, the supplier, is a merchant; otherwise the risk passes to the lessee on tender of delivery.
History:
1989 c 232 art 1 s 2 A-219
336.2A-220 EFFECT OF DEFAULT ON RISK OF LOSS.
(1) Where risk of loss is to pass to the lessee and the time of passage is not stated:
(a) If a tender or delivery of goods so fails to conform to the lease contract as to give a right of rejection, the risk of their loss remains with the lessor, or, in the case of a finance lease, the supplier, until cure or acceptance.
(b) If the lessee rightfully revokes acceptance, the lessee, to the extent of any deficiency in the lessee's effective insurance coverage, may treat the risk of loss as having remained with the lessor from the beginning.
(2) Whether or not risk of loss is to pass to the lessee, if the lessee as to conforming goods already identified to a lease contract repudiates or is otherwise in default under the lease contract, the lessor, or, in the case of a finance lease, the supplier, to the extent of any deficiency in the lessor's or supplier's effective insurance coverage may treat the risk of loss as resting on the lessee for a commercially reasonable time.
History:
1989 c 232 art 1 s 2 A-220
336.2A-221 CASUALTY TO IDENTIFIED GOODS.
If a lease contract requires goods identified when the lease contract is made, and the goods suffer casualty without fault of the lessee, the lessor or the supplier before delivery, or the goods suffer casualty before risk of loss passes to the lessee pursuant to the lease agreement or section 336.2A-219 , then:
(a) if the loss is total, the lease contract is avoided; and
(b) if the loss is partial or the goods have so deteriorated as to no longer conform to the lease contract, the lessee may nevertheless demand inspection and at the lessee's option either treat the lease contract as avoided or, except in a finance lease, accept the goods with due allowance from the rent payable for the balance of the lease term for the deterioration or the deficiency in quantity but without further right against the lessor.
History:
1989 c 232 art 1 s 2 A-221
Part 3 EFFECT OF LEASE CONTRACT
336.2A-301 ENFORCEABILITY OF LEASE CONTRACT.
Except as otherwise provided in this article, a lease contract is effective and enforceable according to its terms between the parties, against purchasers of the goods and against creditors of the parties.
History:
1989 c 232 art 1 s 2 A-301
336.2A-302 TITLE TO AND POSSESSION OF GOODS.
Except as otherwise provided in this article, each provision of this article applies whether the lessor or a third party has title to the goods, and whether the lessor, the lessee, or a third party has possession of the goods, notwithstanding any statute or rule of law that possession or the absence of possession is fraudulent.
History:
1989 c 232 art 1 s 2 A-302
336.2A-303 ALIENABILITY OF PARTY'S INTEREST UNDER LEASE CONTRACT OR OF LESSOR'S RESIDUAL INTEREST IN GOODS; DELEGATION OF PERFORMANCE; TRANSFER OF RIGHTS.
(1) As used in this section, "creation of a security interest" includes the sale of a lease contract that is subject to article 9, secured transactions, by reason of section 336.9-109 (a)(3).
(2) Except as provided in subsection (3) and section 336.9-407 , a provision in a lease agreement that (i) prohibits the voluntary or involuntary transfer, including a transfer by sale, sublease, creation or enforcement of a security interest, or attachment, levy, or other judicial process, of an interest of a party under the lease contract or of the lessor's residual interest in the goods, or (ii) makes the transfer an event of default, gives rise to the rights and remedies provided in subsection (4), but a transfer that is prohibited or is an event of default under the lease agreement is otherwise effective.
(3) A provision in a lease agreement that (i) prohibits a transfer of a right to damages for default with respect to the whole lease contract or of a right to payment arising out of the transferor's due performance of the transferor's entire obligation, or (ii) makes the transfer an event of default, is not enforceable, and the transfer is not a transfer that materially impairs the prospect of obtaining return performance by, materially changes the duty of, or materially increases the burden or risk imposed on, the other party to the lease contract within the purview of subsection (4).
(4) Subject to subsection (3) and section 336.9-407 :
(a) if a transfer is made that is made an event of default under a lease agreement, the party to the lease contract not making the transfer, unless that party waives the default or otherwise agrees, has the rights and remedies described in section 336.2A-501 (2);
(b) if paragraph (a) is not applicable and if a transfer is made that (i) is prohibited under a lease agreement or (ii) materially impairs the prospect of obtaining return performance by, materially changes the duty of, or materially increases the burden or risk imposed on, the other party to the lease contract, unless the party not making the transfer agrees at any time to the transfer in the lease contract or otherwise, then, except as limited by contract, (i) the transferor is liable to the party not making the transfer for damages caused by the transfer to the extent that the damages could not reasonably be prevented by the party not making the transfer and (ii) a court having jurisdiction may grant other appropriate relief, including cancellation of the lease contract or an injunction against the transfer.
(5) A transfer of "the lease" or of "all my rights under the lease," or a transfer in similar general terms, is a transfer of rights and, unless the language or the circumstances, as in a transfer for security, indicate the contrary, the transfer is a delegation of duties by the transferor to the transferee. Acceptance by the transferee constitutes a promise by the transferee to perform those duties. The promise is enforceable by either the transferor or the other party to the lease contract.
(6) Unless otherwise agreed by the lessor and the lessee, a delegation of performance does not relieve the transferor as against the other party of any duty to perform or of any liability for default.
(7) In a consumer lease, to prohibit the transfer of an interest of a party under the lease contract or to make a transfer an event of default, the language must be specific, by a writing, and conspicuous.
History:
1989 c 232 art 1 s 2 A-303; 1991 c 171 art 1 s 3 ; 2000 c 399 art 2 s 9
336.2A-304 SUBSEQUENT LEASE OF GOODS BY LESSOR.
(1) Subject to section 336.2A-303 , a subsequent lessee from a lessor of goods under an existing lease contract obtains, to the extent of the leasehold interest transferred, the leasehold interest in the goods that the lessor had or had power to transfer, and except as provided in subsection (2) and section 336.2A-527 (4), takes subject to the existing lease contract. A lessor with voidable title has power to transfer a good leasehold interest to a good faith subsequent lessee for value but only to the extent set forth in the preceding sentence. If goods have been delivered under a transaction of purchase, the lessor has that power even though:
(a) the lessor's transferor was deceived as to the identity of the lessor;
(b) the delivery was in exchange for a check which is later dishonored;
(c) it was agreed that the transaction was to be a "cash sale"; or
(d) the delivery was procured through fraud punishable as larcenous under the criminal law.
(2) If a lessee has entrusted leased goods to the lessee's lessor who is a merchant dealing in goods of that kind, a subsequent lessee from that lessor under a lease entered into after the entrustment and in the ordinary course of business takes those goods free of the existing lease contract and obtains, to the extent of the leasehold interest transferred, all of the lessor's and the earlier lessee's rights to the goods.
(3) A subsequent lessee from the lessor of goods that are subject to an existing lease contract and are covered by a certificate of title issued under a statute of this state or of another jurisdiction takes no greater rights than those provided both by this section and by the certificate of title statute.
History:
1989 c 232 art 1 s 2 A-304; 1991 c 171 art 1 s 4
336.2A-305 SALE OR SUBLEASE OF GOODS BY LESSEE.
(1) Subject to the provisions of section 336.2A-303 , a buyer or sublessee from the lessee of goods under an existing lease contract obtains, to the extent of the interest transferred, the leasehold interest in the goods that the lessee had or had power to transfer, and except as provided in subsection (2) and section 336.2A-511 (4), takes subject to the existing lease contract. A lessee with a voidable leasehold interest has power to transfer a good leasehold interest to a good faith buyer for value or a good faith sublessee for value, but only to the extent set forth in the preceding sentence. When goods have been delivered under a transaction of lease the lessee has that power even though:
(a) the lessor was deceived as to the identity of the lessee;
(b) the delivery was in exchange for a check which is later dishonored; or
(c) the delivery was procured through fraud punishable as larcenous under the criminal law.
(2) A buyer in the ordinary course of business or a sublessee in the ordinary course of business from a lessee who is a merchant dealing in goods of that kind to whom the goods were entrusted by the lessor obtains, to the extent of the interest transferred, all of the lessor's and lessee's rights to the goods, and takes free of the existing lease contract.
(3) A buyer or sublessee from the lessee of goods that are subject to an existing lease contract and are covered by a certificate of title issued under a statute of this state or of another jurisdiction takes no greater rights than those provided both by this section and by the certificate of title statute.
History:
1989 c 232 art 1 s 2 A-305
336.2A-306 PRIORITY OF CERTAIN LIENS ARISING BY OPERATION OF LAW.
If a person in the ordinary course of the person's business furnishes services or materials with respect to goods subject to a lease contract, a lien upon those goods in the possession of that person given by statute or rule of law for those materials or services takes priority over any interest of the lessor or lessee under the lease contract or this article unless the lien is created by statute and the statute provides otherwise or unless the lien is created by rule of law and the rule of law provides otherwise.
History:
1989 c 232 art 1 s 2 A-306
336.2A-307 PRIORITY OF LIENS ARISING BY ATTACHMENT OR LEVY ON, SECURITY INTERESTS IN, AND OTHER CLAIMS TO GOODS.
(1) Except as otherwise provided in section 336.2A-306 , a creditor of a lessee takes subject to the lease contract.
(2) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (3) and in sections 336.2A-306 and 336.2A-308 , a creditor of a lessor takes subject to the lease contract unless the creditor holds a lien that attached to the goods before the lease contract became enforceable.
(3) Except as otherwise provided in sections 336.9-317 , 336.9-321 , and 336.9-323 , a lessee takes a leasehold interest subject to a security interest held by a creditor of the lessor.
History:
1989 c 232 art 1 s 2 A-307; 1991 c 171 art 1 s 5 ; 2000 c 399 art 2 s 10
336.2A-308 SPECIAL RIGHTS OF CREDITORS.
(1) A creditor of a lessor in possession of goods subject to a lease contract may treat the lease contract as void if as against the creditor retention of possession by the lessor is fraudulent under any statute or rule of law, but retention of possession in good faith and current course of trade by the lessor for a commercially reasonable time after the lease contract becomes enforceable is not fraudulent.
(2) Nothing in this article impairs the rights of creditors of a lessor if the lease contract (a) becomes enforceable, not in current course of trade but in satisfaction of or as security for a preexisting claim for money, security, or the like, and (b) is made under circumstances which under any statute or rule of law apart from this article would constitute the transaction a fraudulent transfer or voidable preference.
(3) A creditor of a seller may treat a sale or an identification of goods to a contract for sale as void if as against the creditor retention of possession by the seller is fraudulent under any statute or rule of law, but retention of possession of the goods pursuant to a lease contract entered into by the seller as lessee and the buyer as lessor in connection with the sale or identification of the goods is not fraudulent if the buyer bought for value and in good faith.
History:
1989 c 232 art 1 s 2 A-308
336.2A-309 LESSOR'S AND LESSEE'S RIGHTS WHEN GOODS BECOME FIXTURES.
(1) In this section:
(a) goods are "fixtures" when they become so related to particular real estate that an interest in them arises under real estate law;
(b) a "fixture filing" is the filing, in the office where a record of a mortgage on the real estate would be filed or recorded, of a financing statement covering goods that are or are to become fixtures and conforming to the requirements of section 336.9-502 (a) and (b);
(c) a lease is a "purchase money lease" unless the lessee has possession or use of the goods or the right to possession or use of the goods before the lease agreement is enforceable;
(d) a mortgage is a "construction mortgage" to the extent it secures an obligation incurred for the construction of an improvement on land including the acquisition cost of the land, if the recorded writing so indicates; and
(e) "encumbrance" includes real estate mortgages and other liens on real estate and all other rights in real estate that are not ownership interests.
(2) Under this article a lease may be of goods that are fixtures or may continue in goods that become fixtures, but no lease exists under this article of ordinary building materials incorporated into an improvement on land.
(3) This article does not prevent creation of a lease of fixtures pursuant to real estate law.
(4) The perfected interest of a lessor of fixtures has priority over a conflicting interest of an encumbrancer or owner of the real estate if:
(a) the lease is a purchase money lease, the conflicting interest of the encumbrancer or owner arises before the goods become fixtures, the interest of the lessor is perfected by a fixture filing before the goods become fixtures or within ten days after that, and the lessee has an interest of record in the real estate or is in possession of the real estate; or
(b) the interest of the lessor is perfected by a fixture filing before the interest of the encumbrancer or owner is of record, the lessor's interest has priority over any conflicting interest of a predecessor in title of the encumbrancer or owner, and the lessee has an interest of record in the real estate or is in possession of the real estate.
(5) The interest of a lessor of fixtures, whether or not perfected, has priority over the conflicting interest of an encumbrancer or owner of the real estate if:
(a) the fixtures are readily removable factory or office machines, readily removable equipment that is not primarily used or leased for use in the operation of the real estate, or readily removable replacements of domestic appliances that are goods subject to a consumer lease, and before the goods become fixtures the lease contract is enforceable; or
(b) the conflicting interest is a lien on the real estate obtained by legal or equitable proceedings after the lease contract is enforceable; or
(c) the encumbrancer or owner has consented in writing to the lease or has disclaimed an interest in the goods as fixtures; or
(d) the lessee has a right to remove the goods as against the encumbrancer or owner. If the lessee's right to remove terminates, the priority of the interest of the lessor continues for a reasonable time.
(6) Notwithstanding subsection (4)(a) but otherwise subject to subsections (4) and (5), the interest of a lessor of fixtures, including the lessor's residual interest, is subordinate to the conflicting interest of an encumbrancer of the real estate under a construction mortgage recorded before the goods become fixtures if the goods become fixtures before the completion of the construction. To the extent given to refinance a construction mortgage, the conflicting interest of an encumbrancer of the real estate under a mortgage has this priority to the same extent as the encumbrancer of the real estate under the construction mortgage.
(7) In cases not within the preceding subsections, priority between the interest of a lessor of fixtures, including the lessor's residual interest, and the conflicting interest of an encumbrancer or owner of the real estate who is not the lessee is determined by the priority rules governing conflicting interests in real estate.
(8) If the interest of a lessor of fixtures, including the lessor's residual interest, has priority over all conflicting interests of all owners and encumbrancers of the real estate, the lessor or the lessee may (i) on default, expiration, termination, or cancellation of the lease agreement but subject to the lease agreement and this article, or (ii) if necessary to enforce the lessor's or lessee's other rights and remedies under this article; remove the goods from the real estate, free and clear of all conflicting interests of all owners and encumbrancers of the real estate, but the lessor or lessee must reimburse any encumbrancer or owner of the real estate who is not the lessee and who has not otherwise agreed for the cost of repair of any physical injury, but not for any diminution in value of the real estate caused by the absence of the goods removed or by any necessity of replacing them. A person entitled to reimbursement may refuse permission to remove until the party seeking removal gives adequate security for the performance of this obligation.
(9) Even though the lease agreement does not create a security interest, the interest of a lessor of fixtures, including the lessor's residual interest, is perfected by filing a financing statement as a fixture filing for leased goods that are or are to become fixtures in accordance with the relevant provisions of the Article on Secured Transactions (article 9).
History:
1989 c 232 art 1 s 2 A-309; 1991 c 171 art 1 s 6 ; 2000 c 399 art 2 s 11
336.2A-310 LESSOR'S AND LESSEE'S RIGHTS WHEN GOODS BECOME ACCESSIONS.
(1) Goods are "accessions" when they are installed in or affixed to other goods.
(2) The interest of a lessor or a lessee under a lease contract entered into before the goods became accessions is superior to all interests in the whole except as stated in subsection (4).
(3) The interest of a lessor or a lessee under a lease contract entered into at the time or after the goods became accessions is superior to all subsequently acquired interests in the whole except as stated in subsection (4) but is subordinate to interests in the whole existing at the time the lease contract was made unless the holders of the interests in the whole have in writing consented to the lease or disclaimed an interest in the goods as part of the whole.
(4) The interest of a lessor or a lessee under a lease contract described in subsection (2) or (3) is subordinate to the interest of
(a) a buyer in the ordinary course of business or a lessee in the ordinary course of business of any interest in the whole acquired after the goods became accessions; or
(b) a creditor with a security interest in the whole perfected before the lease contract was made to the extent that the creditor makes subsequent advances without knowledge of the lease contract.
(5) When under subsections (2) or (3) and (4) a lessor or a lessee of accessions holds an interest that is superior to all interests in the whole, the lessor or the lessee may: (a) on default, expiration, termination, or cancellation of the lease contract by the other party but subject to the provisions of the lease contract and this article, or (b) if necessary to enforce the lessor's or lessee's other rights and remedies under this article; remove the goods from the whole, free and clear of all interests in the whole, but the lessor or lessee must reimburse any holder of an interest in the whole who is not the lessee and who has not otherwise agreed for the cost of repair of any physical injury but not for any diminution in value of the whole caused by the absence of the goods removed or by any necessity for replacing them. A person entitled to reimbursement may refuse permission to remove until the party seeking removal gives adequate security for the performance of this obligation.
History:
1989 c 232 art 1 s 2 A-310
336.2A-311 PRIORITY SUBJECT TO SUBORDINATION.
Nothing in this article prevents subordination by agreement by any person entitled to priority.
History:
1991 c 171 art 1 s 7
Part 4 PERFORMANCE OF LEASED CONTRACT: REPUDIATED, SUBSTITUTED, AND EXCUSED
336.2A-401 INSECURITY; ADEQUATE ASSURANCE OF PERFORMANCE.
(1) A lease contract imposes an obligation on each party that the other's expectation of receiving due performance will not be impaired.
(2) If reasonable grounds for insecurity arise with respect to the performance of either party, the insecure party may demand in writing adequate assurance of due performance. Until the insecure party receives that assurance, if commercially reasonable the insecure party may suspend any performance for which the insecure party has not already received the agreed return.
(3) A repudiation of the lease contract occurs if assurance of due performance adequate under the circumstances of the particular case is not provided to the insecure party within a reasonable time, not to exceed 30 days after receipt of a demand by the other party.
(4) Between merchants, the reasonableness of grounds for insecurity and the adequacy of any assurance offered must be determined according to commercial standards.
(5) Acceptance of any nonconforming delivery or payment does not prejudice the aggrieved party's right to demand adequate assurance of future performance.
History:
1989 c 232 art 1 s 2 A-401
336.2A-402 ANTICIPATORY REPUDIATION.
If either party repudiates a lease contract with respect to a performance not yet due under the lease contract, the loss of which performance will substantially impair the value of the lease contract to the other, the aggrieved party may:
(a) for a commercially reasonable time, await retraction of repudiation and performance by the repudiating party;
(b) make demand pursuant to section 336.2A-401 and await assurance of future performance adequate under the circumstances of the particular case; or
(c) resort to any right or remedy upon default under the lease contract or this article, even though the aggrieved party has notified the repudiating party that the aggrieved party would await the repudiating party's performance and assurance and has urged retraction.
In addition, whether or not the aggrieved party is pursuing one of the remedies in this section, the aggrieved party may suspend performance or, if the aggrieved party is the lessor, proceed in accordance with the provisions of this article on the lessor's right to identify goods to the lease contract notwithstanding default or to salvage unfinished goods (section 336.2A-524 ).
History:
1989 c 232 art 1 s 2 A-402
336.2A-403 RETRACTION OF ANTICIPATORY REPUDIATION.
(1) Until the repudiating party's next performance is due, the repudiating party can retract the repudiation unless, since the repudiation, the aggrieved party has canceled the lease contract or materially changed the aggrieved party's position or otherwise indicated that the aggrieved party considers the repudiation final.
(2) Retraction may be by any method that clearly indicates to the aggrieved party that the repudiating party intends to perform under the lease contract and includes any assurance demanded under section 336.2A-401 .
(3) Retraction reinstates a repudiating party's rights under a lease contract with due excuse and allowance to the aggrieved party for any delay occasioned by the repudiation.
History:
1989 c 232 art 1 s 2 A-403
336.2A-404 SUBSTITUTED PERFORMANCE.
(1) If without fault of the lessee, the lessor and the supplier, the agreed berthing, loading, or unloading facilities fail or the agreed type of carrier becomes unavailable or the agreed manner of delivery otherwise becomes commercially impracticable, but a commercially reasonable substitute is available, the substitute performance must be tendered and accepted.
(2) If the agreed means or manner of payment fails because of domestic or foreign governmental regulation:
(a) the lessor may withhold or stop delivery or cause the supplier to withhold or stop delivery unless the lessee provides a means or manner of payment that is commercially a substantial equivalent; and
(b) if delivery has already been taken, payment by the means or in the manner provided by the regulation discharges the lessee's obligation unless the regulation is discriminatory, oppressive, or predatory.
History:
1989 c 232 art 1 s 2 A-404
336.2A-405 EXCUSED PERFORMANCE.
Subject to section 336.2A-404 on substituted performance, the following rules apply:
(a) Delay in delivery or nondelivery in whole or in part by a lessor or a supplier who complies with paragraphs (b) and (c) is not a default under the lease contract if performance as agreed has been made impracticable by the occurrence of a contingency the nonoccurrence of which was a basic assumption on which the lease contract was made or by compliance in good faith with any applicable foreign or domestic governmental regulation or order, whether or not the regulation or order later proves to be invalid.
(b) If the causes mentioned in paragraph (a) affect only part of the lessor's or the supplier's capacity to perform, the lessor or supplier shall allocate production and deliveries among the lessor's or supplier's customers but may include regular customers not then under contract for sale or lease as well as other requirements for further manufacture. The lessor or supplier may so allocate in any manner that is fair and reasonable.
(c) The lessor seasonably shall notify the lessee and in the case of a finance lease the supplier seasonably shall notify the lessor and the lessee, if known, that there will be delay or nondelivery and, if allocation is required under paragraph (b), of the estimated quota made available for the lessee.
History:
1989 c 232 art 1 s 2 A-405
336.2A-406 PROCEDURE ON EXCUSED PERFORMANCE.
(1) If the lessee receives notification of a material or indefinite delay or an allocation justified under section 336.2A-405 , the lessee may by written notification to the lessor as to any goods involved, and with respect to all of the goods if under an installment lease contract the value of the whole lease contract is substantially impaired (section 336.2A-510 ):
(a) terminate the lease contract (section 336.2A-505 (2)); or
(b) except in a finance lease, modify the lease contract by accepting the available quota in substitution, with due allowance from the rent payable for the balance of the lease term for the deficiency but without further right against the lessor.
(2) If, after receipt of a notification from the lessor under section 336.2A-405 , the lessee fails so to modify the lease agreement within a reasonable time not exceeding 30 days, the lease contract lapses with respect to any deliveries affected.
History:
1989 c 232 art 1 s 2 A-406
336.2A-407 IRREVOCABLE PROMISES; FINANCE LEASES.
(1) In the case of a finance lease, the lessee's promises under the lease contract become irrevocable and independent upon the lessee's acceptance of the goods.
(2) A promise that has become irrevocable and independent under subsection (1):
(a) is effective and enforceable between the parties, and by or against third parties including assignees of the parties; and
(b) is not subject to cancellation, termination, modification, repudiation, excuse, or substitution without the consent of the party to whom the promise runs.
(3) This section does not affect the validity under any other law of a covenant in any lease contract making the lessee's promises irrevocable and independent upon the lessee's acceptance of the goods.
History:
1989 c 232 art 1 s 2 A-407; 1991 c 171 art 1 s 8
Part 5 DEFAULT A. IN GENERAL
336.2A-501 DEFAULT; PROCEDURE.
(1) Whether the lessor or the lessee is in default under a lease contract is determined by the lease agreement and this article.
(2) If the lessor or the lessee is in default under the lease contract, the party seeking enforcement has rights and remedies as provided in this article and, except as limited by this article, as provided in the lease agreement.
(3) If the lessor or the lessee is in default under the lease contract, the party seeking enforcement may reduce the party's claim to judgment, or otherwise enforce the lease contract by self-help or any available judicial procedure or nonjudicial procedure, including administrative proceeding, arbitration, or the like, in accordance with this article.
(4) Except as otherwise provided in section 336.1-305 (a) or this article or the lease agreement, the rights and remedies referred to in subsections (2) and (3) are cumulative.
(5) If the lease agreement covers both real property and goods, the party seeking enforcement may proceed under this part as to the goods, or under other applicable law as to both the real property and the goods in accordance with that party's rights and remedies in respect of the real property, in which case this part does not apply.
History:
1989 c 232 art 1 s 2 A-501; 1991 c 171 art 1 s 9 ; 2004 c 162 art 2 s 4
336.2A-502 NOTICE AFTER DEFAULT.
Except as otherwise provided in this article or the lease agreement, the lessor or lessee in default under the lease contract is not entitled to notice of default or notice of enforcement from the other party to the lease agreement.
History:
1989 c 232 art 1 s 2 A-502
336.2A-503 MODIFICATION OR IMPAIRMENT OF RIGHTS AND REMEDIES.
(1) Except as otherwise provided in this article, the lease agreement may include rights and remedies for default in addition to or in substitution for those provided in this article and may limit or alter the measure of damages recoverable under this article.
(2) Resort to a remedy provided under this article or in the lease agreement is optional unless the remedy is expressly agreed to be exclusive. If circumstances cause an exclusive or limited remedy to fail of its essential purpose, or provision for an exclusive remedy is unconscionable, remedy may be had as provided in this article.
(3) Consequential damages may be liquidated under section 336.2A-504 , or may otherwise be limited, altered, or excluded unless the limitation, alteration, or exclusion is unconscionable. Limitation, alterat
Minn. Stat. § 550.31
550.31 CREDITOR TO RECORD ORDER WITH COUNTY RECORDER.
For the purpose of such redemption a creditor whose claim against the estate of a decedent shall have been so allowed shall record in the office of the county recorder of the county in which the real estate sought to be redeemed is situated, within the year of redemption, a certified copy of the order of the court allowing such claim, and thereupon such claim shall constitute a lien upon the unexempt real estate of the decedent sold upon foreclosure or execution. The creditor shall also within such time file a notice in the office of such county recorder briefly describing the sale of the decedent's lands, a description of the lands sold, and stating, in a general way, the nature, date and amount of the claim of the creditor, and that the creditor intends to redeem such lands from the sale thereof described in such notice. In the case of redemption from execution sales such notice shall also be filed in the office of the court administrator of the district court in which such lands are situated.
History:
( 9445-2 ) 1929 c 195 s 2 ; 1976 c 181 s 2 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1Sp1986 c 3 art 1 s 82 ; 1995 c 189 s 8 ; 1996 c 277 s 1 ; 2005 c 4 s 131
Minn. Stat. § 558.17
558.17 SALE OF REAL PROPERTY UNDER ACTION FOR PARTITION; NOTICE.
The sale may be by public auction to the highest bidder for cash, upon published notice in the manner required for the sale of real property on execution. The notice shall state the terms of the sale; and if the property, or any part of it, is to be sold subject to a prior estate, charge, or specific lien, the notice shall so state. The terms of sale shall be made known at the time thereof, and, if the premises consist of distinct farms or lots, they shall be sold separately. The court may, if it be for the best interests of the owners of the property, order such property sold by private sale. If a private sale be ordered the real estate shall be appraised by two or more disinterested persons under order of the court, which appraisal shall be filed before the confirmation of the sale by the court. No real estate shall be sold at private sale for less than its value as fixed by such appraisal. The court may order sale of real estate for cash, part cash and a purchase money mortgage of not more than 50 percent of the purchase price, or on contract for deed.
History:
( 9540 ) RL s 4408 ; 1937 c 190 s 1
Minn. Stat. § 558.28
558.28 RELEASE OF CONTINGENT INTEREST.
A married person may release to a spouse a contingent interest in real estate by a writing executed and acknowledged in the same manner as a conveyance, and, upon the filing of the instrument with the court administrator, the whole proceeds arising from the sale shall be paid to the spouse to whom the interest was released. The release shall bar the releaser's contingent interest in the real estate.
History:
( 9551 ) RL s 4419 ; 1981 c 31 s 17 ; 1Sp1986 c 3 art 1 s 82
Minn. Stat. § 558A.12
558A.12 REPORT OF OPEN-MARKET SALE.
The referee or referees shall file a report with the court containing the following information:
(1) a description of the property to be sold to each buyer;
(2) the name of each buyer;
(3) the proposed purchase price;
(4) the terms and conditions of the proposed sale, including the terms of any owner financing;
(5) the amounts to be paid to lienholders;
(6) a statement of contractual or other arrangements or conditions of the broker's commission; and
(7) other material facts relevant to the sale.
History:
2025 c 2 art 2 s 12
Minn. Stat. § 558A.25
558A.25 PERSONS PROHIBITED FROM PURCHASING.
§
Subdivision 1. Referee may not purchase property.
No referee, nor any person for the benefit of any referee, shall be interested, directly or indirectly, in any purchase of the premises sold.
§
Subd. 2. Other compensation.
This provision is not intended to prevent anyone from receiving compensation under chapter 82, and also payment for services as a referee appointed under this chapter, if the court determines that the referee services are beyond the usual broker services in connection with the sale of the property.
History:
2025 c 2 art 2 s 25
Minn. Stat. § 559.01
559.01 , and if in addition to the above known or unknown defendants, the heirs of a deceased person are proper parties defendant, and their names are unknown, and such affidavit shall further state that the heirs of such deceased person are proper parties to such action, and that their names and residences cannot with reasonable diligence be ascertained, then service of summons may be made on such unknown heirs by publication thereof in the same manner as against nonresidents, and in such case the plaintiff may insert in the title thereof the following: "Also the unknown heirs of (naming the deceased) and all other persons unknown claiming any right, title, estate, interest, or lien in the real estate described in the complaint herein." The plaintiff shall, before the commencement of such publication, file with the county recorder a notice of the pendency of the action. All such unknown persons so served shall have the same rights to appear and defend before and after judgment as would named defendants upon whom service is made by publication, and any order or judgment in the action shall be binding upon them, whether they be of age or minors; but, if they be minors when judgment is rendered, they may be allowed to defend at any time within two years after becoming of age.
History:
( 9557 ) RL s 4425 ; 1919 c 344 s 1 ; 1923 c 434 s 1 ; 1967 c 28 s 1 ; 1976 c 181 s 2 ; 1986 c 444
Minn. Stat. § 559.04
559.04 CLAIMANTS UNDER COMMON GRANTOR; JOINDER.
When lots or tracts of real estate are claimed in severalty by two or more persons from or under conveyance from the same grantor, as the common source of title, and an adverse claim of title thereto is made by some person as against the title of such grantor, any one claiming under such grantor may bring an action in behalf of the grantor and all others who may come in and become parties thereto against such adverse claimant, to have the title to such grantor perfected or quieted as to such lots or tracts claimed by the plaintiff and the others who may become parties. Any person who so claims under the same grantor as the plaintiff, and whose title is controverted by the same defendant upon the same ground as the title of the plaintiff, may become a party, as of course, by filing a complaint setting forth the property claimed and the source of title, and may have the claimed rights adjudicated with those of the original plaintiff. The answer of the defendant shall be taken as an answer to all who may thus become parties.
History:
( 9559 ) RL s 4427 ; 1986 c 444
Minn. Stat. § 559.07
559.07 EJECTMENT; TRIAL, HOW CONDUCTED; NO SECOND TRIAL.
The trial of all actions of ejectment or of any other action in the courts of this state involving the possession of real estate shall be conducted as are other civil actions, and the right to a second trial of such actions is hereby abolished.
History:
( 9562 ) 1911 c 139 s 1
Minn. Stat. § 559.17
559.17 MORTGAGE NOT A CONVEYANCE; MORTGAGEE CANNOT POSSESS.
§
Subdivision 1. Enforcement of rent assignment.
A mortgage of real property is not to be deemed a conveyance, so as to enable the owner of the mortgage to recover possession of the real property without a foreclosure, except as permitted in subdivision 2. The enforcement of an assignment of rents of the type described in subdivision 2 shall not be deemed prohibited by this subdivision, nor because a foreclosure sale under the mortgage has extinguished all or part of the mortgage debt.
§
Subd. 2. Assignment; conditions.
A mortgagor may assign, as additional security for the debt secured by the mortgage, the rents and profits from the mortgaged real property, if the mortgage:
(1) was executed, modified or amended subsequent to August 1, 1977;
(2) secured an original principal amount of $100,000 or more or is a lien upon residential real estate containing more than four dwelling units; and
(3) is not a lien upon property which was:
(i) entirely homesteaded as agricultural property; or
(ii) residential real estate containing four or fewer dwelling units where at least one of the units is homesteaded. The assignment may be enforced, but only against the nonhomestead portion of the mortgaged property, as follows:
(a) if, by the terms of an assignment, a receiver is to be appointed upon the occurrence of some specified event, and a showing is made that the event has occurred, the court shall, without regard to waste, adequacy of the security, or solvency of the mortgagor, appoint a receiver who shall, with respect to the excess cash remaining after application as provided in section 576.25, subdivision 5 , apply it as prescribed by the assignment. If the assignment so provides, the receiver shall apply the excess cash in the manner set out herein from the date of appointment through the entire redemption period from any foreclosure sale. Subject to the terms of the assignment, the receiver shall have the powers and duties as set forth in section 576.25, subdivision 5 ; or
(b) if no provision is made for the appointment of a receiver in the assignment or if by the terms of the assignment a receiver may be appointed, the assignment shall be binding upon the assignor unless or until a receiver is appointed without regard to waste, adequacy of the security or solvency of the mortgagor, but only in the event of default in the terms and conditions of the mortgage, and only in the event the assignment requires the holder thereof to apply the rents and profits received as provided in section 576.25, subdivision 5 , or, as to an assignment executed prior to August 1, 2012, as provided in Minnesota Statutes 2010, section 576.01, subdivision 2 , in which case the same shall operate against and be binding upon the occupiers of the premises from the date of recording by the holder of the assignment in the office of the county recorder or the office of the registrar of titles for the county in which the property is located of a notice of default in the terms and conditions of the mortgage and service of a copy of the notice upon the occupiers of the premises. The holder of the assignment shall apply the rents and profits received in accordance with the terms of the assignment, and, if the assignment so provides, for the entire redemption period from any foreclosure sale. A holder of an assignment who enforces it in accordance with this clause shall not be deemed to be a mortgagee in possession with attendant liability.
Nothing contained herein shall prohibit the right to reinstate the mortgage debt granted pursuant to section
Minn. Stat. § 559.214
559.214 SUPPLEMENTARY AFFIDAVIT.
In any instance where such copy of notice, proof of service thereof and affidavit have been or shall hereafter be recorded, the vendor or the vendor's successors or assigns may record with the county recorder a supplementary affidavit, verified by a person shown by such supplementary affidavit to have knowledge of the facts, showing that the purchaser under the contract referred to in such notice and the purchaser's personal representatives, successors and assigns, if any, have abandoned the real estate referred to in such contract and that such abandonment has continued for at least six consecutive years after such termination proceedings and next prior to the recording of the supplementary affidavit. The recording of the supplementary affidavit shall be prima facie evidence that the real estate has been abandoned and the contract terminated, notwithstanding defects, substantial or otherwise, in the termination proceedings, including the defect occasioned by lapse of less than 30 days between the date of service of notice of termination of the contract and the date of beginning of any moratorium. Such supplementary affidavit may be verified by the vendor or the vendor's successor or assigns in person or by an agent or attorney.
History:
1945 c 406 s 2 ; 1976 c 181 s 2 ; 1986 c 444
Minn. Stat. § 559.217
559.217 ; or
(4) a court order.
Disbursement must be made within ten business days following the consummation or termination of a transaction if the applicable agreements are silent as to the time of disbursement.
§
Subd. 6. Notice of trust account status.
The names of the banks, savings associations, credit unions, and industrial loan and thrift companies and the trust account numbers used by a broker or closing agent shall be provided to the commissioner at the time of application for the broker's or closing agent's license. The broker shall immediately report to the commissioner any change of trust account status including changes in banks, savings associations, credit unions, and industrial loan and thrift companies, account numbers, or additional accounts in the same or other banks, savings associations, credit unions, and industrial loan and thrift companies. A broker or closing agent shall not close an existing trust account without giving ten days' written notice to the commissioner.
§
Subd. 7. Interest bearing accounts.
Notwithstanding the provisions of this chapter, a real estate broker may establish and maintain interest bearing accounts for the purpose of receiving deposits in accordance with the provisions of section
Minn. Stat. § 56.09
56.09 .
For purposes of this subdivision, "business entity" includes one that does not have a physical location in Minnesota that makes a consumer small loan electronically via the Internet.
§
Subd. 4. Books of account; annual report; schedule of charges; disclosures.
(a) A lender filing under subdivision 3 shall keep and use in the business books, accounts, and records as will enable the commissioner to determine whether the filer is complying with this section.
(b) A lender filing under subdivision 3 shall annually on or before March 15 file a report to the commissioner giving the information the commissioner reasonably requires concerning the business and operations during the preceding calendar year, including the information required to be reported under section 47.601, subdivision 4 .
(c) A lender filing under subdivision 3 shall display prominently in each place of business a full and accurate schedule, to be approved by the commissioner, of the charges to be made and the method of computing those charges. A lender shall furnish a copy of the contract of loan to a person obligated on it or who may become obligated on it at any time upon the request of that person. This is in addition to any disclosures required by the federal Truth in Lending Act, United States Code, title 15.
(d) A lender filing under subdivision 3 shall, upon repayment of the loan in full, mark indelibly every obligation signed by the borrower with the word "Paid" or "Canceled" within 20 days after repayment.
(e) A lender filing under subdivision 3 shall display prominently, in each licensed place of business, a full and accurate statement of the charges to be made for loans made under this section. The statement of charges must be displayed in a notice, on plastic or other durable material measuring at least 12 inches by 18 inches, headed "CONSUMER NOTICE REQUIRED BY THE STATE OF MINNESOTA." The notice shall include, immediately above the statement of charges, the following sentence, or a substantially similar sentence approved by the commissioner: "These loan charges are higher than otherwise permitted under Minnesota law. Minnesota law permits these higher charges only because short-term small loans might otherwise not be available to consumers. If you have another source of a loan, you may be able to benefit from a lower interest rate and other loan charges." The notice must not contain any other statement or information, unless the commissioner has determined that the additional statement or information is necessary to prevent confusion or inaccuracy. The notice must be designed with a type size that is large enough to be readily noticeable and legible. The form of the notice must be approved by the commissioner prior to its use.
§
Subd. 5. Complaints alleging violation.
A person obligated to or having been obligated to a consumer small loan lender filing under subdivision 3 and having reason to believe that this section has been violated may file with the commissioner a written complaint setting forth the details of the alleged violation. The commissioner, upon receipt of the complaint, may inspect the pertinent books, records, letters, and contracts of the lender and borrower involved. The commissioner may assess against the lender a fee covering the necessary costs of an investigation under this section. The commissioner may maintain an action for the recovery of the costs in a court of competent jurisdiction.
§
Subd. 6. Penalties for violation.
A person who violates or participates in the violation of any of the provisions of this section is liable in the same manner as in section 47.601, subdivision 6 .
§
Subd. 7. Records and fees; maintenance and processing.
Section 58A.04, subdivisions 2 and 3, apply to this section.
§
Subd. 8. No evasion.
(a) A person must not engage in any device, subterfuge, or pretense to evade the requirements of this section, including but not limited to:
(1) making loans disguised as a personal property sale and leaseback transaction;
(2) disguising loan proceeds as a cash rebate for the pretextual installment sale of goods or services; or
(3) making, offering, assisting, or arranging for a debtor to obtain a loan with a greater rate or amount of interest, consideration, charge, or payment than is permitted by this section through any method, including mail, telephone, Internet, or any electronic means, regardless of whether a person has a physical location in Minnesota.
(b) A person is a consumer small loan lender subject to the requirements of this section notwithstanding the fact that a person purports to act as an agent or service provider, or acts in another capacity for another person that is not subject to this section, if a person:
(1) directly or indirectly holds, acquires, or maintains the predominant economic interest, risk, or reward in a loan or lending business; or
(2) both: (i) markets, solicits, brokers, arranges, or facilitates a loan; and (ii) holds or holds the right, requirement, or first right of refusal to acquire loans, receivables, or other direct or interest in a loan.
(c) A person is a consumer small loan lender subject to the requirements of this section if the totality of the circumstances indicate that a person is a lender and the transaction is structured to evade the requirements of this section. Circumstances that weigh in favor of a person being a lender in a transaction include but are not limited to instances where a person:
(1) indemnifies, insures, or protects a person not subject to this section from any costs or risks related to a loan;
(2) predominantly designs, controls, or operates lending activity;
(3) holds the trademark or intellectual property rights in the brand, underwriting system, or other core aspects of a lending business; or
(4) purports to act as an agent or service provider, or acts in another capacity, for a person not subject to this section while acting directly as a lender in one or more states.
History:
1995 c 202 art 3 s 2 ; 1996 c 305 art 1 s 14 ; 1996 c 414 art 2 s 7 ; 1999 c 151 s 17 ; 2000 c 427 s 6 ; 2007 c 44 s 3 ; 2007 c 57 art 3 s 9 ; 2009 c 37 art 3 s 2 -4; 2009 c 68 s 1 ,2; 2010 c 382 s 10 ,11; 2018 c 182 art 1 s 109 ; 2020 c 80 art 1 s 1 ; 2023 c 57 art 3 s 4 -6; 2024 c 85 s 9
Minn. Stat. § 56.125
56.125 shall change periodically, as provided in section 47.59, subdivision 3 .
§
Subd. 5. Attorney's fees.
No term of writing may provide for the payment by the debtor of attorney's fees, except for lawful fees to be paid to an attorney in connection with the foreclosure of a real estate mortgage.
§
Subd. 6. Discount points.
A loan made under this section that is secured by real estate and that is in a principal amount of $22,800 or more and has a maturity of 60 months or more may contain a provision permitting discount points, if the loan does not provide a loan yield in excess of the maximum rate of interest permitted by this section. Loan yield means the annual rate of return obtained by a licensee computed as the annual percentage rate is computed under Federal Regulation Z. If the loan is prepaid in full, the licensee must make a refund to the borrower to the extent that the loan yield will exceed the maximum rate of interest provided by this section when the prepayment is taken into account. Discount points permitted by this subdivision and not collected but included in the principal amount must not be included in the amount on which credit insurance premiums are calculated and charged.
History:
1981 c 258 s 11 ; 1Sp1981 c 4 art 4 s 12 ; 1982 c 473 s 25 ; 1982 c 547 s 6 ,7; 1983 c 250 s 27 ; 1983 c 252 s 10 ,11; 1984 c 473 s 7 ; 1Sp1985 c 1 s 19 -21; 1986 c 444 ; 1989 c 166 s 26 ; 1989 c 217 s 19 ; 1990 c 464 s 2 ,3; 1992 c 587 art 1 s 25 ; 1993 c 257 s 38 ; 1995 c 202 art 1 s 22 ,23; art 3 s 17,18; 1996 c 414 art 1 s 27 ; art 2 s 9,10; 1997 c 157 s 50 ,51; 1999 c 151 s 33 ; 2000 c 427 s 9 ; 2013 c 135 art 2 s 5 ,6; 2014 c 222 art 1 s 7 ; 2023 c 57 art 3 s 62
Minn. Stat. § 570.061
570.061 EXECUTION OF ORDER OF ATTACHMENT.
§
Subdivision 1. Time of execution.
The sheriff shall execute an attachment order without delay after receiving it. If the sheriff does not attach property within 90 days after the order is issued by the court, or such further time as the court may order, the order shall automatically terminate. If property is attached within this time period, the attachment will remain effective until executed, satisfied, discharged, or vacated, as provided in this chapter.
§
Subd. 2. Execution on real estate.
Real estate shall be attached by the recording of the sheriff's certified copy of the order and of a return of attachment containing a description of the real estate with the county recorder, or with the registrar of titles with respect to registered property, for the county in which the real estate is located, and serving a copy of the order and return upon the respondent in the manner provided for a service of a summons, if the respondent can be found in the county. If the respondent cannot be found in that county, the order and return shall be mailed by registered mail or certified mail to the respondent's last known address. The attachment shall be a lien on the interest of the respondent in the real estate from the time of recording with the recorder or registrar.
§
Subd. 3. Execution on personal property.
Personal property shall be attached in the manner provided by law for levy of execution and, so far as practicable, the provisions relating to the levy shall govern the execution of the attachment order. When an attachment of personal property has been made, the sheriff shall affix to the order an inventory of the property attached, specifying any proposed sale of perishable property, and shall serve a copy of the order and inventory upon the respondent in the manner provided for the service of a summons if the respondent can be found in the county. If the respondent cannot be found in the county, the order and return shall be mailed by registered or certified mail to the respondent's last known address. Attachment of personal property shall be a lien on the interest of the respondent in the personal property from the time of seizure by the sheriff or subjection to the control of the sheriff.
§
Subd. 4. Perishable property.
If any of the property attached is perishable, the sheriff shall sell the perishable property in the manner provided for the sale of personal property on execution. The sheriff shall also take such legal proceedings, either in the sheriff's own name or that of the respondent, as may be necessary for the recovery of credits and affects attached.
§
Subd. 5. Record of execution of order.
When any attachment order is fully executed or discharged, the sheriff shall return the order to the court administrator, with an attached record of the sheriff's actions in executing or discharging the order of the court.
History:
1985 c 153 s 8 ; 1Sp1986 c 3 art 1 s 82 ; 2005 c 4 s 138
Minn. Stat. § 570.14
570.14 ATTACHMENTS AND RELEASES; RECORD AND INDEX.
All copies of orders of attachment prescribed for recording, and all satisfactions or releases of attachments of real estate thereunder, shall be recorded by the county recorder in the current method of recording mortgages, and shall be indexed as if the respondent in the attachment were a mortgagor and the claimant a mortgagee.
History:
( 9355 ) RL s 4228 ; 1976 c 181 s 2 ; 1985 c 153 s 15 ; 2005 c 4 s 140
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Minn. Stat. § 571.922
571.922 . A subsequent attachment, garnishment, or levy of execution shall impound only that pay period's nonexempt disposable earnings not subject to a prior attachment, garnishment or levy of execution, but in no instance shall more than an individual's total nonexempt disposable earnings in that pay period be subject to attachment, garnishment, or levy of execution. Garnishments shall impound the nonexempt disposable earnings in the order of their service upon the employer. The disposable earnings exempt from garnishment are exempt as a matter of right, whether claimed or not by the person to whom due. The exemptions may not be waived. The exempt disposable earnings are payable by the employer when due. The exempt disposable earnings shall also be exempt for 20 days after deposit in any financial institution, whether in a single or joint account. This 20-day exemption also applies to any contractual setoff or security interest asserted by a financial institution in which the earnings are deposited by the individual. In tracing the funds, the first-in first-out method of accounting shall be used. The burden of establishing that funds are exempt rests upon the debtor. As used in this section, the term "financial institution" includes credit unions. Nothing in this paragraph shall void or supersede any valid assignment of earnings or transfer of funds held on account made prior to the attachment, garnishment, or levy of execution.
§
Subd. 14. Public assistance.
All government assistance based on need, and the earnings or salary of a person who is a recipient of government assistance based on need, shall be exempt from all claims of creditors including any contractual setoff or security interest asserted by a financial institution. For the purposes of this chapter, government assistance based on need includes but is not limited to Minnesota family investment program; Supplemental Security Income; medical assistance; MinnesotaCare, payment of Medicare part B premiums or receipt of part D extra help; MFIP diversionary work program; work participation cash benefit; Minnesota supplemental assistance; emergency Minnesota supplemental assistance; general assistance; emergency general assistance; emergency assistance or county crisis funds; energy or fuel assistance; Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP); and any federal or state tax credit received by eligible low-income taxpayers, including but not limited to the earned income tax credit, the Minnesota working family credit, and renter's credit. The salary or earnings of any debtor who is or has been an eligible recipient of government assistance based on need, or an inmate of a correctional institution shall, upon the debtor's return to private employment or farming after having been an eligible recipient of government assistance based on need, or an inmate of a correctional institution, be exempt from attachment, garnishment, or levy of execution for a period of six months after the debtor's return to employment or farming and after all public assistance for which eligibility existed has been terminated. The exemption provisions contained in this subdivision also apply for 60 days after deposit in any financial institution, whether in a single or joint account. In tracing the funds, the first-in first-out method of accounting shall be used. The burden of establishing that funds are exempt rests upon the debtor. Agencies distributing government assistance and the correctional institutions shall, at the request of creditors, inform them whether or not any debtor has been an eligible recipient of government assistance based on need, or an inmate of a correctional institution, within the preceding six months.
§
Subd. 15. Minor child earnings.
The earnings of the minor child of any debtor and any child support paid to any debtor, or the proceeds thereof, by reason of any liability of such debtor not contracted for the special benefit of such minor child.
§
Subd. 16. Claims for damages.
The claim for damages recoverable by any person by reason of a levy upon or sale under execution of the person's exempt personal property, or by reason of the wrongful taking or detention of such property by any person, and any judgment recovered for such damages.
§
Subd. 17. Selection.
All articles exempted by this section shall be selected by the debtor, the debtor's agent, or legal representative.
§
Subd. 18. Natural persons limitation.
The exemptions provided for in subdivisions 3 to 15 extend only to debtors who are natural persons except as provided in subdivision 5 for partnerships.
§
Subd. 19. Waiver.
The exemption of the property listed in subdivisions 2, 3, and 5 to 12a may not be waived except by a statement in substantially the following form, in boldface type of a minimum size of 12 points, signed and dated by the debtor at the time of the execution of the contract surrendering the exemption, immediately adjacent to the listing of the property: "I understand that some or all of the above property is normally protected by law from the claims of creditors, and I voluntarily give up my right to that protection for the above listed property with respect to claims arising out of this contract."
§
Subd. 20. Traceable funds.
The exemption of funds from creditors' claims, provided by subdivisions 9, 10, 11, 15, and 24, shall not be affected by the subsequent deposit of the funds in a bank or any other financial institution, whether in a single or joint account, if the funds are traceable to their exempt source. In tracing the funds, the first-in first-out method of accounting shall be used. The burden of establishing that funds are exempt rests upon the debtor. No bank or other financial institution shall be liable for damages for complying with process duly issued out of any court for the collection of a debt even if the funds affected by the process are subsequently determined to have been exempt.
§
Subd. 21. Value.
For the purpose of this section, "value" means current fair market value.
§
Subd. 22. Rights of action.
Rights of action or money received for injuries to the person of the debtor or of a relative whether or not resulting in death. Injuries to the person include physical, mental, and emotional injuries.
§
Subd. 23. Life insurance aggregate interest.
The debtor's aggregate interest not to exceed in value $10,800 in any accrued dividends or interest under or loan value of any unmatured life insurance contracts owned by the debtor under which the insured is the debtor or an individual of whom the debtor is a dependent.
§
Subd. 24. Employee benefits.
(a) The debtor's right to receive present or future payments, or payments received by the debtor, under a stock bonus, pension, profit sharing, annuity, individual retirement account, Roth IRA, individual retirement annuity, simplified employee pension, or similar plan or contract on account of illness, disability, death, age, or length of service, to the extent of the debtor's aggregate interest under all plans and contracts up to a present value of $81,000 and additional amounts under all the plans and contracts to the extent reasonably necessary for the support of the debtor and any spouse or dependent of the debtor.
(b) The exemptions in paragraph (a) do not apply when the debt is owed under a support order as defined in section 518A.26, subdivision 21 .
[See Note.]
§
Subd. 25. Proceeds for improvements to property.
Proceeds of payments received by a person for labor, skill, material, or machinery contributing to an improvement to real estate within the meaning of section
Minn. Stat. § 573.16
573.16 DEFENSES; OTHER DEBTS OUTSTANDING OR PAID.
The next of kin, legatees, heirs, and devisees may show, in their defense, that there are unsatisfied debts of a prior class, or others of the same class as the debt in action; and if it shall appear that the value of the personal property delivered, or of the real estate descended or devised, to them does not exceed the debts of a prior class, judgment shall be rendered in their favor. If the value of such property exceeds the amount of debts which are entitled to preference over the debt in action, judgment shall be rendered against them only for such a sum as bears a just proportion to the other debts of the same class. If a debt of a class prior to the one in action, or of the same class, is paid by any next of kin, legatees, heirs, or devisees, they may prove such payment, and the amount thereof shall be treated, in ascertaining the amount to be recovered, as if it were unpaid.
History:
( 9671 ) RL s 4517
Minn. Stat. § 573.17
573.17 REAL PROPERTY DESCENDED; LIEN OF JUDGMENT.
If it appears that the real property so descended was not alienated by the heir at the time of the commencement of the action, the court shall order that plaintiff's debt, or the proportion thereof which the plaintiff is entitled to recover, be levied upon such real estate, and not otherwise; and every judgment rendered in such action has preference as a lien on such real estate, to any judgment obtained against such heir for a personal debt.
History:
( 9672 ) RL s 4518 ; 1986 c 444
Minn. Stat. § 574.39
574.39 SURETY BONDS; PUBLIC ENTITIES.
The state or a county, town, home rule charter or statutory city, school district, or other municipal corporation or political subdivision of this state shall not require a contractor to procure a surety bond from a particular insurance or surety company, agent, or broker on a public improvement which is or has been competitively bid or negotiated. Nothing in this section prohibits a public entity from requiring customized features in its surety bond coverage as considered appropriate and necessary by the public entity or from requiring that the insurer issuing the bond have a minimum financial rating as specified by the public entity.
History:
2001 c 76 s 1
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Minnesota Office of the Revisor of Statutes, Centennial Office Building,
3rd Floor, 658 Cedar Street, St. Paul, MN 55155
Minn. Stat. § 576.46
576.46 SALES FREE AND CLEAR OF LIEN IN GENERAL RECEIVERSHIPS.
§
Subdivision 1. Sales free and clear of liens.
(a) The court may order that a general receiver's sale of receivership property is free and clear of all liens, except any lien for unpaid real estate taxes or assessments and liens arising under federal law, and may be free of the rights of redemption of the respondent if the rights of redemption are receivership property and the rights of redemption of the holders of any liens, regardless of whether the sale will generate proceeds sufficient to fully satisfy all liens on the property, unless either:
(1) the property is (i) real property classified as agricultural land under section 273.13, subdivision 23 , or the property is a homestead under section
Minn. Stat. § 58.02
58.02 DEFINITIONS.
§
Subdivision 1. Scope.
For purposes of this chapter, the terms defined in this section have the meanings given to them.
§
Subd. 2. Act.
"Act" means the Minnesota Residential Mortgage Originator and Servicer Licensing Act.
§
Subd. 3. Advance fee.
"Advance fee" means a commission, fee, charge, or compensation of any kind paid to a residential mortgage originator before the closing of a loan, that is intended in whole or in part as payment for the originator's services in finding or attempting to find a loan for a borrower. Advance fee does not include pass-through fees or commitment or extended lock fees or other fees as determined by the commissioner.
§
Subd. 3a. Advertisement.
"Advertisement" includes, but is not limited to, any illustration, circular, or statement that presents information to the public in either a paper, electronic, or other medium that is intended to attract clients, generate interest, or otherwise make known the existence of the licensee and which addresses services, fees, or products provided by or available through the licensee, including, but not limited to, interest rates, loan origination fees, types of available loans, discount points, closing costs, or sample mortgage terms.
§
Subd. 4. Borrower.
"Borrower" means a person or persons applying for a residential mortgage loan, a mortgagor, or the person or persons on whose behalf the activities in subdivisions 12, 14, 22, and 23 are conducted.
§
Subd. 5. Closing.
"Closing" means either or both of the following: (1) the process whereby the real estate contract between a buyer and a seller is consummated; or (2) the process whereby the documents creating a security interest in real property become effective between the borrower and the lender.
§
Subd. 6. Commissioner.
"Commissioner" means the commissioner of commerce.
§
Subd. 7. Employee.
"Employee" means an individual who is treated as an employee by the residential mortgage originator or servicer for purposes of compliance with federal income tax laws.
§
Subd. 8. Escrow account.
"Escrow account" means a trust account that is established and maintained to hold funds received from a borrower, such as real estate taxes and insurance premiums, incurred in connection with the servicing of the mortgage.
§
Subd. 9. Exempt person.
"Exempt person" means a person exempt from residential mortgage originator licensing requirements, and a person exempt from residential mortgage service licensing requirements.
§
Subd. 10. Financial institution.
"Financial institution" means a bank, bank and trust, trust company with banking powers, savings bank, savings association, or credit union, organized under the laws of this state, any other state, or the United States; an industrial loan and thrift under chapter 53; or a regulated lender under chapter 56. The term "financial institution" also includes a subsidiary or operating subsidiary of a financial institution or of a bank holding company as defined in the federal Bank Holding Company Act, United States Code, title 12, section 1841 et seq., if the subsidiary or operating subsidiary can demonstrate to the satisfaction of the commissioner that it is regulated and subject to active and ongoing oversight and supervision by a federal banking agency, as defined in the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, United States Code, title 12, section 1811 et seq., or the commissioner.
§
Subd. 11. Lender.
"Lender" means a person who makes residential mortgage loans including a person who provides table funding.
§
Subd. 12. Making a residential mortgage loan.
"Making a residential mortgage loan" means for compensation or gain, or the expectation of compensation or gain, to advance funds or make a commitment to advance funds in connection with a residential mortgage.
§
Subd. 13. Mortgage broker; broker.
"Mortgage broker" or "broker" means a person who performs the activities described in subdivisions 14 and 23.
§
Subd. 14. Mortgage brokering; brokering.
"Mortgage brokering" or "brokering" means helping to obtain from another person, for a borrower, a residential mortgage loan or assisting a borrower in obtaining a residential mortgage loan in return for consideration to be paid by the borrower or lender or both. Mortgage brokering or brokering includes, but is not limited to, soliciting, placing, or negotiating a residential mortgage loan.
§
Subd. 15.
[Repealed, 2000 c 427 s 21 ]
§
Subd. 15a. Nationwide Multistate Licensing System and Registry.
"Nationwide Multistate Licensing System and Registry" has the meaning given in section
Minn. Stat. § 58.10
58.10 FEES.
§
Subdivision 1. Amounts.
The following fees must be paid to the commissioner:
(1) for a residential mortgage originator license, $1,000, $50 of which is credited to the consumer education account in the special revenue fund;
(2) for a renewal license, $500, $50 of which is credited to the consumer education account in the special revenue fund;
(3) for a residential mortgage servicer's license, $500;
(4) for a renewal license, $250; and
(5) for a certificate of exemption, $100.
§
Subd. 2. Forfeiture.
All fees are nonrefundable except that an overpayment of a fee must be refunded upon proper application.
§
Subd. 3. Consumer education account; money credited and appropriated.
(a) The consumer education account is created in the special revenue fund. Money credited to this account may be appropriated to the commissioner to: (1) make grants to programs and campaigns designed to help consumers avoid being victimized by unscrupulous lenders and mortgage brokers; and (2) pay for expenses the commissioner incurs to provide outreach and education related to affordable housing and home ownership education. The commissioner must give preference for grants to programs and campaigns designed by coalitions of public sector, private sector, and nonprofit agencies, institutions, companies, and organizations.
(b) A sum sufficient is appropriated annually from the consumer education account to the commissioner to make the grants described in paragraph (a).
History:
1998 c 343 art 1 s 10 ; 2000 c 427 s 16 ; 2001 c 208 s 3 ,4; 2007 c 57 art 3 s 18 ; 2010 c 347 art 5 s 5 ; 2024 c 114 art 2 s 28
Minn. Stat. § 58.15
58.15 DISCLOSURE REQUIREMENTS FOR CERTAIN RESIDENTIAL MORTGAGE ORIGINATORS.
§
Subdivision 1. Nonagency disclosure.
If a residential mortgage originator or exempt person other than a mortgage broker does not contract or offer to contract to act as an agent of a borrower, or accept an advance fee, it must, within three business days of accepting an application for a residential mortgage loan, provide the borrower with a written disclosure as provided in subdivision 2.
§
Subd. 2. Form and content requirements.
The disclosure must be a separate document, 8-1/2 inches by 11 inches, must be signed by the borrower and must contain the following statement in 14-point boldface print:
Originator IS NOT ACTING AS YOUR AGENT IN CONNECTION WITH OBTAINING A RESIDENTIAL MORTGAGE LOAN. WHILE WE SEEK TO ASSIST YOU IN MEETING YOUR FINANCIAL NEEDS, WE CANNOT GUARANTEE THE LOWEST OR BEST TERMS AVAILABLE IN THE MARKET.
§
Subd. 3. Electronic application disclosure requirement.
In case of an electronic residential mortgage application, the disclosure requirements of this section may be satisfied by providing the disclosure statement as a separate screen if the disclosure must be acknowledged by the borrower before an application is accepted.
§
Subd. 4. Exemption from disclosure requirement.
If the Department of Housing and Urban Development adopts and implements a disclosure requirement that the commissioner determines to be substantially similar to the disclosure required in subdivision 2, compliance with the HUD disclosure shall be considered sufficient to satisfy the requirements of subdivision 2.
History:
1998 c 343 art 1 s 15 ; 2001 c 56 s 11 ; 2007 c 18 s 4
Minn. Stat. § 58.16
58.16 RESIDENTIAL MORTGAGE ORIGINATORS; STANDARDS OF CONDUCT FOR AGENCY OR ADVANCE FEE TRANSACTIONS.
§
Subdivision 1. Compliance.
Residential mortgage originators who solicit or receive an advance fee in exchange for assisting a borrower located in this state in obtaining a loan secured by a lien on residential real estate, or who offer to act as an agent of the borrower located in this state in obtaining a loan secured by a lien on residential real estate shall be considered to have created a fiduciary relationship with the borrower and shall comply with the requirements of subdivisions 2 to 7. This section does not apply to mortgage brokers who do not solicit or receive an advance fee.
§
Subd. 2. Contract provisions.
(a) A residential mortgage originator who engages in the activities described in subdivision 1 shall enter into a written contract with each borrower and shall provide a copy of the written contract to each borrower at or before the time of receipt of any fee or valuable consideration paid for mortgage origination services. The written contract must:
(1) specifically describe the services to be provided by the residential mortgage originator and if the originator collects an advance fee, the dates by which the services will be performed;
(2) specifically identify whether the residential mortgage originator may receive compensation from sources other than the borrower in connection with the loan transaction;
(3) state the total amount of commission or compensation that the borrower agrees to pay for the residential mortgage originator's services, or the basis on which the compensation will be computed;
(4) state the maximum rate of interest to be charged on any residential mortgage loan obtained;
(5) contain a statement that notifies the borrower of the right to cancel the contract according to subdivision 3 and disclose the cancellation rights and procedures provided in subdivision 3; and
(6) disclose, with respect to the 12-month period ending ten business days before the date of the contract in question, the percentage of the mortgage originator's customers for whom loans have actually been funded as a result of the residential mortgage originator's services.
(b) If an advance fee is solicited or received the contract must also:
(1) identify the trust account into which the fees or consideration will be deposited;
(2) set forth the circumstances under which the residential mortgage originator will be entitled to disbursement from the trust account; and
(3) set forth the circumstances under which the borrower will be entitled to a refund of all or part of the fee.
§
Subd. 3. Cancellation.
A borrower who pays an advance fee, or who enters into a contract for residential mortgage services as set forth in subdivisions 1 and 2, has an unconditional right to rescind the contract for residential mortgage origination services at any time until midnight of the third business day after the day on which the contract is signed. Cancellation is evidenced by the borrower giving written notice of cancellation to the residential mortgage originator at the address stated in the contract. Notice of cancellation, if given by mail, is effective upon deposit in a mailbox properly addressed to the originator with postage prepaid. Notice of cancellation need not take a particular form and is sufficient if it indicates by any form of written expression the intention of the borrower not be bound by the contract. No act of a borrower or a residential mortgage originator is effective to waive the right to rescind as provided in this subdivision.
§
Subd. 4. Trust account.
The residential mortgage originator shall deposit in a trust account within three business days all fees received before the time a loan is actually funded. The trust account must be in a financial institution located within the state of Minnesota, and, with respect to advance fees, the account must be controlled by an unaffiliated accountant, attorney, or bank.
§
Subd. 5. Records.
The residential mortgage originator shall maintain a separate record of all fees received for services performed or to be performed as a residential mortgage originator. Each record must set forth the date the funds are received; the person from whom the funds are received; the amount received; the date of deposit in the escrow account, the account number, the date the funds are disbursed and the check number of the disbursement, and a description of each disbursement and the justification for the disbursement.
§
Subd. 6. Monthly statement.
The residential mortgage originator shall provide to each borrower at least monthly a detailed written accounting of all disbursements of the borrower's funds from the trust account.
§
Subd. 7. Disclosure of lenders.
The residential mortgage originator shall provide to each borrower at the expiration of the contract a list of the lenders or loan sources to whom loan applications were submitted on behalf of the borrower.
History:
1998 c 343 art 1 s 16 ; 2004 c 203 art 1 s 2 ,3; 2005 c 118 s 9 ; 2007 c 18 s 5
Minn. Stat. § 58.162
58.162 TRANSACTION AGENTS OR SERVICERS; DISCLOSURE OF NOTE OWNER INFORMATION TO MORTGAGOR.
Upon written request of a mortgagor, a transaction agent or servicer shall provide in writing to the mortgagor the identity, address, and telephone number of the current owner of the note secured by the mortgage, based on the transaction agent's or servicer's actual knowledge. A transaction agent or servicer must provide the information within ten business days of receipt of the request. Upon request of a mortgagor, a transaction agent or servicer must provide this information about the current owner of the note without a fee once per calendar year. In lieu of complying with this section, a transaction agent or servicer may comply with the requirements of section 6(k) of the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act, as amended by section 1463 of Public Law 111-203, regardless of whether those acts apply to the mortgage.
History:
2011 c 61 s 1
Minn. Stat. § 580.04
580.04 , clauses (1) to (6), the date of agreement, and shall state that each holder of a junior lien may redeem in the order and manner provided in subdivision 9, beginning after the expiration of the mortgagor's redemption period under this section.
(d) The mortgagor's redemption period is two months from the date of sale, except that if the real estate is subject to a federal tax lien under which the United States is entitled to a 120-day redemption period under section 7425(d)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code, as amended, the mortgagor's redemption period is 120 days from the date of sale. The certificate of sale must indicate the redemption period applicable under this paragraph.
§
Subd. 6. Sale, how and by whom made.
Except as provided in this section, the foreclosure sale must be conducted and the certificate of sale shall be made and recorded in accordance with a foreclosure by advertisement as provided in chapter 580 . The certificate of sale must be filed or recorded within five days after the sale. Affidavits of service, mailing, publication, and other affidavits or certificates permitted by chapter 580 , must be recorded with the certificate of sale, or within five days after the sale, in the office of the county recorder or registrar of titles where the real estate is located, and when so recorded are prima facie evidence of the facts contained in them.
§
Subd. 7.
MS 1992 [Repealed, 1993 c 40 s 11 ]
§
Subd. 8.
MS 1992 [Repealed, 1993 c 40 s 11 ]
§
Subd. 9. Creditor redemption.
A person holding a junior lien upon the real estate or some part of the real estate may redeem in the order and manner specified in sections
Minn. Stat. § 580.05
580.05 , was ever given, or recorded, or registered;
(3) that the notice of sale:
(i) was published only three, four or five times, or that it was published six times but not for six weeks prior to the date of sale;
(ii) properly described the property to be sold in one or more of the publications thereof but failed to do so in the other publications thereof, the correct description having been contained in the copy of said notice served on the occupant of the premises;
(iii) correctly stated the date of the month and hour and place of sale but named a day of the week which did not fall on the date given for such sale, or failed to state or state correctly the year of such sale;
(iv) correctly described the real estate but omitted the county and state in which said real estate is located;
(v) correctly described the land by government subdivision, township and range, but described it as being in a county other than that in which said mortgage foreclosure proceedings were pending, and other than that in which said government subdivision was actually located;
(vi) did not state the amount due or failed to state the correct amount due or claimed to be due;
(vii) incorrectly stated the municipal status of the place where the sale was to occur;
(viii) in one or more of the publications thereof, or in the notice served on the occupant or occupants designated either a place or a time of sale other than that stated in the certificate of sale;
(ix) failed to state the names of one or more of the assignees of the mortgage and described the subscriber thereof as mortgagee instead of assignee;
(x) failed to state or incorrectly stated the name of the mortgagor, the mortgagee, or assignee of mortgagee;
(xi) was not served upon persons whose possession of the mortgaged premises was otherwise than by their personal presence thereon, if a return or affidavit was recorded or filed as a part of the foreclosure record that at a date at least four weeks prior to the sale the mortgaged premises were vacant and unoccupied;
(xii) was not served upon all of the parties in possession of the mortgaged premises, provided it was served upon one or more of such parties;
(xiii) was not served upon the persons in possession of the mortgaged premises, if, at least two weeks before the sale was actually made, a copy of the notice was served upon the owner in the manner provided by law for service upon the occupants, or the owner received actual notice of the proposed sale;
(xiv) gave the correct description at length, and an incorrect description by abbreviation or figures set off by the parentheses, or vice versa;
(xv) was served personally upon the occupants of the premises as such, but said service was less than four weeks prior to the appointed time of sale;
(xvi) did not state the original principal amount secured, or failed to state the correct original principal amount secured;
(4) that distinct and separate parcels of land were sold together as one parcel and to one bidder for one bid for the whole as one parcel;
(5) that no authenticated copy of the order appointing, or letters issued to a foreign representative of the estate of the mortgagee or assignee, was properly filed or recorded, provided such order or letters have been filed or recorded in the proper office prior to one year after the last day of the redemption period of the mortgagor, the mortgagor's personal representatives or assigns;
(6) that a holder of a mortgage was a representative appointed by a court of competent jurisdiction in another state or county in which before the foreclosure sale an authenticated copy of the representative's letters or other record of authority were filed for record in the office of the county recorder of the proper county but no certificate was filed and recorded therewith showing that said letters or other record of authority were still in force;
(7)(i) that said mortgage was assigned by a decree of a court exercising probate jurisdiction in which decree the mortgage was not specifically or sufficiently described;
(ii) that the mortgage foreclosed had been assigned by the final decree of the court exercising probate jurisdiction to the heirs, devisees, or legatees of the deceased mortgagee, or the mortgagee's assigns, and subsequent thereto and before the representative of the estate had been discharged by order of the court, the representative had assigned the mortgage to one of the heirs, devisees, or legatees named in such final decree, and such assignment placed on record and the foreclosure proceedings conducted in the name of such assignee and without any assignment of the mortgage from the heirs, devisees, or legatees named in such final decree, and the mortgaged premises bid in at the sale by such assignee, and the sheriff's certificate of sale, with accompanying affidavits recorded in the office of the county recorder of the proper county;
(iii) that a mortgage owned by joint tenants or tenants in common was foreclosed by only one tenant;
(8) that the sheriff's certificate of sale or the accompanying affidavits and return of service were not executed, filed or recorded within 20 days after the date of sale, but have been executed and filed or recorded prior to the last day of the redemption period of the mortgagor, the mortgagor's personal representatives or assigns;
(9) that the year, or the month, or the day, or the hour of the sale is omitted or incorrectly or insufficiently stated in the notice of sale or the sheriff's certificate of sale;
(10)(i) that prior to the foreclosure no registration tax was paid on the mortgage, provided such tax had been paid prior to one year after the last day of the redemption period of the mortgagor, the mortgagor's personal representatives or assigns;
(ii) that an insufficient registration tax has been paid on the mortgage;
(11) that the date of the mortgage or any assignment thereof or the date, the month, the day, hour, book, and page, or document number of the record or filing of the mortgage or any assignment thereof, in the office of the county recorder or registrar of titles is omitted or incorrectly or insufficiently stated in the notice of sale or in any of the foreclosure papers, affidavits or instruments;
(12) that the notice of mortgage foreclosure sale or sheriff's certificate of sale designated the place of sale as the office of a county official located in the court house of the county when such office was not located in such court house;
(13) that no notice of the pendency of the proceedings to enforce or foreclose the mortgage as provided in section
Minn. Stat. § 580.09
580.09 , and except as required by subdivision 3, if, after sale of any real estate, made as herein prescribed, there remains in the hands of the officer making the sale any surplus money, after satisfying the mortgage, with interest, taxes paid, and costs of sale, the surplus shall be paid over by such officer, on demand, to the mortgagor, the mortgagor's legal representatives or assigns. Any surplus of $100 or greater shall be held by the sheriff for the duration of the time allowed for redemption under section
Minn. Stat. § 580.13
580.13 PREMISES IN MORE THAN ONE COUNTY; RECORD.
If any mortgage covering real estate in more than one county be foreclosed by proceedings had in one county, and the mortgage debt be thereby paid, in whole or in part, there may be recorded by the county recorder of the other county a certified copy of the certificate of sale and other foreclosure proceedings of record in the county in which the foreclosure proceedings were had.
History:
( 9616 ) RL s 4470 ; 1976 c 181 s 2
Minn. Stat. § 580.23
580.23 expires. There is a rebuttable presumption that the servicer failed to communicate with a third-party designee absent a recorded affidavit, as described in paragraph (d).
§
Subd. 6b. Communication with independent counseling agency.
(a) If a reverse mortgage loan servicer must take the actions required under subdivision 6a, paragraph (a), and the borrower has consented on the form provided under subdivision 8, the servicer must mail a copy of unanswered written communications and copies of subsequent written communications from the servicer regarding delinquencies, defaults, and unfulfilled obligations that may result in foreclosure under a reverse mortgage loan agreement to the independent counseling agency identified in the loan agreement.
(b) The servicer may mail the communications described in paragraph (a) to the independent counseling agency at the same time the communications are mailed to the borrower and third-party designee.
§
Subd. 7. Loan closing.
The lender may require the borrower to pay no more than actual closing costs incurred in connection with the making, closing, disbursing or extending of a reverse mortgage loan. A reverse mortgage loan agreement or extension agreement may provide for deferral of payment of any portion of actual closing costs. Deferred closing costs shall be added to the outstanding loan balance as provided in subdivision 1, paragraph (e). Unless the agreement provides for deferral, actual closing costs shall be paid by the borrower at the time of signing the agreement.
Upon signing a reverse mortgage loan agreement or extension agreement the lender shall furnish to the borrower:
(a) a schedule showing the projected pattern of the outstanding loan balance over the period of the agreement;
(b) a statement indicating in detail the charges and fees the borrower has paid or is obligated to pay to the lender or to any other person in connection with the loan; and
(c) any other information required by state or federal law.
§
Subd. 8. Counseling; requirement; penalty.
Prior to accepting a final and complete application for a reverse mortgage loan or assessing any fees, a lender must:
(a) refer the prospective borrower to an independent housing counseling agency for reverse mortgage counseling. The lender shall provide the prospective borrower with a list of at least three independent housing counseling agencies. The lender shall positively promote the benefits of reverse mortgage counseling to the potential borrower; and
(b) receive a certification from the applicant or the applicant's authorized representative that the applicant has received counseling as defined in this subdivision from an independent housing counseling agency. The certification must be signed by the applicant and the counselor from the independent agency and must include the date of the counseling, and the name, address, and telephone number of both the counselor from the independent agency and the applicant. The lender shall maintain the certification in an accurate, reproducible, and accessible format for the term of the reverse mortgage. A failure by the lender to comply with this subdivision results in a $1,000 civil penalty payable to the borrower.
For the purposes of this subdivision:
(1) "independent counseling agency" means an agency approved by the United States Department of Housing and Urban Development, domiciled in Minnesota, to provide loan counseling that has no business relationship with the lender and, except for an authorized foreclosure prevention counseling agency, as defined in section 580.021, subdivision 2 , neither makes loans nor refers borrowers to any person or entity that makes loans; and
(2) "counseling" means that during a session, which must be no less than 60 minutes, the following services are provided to the borrower:
(i) a review of the advantages and disadvantages of a reverse mortgage loan;
(ii) a discussion of the borrower's finances, assets, liabilities, expenses, and income needs and a review of options other than a reverse mortgage loan that are available to the borrower, including other housing, social services, health, and financial options;
(iii) a review of other home equity conversion or other loan options that are or may become available to the borrower;
(iv) an explanation of the financial implication of entering into a reverse mortgage loan, including the costs of the loan;
(v) an explanation that a reverse mortgage loan may have tax consequences, affect eligibility for assistance under federal and state programs, and have an impact on the estate and heirs of the borrower;
(vi) an explanation of the lending process;
(vii) an opportunity for the borrower to ask questions of the counselor;
(viii) an explanation that:
(A) the lender may not condition a reverse mortgage loan on the purchase of an annuity, investment, life insurance, or long-term care insurance product; and
(B) a reverse mortgage loan cannot obligate the borrower to purchase an annuity, investment, life insurance, or long-term care insurance product;
(ix) notification to the borrower that, following the receipt of a written commitment to make a reverse mortgage loan and prior to the expiration of the seven-day cooling off period provided under subdivision 10, the borrower may seek additional information and an analysis of the commitment from the counselor; and
(x) an explanation of the borrower's right, before executing the reverse mortgage loan agreement, to name a third-party designee to receive communications regarding delinquencies, defaults, and unfulfilled obligations that may result in foreclosure under a reverse mortgage loan agreement. The counselor must provide the borrower with the following blank form, which must be in at least 14-point type, for the borrower to complete if desired and present to the lender when entering into the loan agreement:
Authorization Form
- Authorization for Third-Party Designee to Receive/Initiate Communications
I, (name of borrower), authorize my lender or servicer to send copies of any written communications from the servicer regarding delinquencies, defaults, and unfulfilled obligations that could result in foreclosure under a reverse mortgage loan agreement, as provided under Minnesota Statutes, section 47.58, subdivisions 6a and 6b, to the individual designated below.
I further authorize the person designated below to communicate with my lender or servicer.
Designee Contact Information:
Name:
.
Address:
.
Telephone Number(s):
.
Email Address:
.
- Authorization for Reverse Mortgage Counseling Agency to Receive Communications
Please indicate below if you authorize your servicer to also send copies of any written communications that will be sent to the third-party designee to the independent counseling agency that provided you with reverse mortgage loan counseling.
(Check one)
.
I authorize my lender or servicer to also send copies of any written communications that will be sent to the third-party designee to the independent counseling agency that provided me with reverse mortgage loan counseling.
.
I DO NOT authorize my lender or servicer to also send copies of any written communications that will be sent to the third-party designee to the independent counseling agency that provided me with reverse mortgage loan counseling.
Name of Borrower (print name):
.
Signature of Borrower:
.
Date:
.
§
Subd. 9. Lender default; forfeiture.
A lender who fails to make loan advances as required in the loan documents, and fails to cure an actual default after notice as specified in the loan documents, shall forfeit any right to repayment of the outstanding loan balance with respect to a mortgage that is not federally insured. Any mortgage that is not federally insured securing a reverse mortgage loan agreement in which a forfeiture has occurred pursuant to this subdivision may be declared null and void by a court of competent jurisdiction.
§
Subd. 10. Seven-day cooling off period; right of rescission.
(a) A borrower shall not be bound for seven days after the borrower's acceptance, in writing, of the lender's written commitment to make the reverse mortgage loan, and cannot be required to close or proceed with the loan during that time period. The lender shall provide the borrower with written notice of the seven-day cooling off period, which must be on a separate sheet of paper and in at least ten-point type. A borrower may not waive the provisions of this paragraph.
(b) The borrower may rescind any reverse mortgage loan within three days of execution, as provided in Code of Federal Regulations, Regulation Z.
§
Subd. 11. Sales of insurance products in connection with reverse mortgage loan transactions.
No lender, mortgage broker, or residential mortgage originator may:
(1) require the purchase of an annuity, investment, life insurance, or long-term care insurance product as a condition of obtaining a reverse mortgage loan;
(2) enter into any agreement to make a reverse mortgage loan that obligates the borrower to purchase an annuity, investment, life insurance, or long-term care insurance product; or
(3) receive compensation for providing the borrower with information relating to an annuity, investment, life insurance, or long-term care insurance product.
For the purposes of this subdivision, "mortgage broker" has the meaning given in section 58.02, subdivision 13 , and "residential mortgage originator" has the meaning given in section 58.02, subdivision 19 .
History:
1979 c 265 s 1 ; 1983 c 289 s 114 subd 1; 1984 c 655 art 1 s 92 ; 1Sp1985 c 14 art 4 s 5 ,6; 1986 c 444 ; 1Sp1986 c 3 art 1 s 7 ; 1991 c 201 s 1 ; 1991 c 291 art 20 s 1 ; 1993 c 257 s 13 ; 1995 c 202 art 1 s 7 ,25; 2000 c 260 s 11 ; 2009 c 37 art 3 s 1 ; 2010 c 375 s 1 -6; 2014 c 275 art 1 s 4 ; 2019 c 50 art 1 s 15 ; 2021 c 9 s 1 -4
CREDIT EXTENSION RATES
Minn. Stat. § 580.25
580.25 , but only if before the end of the mortgagor's redemption period under this section the creditor files with the county recorder or registrar of titles of each county where the real estate is located, a notice of intention to redeem. If a junior creditor fails to timely file a notice of intention to redeem as provided in this subdivision, or fails to redeem, its lien on the real estate is extinguished.
History:
1992 c 547 s 1 ; 1993 c 40 s 3 -9; 1999 c 11 art 4 s 5
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Minnesota Office of the Revisor of Statutes, Centennial Office Building,
3rd Floor, 658 Cedar Street, St. Paul, MN 55155
Minn. Stat. § 580.30
580.30 if the unit were wholly real estate.
History:
1993 c 222 art 3 s 17 ; 1994 c 388 art 4 s 12 ; 2001 c 50 s 30 ; 2001 c 195 art 2 s 33 ; 2005 c 121 s 32 ; 2006 c 221 s 14 ; 2010 c 267 art 3 s 14
515B.3-118 ASSOCIATION RECORDS.
The association shall keep adequate records of its membership, unit owners meetings, board of directors meetings, committee meetings, contracts, leases and other agreements to which the association is a party, and material correspondence and memoranda relating to its operations. The association shall keep financial records sufficiently detailed to enable the association to comply with sections 515B.3-106 (b) and 515B.4-107 . All records, except records relating to information that was the basis for closing a board meeting under section 515B.3-103 , paragraph (g), shall be made reasonably available for examination by any unit owner or the unit owner's authorized agent, subject to the applicable statutes. The association must provide copies in paper or electronic form as requested by the owner or authorized agent, provided that the association is not required to provide copies in electronic form if the records are not maintained in that form by the association. The association may require the unit owner or the authorized agent to pay a fee for copies, which must not exceed:
(1) the actual costs of making or electronically transmitting the copies and searching for and retrieving the requested records, including the cost of agent or employee time for responding to the request; or
(2) if 100 or fewer pages of black and white, letter or legal size paper copies are requested, no more than 25 cents for each page copied, instead of actual costs.
History:
1993 c 222 art 3 s 18 ; 2011 c 10 s 1
515B.3-119 ASSOCIATION AS TRUSTEE.
With respect to a third person dealing with the association in the association's capacity as a trustee, the existence of trust powers and their proper exercise by the association may be assumed without inquiry. A third person is not bound to inquire whether the association has power to act as trustee or is properly exercising trust powers and third person, without actual knowledge that the association is exceeding its powers or improperly exercising them, is fully protected in dealing with the association as if it possessed and properly exercised the powers it purports to exercise. A third person is not bound to assure the proper application of trust assets paid or delivered to the association in its capacity as trustee.
History:
1993 c 222 art 3 s 19
515B.3-120 DECLARANT DUTIES; TURNOVER OF RECORDS.
(a) During any period of declarant control pursuant to section 515B.3-103 (c), declarant and any of its representatives who are acting as officers or directors of the association shall:
(1) cause the association to be operated and administered in accordance with its articles of incorporation and bylaws, the declaration and applicable law;
(2) be subject to all fiduciary obligations and obligations of good faith applicable to any persons serving a corporation in that capacity;
(3) cause the association's funds to be maintained in a separate bank account or accounts solely in the association's name, from and after the date of creation of the association; and
(4) cause the association to maintain complete and accurate records in compliance with section 515B.3-118 .
(b) At such time as any period of declarant control terminates, declarant shall cause to be delivered to the board elected by the unit owners exclusive control of all funds of the association, all contracts and agreements which are binding on the association, all corporate records of the association including financial records, copies of all CIC plats and supplementary CIC plats, personal property owned or represented to be owned by the association, assignments of third-party warranties relating to common element improvements or other improvements the association is obliged to maintain, repair, or replace, if not in the name of the association, and, to the extent they are in the control or possession of the declarant, copies of all plans and specifications relating to buildings and related improvements which are part of the common elements, and operating manuals and warranty materials relating to any equipment or personal property utilized in the operation of the common interest community. The declarant's obligation to turn over the foregoing items shall continue to include additional new or changed items in its possession or control. Declarant shall not be obligated to assign any third-party warranty to the extent assignment is prohibited by the warranty or applicable law or otherwise prevents the declarant from enforcing the warranty.
(c) A person entitled to appoint the directors of a master association pursuant to section 515B.2-121 (c)(1), and the master association's officers and directors, shall be subject to the same duties and obligations with respect to the master association as are described in subsections (a) and (b), to the extent applicable. A master association may not be used to circumvent or avoid any obligation or restriction imposed on a declarant or its affiliates by this chapter.
History:
1993 c 222 art 3 s 20 ; 2005 c 121 s 33 ; 2010 c 267 art 3 s 15
515B.3-121 ACCOUNTING CONTROLS.
(a) Subject to any additional or greater requirements set forth in the declaration or bylaws, a review of the association's financial statements shall be made at the end of the association's fiscal year, unless prior to 60 days after the end of that fiscal year, at a meeting or by mailed ballot, unit owners, other than declarant or its affiliates, of units to which at least 30 percent of the votes in the association are allocated vote to waive the review requirement for that fiscal year. A waiver vote shall not apply to more than one fiscal year, and shall not affect the board's authority to cause a review or audit to be made. The reviewed financial statements shall be delivered to all members of the association within 180 days after the end of the association's fiscal year.
(b) The review shall be made by a licensed, independent certified public accountant. A licensed, independent certified public accountant means an accountant who (i) is not an employee of the declarant or its affiliates, (ii) is professionally independent of the control of the declarant or its affiliates, (iii) is licensed in accordance with chapter 326A , and (iv) satisfies the tests for independence as promulgated by the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants.
(c) Where the financial statements are prepared by an independent certified public accountant, they shall be prepared in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles as established from time to time by the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants, and shall be reviewed in accordance with standards for accounting and review services. In such case, the financial statements shall be presented on the full accrual basis using an accounting format that separates operating activity from replacement reserve activity.
History:
1993 c 222 art 3 s 21 ; 1999 c 11 art 2 s 24 ; 2010 c 191 s 12 ; 2010 c 267 art 3 s 16
ARTICLE 4 PROTECTION OF PURCHASERS
515B.4-101 APPLICABILITY; DELIVERY OF DISCLOSURE STATEMENT.
(a) Sections 515B.4-101 through 515B.4-118 apply to all units subject to this chapter, except as provided in subsection (c) or as modified or waived by written agreement of purchasers of a unit which is restricted to nonresidential use.
(b) Subject to subsections (a) and (c), a declarant who offers a unit to a purchaser shall deliver to the purchaser a current disclosure statement which complies with the requirements of section 515B.4-102 . The disclosure statement shall include any material amendments to the disclosure statement made prior to the conveyance of the unit to the purchaser. The declarant shall be liable to the purchaser to whom it delivered the disclosure statement for any false or misleading statement set forth therein or for any omission of a material fact therefrom.
(c) Neither a disclosure statement nor a resale disclosure certificate need be prepared or delivered in the case of:
(1) a gratuitous transfer;
(2) a transfer pursuant to a court order;
(3) a transfer to a government or governmental agency;
(4) a transfer to a secured party by foreclosure or deed in lieu of foreclosure;
(5) an option to purchase a unit, until exercised;
(6) a transfer to a person who "controls" or is "controlled by," the grantor as those terms are defined with respect to a declarant under section 515B.1-103 (2);
(7) a transfer by inheritance;
(8) a transfer of special declarant rights under section 515B.3-104 ; or
(9) a transfer in connection with a change of form of common interest community under section 515B.2-123 .
(d) A purchase agreement for a unit shall contain the following notice: "The following notice is required by Minnesota Statutes. The purchaser is entitled to receive a disclosure statement or resale disclosure certificate, as applicable. The disclosure statement or resale disclosure certificate contains important information regarding the common interest community and the purchaser's cancellation rights."
(e) The sale, to the initial occupant, of a platted lot or other parcel of real estate (i) which is or may be subject to a master declaration, (ii) which is intended for residential occupancy, and (iii) which does not and is not intended to constitute a unit, shall be subject to the following requirements:
(1) The purchase agreement for the lot or other parcel shall contain the following notice: "The following notice is required by Minnesota Statutes: The real estate to be conveyed under this agreement is or may be subject to a master association as defined in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 515B . The master developer is required to provide to the buyer, within ten days after receipt of a request from the buyer or the buyer's authorized representative, a statement containing the information required by Minnesota Statutes, section 515B.4-102 (a)(20), with respect to the master association. The statement contains important information regarding the master association. The name, address, and telephone number of the master developer are [insert information]."
(2) A master developer shall, within ten days after receipt of a request described in clause (1), furnish to the requesting person the information required to be provided by section 515B.4-102 (a)(20).
(f) A claim by a buyer based upon a failure to comply with subsection (e):
(1) shall be limited to legal, and not equitable, remedies; or
(2) shall be barred unless it is commenced within the time period specified in section 515B.4-115 (a).
History:
1993 c 222 art 4 s 1 ; 1999 c 11 art 2 s 25 ; 2005 c 121 s 34 ; 2006 c 221 s 15 ; 2010 c 267 art 4 s 1
515B.4-102 DISCLOSURE STATEMENT; GENERAL PROVISIONS; CIC CREATED BEFORE AUGUST 1, 2010.
(a) A disclosure statement shall fully and accurately disclose:
(1) the name and, if available, the number of the common interest community;
(2) the name and principal address of the declarant;
(3) the number of units which the declarant has the right to include in the common interest community and a statement that the common interest community is either a condominium, cooperative, or planned community;
(4) a general description of the common interest community, including, at a minimum, (i) the number of buildings, (ii) the number of dwellings per building, (iii) the type of construction, (iv) whether the common interest community involves new construction or rehabilitation, (v) whether any building was wholly or partially occupied, for any purpose, before it was added to the common interest community and the nature of the occupancy, and (vi) a general description of any roads, trails, or utilities that are located on the common elements and that the association or a master association will be required to maintain;
(5) declarant's schedule of commencement and completion of construction of any buildings and other improvements that the declarant is obligated to build pursuant to section 515B.4-117 ;
(6) any expenses or services, not reflected in the budget, that a declarant pays or provides, which may become a common expense; the projected common expense attributable to each of those expenses or services; and an explanation of declarant's limited assessment liability under section 515B.3-115 (b);
(7) any initial or special fee due from the purchaser to the declarant or the association at closing, together with a description of the purpose and method of calculating the fee;
(8) identification of any liens, defects, or encumbrances which will continue to affect the title to a unit or to any real property owned by the association after the contemplated conveyance;
(9) a description of any financing offered or arranged by the declarant;
(10) a statement as to whether application has been made for any project approvals for the common interest community from the Federal National Mortgage Association (FNMA), Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation (FHLMC), Department of Housing and Urban Development (HUD) or Department of Veterans Affairs (VA), and which, if any, such final approvals have been received;
(11) the terms of any warranties provided by the declarant, including copies of sections 515B.4-112 through 515B.4-115 , and any other applicable statutory warranties, and a statement of any limitations on the enforcement of the applicable warranties or on damages;
(12) a statement that: (i) within ten days after the receipt of a disclosure statement, a purchaser may cancel any contract for the purchase of a unit from a declarant; provided, that the right to cancel terminates upon the purchaser's voluntary acceptance of a conveyance of the unit from the declarant or by the purchaser agreeing to modify or waive the right to cancel in the manner provided by section 515B.4-106 (a); (ii) if a purchaser receives a disclosure statement more than ten days before signing a purchase agreement, the purchaser cannot cancel the purchase agreement; and (iii) if a declarant obligated to deliver a disclosure statement fails to deliver a disclosure statement which substantially complies with this chapter to a purchaser to whom a unit is conveyed, the declarant shall be liable to the purchaser as provided in section 515B.4-106 (d);
(13) a statement disclosing to the extent of the declarant's or an affiliate of a declarant's actual knowledge, after reasonable inquiry, any unsatisfied judgments or lawsuits to which the association is a party, and the status of those lawsuits which are material to the common interest community or the unit being purchased;
(14) a statement (i) describing the conditions under which earnest money will be held in and disbursed from the escrow account, as set forth in section 515B.4-109 , (ii) that the earnest money will be returned to the purchaser if the purchaser cancels the contract pursuant to section 515B.4-106 , and (iii) setting forth the name and address of the escrow agent;
(15) a detailed description of the insurance coverage provided by the association for the benefit of unit owners, including a statement as to which, if any, of the items referred to in section 515B.3-113 , subsection (b), are insured by the association;
(16) any current or expected fees or charges, other than assessments for common expenses, to be paid by unit owners for the use of the common elements or any other improvements or facilities;
(17) the financial arrangements, including any contingencies, which have been made to provide for completion of all improvements that the declarant is obligated to build pursuant to section 515B.4-118 , or a statement that no such arrangements have been made;
(18) in a cooperative: (i) whether the unit owners will be entitled for federal and state tax purposes, to deduct payments made by the association for real estate taxes and interest paid to the holder of a security interest encumbering the cooperative; (ii) a statement as to the effect on the unit owners if the association fails to pay real estate taxes or payments due the holder of a security interest encumbering the cooperative; and (iii) the principal amount and a general description of the terms of any blanket mortgage, contract for deed, or other blanket security instrument encumbering the cooperative property;
(19) a statement: (i) that real estate taxes for the unit or any real property owned by the association are not delinquent or, if there are delinquent real estate taxes, describing the property for which the taxes are delinquent, stating the amount of the delinquent taxes, interest and penalties, and stating the years for which taxes are delinquent, and (ii) setting forth the amount of real estate taxes, including the amount of any special assessment certified for payment with the real estate taxes, due and payable with respect to the unit in the year in which the disclosure statement is given, if real estate taxes have been separately assessed against the unit;
(20) if the association or the purchaser of the unit will be a member of a master association, a statement to that effect, and all of the following information with respect to the master association: (i) a copy of the master declaration, the articles of incorporation, bylaws, and rules and regulations for the master association, together with any amendments thereto; (ii) the name, address and general description of the master association, including a general description of any other association, unit owners, or other persons which are or may become members; (iii) a description of any nonresidential use permitted on any property subject to the master association; (iv) a statement as to the estimated maximum number of associations, unit owners or other persons which may become members of the master association, and the degree and period of control of the master association by a declarant or other person; (v) a description of any facilities intended for the benefit of the members of the master association and not located on property owned or controlled by a member or the master association; (vi) the financial arrangements, including any contingencies, which have been made to provide for completion of the facilities referred to in subsection (v), or a statement that no arrangements have been made; (vii) any current balance sheet of the master association and a projected or current annual budget, as applicable, which budget shall include with respect to the master association those items in paragraph (23), clauses (i) through (iii), and the projected monthly common expense assessment for each type of unit, lot, or other parcel of real estate which is or is planned to be subject to assessment; (viii) a description of any expenses or services not reflected in the budget, paid for or provided by a declarant or a person executing the master declaration, which may become an expense of the master association in the future; (ix) a description of any powers delegated to and accepted by the master association pursuant to section 515B.2-121 (f)(2); (x) identification of any liens, defects or encumbrances that will continue to affect title to property owned or operated by the master association for the benefit of its members; (xi) the terms of any warranties provided by any person for construction of facilities in which the members of the master association have or may have an interest, and any known defects in the facilities which would violate the standards described in section 515B.4-112 (b); (xii) a statement disclosing, after inquiry of the master association, any unsatisfied judgments or lawsuits to which the master association is a party, and the status of those lawsuits which are material to the master association; (xiii) a description of any insurance coverage provided for the benefit of its members by the master association; and (xiv) any current or expected fees or charges, other than assessments by the master association, to be paid by members of the master association for the use of any facilities intended for the benefit of the members;
(21) a statement as to whether the unit will be substantially completed at the time of conveyance to a purchaser, and if not substantially completed, who is responsible to complete and pay for the construction of the unit;
(22) a copy of the declaration and any amendments thereto (exclusive of the CIC plat); any other recorded covenants, conditions, restrictions, or reservations affecting the common interest community; the articles of incorporation, bylaws and any rules or regulations of the association; any agreement excluding or modifying any implied warranties; any agreement reducing the statute of limitations for the enforcement of warranties; any contracts or leases to be signed by purchaser at closing; and a brief narrative description of any (i) contracts or leases that are or may be subject to cancellation by the association under section 515B.3-105 and (ii) any material agreements entered into between the declarant and a governmental entity that affect the common interest community; and
(23) a balance sheet for the association, current within 90 days; a projected annual budget for the association; and a statement identifying the party responsible for the preparation of the budget. The budget shall assume that all units intended to be included in the common interest community, based upon the declarant's good faith estimate, have been subjected to the declaration; provided, that additional budget portrayals based upon a lesser number of units are permitted. The budget shall include, without limitation: (i) a statement of the amount included in the budget as a reserve for replacement; (ii) a statement of any other reserves; (iii) the projected common expense for each category of expenditures for the association; (iv) the projected monthly common expense assessment for each type of unit; and (v) a footnote or other reference to those components of the common interest community the maintenance, repair, or replacement of which the budget assumes will be funded by assessments under section 515B.3-115 (e), rather than by assessments included in the association's annual budget, and a statement referencing section 515B.3-115 (e)(1) or (2), as the source of funding. If, based upon the association's then current budget, the monthly common expense assessment for the unit at the time of conveyance to the purchaser is anticipated to exceed the monthly assessment stated in the budget, a statement to such effect shall be included.
(b) A declarant shall promptly amend the disclosure statement to reflect any material change in the information required by this chapter.
(c) The master association, within ten days after a request by a declarant, a holder of declarant rights, or a buyer referred to in section 515B.4-101 (e), or the authorized representative of any of them, shall furnish the information required to be provided by subsection (a)(20). A declarant or other person who provides information pursuant to subsection (a)(20) is not liable to the buyer for any erroneous information if the declarant or other person: (i) is not an affiliate of or related in any way to a person authorized to appoint the master association board pursuant to section 515B.2-121 (c)(3), and (ii) has no actual knowledge that the information is incorrect.
(d) This section applies only to common interest communities created before August 1, 2010.
History:
1993 c 222 art 4 s 2 ; 1999 c 11 art 2 s 26 ; 2005 c 10 art 1 s 74 ; 2005 c 121 s 35 ; 2006 c 221 s 16 ; 2010 c 267 art 4 s 2 ; 2011 c 116 art 2 s 18
515B.4-1021 DISCLOSURE STATEMENT; GENERAL PROVISIONS; CIC CREATED ON OR AFTER AUGUST 1, 2010.
(a) A disclosure statement shall fully and accurately disclose:
(1) the name and, if available, the number of the common interest community;
(2) the name and principal address of each declarant holding any special declarant rights; a description of the special declarant rights held by each declarant; a description of the units or additional real estate to which the respective special declarant rights apply; and a copy of any recorded transfer of special declarant rights pursuant to section 515B.3-104 (a), or any instrument recorded pursuant to section 515B.3-104 (b), (g), or (h);
(3) the total number of units which all declarants have the right to include in the common interest community and a statement that the common interest community is either a condominium, cooperative, or planned community;
(4) a general description of the common interest community, including, at a minimum, (i) the number of buildings, (ii) the number of dwellings per building, (iii) the type of construction, (iv) whether the common interest community involves new construction or rehabilitation, (v) whether any building was wholly or partially occupied, for any purpose, before it was added to the common interest community, and the nature of the occupancy, (vi) a general description of any roads, trails, or utilities that are located on the common elements and that the association or master association will be required to maintain, (vii) a description of any declarant licensing rights under section 515B.2-109 (e), and (viii) the initial maintenance plan, initial maintenance schedule, and maintenance budget under section 515B.3-107 (b). The initial maintenance plan prepared by the declarant must be based on the best available information listing all building elements to which the plan will apply and the generally accepted standards of maintenance on which the plan is based. The initial plan must be dated and signed by the declarant and be fully funded by the initial budget provided by the declarant;
(5) declarant's schedule of commencement and completion of construction of any buildings and other improvements that the declarant is obligated to build pursuant to section 515B.4-117 ;
(6) any expenses or services, not reflected in the budget, that the declarant pays or provides, which may become a common expense; the projected common expense attributable to each of those expenses or services; a description of any alternate common expense plan under section 515B.3-115 (a)(2)(i); and, if the declaration provides for an alternate common expense plan, either (i) a statement that the alternate common expense plan will have no effect on the level of services or amenities anticipated by the association's budget or disclosed in the disclosure statement, or (ii) a statement describing how the services or amenities may be affected;
(7) any initial or special fee due from the purchaser to the declarant or the association at closing, together with a description of the purpose and method of calculating the fee;
(8) identification of any liens, defects, or encumbrances which will continue to affect the title to a unit or to any real property owned by the association after the contemplated conveyance;
(9) a description of any financing offered or arranged by the declarant;
(10) a statement as to whether application has been made for any project approvals for the common interest community from the Federal National Mortgage Association (FNMA), Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation (FHLMC), Department of Housing and Urban Development (HUD), or Department of Veterans Affairs (VA), and which, if any, such final approvals have been received;
(11) the terms of any warranties provided by the declarant, including copies of sections 515B.4-112 to 515B.4-115 , and any other applicable statutory warranties, and a statement of any limitations on the enforcement of the applicable warranties or on damages;
(12) a statement that:
(i) within ten days after the receipt of a disclosure statement, a purchaser may cancel any contract for the purchase of a unit from a declarant; provided, that the right to cancel terminates upon the purchaser's voluntary acceptance of a conveyance of the unit from the declarant or by the purchaser agreeing to modify or waive the right to cancel in the manner provided by section 515B.4-106 (a);
(ii) if a purchaser receives a disclosure statement more than ten days before signing a purchase agreement, the purchaser cannot cancel the purchase agreement; and
(iii) if a declarant obligated to deliver a disclosure statement fails to deliver a disclosure statement which substantially complies with this chapter to a purchaser to whom a unit is conveyed, the declarant shall be liable to the purchaser as provided in section 515B.4-106 (d);
(13) a statement disclosing to the extent of the declarant's or an affiliate of a declarant's actual knowledge, after reasonable inquiry, any unsatisfied judgments or lawsuits to which the association is a party, and the status of those lawsuits which are material to the common interest community or the unit being purchased;
(14) a statement (i) describing the conditions under which earnest money will be held in and disbursed from the escrow account, as set forth in section 515B.4-109 , (ii) that the earnest money will be returned to the purchaser if the purchaser cancels the contract pursuant to section 515B.4-106 , and (iii) setting forth the name and address of the escrow agent;
(15) a detailed description of the insurance coverage provided by the association for the benefit of unit owners, including a statement as to which, if any, of the items referred to in section 515B.3-113 (b), are insured by the association;
(16) any current or expected fees or charges, other than assessments for common expenses, to be paid by unit owners for the use of the common elements or any other improvements or facilities;
(17) the financial arrangements, including any contingencies, which have been made to provide for completion of all improvements that the declarant is obligated to build pursuant to section 515B.4-118 , or a statement that no such arrangements have been made;
(18) in a cooperative:
(i) whether the unit owners will be entitled, for federal and state tax purposes, to deduct payments made by the association for real estate taxes and interest paid to the holder of a security interest encumbering the cooperative;
(ii) a statement as to the effect on the unit owners if the association fails to pay real estate taxes or payments due the holder of a security interest encumbering the cooperative; and
(iii) the principal amount and a general description of the terms of any blanket mortgage, contract for deed, or other blanket security instrument encumbering the cooperative property;
(19) a statement:
(i) that real estate taxes for the unit or any real property owned by the association are not delinquent or, if there are delinquent real estate taxes, describing the property for which the taxes are delinquent, stating the amount of the delinquent taxes, interest, and penalties, and stating the years for which taxes are delinquent; and
(ii) setting forth the amount of real estate taxes, including the amount of any special assessment certified for payment with the real estate taxes, due and payable with respect to the unit in the year in which the disclosure statement is given, if real estate taxes have been separately assessed against the unit;
(20) if the unit or other parcel of real estate being purchased is or may be subject to a master declaration at the time of the conveyance from the declarant to the purchaser, a statement to that effect, and all of the following information with respect to the master association:
(i) copies of the following documents (which may be in proposed form if the master declaration has not been recorded): the master declaration, the articles of incorporation, bylaws, and rules and regulations for the master association, together with any amendments thereto;
(ii) the name and address of the master developer, and the name, address, and general description of the master association, including a general description of any other association, unit owners, or other persons which are or may become members;
(iii) a description of any nonresidential use permitted on any property subject to the master declaration;
(iv) a statement as to the estimated maximum number of associations, unit owners, or other persons which may become members of the master association, and a description of any period of control of the master association and rights to appoint master association directors by a master developer or other person pursuant to section 515B.2-121 (c);
(v) a description of any facilities intended for the benefit of the members of the master association and not located on property owned or controlled by a member of the master association;
(vi) the financial arrangements, including any contingencies, which have been made to provide for completion of the facilities referred to in subsection (v), or a statement that no arrangements have been made;
(vii) any current balance sheet of the master association and a projected or current annual budget, as applicable, which budget shall include with respect to the master association those items in paragraph (23), clauses (i) through (iii), and the projected monthly or other periodic common expense assessment payment for each type of unit, lot, or other parcel of real estate which is or is planned to be subject to assessment;
(viii) a description of any expenses or services not reflected in the budget, paid for or provided by a master developer or another person executing the master declaration, which may become an expense of the master association in the future;
(ix) a description of any powers delegated to and accepted by the master association pursuant to section 515B.2-121 (e)(2);
(x) identification of any liens, defects, or encumbrances that will continue to affect title to property owned or operated by the master association for the benefit of its members;
(xi) the terms of any warranties provided by any person for construction of facilities in which the members of the master association have or may have an interest, and any known defects in the facilities which would violate the standards described in section 515B.4-113 (b)(2);
(xii) a statement disclosing, after inquiry of the master association, any unsatisfied judgments or lawsuits to which the master association is a party, and the status of those lawsuits which are material to the master association;
(xiii) a description of any insurance coverage provided for the benefit of its members by the master association; and
(xiv) any current or expected fees or charges, other than assessments by the master association, to be paid by members of the master association for the use of any facilities intended for the benefit of the members;
(21) a statement as to whether the unit will be substantially completed at the time of conveyance to a purchaser, and, if not substantially completed, who is responsible to complete and pay for the construction of the unit;
(22) copies of the following documents (which may be in proposed form if the declaration has not been recorded): the declaration and any supplemental declaration, and any amendments thereto (exclusive of the CIC plat); any other recorded covenants, conditions, restrictions, and reservations affecting the common interest community; the articles of incorporation, bylaws, and any rules or regulations of the association; the names of the current members of the association's board of directors; any agreement excluding or modifying any implied warranties; any agreement reducing the statute of limitations for the enforcement of warranties; any contracts or leases to be signed by the purchaser at closing; and a description of any material contracts, leases, or other agreements affecting the common interest community; and
(23) a balance sheet for the association, following the creation of the association, current within 90 days; a projected annual budget for the association; and a statement identifying the party responsible for the preparation of the budget. The budget shall assume that all units intended to be included in the common interest community, based upon the declarant's good faith estimate, have been subjected to the declaration; provided, that additional budget portrayals based upon a lesser number of units are permitted. The budget shall include, without limitation:
(i) a statement of the amount included in the budget as a reserve for replacement, the components of the common interest community for which the reserves are budgeted, and the amounts of the reserves, if any, that are allocated for the replacement of each of those components;
(ii) a statement of any other reserves;
(iii) the projected common expense for each category of expenditures for the association;
(iv) the projected monthly common expense assessment for each type of unit;
(v) a statement as to the components of the common interest community whose replacement will be funded by assessments under section 515B.3-115 (c) or (e), rather than by replacement reserves as approved pursuant to section 515B.3-114 (a). If, based upon the association's then-current budget, the monthly common expense assessment for the unit at the time of conveyance to the purchaser is anticipated to exceed the monthly assessment stated in the budget, a statement to such effect shall be included.
(b) A declarant shall promptly amend the disclosure statement to reflect any material change in the information required by this chapter.
(c) The master association, within ten days after a request by a declarant, a holder of declarant rights, or a buyer referred to in section 515B.4-101 (e), or the authorized representative of any of them, shall furnish the information required to be provided by subsection (a)(20). A declarant or other person who provides information pursuant to subsection (a)(20), is not liable to the buyer for any erroneous information if the declarant or other person: (i) is not an affiliate of or related in any way to a person authorized to appoint the master association board pursuant to section 515B.2-121 (c)(3), and (ii) has no actual knowledge that the information is incorrect.
(d) This section applies only to common interest communities created on or after August 1, 2010.
History:
2011 c 116 art 2 s 19 ; 2017 c 87 s 4
515B.4-103 COMMON INTEREST COMMUNITIES SUBJECT TO RIGHTS TO ADD ADDITIONAL REAL ESTATE.
If the declaration provides that a common interest community is subject to any rights to add additional real estate:
(1) the disclosure statement shall include the following notice:
"The following notice is required by Minnesota Statutes. The declarant has reserved in the declaration certain rights to add additional real estate. These rights allow a declarant to add units or common elements to a common interest community, and to make other changes to the community over a specified period of time. These changes may have a substantial effect upon the units or rights of unit owners, by changing relative voting power and share of common expenses, by increasing the number of persons using the common elements, by altering the size and appearance of the common interest community and by making other changes which may affect the value or utility of the units. A purchaser of units in this common interest community should consider the possible effects of the declarant's rights reserved for this project"; and
(2) the disclosure statement shall include, in addition to the information required by section 515B.4-102 , a statement referencing the provisions of the declaration where rights to add additional real estate are reserved.
History:
1993 c 222 art 4 s 3
515B.4-104 TIME SHARES.
If the declaration permits time shares, the disclosure statement shall contain or disclose, in addition to the information required by sections 515B.4-102 and 515B.4-103 :
(1) the unit identifiers of the units in which time shares may be created;
(2) the total number of time shares that may be created;
(3) the minimum duration of any time shares that may be created;
(4) the extent to which the creation of time shares will or may affect the enforceability of the association's lien for assessments provided in section 515B.3-116 ;
(5) a statement as to whether the time share interest is a fixed time period in a designated unit or if either the time period or unit may vary;
(6) copies of all organizational documents, contracts, leases and other documents affecting the time share association or the time shares, or the purchaser's rights therein;
(7) any state or federal ruling or nonaction letter regarding the classification of the time shares as a security or a statement that there is no ruling or nonaction letter;
(8) a statement as to whether the time share is registered with the state under the Subdivided Land Sales Act or with the federal government under the Interstate Land Sales Act and, if the time share is so registered, a copy of the public offering statement or other disclosure document required by those acts; and
(9) if the time share owners are to be permitted or required to become members of or to participate in a program for the exchange of occupancy rights among themselves or with the owners of time shares in other projects or both, a general description of the program.
History:
1993 c 222 art 4 s 4 ; 2010 c 267 art 4 s 3
515B.4-105 COMMON INTEREST COMMUNITY WITH BUILDING ONCE OCCUPIED.
The disclosure statement for a common interest community containing any building that was at any time before the creation of the common interest community wholly or partially occupied, for any purpose, by persons other than purchasers or persons who occupied with the consent of purchasers, shall contain, in addition to the information required by sections 515B.4-102 , 515B.4-103 and 515B.4-104 :
(1) a professional opinion prepared by a registered professional architect or engineer, licensed in this state, describing the current condition of all structural components and mechanical, electrical, and plumbing installations material to the use and enjoyment of the building, to the extent reasonably ascertainable without disturbing the improvements or dismantling the equipment, which will be in place or be operational at the time of conveyance of the first unit to a person other than a declarant. Subject to such reasonable accessibility, the opinion shall include, at a minimum, the following information concerning the following components and installations: (i) the composition and condition of all roofs, (ii) the type of building frame and its condition, (iii) the composition and condition of exterior walls, (iv) whether any building foundation, or any exterior walls or exposed load-bearing components, show significant spalling, buckling, shearing, or other obvious settling, damage, or load distress, (v) the type, composition, and condition of predominant window and door systems, (vi) the condition of any furnaces or boilers, (vii) the stated capacity of common electrical service, (viii) the type and condition of any common elevator system serving any building, and (ix) evidence of water damage within any building and any apparent source of the damage;
(2) a statement of the remaining useful life of each item reported on in paragraph (1) or a statement that no representations are made in that regard as to some or all of the items;
(3) a list of any outstanding notices of uncured violations of building code or other municipal regulations, together with the estimated cost of curing those violations;
(4) the approximate age of each building and the approximate date of any major alterations or additions thereto; and
(5) a statement as to which, if any, of the components or installations reported on in clause (1) has been replaced or will be replaced prior to the recording of the declaration and the approximate date when the replacement occurred or will occur.
History:
1993 c 222 art 4 s 5 ; 2005 c 121 s 36 ; 2010 c 267 art 4 s 4
515B.4-106 PURCHASER'S RIGHT TO CANCEL.
(a) A person required to deliver a disclosure statement pursuant to section 515B.4-101 (b) shall provide at least one of the purchasers of the unit with a copy of the disclosure statement and all amendments thereto before conveyance of the unit. If a purchaser is not given a disclosure statement more than ten days before execution of the purchase agreement, the purchaser may, before conveyance, cancel the purchase agreement within ten days after first receiving the disclosure statement. If a purchaser is given the disclosure statement more than ten days before execution of the purchase agreement, the purchaser may not cancel the purchase agreement pursuant to this section. The ten-day rescission period may be modified or waived, in writing, by agreement of the purchaser of a unit only after the purchaser has received and had an opportunity to review the disclosure statement. The person required to deliver a disclosure statement may not condition the sale of the unit on the purchaser agreeing to modify or waive the purchaser's ten-day right of rescission, may not contractually obligate the purchaser to modify or waive the purchaser's ten-day right of rescission, and may not include a modification or waiver of the ten-day right of rescission in any purchase agreement for the unit. To be effective, a modification or waiver of a purchaser's ten-day right of rescission must be evidenced by an instrument separate from the purchase agreement signed by the purchaser more than three days after the purchaser receives the disclosure statement.
(b) If an amendment to the disclosure statement materially and adversely affects a purchaser, then the purchaser shall have ten days after delivery of the amendment to cancel the purchase agreement in accordance with this section. The ten-day rescission period may be modified or waived, in writing, by agreement of the purchaser of a unit only after the purchaser has received and had an opportunity to review the amendment. To be effective, a modification or waiver of a purchaser's ten-day right of rescission under this section must be evidenced by a written instrument separate from the purchase agreement signed by the purchaser more than three days after the purchaser receives the amendment.
(c) If a purchaser elects to cancel a purchase agreement pursuant to this section, the purchaser may do so by giving the seller or the seller's agent notice thereof pursuant to section 515B.1-115 or, if the seller or seller's agent has provided an electronic address at which the seller or seller's agent agrees to receive electronic communication, as defined in section 317A.011, subdivision 7a , by electronic communication sent to that address. Cancellation is without penalty, and all payments made by the purchaser before cancellation shall be refunded promptly. Notwithstanding anything in this section to the contrary, the purchaser's cancellation rights under this section terminate upon the purchaser's acceptance of a conveyance of the unit.
(d) If a declarant obligated to deliver a disclosure statement fails to deliver to the purchaser a disclosure statement which substantially complies with this chapter, the declarant shall be liable to the purchaser in the amount of $5,000, in addition to any damages or other amounts recoverable under this chapter or otherwise. Any action brought under this subsection shall be commenced within the time period specified in section 515B.4-115 , subsection (a).
History:
1993 c 222 art 4 s 6 ; 1999 c 11 art 2 s 27 ; 2000 c 260 s 78 ; 2004 c 203 art 1 s 7 ; 2005 c 121 s 37 ; 1Sp2005 c 7 s 23 ; 2010 c 267 art 4 s 5 ; 2017 c 38 s 1
515B.4-107 RES
Minn. Stat. § 581.03
581.03 JUDGMENT, TRANSCRIPT.
Judgment shall be entered, under the direction of the court, adjudging the amount due, with costs and disbursements, and the sale of the mortgaged premises, or some part thereof, to satisfy such amount, and directing the sheriff to proceed to sell the same according to the provisions of law relating to the sale of real estate on execution, and to make report to the court. A certified transcript of the judgment shall be delivered to the sheriff, and shall be the sheriff's authority for making the sale.
History:
( 9636 ) RL s 4488 ; 1986 c 444
Minn. Stat. § 582.13
582.13 STATE MAY BE DEFENDANT IN CERTAIN CASES.
In all cases not otherwise provided for, the consent of the state of Minnesota is given to be named a party in any suit which is now pending or which may hereafter be brought in any state court having jurisdiction of the subject matter, to quiet title to or for the foreclosure of a mortgage or other lien upon real estate or personal property, for the purpose of securing an adjudication touching any mortgage, or other lien the state of Minnesota may have or claim on the real estate or personal property involved, or to determine the boundary line between any real property of the state and real property contiguous thereto, provided, that this shall not be deemed to supersede any express provision of law relating to actions to which the state may be made a party, nor to relieve any person from complying with any requirement of such laws.
History:
1943 c 134 s 1 ; 1945 c 2 s 1
Minn. Stat. § 582.32
582.32 VOLUNTARY FORECLOSURE; PROCEDURE.
§
Subdivision 1. Application.
This section applies to mortgages executed on or after August 1, 1993, under which there is a default and the mortgagor and mortgagee enter into an agreement for voluntary foreclosure of the mortgage under this section. This section applies only to mortgages on real estate no part of which is classified as a homestead under section
Minn. Stat. § 58A.02
58A.02 DEFINITIONS.
§
Subdivision 1. Application.
For purposes of this chapter, the definitions in subdivisions 2 to 15 have the meanings given them.
§
Subd. 2. Depository institution.
"Depository institution" has the meaning given in United States Code, title 12, section 1813, and includes a credit union.
§
Subd. 3. Federal banking agencies.
"Federal banking agencies" means the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, the comptroller of the currency, the director of the Office of Thrift Supervision, the National Credit Union Administration, and the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.
§
Subd. 4. Immediate family member.
"Immediate family member" means a spouse, child, sibling, a parent, grandparent, or grandchild. This includes stepparents, stepchildren, stepsiblings, and adoptive relationships.
§
Subd. 5. Individual.
"Individual" means a natural person.
§
Subd. 6. Loan processor or underwriter.
"Loan processor or underwriter" means an individual who performs clerical or support duties as an employee at the direction of and subject to the supervision and instruction of a person licensed or exempt from licensing under chapter 58 . For purposes of this subdivision, the term "clerical or support duties" may include after the receipt of an application:
(1) the receipt, collection, distribution, and analysis of information common for the processing or underwriting of a residential mortgage loan; and
(2) communicating with a consumer to obtain the information necessary for the processing or underwriting of a loan, to the extent that the communication does not include offering or negotiating loan rates or terms, or counseling consumers about residential mortgage loan rates or terms.
§
Subd. 7. Mortgage loan originator.
"Mortgage loan originator":
(1) means an individual who for compensation or gain or in the expectation of compensation or gain:
(i) takes a residential mortgage loan application; or
(ii) offers or negotiates terms of a residential mortgage loan;
(2) does not include an individual engaged solely as a loan processor or underwriter except as otherwise provided in section 58A.03, subdivision 3 ;
(3) does not include a person or entity that only performs real estate brokerage activities and is licensed or registered according to Minnesota law, unless the person or entity is compensated by a lender, a mortgage broker, or other mortgage loan originator or by an agent of the lender, mortgage broker, or other mortgage loan originator;
(4) does not include a person or entity solely involved in extensions of credit relating to timeshare plans, as that term is defined in United States Code, title 11, section 101(53D); and
(5) does not include a person who merely assists, without advising, the consumer in locating or understanding a loan application, and does not do anything that would be considered to be acting as a mortgage loan originator under federal or state laws. This clause is subject to final approval by the United States Department of Housing and Urban Development, and is severable to the extent that the department determines that it is not compliant with federal law.
§
Subd. 8. Nationwide Multistate Licensing System and Registry.
"Nationwide Multistate Licensing System and Registry" means a mortgage licensing system developed and maintained by the Conference of State Bank Supervisors and the American Association of Residential Mortgage Regulators for the licensing and registration of licensed mortgage loan originators.
§
Subd. 9. Nontraditional mortgage product.
"Nontraditional mortgage product" means a mortgage product other than a 30-year fixed rate mortgage loan.
§
Subd. 9a. Offers or negotiates terms of a residential mortgage loan for compensation or gain.
"Offers or negotiates terms of a residential mortgage loan for compensation or gain" means an individual:
(1)(i) presents for acceptance by a borrower or prospective borrower residential mortgage loan terms;
(ii) communicates directly or indirectly with a borrower or prospective borrower for the purpose of reaching an understanding about prospective residential mortgage loan terms; or
(iii) recommends, refers, or steers a borrower to a particular lender or set of residential mortgage loan terms, in accordance with a duty to or incentive from any person other than the borrower or prospective borrower; and
(2) receives or expects to receive payment of money or anything of value in connection with the activities described in clause (1) or as a result of any residential mortgage loan terms entered into as a result of such activities.
This subdivision is subject to final approval by the United States Department of Housing and Urban Development, and is severable to the extent that the department determines that it is not compliant with federal law.
§
Subd. 10. Person.
"Person" means a natural person, corporation, company, limited liability company, partnership, or association.
§
Subd. 11. Real estate brokerage activity.
"Real estate brokerage activity" means an activity that involves offering or providing real estate brokerage services to the public, including:
(1) acting as a real estate agent or real estate broker for a buyer, seller, lessor, or lessee of real property;
(2) bringing together parties interested in the sale, purchase, lease, rental, or exchange of real property;
(3) negotiating, on behalf of a party, a portion of a contract relating to the sale, purchase, lease, rental, or exchange of real property other than in connection with providing financing with respect to the transaction;
(4) engaging in an activity for which a person engaged in the activity is required to be registered or licensed as a real estate agent or real estate broker under any applicable law; and
(5) offering to engage in any activity, or act in any capacity, described in clause (1), (2), (3), or (4).
§
Subd. 12. Registered mortgage loan originator.
"Registered mortgage loan originator" means an individual who:
(1) meets the definition of mortgage loan originator and is an employee of:
(i) a depository institution;
(ii) a subsidiary that is owned and controlled by a depository institution and regulated by a federal banking agency; or
(iii) an institution regulated by the Farm Credit Administration; and
(2) is registered with, and maintains a unique identifier through, the Nationwide Multistate Licensing System and Registry.
§
Subd. 13. Residential mortgage loan.
"Residential mortgage loan" means a loan primarily for personal, family, or household use that is secured by a mortgage, deed of trust, or other equivalent consensual security interest on a dwelling, as defined in United States Code, title 15, section 1602(w), or residential real estate upon which a dwelling is constructed or intended to be constructed.
§
Subd. 14. Residential real estate.
"Residential real estate" means real property located in Minnesota, upon which a dwelling is constructed or is intended to be constructed.
§
Subd. 14a. Takes a residential mortgage loan application.
"Takes a residential mortgage loan application" means the individual receives a residential mortgage loan application for the purpose of deciding, or influencing or soliciting the decision of another, whether to extend an offer of residential mortgage loan terms to a borrower or prospective borrower, or to accept the terms offered by a borrower or prospective borrower in response to a solicitation, whether the application is received directly or indirectly from the borrower or prospective borrower. This subdivision is subject to final approval by the United States Department of Housing and Urban Development, and is severable to the extent that the department determines that it is not compliant with federal law.
§
Subd. 15. Unique identifier.
"Unique identifier" means a number or other identifier assigned by protocols established by the Nationwide Multistate Licensing System and Registry.
History:
2010 c 347 art 4 s 2 ; 2018 c 104 s 3 ; 2020 c 80 art 1 s 11
Minn. Stat. § 58A.03
58A.03 LICENSE AND REGISTRATION REQUIRED.
§
Subdivision 1. Generally.
An individual, unless specifically exempted from this chapter under subdivision 2, shall not engage in the business of a mortgage loan originator with respect to a dwelling located in this state without first obtaining and maintaining a license under this chapter. An individual may not engage in the mortgage loan business unless the individual is employed and supervised by an entity which is either licensed or exempt from licensing under chapter 58. A licensed mortgage loan originator must register with and maintain a valid unique identifier issued by the Nationwide Multistate Licensing System and Registry.
§
Subd. 2. Exemptions.
(a) The following are exempt from this chapter:
(1) a registered mortgage loan originator, when acting for an entity described in section 58A.02, subdivision 12 , clause (1);
(2) an individual who offers or negotiates terms of a residential mortgage loan with or on behalf of an immediate family member of the individual;
(3) an individual who offers or negotiates terms of a residential mortgage loan secured by a dwelling that served as the individual's residence;
(4) a licensed attorney who negotiates the terms of a residential mortgage loan on behalf of a client as an ancillary matter to the attorney's representation of the client, unless the attorney is compensated by a lender, a mortgage broker, or other mortgage loan originator or by any agent of the lender, mortgage broker, or other mortgage loan originator;
(5) an employee of a nonprofit organization exempt from taxation under section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, or a local unit of government, that is not otherwise engaged in the mortgage loan business, engaged in the financing of housing for low- and moderate-income households or housing counseling under programs designed specifically for those purposes, to the extent exempted by the commissioner by rule, advisory ruling, or interpretation, after taking into consideration any law, rule, advisory ruling, or interpretation by the United States Department of Housing and Urban Development;
(6) an employee of a manufactured home dealer, as defined in section
Minn. Stat. § 58A.14
58A.14 .
§
Subd. 20. Broker association data.
Certain reports and recommendations made by a broker association to the commissioner of commerce regarding the financial condition of any eligible surplus lines insurer are classified under section 60A.208, subdivision 7 .
§
Subd. 21. Surplus Lines Association data.
Certain data submitted to the commissioner of commerce by the Surplus Lines Association of Minnesota are classified under section 60A.2085, subdivision 8 .
§
Subd. 22. Resident adjuster license; background check data.
Certain data obtained during background checks of applicants for a resident adjuster license are classified under section 72B.041, subdivision 2 .
§
Subd. 23. Standard valuation law data.
Access to data related to the standard valuation law is governed by section 61A.25, subdivision 13 .
§
Subd. 24. Reinsurer filings.
Data provided pursuant to the certification of a reinsurer is governed by section 60A.0921, subdivision 2 , paragraph (g).
§
Subd. 25. Minnesota premium security plan data.
Access to Minnesota Comprehensive Health Association data related to the Minnesota premium security plan is governed by section 62E.23, subdivision 6 .
§
Subd. 26. Department of Labor and Industry workers' compensation data.
Workers' compensation insurance coverage data reported to or collected by the Department of Labor and Industry is classified and limited under section 176.185, subdivision 11 .
History:
1991 c 106 s 6 ; 1992 c 511 art 7 s 1 ; 1992 c 569 s 4 ; 1993 c 13 art 1 s 12 ; 1993 c 65 s 1 ; 1993 c 177 s 1 ; 1993 c 240 s 1 ; 1993 c 326 art 2 s 1 ; 1993 c 345 art 3 s 18 ; 1993 c 351 s 20 -22; 1994 c 483 s 1 ; 1994 c 589 s 1 ; 1994 c 616 s 1 ; 1994 c 618 art 1 s 17 ; art 2 s 9-64; 1994 c 632 art 2 s 10 ; art 3 s 17; 1994 c 636 art 4 s 4 ; 1995 c 142 s 1 ; 1995 c 155 s 1 ,2; 1995 c 186 s 8 ; 1995 c 212 art 3 s 59 ; 1995 c 229 art 4 s 3 ; 1995 c 234 art 5 s 1 ; 1995 c 259 art 1 s 27 ; art 4 s 4; art 5 s 1-51; 1996 c 305 art 1 s 3 -5; 1996 c 334 s 1 ; 1996 c 408 art 9 s 1 ; 1996 c 415 s 1 ; 1996 c 440 art 1 s 18 ; art 2 s 1-14; 1996 c 471 art 7 s 1 ; 1997 c 7 art 1 s 3 ; 1997 c 22 art 2 s 1 ,8; 1997 c 66 s 79 ; 1997 c 129 art 2 s 15 ; 1997 c 193 s 1 ; 1997 c 199 s 14 ; 1997 c 202 art 2 s 63 ; 1997 c 203 art 6 s 2 ; 1997 c 215 s 1 ; 1997 c 218 s 1 ; 1997 c 239 art 8 s 1 ; 1Sp1997 c 3 s 8 -18; 1998 c 273 s 1 ; 1998 c 361 s 1 ; 1998 c 367 art 11 s 2 ; 1998 c 371 s 6 ,7; 1998 c 373 s 1 ; 1998 c 382 art 2 s 1 ; 1998 c 397 art 11 s 3 ; 1998 c 407 art 2 s 1 ; 1999 c 99 s 23 ; 1999 c 139 art 4 s 2 ; 1999 c 205 art 1 s 70 ; 1999 c 227 s 22 ; 1999 c 245 art 9 s 1 ,2; 2000 c 468 s 16 ; 2001 c 117 art 2 s 1 ; 2003 c 2 art 3 s 5 ; 2011 c 76 art 2 s 11 ,12; 2012 c 187 art 2 s 3 -5; 2012 c 290 s 49 ,50; 2013 c 9 s 1 ; 2013 c 108 art 1 s 67 ; 2013 c 125 art 2 s 4 ; 2014 c 275 art 1 s 3 ; 2014 c 310 s 1 ; 2017 c 40 art 2 s 6 ; 2018 c 125 s 1 ; 2018 c 182 art 3 s 5 ; 2019 c 50 art 1 s 6 ; 2022 c 55 art 1 s 7 ; art 4 s 5
TRANSPORTATION DATA
Minn. Stat. § 599.16
599.16 LAND OFFICE RECEIPTS, EVIDENCE OF TITLE.
The receipt or certificate, signed by the register or receiver of any United States land office, of the entry or purchase of any tract of land, or the location of any tract by a land warrant, shall be prima facie evidence of title to the lands described in such receipt or certificate in the person named therein. Such receipt or certificate may be filed for record with the county recorder of the county where the land is located, with like force and effect as a conveyance of real estate.
History:
( 9889 ) RL s 4732 ; 1976 c 181 s 2
Minn. Stat. § 59A.08
59A.08 PREMIUM FINANCE AGREEMENTS.
§
Subdivision 1. Contents; specific information.
A premium finance agreement shall:
(a) be dated and signed by or on behalf of the insured, and the printed portion thereof shall be in at least eight point type;
(b) contain the name and place of business of the insurance agent or insurance broker negotiating the related insurance contract, the name and residence or the place of business of the insured as specified, the name and place of business of the premium finance company to which installments or other payments are to be made, the name of the insurer issuing the related insurance contract, a description of the insurance contracts including the term and type of policy, the premiums for which are advanced or are to be advanced under the agreement and the amount of the premiums therefor; and
(c) set forth the following items where applicable:
(1) the total amount of the premiums,
(2) the amount of the down payment,
(3) the balance of premiums due, the amount financed (the difference between items (1) and (2)),
(4) the amount of the finance charge,
(5) the amount of the flat service fee,
(6) the total of payments (sum of items (3), (4) and (5)).
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Subd. 2. Contents; sequence or order.
The items set forth in subdivision 1, clause (c) need not be stated in the sequence or order in which they appear and additional items may be included to explain the computations made in determining the amount to be paid by the insured.
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Subd. 3. Other premiums.
Additional or subsequent premiums may be added to an insurance premium finance agreement from time to time, provided that:
(a) The additional or subsequent insurance premium to be added results from additional premiums required under policies presently being financed under the insurance premium finance agreement or from a renewal of a policy or from other policies owned or purchased by the insured.
(b) The insurance premium finance company receives written notice or advice from an insurer authorized to do business in this state or from an insurance agent licensed in this state acknowledging that the premium on an existing financed policy has been increased or that a policy has been renewed or that additional policies have or will be issued to the insured. The notice or advice shall contain the amount of the additional premium, the down payment collected by the insurer or agent, if any, and the amount of premium to be added to the insurance premium finance agreement.
(c) If the additional premiums to be added to the insurance premium finance agreement result from additional premiums required on policies presently financed under the agreement or from a renewal of a policy or from other policies owned or purchased by the insured, a written notice must be mailed, faxed, or delivered to the insured outlining any changes to the information required by subdivision 1 along with a conspicuous statement to the insured that the insured may tender the premiums in full or affirm the proposed changes by tendering either an additional down payment or tendering the proposed revised installment amount, or disaffirm the financing of the additional premium by continuing the original payment amount as agreed to in the initial agreement.
If the proposed revisions in paragraph (c) are affirmed by the insured, the finance company may make an additional finance charge according to section
Minn. Stat. § 5B.02
5B.02 , paragraph (g), may direct the court to use the address designated by the secretary of state as the address of the program participant. Section 5B.03, subdivision 1 , clause (3), applies to service of any notice, order, or other document required to be served under this section. The protections, limitations, and requirements in chapter 5B apply to any information regarding a custodian who is a program participant.
(b) Failure to serve a custodian with a petition, order for protection, dismissal, or any other order must not prevent any order from taking effect or otherwise invalidate any order issued pursuant to this section. In the event that service of a notice of a hearing is not completed on any custodian at least 24 hours prior to the time set for the hearing, the court may set a new hearing date no more than five days later.
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Subd. 12. Real estate.
Nothing in this section shall affect the title to real estate.
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Subd. 13. Copy to law enforcement agency.
(a) An order for protection and any continuance of an order for protection granted pursuant to this section shall be forwarded by the court administrator within 24 hours to the local law enforcement agency with jurisdiction over the residence of the applicant.
Each appropriate law enforcement agency shall make available to other law enforcement officers through a system for verification, information as to the existence and status of any order for protection issued pursuant to this section.
(b) If the applicant notifies the court administrator of a change in the applicant's residence so that a different local law enforcement agency has jurisdiction over the residence, the order for protection and any continuance of an order for protection must be forwarded by the court administrator to the new law enforcement agency within 24 hours of the notice. If the applicant notifies the new law enforcement agency that an order for protection has been issued under this section and the applicant has established a new residence within that agency's jurisdiction, within 24 hours the local law enforcement agency shall request a copy of the order for protection from the court administrator in the county that issued the order.
(c) When an order for protection is granted, the applicant for an order for protection must be told by the court that:
(1) notification of a change in residence should be given immediately to the court administrator and to the local law enforcement agency having jurisdiction over the new residence of the applicant;
(2) the reason for notification of a change in residence is to forward an order for protection to the proper law enforcement agency; and
(3) the order for protection must be forwarded to the law enforcement agency having jurisdiction over the new residence within 24 hours of notification of a change in residence, whether notification is given to the court administrator or to the local law enforcement agency having jurisdiction over the applicant's new residence.
An order for protection is enforceable even if the applicant does not notify the court administrator or the appropriate law enforcement agency of a change in residence.
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Subd. 14. Violation of an order for protection.
(a) A person who violates an order for protection issued by a judge or referee is subject to the penalties provided in paragraphs (b) to (d).
(b) Except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (c) and (d), whenever an order for protection is granted by a judge or referee or pursuant to a similar law of another state, the United States, the District of Columbia, tribal lands, United States territories, Canada, or a Canadian province, and the respondent or person to be restrained knows of the existence of the order, violation of the order for protection is a misdemeanor. Upon a misdemeanor conviction under this paragraph, the defendant must be sentenced to a minimum of three days imprisonment and must be ordered to participate in counseling or other appropriate programs selected by the court. If the court stays imposition or execution of the jail sentence and the defendant refuses or fails to comply with the court's treatment order, the court must impose and execute the stayed jail sentence. A violation of an order for protection shall also constitute contempt of court and be subject to the penalties provided in chapter 588.
(c) A person is guilty of a gross misdemeanor who violates this subdivision within ten years of a previous qualified domestic violence-related offense conviction or adjudication of delinquency. Upon a gross misdemeanor conviction under this paragraph, the defendant must be sentenced to a minimum of ten days imprisonment and must be ordered to participate in counseling or other appropriate programs selected by the court. Notwithstanding section 609.135, the court must impose and execute the minimum sentence provided in this paragraph for gross misdemeanor convictions.
(d) A person is guilty of a felony and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than five years or to payment of a fine of not more than $10,000, or both, if the person violates this subdivision:
(1) within ten years of the first of two or more previous qualified domestic violence-related offense convictions or adjudications of delinquency; or
(2) while possessing a dangerous weapon, as defined in section 609.02, subdivision 6.
Upon a felony conviction under this paragraph in which the court stays imposition or execution of sentence, the court shall impose at least a 30-day period of incarceration as a condition of probation. The court also shall order that the defendant participate in counseling or other appropriate programs selected by the court. Notwithstanding section 609.135, the court must impose and execute the minimum sentence provided in this paragraph for felony convictions.
(e) A peace officer shall arrest without a warrant and take into custody a person whom the peace officer has probable cause to believe has violated an order granted pursuant to this section or a similar law of another state, the United States, the District of Columbia, tribal lands, United States territories, Canada, or a Canadian province restraining the person or excluding the person from the residence or the petitioner's place of employment, even if the violation of the order did not take place in the presence of the peace officer, if the existence of the order can be verified by the officer. The probable cause required under this paragraph includes probable cause that the person knows of the existence of the order. If the order has not been served, the officer shall immediately serve the order whenever reasonably safe and possible to do so. An order for purposes of this subdivision, includes the short-form order described in subdivision 8a. When the order is first served upon the person at a location at which, under the terms of the order, the person's presence constitutes a violation, the person shall not be arrested for violation of the order without first being given a reasonable opportunity to leave the location in the presence of the peace officer. A person arrested under this paragraph shall be held in custody for at least 36 hours, excluding the day of arrest, Sundays, and holidays, unless the person is released earlier by a judge or judicial officer. A peace officer acting in good faith and exercising due care in making an arrest pursuant to this paragraph is immune from civil liability that might result from the officer's actions.
(f) If the court finds that the respondent has violated an order for protection and that there is reason to believe that the respondent will commit a further violation of the provisions of the order restraining the respondent from committing acts of domestic abuse or excluding the respondent from the petitioner's residence, the court may require the respondent to acknowledge an obligation to comply with the order on the record. The court may require a bond sufficient to deter the respondent from committing further violations of the order for protection, considering the financial resources of the respondent, and not to exceed $10,000. If the respondent refuses to comply with an order to acknowledge the obligation or post a bond under this paragraph, the court shall commit the respondent to the county jail during the term of the order for protection or until the respondent complies with the order under this paragraph. The warrant must state the cause of commitment, with the sum and time for which any bond is required. If an order is issued under this paragraph, the court may order the costs of the contempt action, or any part of them, to be paid by the respondent. An order under this paragraph is appealable.
(g) Upon the filing of an affidavit by the petitioner, any peace officer, or an interested party designated by the court, alleging that the respondent has violated any order for protection granted pursuant to this section or a similar law of another state, the United States, the District of Columbia, tribal lands, United States territories, Canada, or a Canadian province, the court may issue an order to the respondent, requiring the respondent to appear and show cause within 14 days why the respondent should not be found in contempt of court and punished therefor. The hearing may be held by the court in any county in which the petitioner or respondent temporarily or permanently resides at the time of the alleged violation, or in the county in which the alleged violation occurred, if the petitioner and respondent do not reside in this state. The court also shall refer the violation of the order for protection to the appropriate prosecuting authority for possible prosecution under paragraph (b), (c), or (d).
(h) If it is alleged that the respondent has violated an order for protection issued under subdivision 6 or a similar law of another state, the United States, the District of Columbia, tribal lands, United States territories, Canada, or a Canadian province, and the court finds that the order has expired between the time of the alleged violation and the court's hearing on the violation, the court may grant a new order for protection under subdivision 6 based solely on the respondent's alleged violation of the prior order, to be effective until the hearing on the alleged violation of the prior order. If the court finds that the respondent has violated the prior order, the relief granted in the new order for protection shall be extended for a fixed period, not to exceed one year, except when the court determines a longer fixed period is appropriate.
(i) The admittance into petitioner's dwelling of an abusing party excluded from the dwelling under an order for protection is not a violation by the petitioner of the order for protection.
A peace officer is not liable under section 609.43, clause (1), for a failure to perform a duty required by paragraph (e).
(j) When a person is convicted under paragraph (b) or (c) of violating an order for protection and the court determines that the person used a firearm in any way during commission of the violation, the court may order that the person is prohibited from possessing any type of firearm for any period longer than three years or for the remainder of the person's life. A person who violates this paragraph is guilty of a gross misdemeanor. At the time of the conviction, the court shall inform the defendant whether and for how long the defendant is prohibited from possessing a firearm and that it is a gross misdemeanor to violate this paragraph. The failure of the court to provide this information to a defendant does not affect the applicability of the firearm possession prohibition or the gross misdemeanor penalty to that defendant.
(k) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (j), when a person is convicted under paragraph (b) or (c) of violating an order for protection, the court shall inform the defendant that the defendant is prohibited from possessing a pistol for three years from the date of conviction and that it is a gross misdemeanor offense to violate this prohibition. The failure of the court to provide this information to a defendant does not affect the applicability of the pistol possession prohibition or the gross misdemeanor penalty to that defendant.
(l) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (j), a person is not entitled to possess a pistol if the person has been convicted under paragraph (b) or (c) after August 1, 1996, of violating an order for protection, unless three years have elapsed from the date of conviction and, during that time, the person has not been convicted of any other violation of this section. Property rights may not be abated but access may be restricted by the courts. A person who possesses a pistol in violation of this paragraph is guilty of a gross misdemeanor.
(m) If the court determines that a person convicted under paragraph (b) or (c) of violating an order for protection owns or possesses a firearm and used it in any way during the commission of the violation, it shall order that the firearm be summarily forfeited under section 609.5316, subdivision 3.
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Subd. 14a. Venue.
A person may be prosecuted under subdivision 14 at the place where any call is made or received or, in the case of wireless or electronic communication or any communication made through any available technologies, where the actor or victim resides, or in the jurisdiction of the victim's designated address if the victim participates in the address confidentiality program established under chapter 5B.
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Subd. 15. Admissibility of testimony in criminal proceeding.
Any testimony offered by a respondent in a hearing pursuant to this section is inadmissible in a criminal proceeding.
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Subd. 16. Other remedies available.
Any proceeding under this section shall be in addition to other civil or criminal remedies.
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Subd. 17. Effect on custody proceedings.
In a subsequent custody proceeding the court must consider a finding in a proceeding under this chapter or under a similar law of another state that domestic abuse has occurred between the parties.
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Subd. 18. Notices.
(a) Each order for protection granted under this chapter must contain a conspicuous notice to the respondent or person to be restrained that:
(1) violation of an order for protection is either (i) a misdemeanor punishable by imprisonment for up to 90 days or a fine of up to $1,000, or both, (ii) a gross misdemeanor punishable by imprisonment of up to 364 days or a fine of up to $3,000, or both, or (iii) a felony punishable by imprisonment of up to five years or a fine of up to $10,000, or both;
(2) the respondent is forbidden to enter or stay at the petitioner's residence, even if invited to do so by the petitioner or any other person; in no event is the order for protection voided;
(3) a peace officer must arrest without warrant and take into custody a person whom the peace officer has probable cause to believe has violated an order for protection restraining the person or excluding the person from a residence; and
(4) pursuant to the Violence Against Women Act of 1994, United States Code, title 18, section 2265, the order is enforceable in all 50 states, the District of Columbia, tribal lands, and United States territories, that violation of the order may also subject the respondent to federal charges and punishment under United States Code, title 18, sections 2261 and 2262, and that if a final order is entered against the respondent after the hearing, the respondent may be prohibited from possessing, transporting, or accepting a firearm under the 1994 amendment to the Gun Control Act, United States Code, title 18, section 922(g)(8).
(b) If the court grants relief under subdivision 6a, paragraph (c), the order for protection must also contain a conspicuous notice to the respondent or person to be restrained that the respondent must wait five years to seek a modification of the order.
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Subd. 19. Recording required.
Proceedings under this section must be recorded.
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Subd. 19a. Entry and enforcement of foreign protective orders.
(a) As used in this subdivision, "foreign protective order" means an order for protection entered by a court of another state; an order by an Indian tribe or United States territory that would be a protective order entered under this chapter; a Canadian order for protection as defined in section
Minn. Stat. § 600.10
600.10 AFFIDAVIT OF PUBLICATION.
When notice of any application to a court or judicial officer is required by law to be published in a newspaper, an affidavit by the printer of such newspaper, or the printer's lead supervisor or clerk, annexed to a printed copy of such notice taken from the newspaper in which it was published, specifying the times when, and the newspaper in which, such notice was published, may be filed with the proper officer of the court, or with the judicial officer before whom such proceeding is pending, at any time within six months after the last day of the publication of such notice, unless sooner specially required. A like affidavit of such printer, lead supervisor, or clerk may within the same time be filed for record with the county recorder of the county where any real estate affected by such notice is situated.
History:
( 9859 ) RL s 4705 ; 1976 c 181 s 2 ; 1986 c 444
Minn. Stat. § 600.11
600.11 PRINTER'S AFFIDAVIT.
The original affidavit of the printer of any newspaper, or of the printer's lead supervisor or court administrator, of the publication of any summons, notice, order, resolution, or other advertisement which by law is required or authorized to be published in such newspaper, and copies of the same, or of the record thereof, certified by the officer in whose custody the same may be, shall be prima facie evidence of such publication and of the facts stated therein. If any such publication relates to the sale of real estate, such affidavit may be filed for record with the county recorder of the county in which the real estate lies.
History:
( 9860 ) RL s 4706 ; 1976 c 181 s 2 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1Sp1986 c 3 art 1 s 82
Minn. Stat. § 600.12
600.12 AFFIDAVIT OF OFFICER OF HISTORICAL SOCIETY AS TO PUBLICATION.
When a legal notice appears in any newspaper, purporting to have been published in this state prior to 1900 and filed with the state historical society, the affidavit of any officer of such society, setting forth a copy of such notice, and stating that it is a true copy of the same as contained in such newspaper, and naming the place where it purports to have been published and the dates of the different issues thereof so on file containing such notice, may be recorded in the office of the county recorder of any county in which there is real estate which may be affected by such notice; and such affidavit or record shall be prima facie evidence that the newspaper containing the notice was regularly published at the time and place so stated.
History:
( 9861 ) RL s 4707 ; 1909 c 19 s 1 ; 1976 c 181 s 2
Minn. Stat. § 600.13
600.13 ORIGINAL RECORDS; PROBATE COURT DECREES; CERTIFIED COPIES.
The original record made by any public officer in the performance of official duty shall be prima facie evidence of the facts required or permitted by law to be recorded by the officer. A copy of such record, or of any document which is made evidence by law and is preserved in the office or place where the same was required or is permitted to be filed or kept, or a copy of any authorized record of such document so preserved, when certified by the person entitled to the official custody thereof to have been compared by that person with the original and to be a correct transcript therefrom, shall be received in evidence in all cases, with the same force and effect given to such original document or record; but if such officer have, by law, an official seal, the certificate shall be authenticated thereby. No part of this section relating to the form of certification shall apply to documents or records kept in the departments or offices of the United States government.
In all cases where a decree of a court exercising probate jurisdiction, assigning or distributing property of a decedent, embraces real estate or other property situated in more than one county, the court exercising probate jurisdiction shall furnish, upon request therefor, certified copies of parts of such decrees, excluding from such certified copy all descriptions of real or other property included in such decree excepting description of such real estate and other property as appears from the face of the decree to be situated in any one or more counties designated by the applicant for such certified copy. The court shall indicate the omission hereby permitted, in the certified copy, by the words "and other property situated in .................... county, or counties, Minnesota" inserted in the certified copy at the points where the omissions occur. Such certified copy shall be entitled to record in the office of the county recorder and in the office of the registrar of titles of the county, or counties, in which the real estate or other property in the certified copy described, or any part thereof, is situated. Such certified copy, or a copy of any authorized record of such certified copy, certified by the person entitled to the official custody thereof to have been compared by that person with the original or the record thereof and to be a correct transcription therefrom, shall be received in evidence in all cases with the same force and effect given to such original decree relative to the matter in the certified copy or the record thereof contained. If such officer have by law an official seal, the certificate shall be authenticated thereby.
This section shall not be construed to require the affixing of the seal of the court to any certified copy of a rule or order made by such court, or to any paper filed therein, when such copy is used in the same court or before any officer thereof.
In all cases where the affixing of a seal of the court is required, the court seal may be affixed electronically as provided in sections
Minn. Stat. § 60A.09
60A.09 , premium bills and notes receivable, federal income taxes recoverable, and equities and deposits in pools and associations;
(q) "qualified net earnings" means that the net earnings of the issuer after elimination of extraordinary nonrecurring items of income and expense and before income taxes and fixed charges over the five immediately preceding completed fiscal years, or its period of existence if less than five years, has averaged not less than 1-1/4 times its average annual fixed charges applicable to the period;
(r) "replicated investment position" means the statement value of the position reported under the heading "Replicated (Synthetic) Asset" on Schedule DB, Part F, of the annual statement of the insurer, or any successor provision;
(s) "replication transaction" means a derivative transaction that is intended to replicate the performance of one or more assets that an insurer is authorized to acquire under this section. A derivative transaction that either is authorized by subdivision 18, clause (5), or by subdivision 24, or is entered into as a hedging transaction shall not be considered a replication transaction;
(t) "required liabilities" means the sum of (1) total liabilities as required to be reported in the company's most recent annual report to the commissioner of commerce of this state, (2) for companies operating under the stock plan, the minimum paid-up capital and surplus required to be maintained pursuant to section 60A.07, subdivision 5a , (3) for companies operating under the mutual or reciprocal plan, the minimum amount of surplus required to be maintained pursuant to section 60A.07, subdivision 5b , and (4) the amount, if any, by which the company's loss and loss adjustment expense reserves exceed 350 percent of its surplus as it pertains to policyholders as of the same date. The commissioner may waive the requirement in clause (4) unless the company's written premiums exceed 300 percent of its surplus as it pertains to policyholders as of the same date. In addition to the required amounts pursuant to clauses (1) to (4), the commissioner may require that the amount of any apparent reserve deficiency that may be revealed by one-to-five-year loss and loss adjustment expense development analysis for the five years reported in the company's most recent annual statement to the commissioner be added to required liabilities;
(u) "revenue obligations" means obligations for the payment of money by a governmental issuer where the obligations are payable from revenues, earnings, or special assessments on properties benefited by local improvements of the issuer which are specifically pledged therefor;
(v) "security" has the meaning given in section 5 of the Security Act of 1933 and specifically includes, but is not limited to, stocks, stock equivalents, warrants, rights, options, obligations, American Depository Receipts (ADRs), repurchase agreements, and reverse repurchase agreements; and
(w) "unrestricted surplus" means the amount by which qualified assets exceed 110 percent of required liabilities.
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Subd. 11. Investments in name of company or nominee and prohibitions.
A company's investments shall be held in its own name or the name of its nominee, except that:
(a) Investments may be held in the name of a clearing corporation or of a custodian bank or in the name of the nominee of either on the following conditions:
(1) the clearing corporation, custodian bank, or nominee must be legally authorized to hold the particular investment for the account of others;
(2) where the investment is evidenced by a certificate and held in the name of a custodian bank or the nominee by a custodian bank, a written agreement shall provide that certificates so deposited shall at all times be kept separate and apart from other deposits with the depository, so that at all times they may be identified as belonging solely to the company making the deposit;
(3) where a clearing corporation is to act as depository, the investment may be merged or held in bulk in the clearing corporation's or its nominee name with other investments deposited with the clearing corporation by any other person, if a written agreement provides that adequate evidence of the deposit is to be obtained and retained by the company or a custodian bank; and
(4) the company shall monitor current publicly available financial information and other pertinent data with respect to the custodian banks.
(b) A company may loan securities held by it under this chapter to a broker-dealer registered under the Securities and Exchange Act of 1934 or a member bank. The loan must be evidenced by a written agreement which provides:
(1) that the loan will be fully collateralized by cash or obligations issued or guaranteed by the United States or an agency or an instrumentality thereof, and that the collateral will be adjusted each business day during the term of the loan to maintain the required collateralization in the event of market value changes in the loaned securities or collateral;
(2) that the loan may be terminated by the company at any time, and that the borrower will return the loaned securities or their equivalent within five business days after termination;
(3) that the company has the right to retain the collateral or use the collateral to purchase investments equivalent to the loaned securities if the borrower defaults under the terms of the agreement and that the borrower remains liable for any losses and expenses incurred by the company due to default that are not covered by the collateral.
(c) A company may participate through a member bank in the Federal Reserve book-entry system, and the records of the member bank shall at all times show that the investments are held for the company or for specific accounts of the company.
(d) An investment may consist of an individual interest in a pool of obligations or a fractional interest in a single obligation if the certificate of participation or interest or the confirmation of participation or interest in the investment shall be issued in the name of the company or the name of the custodian bank or the nominee of either and if the certificate or confirmation must, if held by a custodian bank, be kept separate and apart from the investments of others so that at all times the participation may be identified as belonging solely to the company making the investment.
(e) Except as provided in paragraph (c), where an investment is not evidenced by a certificate, adequate evidence of the company's investment shall be obtained from the issuer or its transfer or recording agent and retained by the company, a custodian bank, or clearing corporation. Transfers of ownership of investments held as described in paragraphs (a), clause (3), (c) and (d) may be evidenced by bookkeeping entry on the books of the issuer of the investment or its transfer or recording agent or the clearing corporation without physical delivery of certificates, if any, evidencing the company's investment.
(f) A letter of credit may be accepted as a guaranty of other investments, as collateral to secure loans, or in lieu of cash to secure loans of securities, if it is issued by a member bank or any of the 100 largest banks in the world ranked by deposits in dollars or converted into dollar equivalents, as compiled annually by the American Bankers Association or listed in the annual publication of Moody's Bank & Finance Manual and meets the following requirements:
(1) has a long-term deposit rating or a long-term debt rating of at least Aa2 as found in the current monthly publication of Moody's Credit Opinions or its equivalent; and
(2) qualifies under the guidelines of the National Association of Insurance Commissioners as a clean, irrevocable letter of credit containing an evergreen clause or having a maturity date subsequent to the maturity date of the underlying investment or loan. The company shall monitor current publicly available financial information and other pertinent data with respect to the banks issuing the letters of credit.
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Subd. 11a. Additional limitations.
Under the standards and procedures in sections
Minn. Stat. § 60A.10
60A.10 DEPOSITS FOR PROTECTION OF POLICYHOLDERS.
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Subdivision 1. Domestic companies.
(1) Deposit as security for all policyholders required. No company in this state, other than farmers' mutual, or real estate title insurers, shall do business in this state unless it has on deposit with the commissioner, for the protection of both its resident and nonresident policyholders, securities to an amount, the actual market value of which, exclusive of interest, shall never be less than $500,000 or one-half the applicable financial requirement set forth in sections
Minn. Stat. § 60A.11
60A.11 for a casualty insurance company, provided that investment in real estate of or indebtedness from a member company or affiliates is prohibited. In addition, investment in the following is allowed:
(1) savings accounts or certificates of deposit in a duly chartered commercial bank located within the state of Minnesota and insured through the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation;
(2) share accounts or savings certificates in a duly chartered savings association or savings bank located within the state of Minnesota and insured through the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation;
(3) direct obligations of the United States Treasury, such as notes, bonds, or bills;
(4) a bond or security issued by the state of Minnesota and backed by the full faith and credit of the state;
(5) a credit union where the employees of the self-insurer are members if the credit union is located in Minnesota and insured through the National Credit Union Administration; or
(6) real estate, common stock, preferred stock, or corporate bonds listed on the New York, American Stock Exchange or NASDAQ Stock Market, so long as these investments are not issued by any member company or affiliate and the total in all other allowable categories make up at least 75 percent of the total required in the common claims fund.
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Subd. 8. Administration.
(a) The commercial self-insurance group shall be required to secure administrative services through a service company which maintains an office in the state of Minnesota. Services provided by the service company or its subcontractor should at a minimum include claim handling, safety and loss control, and submission of all required regulatory reports.
(b) The service company must demonstrate it has the capability to provide, through its employees or by contract, services which are necessary to administer the self-insurance group and it must employ or have under contract a claims adjuster with at least three years of Minnesota specific workers' compensation claim handling experience.
(c) The service company retained by a commercial self-insurance group to administer workers' compensation claims shall estimate the total accrued liability of the group for the payment of compensation for the commercial self-insurance group's annual report to the commissioner and shall make the estimate both in good faith and with the exercise of a reasonable degree of care.
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Subd. 9. Marketing and communications.
A commercial self-insurance group's applications, coverage documents, quotations, and all marketing materials must prominently display information indicating that the commercial self-insurance group is a self-insured program, that members are jointly and severally liable for the obligations of the commercial self-insurance group, and that members will be assessed on an individual and proportionate basis for any deficits created by the commercial self-insurance group.
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Subd. 10. Reinsurance.
(a) A commercial self-insurance group shall be required to purchase specific excess coverage with the Workers' Compensation Reinsurance Association at the lower retention level for its first three years of operation. After that time it may select the higher or super retention level with prior notice given to and approval of the commissioner.
(b) The commissioner may require a commercial self-insurance group to purchase aggregate excess coverage. Any reinsurance or excess coverage purchased other than that of the Workers' Compensation Reinsurance Association must be secured with an insurance company or reinsurer licensed to underwrite such coverage in Minnesota and maintains at least an "A" rating with the A.M. Best rating organization.
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Subd. 11. Disbursement of fund surplus.
(a) Except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (b) and (c), 100 percent of any surplus money for a fund year in excess of 125 percent of the amount necessary to fulfill all obligations under the Workers' Compensation Act, chapter 176, for that fund year may be declared refundable to eligible members at any time.
(b) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (c), for groups that have been in existence for five years or more, 100 percent of any surplus money for a fund year in excess of 110 percent of the amount necessary to fulfill all obligations under the Workers' Compensation Act, chapter 176, for that fund year may be declared refundable to eligible members at any time.
(c) Excess surplus distributions under paragraphs (a) and (b) may not be greater than the combined surplus of the group at the time of the distribution.
(d) When all the claims of any one fund year have been fully paid, as certified by an actuary, all surplus money from that fund year may be declared refundable.
(e) The commercial self-insurance group shall give ten days' prior notice to the commissioner of any refund. The notice must be accompanied by a statement from the commercial self-insurer group's certified public accountant certifying that the proposed refund is in compliance with this subdivision.
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Subd. 12. Satisfaction of fund deficit.
In the event of a deficit in any fund year, such deficit shall be paid up immediately, either from surplus from a fund year other than the current fund year, or by assessment of the membership. The commissioner shall be notified within ten days of any transfer of surplus funds. The commissioner, upon finding that a deficit in a fund year has not been satisfied by a transfer of surplus from another fund year, shall order an assessment to be levied on a proportionate basis against the members of the commercial self-insurance group during that fund year sufficient to make up any deficit.
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Subd. 13. Common claims fund; five-year exception.
For commercial group self-insurers who have been in existence for five years or more, a level of funding in the common claims fund must be maintained at not less than the greater of either:
(1) one year's claim losses paid in the most recent year; or
(2) one-third of the security deposit posted with the Department of Commerce according to section 79A.24, subdivision 2 .
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Subd. 14. All states coverage.
Policies issued by commercial self-insurance groups pursuant to this chapter may also provide workers' compensation coverage required under the laws of states other than Minnesota, commonly known as "all states coverage." The coverage must be provided to members of the group which are temporarily performing work in another state.
History:
1995 c 231 art 2 s 31 ; 1998 c 339 s 3 ,4; 1999 c 168 s 3 ; 2000 c 483 s 30 -32; 2005 c 132 s 34 ,35; 2008 c 344 s 50 ,51; 7Sp2020 c 1 art 2 s 4
Minn. Stat. § 60A.122
60A.122 REQUIRED WRITTEN PROCEDURES FOR VALUATIONS.
An insurer shall establish written procedures, approved by the company's board of directors, for the valuation of commercial mortgage loans and real estate owned. The procedures must be made available to the commissioner upon request. The commissioner shall review the insurer's compliance with the procedures in any examination of the insurer under section
Minn. Stat. § 60A.125
60A.125 APPRAISAL BY INDEPENDENT APPRAISER.
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Subdivision 1. Mortgage loans in the process of foreclosure.
An insurer may rely upon an appraisal by an independent appraiser to determine the carrying value of mortgage loans in the process of foreclosure only if the date of the appraisal is within six months of the date the foreclosure procedure is begun. If no appraisal exists, the insurer shall acquire an appraisal within six months after the foreclosure proceeding has begun.
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Subd. 2. Real estate owned.
An insurer may rely upon an appraisal by an independent appraiser to determine the carrying value of real estate owned only if the date of the appraisal is within six months of the date when title to the property was acquired. If no appraisal exists, the insurer shall acquire an appraisal within six months after title to the property is acquired.
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Subd. 3.
[Repealed, 2000 c 350 s 16 ]
History:
1991 c 325 art 19 s 5
Minn. Stat. § 60A.1755
60A.1755 AGENT ERRORS AND OMISSIONS INSURANCE; CHOICE OF SOURCE.
An insurance company shall not require an insurance agent to maintain insurance coverage for the agent's errors and omissions from a specific insurance company. This section does not apply if the insurance producer is a captive producer or employee of the insurance company imposing the requirement, or if that insurance company or affiliated broker-dealer pays for or contributes to the premiums for the errors and omissions coverage. For purposes of this section, "captive producer" means a producer that writes 80 percent or more of the producer's gross annual insurance business for that insurance company or any or all of its subsidiaries. Nothing in this section shall prohibit an insurance company from requiring an insurance producer to maintain errors and omissions coverage or requiring that errors and omissions coverage meet certain criteria.
History:
2009 c 178 art 1 s 6
Minn. Stat. § 60A.198
60A.198 TRANSACTION OF NONADMITTED INSURANCE.
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Subdivision 1. License required.
A person, as defined in section 60A.02, subdivision 7 , shall not act in any other manner as an agent or broker in the transaction of nonadmitted insurance unless licensed under sections
Minn. Stat. § 60A.199
60A.199 EXAMINATIONS.
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Subdivision 1. Examination of books and records.
If the commissioner considers it necessary, the commissioner may examine the books and records of a surplus lines broker to determine whether the broker is conducting business in accordance with sections
Minn. Stat. § 60A.202
60A.202 EVIDENCE OF PLACEMENT OF INSURANCE BY BROKER.
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Subdivision 1. Restriction.
Only a surplus lines broker shall issue evidence of placement of insurance with a nonadmitted insurer.
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Subd. 2. Written communication of coverage to be delivered.
A broker shall, within seven working days after the date on which the risk was bound or the insured or applicant was advised that coverage has been or will be obtained, deliver to the insured or the insured's representative a policy, a written binder, a certificate or other written evidence of insurance placed with a nonadmitted insurer.
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Subd. 3. Contents of written communication.
The written communication showing that insurance has been obtained shall identify all known nonadmitted insurers directly assuming any risk of loss. If there is more than one nonadmitted insurer, any document issued or certified by the broker pursuant to subdivision 2 shall specify, to the extent known by the broker, whether the obligation is joint or several, and if the obligation is several, the proportion of the obligation assumed by each insurer.
History:
1981 c 221 s 7 ; 2011 c 108 s 15
Minn. Stat. § 60A.204
60A.204 FEES AND COMMISSIONS.
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Subdivision 1.
[Repealed by amendment, 2010 c 384 s 6]
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Subd. 2. Regulation of fees and commissions.
A surplus lines broker may charge a fee and commission, in addition to the premium, that is not excessive or discriminatory. The broker shall maintain complete documentation of all fees and commissions charged.
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Subd. 3.
[Repealed by amendment, 2010 c 384 s 6]
History:
1981 c 221 s 9 ; 2010 c 384 s 6 ; 2011 c 108 s 17
Minn. Stat. § 60A.205
60A.205 COMPENSATION.
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Subdivision 1. Authorization.
A surplus lines broker may be compensated by an eligible surplus lines insurer and the broker may compensate a licensed agent in this state for obtaining nonadmitted insurance business. A licensed agent authorized by the broker may collect a premium on behalf of the broker, and as between the insured and the broker, the broker shall be considered to have received the premium if the premium payment has been made to the agent.
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Subd. 2. Consequences of receipt.
If an eligible surplus lines insurer has assumed a risk, and if the premium for that risk has been received by the broker who placed the insurance, then as between the insurer and the insured, the insurer shall be considered to have received the premium due to it for the coverage and shall be liable to the insured for any loss covered by the insurance and for the unearned premium upon cancellation of the insurance, regardless of whether the broker is indebted to the insurer.
History:
1981 c 221 s 10 ; 2009 c 178 art 1 s 10 ; 2011 c 108 s 18 ,19
Minn. Stat. § 60A.208
60A.208 does not apply to the association created pursuant to the provisions of this section. The association shall perform its functions under the plan of operation established under subdivision 3 and must exercise its powers through a board of directors established under subdivision 2 as set forth in the plan of operation. The association shall be authorized and have the duty to:
(1) receive, record, and stamp all nonadmitted insurance documents that surplus lines brokers are required to file with the association;
(2) prepare and deliver monthly to the commissioners of revenue and commerce a report regarding surplus lines business. The report must include a list of all the business procured during the preceding month, in the form the commissioners prescribe;
(3) educate its members regarding the surplus lines law of this state including insurance tax responsibilities and the rules and regulations of the commissioners of revenue and commerce relative to nonadmitted insurance;
(4) communicate with organizations of agents, brokers, and admitted insurers with respect to the proper use of the surplus lines market;
(5) employ and retain persons necessary to carry out the duties of the association;
(6) borrow money necessary to effect the purposes of the association and grant a security interest or mortgage in its assets, including the stamping fees charged pursuant to subdivision 7 in order to secure the repayment of any such borrowed money;
(7) enter contracts necessary to effect the purposes of the association;
(8) provide other services to its members that are incidental or related to the purposes of the association;
(9) form and organize itself as a nonprofit corporation under chapter 317A, with the powers set forth in section
Minn. Stat. § 60A.2085
60A.2085 SURPLUS LINES ASSOCIATION OF MINNESOTA.
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Subdivision 1. Association created; duties.
There is hereby created a nonprofit association to be known as the Surplus Lines Association of Minnesota. The association is not a state agency for purposes of chapter 16A, 16B, 16C, or 43A. All surplus lines brokers are members of this association. Section
Minn. Stat. § 60A.2086
60A.2086 LICENSEE'S DUTY TO SUBMIT DOCUMENTS; PENALTY.
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Subdivision 1. Submission of documents to Surplus Lines Association of Minnesota; certification.
(a) A surplus lines broker shall submit every insurance policy or contract issued under the broker's license to the Surplus Lines Association of Minnesota for recording and stamping. The submission and stamping must be effected through electronic means. The submission must include:
(1) the name of the insured;
(2) a description and location of the insured property or risk;
(3) the amount insured;
(4) the gross premiums charged or returned;
(5) the name of the nonadmitted insurer from whom coverage has been procured;
(6) the kind or kinds of insurance procured; and
(7) the amount of premium subject to tax.
(b) The submission of insurance policies or contracts to the Surplus Lines Association of Minnesota constitutes a certification by the surplus lines broker, or by the insurance producer who presented the risk to the surplus lines broker for placement as a surplus lines risk, that the insurance policies or contracts were procured in accordance with sections
Minn. Stat. § 60A.71
60A.71 LICENSURE.
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Subdivision 1. Reinsurance intermediary-broker requirements.
No person, firm, association, or corporation shall act as an RB in this state if the RB maintains an office either directly or as a member or employee of a firm or association, or an officer, director, or employee of a corporation:
(1) in this state, unless the RB is a licensed producer in this state; or
(2) in another state, unless the RB is a licensed producer in this state or another state having a law substantially similar to this law or the RB is licensed in this state as a nonresident reinsurance intermediary.
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Subd. 2. Reinsurance intermediary-manager requirements.
No person, firm, association, or corporation shall act as an RM:
(1) for a reinsurer domiciled in this state, unless the RM is a licensed producer in this state;
(2) in this state, if the RM maintains an office either directly or as a member or employee of a firm or association, or an officer, director, or employee of a corporation in this state, unless the RM is a licensed producer in this state; or
(3) in another state for a nondomestic insurer, unless the RM is a licensed producer in this state or another state having a law substantially similar to this law or the person is licensed in this state as a nonresident reinsurance intermediary.
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Subd. 3. Bond and insurance requirements for reinsurance intermediary-manager.
The commissioner may require an RM subject to subdivision 2 to:
(1) file a bond in an amount from an insurer acceptable to the commissioner for the protection of the reinsurer; and
(2) maintain an errors and omissions policy in an amount acceptable to the commissioner.
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Subd. 4. Terms.
(a) The commissioner may issue a reinsurance intermediary license to any person, firm, association, or corporation who has complied with the requirements of sections
Minn. Stat. § 60A.715
60A.715 REQUIRED CONTRACT PROVISIONS; REINSURANCE INTERMEDIARY-BROKERS.
Transactions between an RB and the insurer it represents in this capacity shall only be entered into pursuant to a written authorization, specifying the responsibilities of each party. The authorization must, at a minimum, provide that:
(1) the insurer may terminate the RB's authority at any time;
(2) the RB will render accounts to the insurer accurately detailing all material transactions, including information necessary to support all commissions, charges, and other fees received by, or owing to the RB, and remit all funds due to the ceding insurer or the assuming reinsurer within 30 days of the month of receipt;
(3) all funds collected for the ceding insurer's or the assuming reinsurer's account will be held by the RB in a fiduciary capacity:
(i) in a bank that is a qualified United States financial institution; or
(ii) in direct obligations of, or obligations guaranteed or insured by, the United States, its agencies, or its instrumentalities, excluding mortgage-backed securities, or in obligations described in section 60A.11, subdivision 17 , paragraphs (a) and (b).
Investments made under item (ii) must be traded on a national securities exchange, and shall be restricted to the following: direct obligations of the United States government or an agency of the United States government, municipal bonds or corporate bonds or notes with credit ratings of at least AA by Standard & Poors or equivalent ratings from a comparable rating service, or commercial paper with a short-term rating of at least A-1 by Standard & Poors or an equivalent rating from a comparable rating service, but in no event shall the obligations be rated other than in the highest category established by the Securities Valuation Office of the National Association of Insurance Commissioners. The RB shall invest fiduciary funds under item (ii) only if authorized in writing by the ceding insurer or assuming reinsurer in whose account the funds are held, shall secure the investments with security acceptable to the ceding insurer or assuming reinsurer on whose account the funds are held, and shall be responsible for any losses on investments made pursuant to item (ii).
At least 50 percent of the funds invested under clause (3), based on the prior 30 days' average balance, must be invested in instruments that mature in no more than 120 days. In no case shall an investment mature in greater than three years from the date of purchase. Investments made pursuant to clause (3) should emphasize safety, liquidity, and diversification. The RB is required to structure those investments so that funds are available to remit on a timely basis to the ceding insurer or the assuming reinsurer in accordance with clause (2);
(4) the RB will comply with section
Minn. Stat. § 60A.72
60A.72 BOOKS AND RECORDS; REINSURANCE INTERMEDIARY-BROKERS.
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Subdivision 1. Records of transactions.
For at least ten years after expiration of each contract of reinsurance transacted by the RB, the RB will keep a complete record for each transaction showing:
(1) the type of contract, limits, underwriting restrictions, classes or risks, and territory;
(2) period of coverage, including effective and expiration dates, cancellation provisions, and notice required of cancellation;
(3) reporting and settlement requirements of balances;
(4) rate used to compute the reinsurance premium;
(5) names and addresses of assuming reinsurers;
(6) rates of all reinsurance commissioners, including the commissions on any retrocessions handled by the RB;
(7) related correspondence and memoranda;
(8) proof of placement;
(9) details regarding retrocessions handled by the RB including the identity of retrocessionaires and percentage of each contract assumed or ceded;
(10) financial records, including, but not limited to, premium and loss accounts; and
(11) when the RB procures a reinsurance contract on behalf of a licensed ceding insurer:
(i) directly from any assuming reinsurer, written evidence that the assuming reinsurer has agreed to assume the risk; or
(ii) if placed through a representative of the assuming reinsurer, other than an employee, written evidence that such reinsurer has delegated binding authority to the representative.
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Subd. 2. Access by insurer.
The insurer will have access and the right to copy and audit all accounts and records maintained by the RB related to its business in a form usable by the insurer.
History:
1991 c 325 art 11 s 5
Minn. Stat. § 60A.725
60A.725 DUTIES OF INSURERS UTILIZING THE SERVICES OF A REINSURANCE INTERMEDIARY-BROKER.
(a) An insurer shall not engage the services of a person, firm, association, or corporation to act as an RB on its behalf unless the person is licensed as required by section 60A.71, subdivision 1 .
(b) An insurer may not employ an individual who is employed by an RB with which it transacts business, unless the RB is under common control with the insurer and subject to chapter 60D.
(c) The insurer shall annually obtain a copy of statements of the financial condition of each RB with which it transacts business.
History:
1991 c 325 art 11 s 6
Minn. Stat. § 60A.745
60A.745 EXAMINATION AUTHORITY; REINSURANCE INTERMEDIARY - BROKER.
(a) A reinsurance intermediary is subject to examination by the commissioner. The commissioner shall have access to all books, bank accounts, and records of the reinsurance intermediary in a form usable to the commissioner.
(b) An RM may be examined as if it were the reinsurer.
History:
1991 c 325 art 11 s 10
Minn. Stat. § 60A.9572
60A.9572 LICENSE AND BOND REQUIREMENTS.
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Subdivision 1. Provider or broker license required.
A person shall not operate as a viatical settlement provider or viatical settlement broker in this state without first obtaining a license from the commissioner of the state of residence of the viator.
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Subd. 2. Agent license required.
A person shall not operate as a viatical settlement investment agent in this state without first obtaining a license from the commissioner of the state of residence of the viatical settlement purchaser. If there is more than one purchaser of a single policy and the purchasers are residents of different states, the viatical settlement purchase agreement shall be governed by the law of the state in which the purchaser having the largest percentage ownership resides or, if the purchasers hold equal ownership, the state of residence of one purchaser agreed upon in writing by all purchasers.
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Subd. 3. Life insurance producer.
(a) An insurance producer who is currently licensed with the life line of authority and has been licensed in good standing for at least one year is deemed to meet the licensing requirements of this section and is permitted to operate as a viatical settlement broker.
(b) Not later than 30 days from the first day of operating as a viatical settlement broker, the life insurance producer shall notify the commissioner that the life insurance producer is acting as a viatical settlement broker on a form prescribed by the commissioner, and shall pay any applicable fee to be determined by the commissioner. Notification includes an acknowledgment by the life insurance producer that the life insurance producer will operate as a viatical settlement broker in accordance with sections
Minn. Stat. § 60A.9573
60A.9573 LICENSE REVOCATION AND DENIAL.
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Subdivision 1. Grounds.
The commissioner may suspend, revoke, or refuse to issue or renew the license of a viatical settlement provider, viatical settlement broker, or viatical settlement investment agent if the commissioner finds that:
(1) there was any material misrepresentation in the application for the license;
(2) the licensee or any officer, partner, member, or key management personnel has been convicted of fraudulent or dishonest practices, is subject to a final administrative action, or is otherwise shown to be untrustworthy or incompetent;
(3) the viatical settlement provider demonstrates a pattern of unreasonable payments to viators;
(4) the licensee or any officer, partner, member, or key management personnel has been found guilty of, or has pleaded guilty or nolo contendere to, any felony, or to a misdemeanor involving fraud or moral turpitude, regardless of whether a judgment of conviction has been entered by the court;
(5) the viatical settlement provider has entered into any viatical settlement contract that has not been approved pursuant to sections
Minn. Stat. § 60A.9575
60A.9575 REPORTING REQUIREMENTS AND PRIVACY.
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Subdivision 1. Annual statement.
A viatical settlement provider shall file with the commissioner on or before March 1 of each year an annual statement containing the following information:
(1) for each policy viaticated, the date that the viatical settlement contract was entered into; the life expectancy of the viator at the time of the contract; the face amount of the policy; the amount paid by the viatical settlement provider to viaticate the policy; and if the viator has died, the date of death and the total insurance premiums paid by the viatical settlement provider to maintain the policy in force;
(2) a breakdown by disease category of applications received, accepted, and rejected;
(3) a breakdown of policies viaticated by issuer and policy type;
(4) the number of secondary market versus primary market transactions;
(5) the portfolio size; and
(6) the amount of outside borrowings.
The information shall be limited to only those transactions where the viator is a resident of this state. Individual transaction data regarding the business of viatical settlements or data that could compromise the privacy of personal, financial, and health information of the viator or insured shall be filed with the commissioner on a confidential basis.
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Subd. 2. Identity disclosure restrictions.
Except as otherwise allowed or required by law, a viatical settlement provider, viatical settlement broker, or viatical settlement investment agent, insurance company, insurance producer, information bureau, rating agency or company, or any other person with actual knowledge of an insured's identity, shall not disclose that identity as an insured, or the insured's financial or medical information to any other person unless the disclosure:
(1) is necessary to effect a viatical settlement between the viator and a viatical settlement provider and the viator and insured have provided prior written consent to the disclosure;
(2) is necessary to effect a viatical settlement purchase agreement between the viatical settlement purchaser and a viatical settlement provider and the viator and insured have provided prior written consent to the disclosure;
(3) is provided in response to an investigation or examination by the commissioner or any other governmental officer or agency or pursuant to section
Minn. Stat. § 60A.9577
60A.9577 , subdivisions 5 and 6, are received by the purchaser.
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Subd. 5. Payment of settlement proceeds.
The viatical settlement provider shall instruct the viator to send the executed documents required to effect the change in ownership, assignment, or change in beneficiary directly to the independent escrow agent. Within three business days after the date the escrow agent receives the document, or from the date the viatical settlement provider receives the documents, if the viator erroneously provides the documents directly to the provider, the provider shall pay or transfer the proceeds of the viatical settlement into an escrow or trust account maintained in a state- or federally chartered financial institution whose deposits are insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC). Upon payment of the settlement proceeds into the escrow account, the escrow agent shall deliver the original change in ownership, assignment, or change in beneficiary forms to the viatical settlement provider or related provider trust or other designated representative of the viatical settlement provider. Upon the escrow agent's receipt of the acknowledgment of the properly completed transfer of ownership, assignment, or designation of beneficiary from the insurance company, the escrow agent shall pay the settlement proceeds to the viator.
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Subd. 6. Tendering consideration.
Failure to tender consideration to the viator for the viatical settlement contract within the time set forth in the disclosure pursuant to section 60A.9577, subdivision 1 , clause (6), renders the viatical settlement contract voidable by the viator for lack of consideration until the time consideration is tendered to and accepted by the viator. Funds shall be deemed sent by a viatical settlement provider to a viator as of the date that the escrow agent either releases funds for wire transfer to the viator or places a check for delivery to the viator by United States mail or other nationally recognized delivery service.
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Subd. 7. Health status contacts.
Contacts with the insured for the purpose of determining the health status of the insured by the viatical settlement provider or viatical settlement broker after the viatical settlement has occurred shall only be made by the viatical settlement provider or broker licensed in this state or its authorized representatives and shall be limited to once every three months for insureds with a life expectancy of more than one year, and to no more than once per month for insureds with a life expectancy of one year or less. The provider or broker shall explain the procedure for these contacts at the time the viatical settlement contract is entered into. The limitations in this subdivision shall not apply to any contacts with an insured for reasons other than determining the insured's health status. Viatical settlement providers and viatical settlement brokers shall be responsible for the actions of their authorized representatives.
History:
2009 c 62 s 8
Minn. Stat. § 60A.9579
60A.9579 GENERAL RULES.
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Subdivision 1. Provider requirements.
(a) A viatical settlement provider entering into a viatical settlement contract shall first obtain:
(1) if the viator is the insured, a written statement from a licensed attending physician that the viator is of sound mind and under no constraint or undue influence to enter into a viatical settlement contract; and
(2) a document in which the insured consents to the release of the insured's medical records to a licensed viatical settlement provider, viatical settlement broker, and the insurance company that issued the life insurance policy covering the life of the insured.
(b) Within 20 days after a viator executes documents necessary to transfer any rights under an insurance policy or within 20 days of entering any agreement, option, promise, or any other form of understanding, expressed or implied, to viaticate the policy, the viatical settlement provider shall give written notice to the insurer that issued that insurance policy that the policy has or will become a viaticated policy. The notice shall be accompanied by the documents required by paragraph (c).
(c) The viatical provider shall deliver a copy of the medical release required under paragraph (a), clause (2), a copy of the viator's application for the viatical settlement contract, the notice required under paragraph (b), and a request for verification of coverage to the insurer that issued the life insurance policy that is the subject of the viatical transaction. The National Association of Insurance Commissioners form for verification of coverage shall be used unless another form is developed or approved by the commissioner.
(d) The insurer shall respond to a request for verification of coverage submitted on an approved form by a viatical settlement provider or viatical settlement broker within 30 calendar days of the date the request is received and shall indicate whether, based on the medical evidence and documents provided, the insurer intends to pursue an investigation at this time regarding the validity of the insurance contract or possible fraud. The insurer shall accept a request for verification of coverage made on a National Association of Insurance Commissioners form or any other form approved by the commissioner. The insurer shall accept an original or facsimile or electronic copy of a request and any accompanying authorization signed by the viator. Failure by the insurer to meet its obligations under this subdivision is a violation of sections 60A.9581, subdivision 3 , and
Minn. Stat. § 60A.9581
60A.9581 PROHIBITED PRACTICES AND CONFLICTS OF INTEREST.
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Subdivision 1. Solicitations and sales to controlled person.
With respect to any viatical settlement contract or insurance policy, no viatical settlement broker knowingly shall solicit an offer from, effectuate a viatical settlement with, or make a sale to any viatical settlement provider, viatical settlement purchaser, viatical settlement investment agent, financing entity, or related provider trust that is controlling, controlled by, or under common control with the viatical settlement broker unless this relationship is disclosed to the viator.
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Subd. 2. Payment to controlled broker.
With respect to any viatical settlement contract or insurance policy, no viatical settlement provider knowingly may enter into a viatical settlement contract with a viator, if, in connection with a viatical settlement contract, anything of value will be paid to a viatical settlement broker that is controlling, controlled by, or under common control with the viatical settlement provider or the viatical settlement purchaser, viatical settlement investment agent, financing entity, or related provider trust that is involved in a viatical settlement contract unless this relationship is disclosed to the viator.
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Subd. 3. Fraudulent viatical settlement act.
A violation of subdivisions 1 and 2 is deemed a fraudulent viatical settlement act.
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Subd. 4. Advertising.
(a) No viatical settlement provider shall enter into a viatical settlement contract unless the viatical settlement promotional, advertising, and marketing materials, as may be prescribed by rule, have been filed with the commissioner. In no event shall any marketing materials expressly reference that the insurance is "free" for any period of time. The inclusion of any reference in the marketing materials that would cause a viator to reasonably believe that the insurance is free for any period of time shall be considered a violation of sections
Minn. Stat. § 60A.964
60A.964 FEES.
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Subdivision 1. Amount.
The licensing fee for a viatical settlement provider, viatical settlement broker, or viatical settlement investment agent license is $750 for initial licensure and $250 for each annual renewal. The fees must be limited to the cost of license administration and enforcement and must be deposited in the state treasury, credited to a special account, and appropriated to the commissioner.
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Subd. 2. Automatic revocation.
A license is automatically revoked for failure to pay the licensing fee within the terms prescribed by the commissioner.
History:
1995 c 151 s 5 ; 1999 c 250 art 3 s 6 ; 2009 c 62 s 13
Minn. Stat. § 60E.03
60E.03 at the same time that the revision is submitted to the commissioner of its chartering state.
(c) The risk retention group shall submit a statement of registration, for which a filing fee shall be determined by the commissioner, that designates the commissioner as its agent for the purpose of receiving service of legal documents or process.
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Subd. 3. Financial condition.
A risk retention group doing business in this state shall submit to the commissioner:
(1) a copy of the group's financial statement submitted to the state in which the risk retention group is chartered and licensed, which shall be certified by an independent public accountant and contain a statement of opinion on loss and loss adjustment expense reserves made by a member of the American Academy of Actuaries or a qualified loss reserve specialist, under criteria established by the National Association of Insurance Commissioners;
(2) a copy of each examination of the risk retention group as certified by the commissioner or public official conducting the examination;
(3) upon request by the commissioner, a copy of any information or document pertaining to any outside audit performed with respect to the risk retention group; and
(4) the information required to verify its continuing qualification as a risk retention group under section 60E.02, subdivision 12 .
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Subd. 4. Taxation.
(a) Each risk retention group must file with the commissioner of revenue all returns and pay to the commissioner of revenue all amounts required under chapter 297I.
(b) To the extent licensed agents or brokers are utilized in accordance with section
Minn. Stat. § 60E.07
60E.07 PURCHASING GROUPS; EXEMPTION FROM CERTAIN LAWS RELATING TO THE GROUP PURCHASE OF INSURANCE.
A purchasing group and its insurer or insurers are subject to all applicable laws of this state, except that a purchasing group and its insurer or insurers are exempt, in regard to liability insurance for the purchasing group, from any law that would:
(1) prohibit the establishment of a purchasing group;
(2) make it unlawful for an insurer to provide or offer to provide insurance on a basis providing, to a purchasing group or its members, advantages based on their loss and expense experience not afforded to other persons with respect to rates, policy forms, coverages, or other matters;
(3) prohibit a purchasing group or its members from purchasing insurance on a group basis described in clause (2);
(4) prohibit a purchasing group from obtaining insurance on a group basis because the group has not been in existence for a minimum period of time or because any member has not belonged to the group for a minimum period of time;
(5) require that a purchasing group must have a minimum number of members, common ownership or affiliation, or certain legal form;
(6) require that a certain percentage of a purchasing group must obtain insurance on a group basis;
(7) otherwise discriminate against a purchasing group or any of its members; or
(8) require that any insurance policy issued to a purchasing group or any of its members be countersigned by an insurance agent or broker residing in this state.
History:
1987 c 192 s 7 ; 1993 c 299 s 24
Minn. Stat. § 60E.12
60E.12 DUTY ON AGENTS OR BROKERS TO OBTAIN LICENSE.
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Subdivision 1. Risk retention groups.
No person, firm, association, or corporation shall act or aid in any manner in soliciting, negotiating, or procuring liability insurance in this state from a risk retention group unless the person, firm, association, or corporation is licensed as an insurance agent or broker in accordance with chapter 60K.
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Subd. 2. Purchasing groups.
(a) No person, firm, association, or corporation shall act or aid in any manner in soliciting, negotiating, or procuring liability insurance in this state for a purchasing group from an authorized insurer or a risk retention group chartered in a state unless the person, firm, association, or corporation is licensed as an insurance agent or broker in accordance with chapter 60K.
(b) No person, firm, association, or corporation shall act or aid in any manner in soliciting, negotiating, or procuring liability insurance coverage in this state for any member of a purchasing group under a purchasing group's policy unless the person, firm, association, or corporation is licensed as an insurance agent or broker in accordance with chapter 60K.
(c) No person, firm, association, or corporation shall act or aid in any manner in soliciting, negotiating, or procuring liability insurance from an insurer not authorized to do business in this state on behalf of a purchasing group located in this state unless the person, firm, association, or corporation is licensed as a surplus lines agent or excess line broker in accordance with sections
Minn. Stat. § 60K.55
60K.55 .
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Subd. 4. Broker's powers.
A surplus lines broker may do any or all of the following:
(a) place insurance on risks in this state with eligible surplus lines insurers;
(b) place insurance on risks in this state with ineligible surplus lines insurers in strict compliance with section
Minn. Stat. § 6105.0354
6105.0354 , subpart 30, in the Lower Saint Croix National Scenic Riverway.
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Subd. 1g. Feedlot zoning controls.
(a) A municipality proposing to adopt a new feedlot zoning control or to amend an existing feedlot zoning control must notify the Pollution Control Agency and commissioner of agriculture at the beginning of the process, no later than the date notice is given of the first hearing proposing to adopt or amend a zoning control purporting to address feedlots.
(b) Prior to final approval of a feedlot zoning control, the governing body of a municipality may submit a copy of the proposed zoning control to the Pollution Control Agency and to the commissioner of agriculture and request review, comment, and recommendations on the environmental and agricultural effects from specific provisions in the ordinance.
(c) The agencies' response to the municipality may include:
(1) any recommendations for improvements in the ordinance; and
(2) the legal, social, economic, or scientific justification for each recommendation under clause (1).
(d) At the request of the municipality's governing body, the municipality must prepare a report on the economic effects from specific provisions in the ordinance. Economic analysis must state whether the ordinance will affect the local economy and describe the kinds of businesses affected and the projected impact the proposal will have on those businesses. To assist the municipality, the commissioner of agriculture, in cooperation with the Department of Employment and Economic Development, must develop a template for measuring local economic effects and make it available to the municipality. The report must be submitted to the commissioners of employment and economic development and agriculture along with the proposed ordinance.
(e) A local ordinance that contains a setback for new feedlots from existing residences must also provide for a new residence setback from existing feedlots located in areas zoned agricultural at the same distances and conditions specified in the setback for new feedlots, unless the new residence is built to replace an existing residence. A municipality may grant a variance from this requirement under section 462.358, subdivision 6 .
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Subd. 1h. Comprehensive plans in greater Minnesota; open spaces.
When adopting or updating a comprehensive plan in a municipality located within a county that is not a greater than 80 percent area, as defined in section 103G.005, subdivision 10b , and that is located outside the metropolitan area, as defined by section 473.121, subdivision 2 , the municipality shall consider adopting goals and objectives for the preservation of agricultural, forest, wildlife, and open space land and the minimization of development in sensitive shoreland areas. Within three years of updating the comprehensive plan, the municipality shall consider adopting ordinances as part of the municipality's official controls that encourage the implementation of the goals and objectives.
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Subd. 1i. Airport safety zones on zoning maps.
Airport safety zones must be included on maps that illustrate boundaries of zoning districts and that are adopted as official controls.
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Subd. 2. General requirements.
(a) At any time after the adoption of a land use plan for the municipality, the planning agency, for the purpose of carrying out the policies and goals of the land use plan, may prepare a proposed zoning ordinance and submit it to the governing body with its recommendations for adoption.
(b) Subject to the requirements of subdivisions 3, 4, and 5, the governing body may adopt and amend a zoning ordinance by a majority vote of all its members. The adoption or amendment of any portion of a zoning ordinance which changes all or part of the existing classification of a zoning district from residential to either commercial or industrial requires a two-thirds majority vote of all members of the governing body.
(c) The land use plan must provide guidelines for the timing and sequence of the adoption of official controls to ensure planned, orderly, and staged development and redevelopment consistent with the land use plan.
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Subd. 3. Public hearings.
No zoning ordinance or amendment thereto shall be adopted until a public hearing has been held thereon by the planning agency or by the governing body. A notice of the time, place and purpose of the hearing shall be published in the official newspaper of the municipality at least ten days prior to the day of the hearing. When an amendment involves changes in district boundaries affecting an area of five acres or less, a similar notice shall be mailed at least ten days before the day of the hearing to each owner of affected property and property situated wholly or partly within 350 feet of the property to which the amendment relates. For the purpose of giving mailed notice, the person responsible for mailing the notice may use any appropriate records to determine the names and addresses of owners. A copy of the notice and a list of the owners and addresses to which the notice was sent shall be attested to by the responsible person and shall be made a part of the records of the proceedings. The failure to give mailed notice to individual property owners, or defects in the notice shall not invalidate the proceedings, provided a bona fide attempt to comply with this subdivision has been made.
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Subd. 4. Amendments.
An amendment to a zoning ordinance may be initiated by the governing body, the planning agency, or by petition of affected property owners as defined in the zoning ordinance. An amendment not initiated by the planning agency shall be referred to the planning agency, if there is one, for study and report and may not be acted upon by the governing body until it has received the recommendation of the planning agency on the proposed amendment or until 60 days have elapsed from the date of reference of the amendment without a report by the planning agency.
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Subd. 5. Amendment; certain cities of the first class.
The provisions of this subdivision apply to the adoption or amendment of any portion of a zoning ordinance which changes all or part of the existing classification of a zoning district from residential to either commercial or industrial of a property located in a city of the first class, except a city of the first class in which a different process is provided through the operation of the city's home rule charter. In a city to which this subdivision applies, amendments to a zoning ordinance shall be made in conformance with this section but only after there shall have been filed in the office of the city clerk a written consent of the owners of two-thirds of the several descriptions of real estate situate within 100 feet of the total contiguous descriptions of real estate held by the same owner or any party purchasing any such contiguous property within one year preceding the request, and after the affirmative vote in favor thereof by a majority of the members of the governing body of any such city. The governing body of such city may, by a two-thirds vote of its members, after hearing, adopt a new zoning ordinance without such written consent whenever the planning commission or planning board of such city shall have made a survey of the whole area of the city or of an area of not less than 40 acres, within which the new ordinance or the amendments or alterations of the existing ordinance would take effect when adopted, and shall have considered whether the number of descriptions of real estate affected by such changes and alterations renders the obtaining of such written consent impractical, and such planning commission or planning board shall report in writing as to whether in its opinion the proposals of the governing body in any case are reasonably related to the overall needs of the community, to existing land use, or to a plan for future land use, and shall have conducted a public hearing on such proposed ordinance, changes or alterations, of which hearing published notice shall have been given in a daily newspaper of general circulation at least once each week for three successive weeks prior to such hearing, which notice shall state the time, place and purpose of such hearing, and shall have reported to the governing body of the city its findings and recommendations in writing.
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Subd. 6. Appeals and adjustments.
Appeals to the board of appeals and adjustments may be taken by any affected person upon compliance with any reasonable conditions imposed by the zoning ordinance. The board of appeals and adjustments has the following powers with respect to the zoning ordinance:
(1) To hear and decide appeals where it is alleged that there is an error in any order, requirement, decision, or determination made by an administrative officer in the enforcement of the zoning ordinance.
(2) To hear requests for variances from the requirements of the zoning ordinance including restrictions placed on nonconformities. Variances shall only be permitted when they are in harmony with the general purposes and intent of the ordinance and when the variances are consistent with the comprehensive plan. Variances may be granted when the applicant for the variance establishes that there are practical difficulties in complying with the zoning ordinance. "Practical difficulties," as used in connection with the granting of a variance, means that the property owner proposes to use the property in a reasonable manner not permitted by the zoning ordinance; the plight of the landowner is due to circumstances unique to the property not created by the landowner; and the variance, if granted, will not alter the essential character of the locality. Economic considerations alone do not constitute practical difficulties. Practical difficulties include, but are not limited to, inadequate access to direct sunlight for solar energy systems. Variances shall be granted for earth sheltered construction as defined in section 216C.06, subdivision 14 , when in harmony with the ordinance. The board of appeals and adjustments or the governing body as the case may be, may not permit as a variance any use that is not allowed under the zoning ordinance for property in the zone where the affected person's land is located. The board or governing body as the case may be, may permit as a variance the temporary use of a one family dwelling as a two family dwelling. The board or governing body as the case may be may impose conditions in the granting of variances. A condition must be directly related to and must bear a rough proportionality to the impact created by the variance.
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Subd. 6a. Normal residential surroundings for persons with disabilities.
It is the policy of this state that persons with disabilities should not be excluded by municipal zoning ordinances or other land use regulations from the benefits of normal residential surroundings. For purposes of subdivisions 6a through 9, "person" has the meaning given in section 245A.02, subdivision 11 .
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Subd. 7. Permitted single family use.
A state licensed residential facility, including an assisted living facility under chapter 144G, serving six or fewer persons, a licensed day care facility serving 12 or fewer persons, and a group family day care facility licensed under Minnesota Rules, parts
Minn. Stat. § 61A.02
61A.02 . Each person insured under such a group life insurance policy (excepting policies which insure the lives of debtors of a creditor or vendor to secure payment of indebtedness) shall be furnished a certificate of insurance issued by the insurer and containing the following:
(a) name and location of the insurance company;
(b) a statement as to the insurance protection to which the certificate holder is entitled, including any changes in such protection depending on the age of the person whose life is insured;
(c) any and all provisions regarding the termination or reduction of the certificate holder's insurance protection;
(d) a statement that the master group policy may be examined at a reasonably accessible place;
(e) the maximum rate of contribution to be paid by the certificate holder;
(f) beneficiary and method required to change such beneficiary;
(g) a statement that alternative methods for the payment of group life policy proceeds of $15,000 or more must be offered to beneficiaries in lieu of a lump-sum distribution, at their request. Alternative payment methods which must be offered at the request of the beneficiaries must include, but are not limited to, a life income option, an income option for fixed amounts or fixed time periods, and the option to select an interest-bearing account with the company with the right to select another option at a later date;
(h) in the case of a group term insurance policy if the policy provides that insurance of the certificate holder will terminate, in case of a policy issued to an employer, by reason of termination of the certificate holder's employment, or in case of a policy issued to an organization of which the certificate holder is a member, by reason of termination of membership, a provision to the effect that in case of termination of employment or membership, or in case of termination of the group policy, the certificate holder shall be entitled to have issued by the insurer, without evidence of insurability, upon application made to the insurer within 31 days after the termination, and upon payment of the premium applicable to the class of risk to which that person belongs and to the form and amount of the policy at that person's then attained age, a policy of life insurance only, in any one of the forms customarily issued by the insurer except term insurance, in an amount equal to the amount of the life insurance protection under such group insurance policy at the time of such termination; and shall contain a further provision to the effect that upon the death of the certificate holder during such 31-day period and before any such individual policy has become effective, the amount of insurance for which the certificate holder was entitled to make application shall be payable as a death benefit by the insurer.
This section applies to a policy, certificate of insurance, or similar evidence of coverage issued to a Minnesota resident or issued to provide coverage to a Minnesota resident. This section does not apply to a certificate of insurance or similar evidence of coverage that meets the conditions of section 61A.093, subdivision 2 .
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Subd. 2. Assignment of interests.
Any or all of the interests of a certificate holder under any group life insurance policy (excepting policies which insure the lives of debtors of a creditor or vendor to secure payment of indebtedness) may be assigned by an assignment executed by the owner of such interest and delivered to the insurer if the provisions of the policy so permit or if both the insurer and the master policyholder agree to such assignment.
An assignment of interests of a certificate holder valid hereunder may transfer to the assignee any or all the rights, privileges, and incidents of ownership of the certificate holder in the group life insurance policy and group certificate thereunder, including, but not limited to the rights to designate beneficiaries and to have an individual policy issued in accordance with subdivision 1, clause (g).
Any assignment in accordance with this subdivision shall entitle the insurer to deal with the assignee in accordance with the terms of the assignment until the insurer has received at its home office written notice of a subsequent assignment made by such assignee; provided, however, that the insurer shall not be prejudiced by any payment made or action taken inconsistent with the terms of any assignment before the insurer has received and had reasonable time to act on written notice of such assignment.
This subdivision declares and codifies without modifying the existing right of assignment of interests of certificate holders under group life insurance policies by the persons owning such interests. An assignment otherwise valid shall not be invalid because it was made prior to the enactment of this subdivision.
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Subd. 3. Mortgage loans; certain debtor groups.
(a) Group life insurance policies may be issued to cover groups of not less than ten debtors of a creditor written under a master policy issued to a creditor to insure its debtors in connection with real estate mortgage loans, in an amount not to exceed the actual amount of their indebtedness plus an amount equal to two monthly payments or scheduled amount of their indebtedness, plus an amount equal to two monthly payments, whichever is greater. If the mortgage loan provides for a variable rate of finance charge or interest, the initial rate or the scheduled rates based on the initial index must be used in determining the scheduled amount of indebtedness. Each application for group mortgage insurance offered prior to or at the time of loan closing shall contain a clear and conspicuous notice that the insurance is optional and is not a condition for obtaining the loan. Each person insured under a group insurance policy issued under this subdivision shall be furnished a certificate of insurance which conforms to the requirements of section 62B.06, subdivision 2 , and which includes a conversion privilege permitting an insured debtor to convert, without evidence of insurability, to an individual policy of decreasing term insurance within 30 days of the date the insured debtor's group coverage is terminated for any reason other than the nonpayment of premiums. The initial amount of coverage under the individual policy shall be an amount equal to the amount of coverage terminated under the group policy and shall decrease over a term that corresponds with the scheduled term of the insured debtor's mortgage loan. The premium for the individual policy shall be the same premium the insured debtor was paying under the group policy.
(b) The commissioner may waive all or part of the requirements of this subdivision if:
(1) all the premiums under the group policy are paid by the group policyholder;
(2) the loans insured are first real estate residential mortgage loans owned or guaranteed by the group policyholder; and
(3) the group policy is in the best interests of insured debtors.
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Subd. 4. Limits of group life insurance.
Group life insurance offered to a resident of this state under a group life insurance policy issued to a group other than one described in section 60A.02, subdivision 28 , shall be subject to the following requirements:
(1) no such group life insurance policy shall be delivered in this state unless the commissioner finds that:
(i) the issuance of the group policy is not contrary to the best interest of the public;
(ii) the issuance of the group policy would result in economies of acquisition or administration; and
(iii) the benefits are reasonable in relation to the premiums charged;
(2) no such group life insurance coverage may be offered in this state by an insurer under a policy issued in another state unless this state or another state having requirements substantially similar to those contained in clause (1) has made a determination that the requirements have been met;
(3) the premium for the policy must be paid either from the policyholder's funds or from funds contributed by the covered persons, or from both; and
(4) an insurer may exclude or limit the coverage on any person as to whom evidence of individual insurability is not satisfactory to the insurer.
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Subd. 5. Limitation on payment due to furtherance of terrorism.
(a) For purposes of this subdivision, "further terrorism" has the meaning given in section
Minn. Stat. § 61A.282
61A.282 INVESTMENTS IN NAME OF COMPANY OR NOMINEE AND PROHIBITIONS.
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Subdivision 1. Requirements.
A company's investments shall be held in its corporate name or its nominee name, except that:
(a) Investments may be held in the name of a clearing corporation or of a custodian bank or in the name of the nominee of either under the following conditions:
(1) The clearing corporation, custodian bank, or nominee must be legally authorized to hold the particular investment for the account of others;
(2) Where the investment is evidenced by a certificate and held in the name of a custodian bank or the nominee of a custodian bank, a written agreement shall provide that certificates so deposited shall at all times be kept separate and apart from other deposits with the depository, so that at all times they may be identified as belonging solely to the company making the deposit; or
(3) Where a clearing corporation is to act as depository, the investment may be merged or held in bulk in the clearing corporation's name, or in the name of its nominee, together with any other investments deposited with the clearing corporation by any other person, if a written agreement provides that adequate evidence of the deposit will be obtained and retained by the company or a custodian bank.
As used in this subdivision, the term "custodian bank" means a bank or trust company licensed by the United States or any state thereof.
(b) A company may participate, through a bank or trust company which is a member of the Federal Reserve System, in the Federal Reserve's book-entry system, if the records of the member bank or trust company at all times show that the investments are held for the company and/or for specific accounts of the company.
(c) If an investment consists of an individual interest in a pool of obligations, or of a fractional interest in a single obligation, the certificate of participation or interest, or the confirmation of participation or interest in the investment, shall be held in the manner set forth in paragraph (a) or held in the name of the company.
(d) Where an investment is not evidenced by a certificate, except as provided in paragraph (b), adequate evidence of the company's investment shall be obtained from the issuer or its transfer or recording agent and retained by the company, a custodian bank, or clearing corporation. Adequate evidence, for purposes of this section, shall mean a written receipt or other verification issued by the depository or issuer or a custodian bank which shows that the investment is held for the company. Transfers of ownership of investments held as described in paragraphs (a)(3), (b), and (c) may be evidenced by bookkeeping entry on the books of the issuer of the investment or its transfer or recording agent or the clearing corporation without physical delivery of certificates, if any, evidencing the company's investment.
(e) Investments or cash posted as collateral or variation margin (other than initial margin amounts) in connection with qualified financial contracts, as defined in section 60B.03, subdivision 22 , are not subject to this subdivision.
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Subd. 2. Lending of securities.
A company may loan securities held by it under this chapter to a broker-dealer registered under the Securities and Exchange Act of 1934 or to a bank which is a member of the Federal Reserve System, under the following conditions:
(a) The market value of loaned securities outstanding at any one time, excluding securities held in a separate account established pursuant to section 61A.14, subdivision 1 , shall not exceed 40 percent of the company's admitted assets as of the December 31 immediately preceding.
(b) The company is limited to no more than two percent of its admitted assets as of the December 31 immediately preceding being subject to lending of securities with any one borrower.
(c) Each loan must be evidenced by a written agreement which provides:
(1) that the loan will be fully collateralized by cash or obligations issued or guaranteed by the United States or an agency or an instrumentality thereof, and that the collateral will be adjusted each business day during the term of the loan to maintain the required collateral in the event of market value changes in the loaned securities or collateral;
(2) that the loan may be terminated by the company at any time, and that the borrower must return the loaned securities or their equivalent within five business days after termination;
(3) that the company has the right to retain the collateral or to use the collateral to purchase securities equivalent to the loaned securities if the borrower defaults under the terms of the agreement; and
(4) that the borrower remains liable for any losses and expenses, not covered by the collateral, which are incurred by the company due to default.
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Subd. 3. Conflicts of interest.
No officer, director, or member of any committee passing on investments shall borrow any of the funds, or become, directly or indirectly, liable as a surety or endorser for or on account of loans thereof to others, or receive for personal use any fee, brokerage, commission, gift or other consideration for, or on account of, any loan made by or on behalf of the company.
History:
1969 c 494 s 18 ; 1981 c 211 s 35 ; 1982 c 555 s 4 ; 1986 c 313 s 3 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1994 c 485 s 25 ; 2011 c 61 s 5 ; 2014 c 198 art 4 s 6
Minn. Stat. § 61A.31
61A.31 REAL ESTATE HOLDINGS.
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Subdivision 1. Purposes.
Except as provided in subdivisions 2, 3, and 4, every domestic life insurance company may acquire, hold and convey real property only for the following purposes and in the following manner:
(1) such as shall have been mortgaged to it in good faith by way of security for loans previously contracted, or for moneys due;
(2) such as shall have been conveyed to it in satisfaction of debts previously contracted in the course of its dealings;
(3) such as shall have been purchased at sales on judgments, decrees or mortgages obtained or made for such debts;
(4) such as shall have been subject to a contract for deed under which the company held the vendor's interest to secure the payment by the vendee.
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Subd. 2. Building projects.
In order to promote and supplement public and private efforts to provide an adequate supply of decent, safe, and sanitary dwelling accommodations for persons of low and moderate income; to relieve unemployment; to alleviate the shortage of rental residences; and to assist in relieving the emergency in the housing situation in this country through investment of funds, any life insurance company may purchase or lease from any owner or owners (including states and political subdivisions thereof), real property in any state in which such company is licensed to transact the business of life insurance; and on any real property so acquired or on real property so located and acquired otherwise in the conduct of its business, such company may erect apartment, or other dwelling houses, not including hotels, but including accommodations for retail stores, shops, offices, and other community services reasonably incident to such projects; or, to provide such housing or accommodations, may construct, reconstruct, improve, or remove any buildings or other improvements thereon. Such company may thereafter own, improve, maintain, manage, collect or receive income from, sell, lease, or convey any such real property and the improvements thereon. A company may not invest in the building projects if the investment causes the company's aggregate investments under this subdivision to exceed ten percent of its total admitted assets.
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Subd. 3. Acquisition of property.
Any domestic life insurance company may:
(a) acquire real property or any interest in real property, including oil and gas and other mineral interests, in the United States or any state thereof, or in the Dominion of Canada or any province thereof, as an investment for the production of income, and hold, improve or otherwise develop, and lease, sell, and convey the same either directly or as a joint venturer or through a limited, limited liability, or general partnership in which the company is a partner or through a limited liability company in which the company is a member. A company may not invest in any real property asset other than property held for the convenience and accommodation of its business if the investment causes: (1) the company's aggregate investments in the real property assets to exceed ten percent of its admitted assets; or (2) the company's investment in any single parcel of real property to exceed one-half of one percent of its admitted assets;
(b) acquire personal property in the United States or any state thereof, or in the Dominion of Canada or any province thereof, under lease or leases or commitment for lease or leases if: (1) either the fair value of the property exceeds the company's investment in it or the lessee, or at least one of the lessees, or a guarantor, or at least one of the guarantors, of the lease is a corporation with a net worth of $1,000,000 or more; and (2) the lease provides for rent sufficient to amortize the investment with interest over the primary term of the lease or the useful life of the property, whichever is less. A company may not invest in the personal property if the investment causes the company's aggregate investments in the personal property to exceed three percent of its admitted assets;
(c) acquire and hold real estate (1) if the purpose of the acquisition is to enhance the sale value of real estate previously acquired and held by the company under this section and (2) if the company expects the real estate so acquired to qualify and be held by the company under paragraph (a) within five years after acquisition; and
(d) not acquire real property under paragraphs (a) to (c) if the property is to be used primarily for agricultural, horticultural, ranch, mining, or church purposes.
All real property acquired or held under this subdivision must be carried at a value equal to the lesser of (1) cost plus the cost of capitalized improvements, less normal depreciation, or (2) market value.
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Subd. 4. Convenience and accommodation of business.
A company may acquire and hold real estate for the convenience and accommodation of its business. Without the prior approval of the Department of Commerce, a company may not invest in real estate authorized under this subdivision if the investment causes the company's aggregate investments under this subdivision to exceed five percent of its total admitted assets, except that a health service plan corporation operating under chapter 62C may not invest in real estate authorized under this subdivision if the investment causes the company's aggregate investments under this subdivision to exceed 25 percent of its total admitted assets.
History:
1967 c 395 art 2 s 31 ; 1969 c 494 s 21 -24; 1981 c 211 s 39 ,40; 1983 c 289 s 114 subd 1; 1983 c 340 s 16 ; 1984 c 655 art 1 s 92 ; 1991 c 325 art 9 s 12 ; 1995 c 214 s 15
Minn. Stat. § 61A.40
61A.40 QUALIFICATIONS FOR LICENSE; NUMBER OF MEMBERS.
No corporation not now authorized to transact business in this state shall be licensed to transact the business of life or casualty insurance, or both, upon the cooperative or assessment plan, until at least 300 persons eligible to membership have made individual applications, in writing, containing warranties of age, health, and other required conditions of membership, and the corporation has on deposit with the commissioner, as security for all its policyholders, stocks or bonds of this state or of the United States, or bonds of any of the municipalities of this state, or personal obligations secured by first mortgage on real estate within this state, worth, exclusive of buildings, the amount of the lien, and bearing interest of not less than three percent per annum, to an amount the actual market value of which, exclusive of interest, shall never be less than $100,000; provided, that any corporation which has heretofore procured and filed with the commissioner a part of the total number of applications required by law shall only be required to deposit securities of the market value of $5,000; and provided, that a corporation that confines its membership exclusively to the members of volunteer fire departments shall be required to have not less than 100 individual applications, in writing, from persons eligible to membership and the sum of at least $1,000, which amount shall be liable only for death or indemnity claims made under its policy or membership certificate contracts.
History:
1967 c 395 art 2 s 40 ; 1978 c 465 s 10
Minn. Stat. § 61A.59
61A.59 ENFORCEMENT; EFFECT OF COMPLIANCE.
(a) An agent, broker, or insurer shall not recommend the replacement or conservation of an existing policy or contract by use of a substantially inaccurate presentation or comparison of an existing policy's or contract's premiums and benefits or dividends and values, if any. An insurer, agent, representative, officer, or employee of the insurer failing to comply with the requirements of sections
Minn. Stat. § 624.70
624.70 DUTY OF COMMISSION MERCHANTS AND BROKERS.
It shall be the duty of every commission merchant, copartnership, association, corporation, or broker, doing business as such, to furnish to every customer or principal for whom such commission merchant, broker, copartnership, corporation, or association has executed any order, for the actual purchase or sale of any stocks, grain, provisions, or other commodities, or personal property, either for immediate or future delivery, a written statement containing the names of the parties from whom such property was bought, or to whom it shall have been sold, as the case may be, the time when, the place where, and the price at which the same was either bought or sold; and, in case such commission merchant, broker, copartnership, corporation, or association fails to properly furnish such statement, the fact of such failure shall be prima facie evidence that such property was not sold or bought in a legitimate manner.
History:
( 10491 ) 1905 c 133 s 4 ; 1965 c 45 s 69
Minn. Stat. § 628.26
628.26 shall not begin to run until the insurance company or law enforcement agency is aware of the fraud, but in no event may the prosecution be commenced later than seven years after the act has occurred.
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Subd. 3. Sentence.
Whoever violates this provision may be sentenced as provided in section 609.52, subdivision 3 , based on the greater of (i) the value of property, services, or other benefit wrongfully obtained or attempted to obtain, or (ii) the aggregate economic loss suffered by any person as a result of the violation. A person convicted of a violation of this section must be ordered to pay restitution to persons aggrieved by the violation. Restitution must be ordered in addition to a fine or imprisonment but not in lieu of a fine or imprisonment.
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Subd. 4. Definitions.
(a) "Insurance policy" means the written instrument in which are set forth the terms of any certificate of insurance, binder of coverage, or contract of insurance (including a certificate, binder, or contract issued by a state-assigned risk plan); benefit plan; nonprofit hospital service plan; motor club service plan; or surety bond, cash bond, or any other alternative to insurance authorized by a state's Financial Responsibility Act.
(b) "Insurance professional" means sales agents, agencies, managing general agents, brokers, producers, claims representatives, adjusters, and third-party administrators.
(c) "Insurance transaction" means a transaction by, between, or among: (1) an insurer or a person who acts on behalf of an insurer; and (2) an insured, claimant, applicant for insurance, public adjuster, insurance professional, practitioner, or any person who acts on behalf of any of the foregoing, for the purpose of obtaining insurance or reinsurance, calculating insurance premiums, submitting a claim, negotiating or adjusting a claim, or otherwise obtaining insurance, self-insurance, or reinsurance or obtaining the benefits thereof or therefrom.
(d) "Insurer" means a person purporting to engage in the business of insurance or authorized to do business in the state or subject to regulation by the state, who undertakes to indemnify another against loss, damage, or liability arising from a contingent or unknown event. Insurer includes, but is not limited to, an insurance company; self-insurer; reinsurer; reciprocal exchange; interinsurer; risk retention group; Lloyd's insurer; fraternal benefit society; surety; medical service, dental, optometric, or any other similar health service plan; and any other legal entity engaged or purportedly engaged in the business of insurance, including any person or entity that falls within the definition of insurer found within section 60A.951, subdivision 5 .
(e) "Premium" means consideration paid or payable for coverage under an insurance policy. Premium includes any payment, whether due within the insurance policy term or otherwise, and any deductible payment, whether advanced by the insurer or insurance professional and subject to reimbursement by the insured or otherwise, any self-insured retention or payment, whether advanced by the insurer or insurance professional and subject to reimbursement by the insured or otherwise, and any collateral or security to be provided to collateralize obligations to pay any of the above.
(f) "Premium finance company" means a person engaged or purporting to engage in the business of advancing money, directly or indirectly, to an insurer or producer at the request of an insured under the terms of a premium finance agreement, including but not limited to, loan contracts, notes, agreements or obligations, wherein the insured has assigned the unearned premiums, accrued dividends, or loss payments as security for such advancement in payment of premiums on insurance policies only, but does not include the financing of insurance premiums purchased in connection with the financing of goods or services.
(g) "Premium finance transaction" means a transaction by, between, or among an insured, a producer or other party claiming to act on behalf of an insured and a third-party premium finance company, for the purposes of purportedly or actually advancing money directly or indirectly to an insurer or producer at the request of an insured under the terms of a premium finance agreement, wherein the insured has assigned the unearned premiums, accrued dividends, or loan payments as security for such advancement in payment of premiums on insurance policies only, but does not include the financing of insurance premiums purchased in connection with the financing of goods or services.
History:
1976 c 124 s 8 ; 1984 c 628 art 3 s 11 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1987 c 217 s 2 ; 1994 c 636 art 2 s 43 ; 1996 c 408 art 3 s 36
Minn. Stat. § 628.28
628.28 EVIDENCE OF OWNERSHIP.
In the prosecution of any offense committed upon, or in relation to, or in any way affecting real estate, or any offense committed in stealing, destroying, injuring, or fraudulently receiving or concealing any money, goods, or other personal estate, it shall be sufficient, and shall not be deemed a variance, if it shall be proved on trial that, at the time when such offense was committed, either the actual or constructive possession, or the general or special property, in the whole or any part of such real or personal estate, was in the person or community alleged in the indictment or other accusation to be the owner thereof.
History:
( 10663 ) RL s 5321
Minn. Stat. § 62B.02
62B.02 .
(c) "Officer," "director," "employee," and "shareholder" include the spouse and minor children of the officer, director, employee, or shareholder.
(d) "Interest" includes ownership through a spouse or minor children; ownership through a broker, nominee, or agent; and ownership through a corporation, partnership, association, joint venture, or proprietorship.
(e) "Financial institution" means any person who lends money and sells credit insurance to the borrower.
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Subd. 2. Scope and purpose.
This section applies to sales of credit insurance by employees, officers, directors, and shareholders of a financial institution and by corporations, partnerships, associations, and other entities in which these persons have an interest. The purposes of this section are (1) to prohibit employees, officers, directors, members, and shareholders of financial institutions from benefiting personally on the sale of credit insurance to loan customers and (2) to encourage marketing of credit insurance through the use of financial facilities only under arrangements which assure that employees, officers, directors, and shareholders do not receive benefits not shared with all stockholders or members of the financial institution.
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Subd. 3. Distribution of credit insurance income.
No employee, officer, director, or shareholder of a financial institution, nor a corporation, partnership, association, or other entity in which these persons have an interest, may retain commissions or other income from the sale of credit insurance in connection with a loan made by the financial institution. All such income received by these persons or by a corporation, partnership, association, or other entity in which these persons have an interest, must be turned over to the financial institution. Nothing in this section prohibits a financial institution from receiving the income directly in the form of commissions or as compensation for use of its premises, personnel, and good will.
History:
1983 c 250 s 8 ; 1993 c 343 s 1
Minn. Stat. § 62B.09
62B.09 ISSUANCE OF POLICIES.
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Subdivision 1. Regulation.
Policies of credit life insurance and credit accident and health insurance shall be delivered or issued for delivery in this state only by an insurer authorized to do an insurance business in this state and shall be issued only through holders of licenses or authorizations issued by the commissioner.
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Subd. 2. Characterization of premiums.
The premiums for individual policies of credit life or credit accident and health insurance issued to debtors or the cost to debtors under group policies of credit life or credit accident and health insurance issued to creditors, whether or not written by or through any lender or other creditor, its affiliate, associate or subsidiary or a director, officer or employee of any of them, shall not be deemed interest or charges nor consideration or any amount whatsoever for any examination, service, brokerage, commission, compensation for services, incidental expenses or other thing or otherwise, in addition to or in excess of permitted interest or charges in connection with the loan or credit transaction. Any gain, participation or advantage to any lender or other creditor, its affiliate, associates or subsidiary or to a director, officer or employee of any of them arising out of such premium or cost by way of commission, dividend or otherwise, shall not be deemed interest or charges nor consideration or any amount whatsoever for any examination, service, brokerage, commission, compensation for services, incidental expenses or other thing or otherwise, in addition to or in excess of permitted interest or charges in connection with the loan or credit transaction.
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Subd. 3. Creditor's authority.
Any creditor doing business in the state of Minnesota may, in the same office or place of business where such creditor transacts business, take applications or enrollments for credit life insurance, credit accident and health insurance, or credit involuntary unemployment insurance upon a borrower or purchaser or one of them if there are two or more in connection with the making of a loan or sale.
History:
Ex1967 c 2 s 9 ; 1993 c 343 s 23
Minn. Stat. § 62D.045
62D.045 INVESTMENT RESTRICTIONS.
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Subdivision 1. Restrictions.
Funds of a health maintenance organization shall be invested only in securities and property designated by law for investment by domestic life insurance companies, except that money may be used to purchase real estate, including leasehold estates and leasehold improvements, for the convenient accommodation of the organization's business operations, including the home office, branch offices, medical facilities, and field office operations, on the following conditions:
(1) a parcel of real estate acquired under this subdivision may include excess space for rent to others if it is reasonably anticipated that the excess will be required by the organization for expansion or if the excess is reasonably required in order to have one or more buildings that will function as an economic unit;
(2) the real estate may be subject to a mortgage; and
(3) the purchase price of the asset, including capitalized permanent improvements, less depreciation spread evenly over the life of the property or less depreciation computed on any basis permitted under the Internal Revenue Code and its regulations, or the organization's equity, plus all encumbrances on the real estate owned by a company under this subdivision, whichever is greater, does not exceed 20 percent of its admitted assets, except if, when calculated in combination with the assets described in section
Minn. Stat. § 62H.11
62H.11 AGENTS AND BROKERS PROHIBITED FROM ASSISTING REPORTABLE MEWAS PRIOR TO FILING.
(a) No agent or broker may solicit, advertise, or market in this state health benefits or coverage from, or accept an application for, or place coverage for a person who resides in this state with, a reportable MEWA unless the agent or broker first files with the commissioner the information required under section
Minn. Stat. § 62H.12
62H.12 AGENTS AND BROKERS PROHIBITED FROM ASSISTING EMPLOYEE LEASING ARRANGEMENTS PRIOR TO FILING.
(a) No agent or broker may solicit, advertise, or market in this state the services, health benefits, or coverage of an employee leasing arrangement or a person or arrangement which represents itself as an employee leasing arrangement unless the agent or broker first files with the commissioner the information required under section
Minn. Stat. § 62H.13
62H.13 AGENTS AND BROKERS PROHIBITED FROM ASSISTING COLLECTIVELY BARGAINED ARRANGEMENTS PRIOR TO FILING.
(a) No agent or broker may solicit, advertise, or market in this state health benefits or coverage from, or accept an application for, or place coverage for a person who resides in this state with, a collectively bargained arrangement or an arrangement that represents itself as a collectively bargained arrangement unless the agent or broker first files with the commissioner the information required under section
Minn. Stat. § 62H.17
62H.17 , and are governed by the requirements of this section, if the joint self-insurance plan is administrated through a trust established by an agricultural cooperative that:
(1) has members who (i) actively work in production agriculture in Minnesota and file either Form 1065 or Schedule F with the member's income tax return; or (ii) provide direct services to production agriculture in Minnesota;
(2) specifies criteria for membership in the agricultural cooperative in their articles of organization or bylaws, however criteria cannot be based on health status factors of the individuals to be covered through the joint self-insurance plan; and
(3) grants at least 51 percent of the aggregate voting power on matters for which all members may vote to members who satisfy clause (1) and any additional criteria in the agricultural cooperative's articles of organization and bylaws.
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Subd. 3. Plan requirements.
A joint self-insurance plan operating under this section must:
(1) offer health coverage to members of the agricultural cooperative that establishes the plan and their dependents, to employees of members of the agricultural cooperative that establishes the plan and their dependents, or to employees of the agricultural cooperative that establishes the plan and their dependents. Health coverage may be offered only to those individuals who meet certain criteria described in the joint self-insurance plan governing documents, however the criteria cannot be based on health status factors of the individuals to be covered through the joint self-insurance plan;
(2) include stop-loss coverage with an individual attachment point not lower than $20,000 and an aggregate attachment point not lower than 110 percent of expected claims, issued by an insurance company licensed in Minnesota;
(3) establish a reserve fund, certified by an actuary to be sufficient to cover unpaid claim liability for incurred but not reported liabilities in the event of plan termination. Certification from the actuary must include all maximum funding requirements for plan fixed cost requirements and current claims liability requirements, and must include a calculation of the reserve levels needed to fund all incurred but not reported liabilities in the event of member or plan termination. These reserve funds must be held in a trust;
(4) be governed by a board elected by agricultural cooperative members that participate in the plan;
(5) contract for services with a service plan administrator; and
(6) satisfy the requirements of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act that apply to employee welfare benefit plans.
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Subd. 4. Submission of documents to commissioner of commerce.
A joint self-insurance plan operating under this section must submit to the commissioner of commerce copies of all filings and reports that are submitted to the United States Department of Labor according to the Employee Retirement Income Security Act. Members participating in the joint self-insurance plan may designate an agricultural cooperative that establishes the plan as the entity responsible for satisfying the reporting requirements of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act and for providing copies of these filings and reports to the commissioner of commerce.
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Subd. 5. Participation; termination of participation.
If a member chooses to participate in a joint self-insurance plan under this section, the member must participate in the plan for at least three consecutive years. If a member terminates participation in the plan before the end of the three-year period, a financial penalty may be assessed under the plan, not to exceed the amount contributed by the member to the plan reserves.
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Subd. 6. Single risk pool.
The enrollees of a joint self-insurance plan operating under this section shall be members of a single risk pool. The plan shall provide benefits as a single, self-insured plan with the size of the plan based on the total enrollees in the risk pool.
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Subd. 7. Promotion, marketing, sale of coverage.
(a) Coverage in a joint self-insurance plan operating under this section may be promoted, marketed, and sold by insurance agents and brokers to members of the agricultural cooperative sponsoring the plan and their dependents, employees of members of the agricultural cooperative sponsoring the plan and their dependents, and employees of the agricultural cooperative sponsoring the plan and their dependents.
(b) Coverage in a joint self-insurance plan operating under this section may be promoted and marketed by a cooperative organized under chapter 308A or 308B to persons who may be eligible to participate in the joint self-insurance plan.
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Subd. 8. Taxation.
Joint self-insurance plans are exempt from the taxation imposed under section 297I.05, subdivision 12 .
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Subd. 9. Compliance with other laws.
A joint self-insurance plan operating under this section:
(1) is exempt from providing the mandated health benefits in chapters 62A and 62Q, if the plan otherwise provides the benefits required under the Employee Retirement Income Security Act;
(2) is exempt from the continuation requirements in sections
Minn. Stat. § 62H.18
62H.18 AGRICULTURAL COOPERATIVE HEALTH PLAN.
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Subdivision 1. Definitions.
(a) The definitions in this subdivision apply to this section.
(b) "Agricultural cooperative" means a cooperative organized under chapter 308A or 308B that meets the requirements of subdivision 2.
(c) "Broker" means an insurance agent engaged in brokerage business according to section
Minn. Stat. § 62Q.17
62Q.17 , to any association as defined by section 60A.02, subdivision 1a , or to a multiple employer trust, or to the trustee of a fund, established or adopted by two or more employers or maintained for the benefit of members of an association, where officers, members, employees, or classes or divisions thereof, may be insured for their individual benefit.
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Subd. 2. Group accidental death and group disability income policies.
Group accidental death insurance and group disability income insurance policies may be issued in connection with first real estate mortgage loans to cover groups of not less than ten debtors of a creditor written under a master policy issued to a creditor to insure its debtors in connection with first real estate mortgage loans, in amounts not to exceed the actual or scheduled amount of their indebtedness. No other accident and health coverages may be issued in connection with first real estate mortgage loans on a group basis to a debtor-creditor group.
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Subd. 3. Authority to issue.
Any insurer authorized to write accident and health insurance in this state shall have power to issue group accident and health policies.
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Subd. 4. Policy forms.
No policy or certificate of group accident and health insurance may be issued or delivered in this state unless the same has been approved by the commissioner in accordance with section
Minn. Stat. § 64B.24
64B.24 TAXATION.
Fraternal benefit societies are declared to be charitable institutions, and the property held and used for lodge purposes, and the funds of these societies shall be exempt from taxation under the general tax or revenue laws of this state, except that the real estate of the society shall be taxable. Insurance premiums paid to a fraternal benefit society are exempt from the taxes imposed under chapter 297I.
History:
1985 c 49 s 24 ; 2000 c 394 art 2 s 18
Minn. Stat. § 64B.39
64B.39 BENEFICIARY ASSOCIATIONS.
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Subdivision 1. Definitions.
"Beneficiary association" means a corporation, society, or voluntary association heretofore organized and now existing and carried on for the sole benefit of its members and their families, relatives, or dependents, but not for profit, to insure the lives of its members only upon the whole life assessment plan, so-called, and in which organization admission to membership by a vote of the members or some governing body thereof, is a prerequisite to being entitled to such relief or policy of insurance, and which association sells neither endowments nor annuities.
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Subd. 2. Benefits.
Any beneficiary association may make provisions for the payment of benefits in case of sickness, or temporary or permanent physical disability, as a result of disease, accident, or age exceeding 70 years, and may also provide for the payment of funeral expenses of a member not exceeding $250; in any case, all of these benefits to be paid, subject to compliance by its members with its constitution and bylaws, out of funds derived from assessments and dues collected from its members.
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Subd. 3. Eligible beneficiaries.
Payments of death benefits shall be made only to the families, heirs, blood relatives, adopted children, fiance or fiancee of the member, or persons dependent upon the member, or, when the certificate of membership may so provide, the executor or administrator of the estate of the member in trust for the person or persons above mentioned as may be designated in the certificate. Any member who, by reason of old age, or other disability, is dependent for support, in whole or in part, upon another, whether or not such other stands in the above relationship to the member, may, with the consent of the association, and under regulations it prescribes, designate the person upon whom the member is so dependent as a beneficiary under the certificate; and, in that case, the death benefits shall be paid according to this designation.
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Subd. 4. Reserve; taxation.
Every association may create and maintain a reserve fund for that purpose and shall be held to be an institution of public charity, and shall be exempt from payment of any taxes for state, county, or municipal purposes, except that the real estate of the association shall be taxed as other real estate in the state.
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Subd. 5. Law applicable.
The beneficiary society or association shall be governed by the provisions of this chapter not inconsistent with this section and be excluded from all provisions of the insurance laws of this state to the same extent as fraternal benefit societies.
History:
1985 c 49 s 39 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1992 c 564 art 1 s 54
Minn. Stat. § 65A.302
65A.302 FLOOD INSURANCE COVERAGE; DISCLOSURE OF NONCOVERAGE.
Every insurer shall annually provide a written notice to the policyholder entitled "Important Information About Damage Caused by Flooding." This title must be in at least 18-point type. The notice must disclose that the policy does not cover damage caused by flooding and disclose sufficient information to allow the policyholder to contact the National Flood Insurance Program to inquire about purchasing flood insurance. The following language satisfies the notice requirements of this section:
"The policy does not cover damage to your property caused by flooding. Flood insurance is available to communities and property that participate in the National Flood Insurance Program ("NFIP"). Not all communities participate in the NFIP. Flood insurance may be available even if you do not live in a flood hazard area as defined by the NFIP. If your community does not participate in the NFIP, you may contact your insurance agent or broker to see if there is other flood insurance coverage available to you."
The disclosure may also inform the policyholders that the insurer offers flood insurance as a participant in the NFIP's "Write Your Own" program.
History:
2008 c 293 s 1
Minn. Stat. § 65A.375
65A.375 RATES.
The commissioner shall set the insurance rates for cooperative housing, organized under chapter 308A, and for neighborhood real estate trusts, characterized as nonprofit ownership of real estate with resident control. The rates must be actuarially sound. All other rates used by the Minnesota FAIR plan must be approved by the commissioner prior to use.
History:
1987 c 337 s 94 ; 1989 c 356 s 5 ; 1993 c 248 s 11 ; 2003 c 40 s 15
Minn. Stat. § 65A.41
65A.41 AGENTS.
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Subdivision 1. Generally.
A person licensed under chapter 60K may submit an application for coverage to the Minnesota FAIR plan and receive a commission from the plan for premiums paid for coverage. However, the licensee is not an agent of the Minnesota FAIR plan for purposes of state law. All checks or similar instruments submitted in payment of plan premiums must be made payable to the Minnesota FAIR plan and not the agent.
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Subd. 2. Duty to submit application.
An agent or broker shall not refuse to submit an application for basic property insurance coverage to the Minnesota FAIR plan if licensed to write and actively engaged in writing such insurance.
History:
1969 c 483 s 11 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1993 c 248 s 15 ; 2003 c 40 s 19
Minn. Stat. § 66A.08
66A.08 REQUIREMENTS.
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Subdivision 1. Casualty lines.
No mutual insurance company hereafter organized shall be licensed to transact any of the kinds of business specified in section 60A.06, subdivision 1 , clause (3), (5), (6), (8), (9), (10), (12), (13), (14), or (15), except upon compliance with the following conditions:
(1) It shall have not less than 300 bona fide applications for policies of insurance of each kind sought to be written, signed by at least 300 members, covering at least 300 separate risks, each risk, within the maximum net single risk described in clause (2) and one year's premiums thereon paid in cash, and admitted assets of not less than $100,000, which admitted assets shall not be less than five times the maximum net single risk, and shall have on deposit with the commissioner in accordance with section 60A.10, subdivision 4 , as security for all of its policyholders, stock or bonds of this state or of the United States or bonds of any of the municipalities of this state, or personal obligations secured by first mortgage on real estate within this state worth, exclusive of buildings, the amount of the lien, and bearing interest of not less than three percent per annum, to an amount the actual market value of which, exclusive of interest, shall never be less than $100,000;
(2) It shall not expose itself to any loss on any one risk or hazard, except as provided in this clause, in an amount exceeding ten percent of its net assets, actual and contingent. For the purposes of this section contingent assets mean the aggregate amount of the contingent liability of its members for the payment of loss and expenses not provided for by its cash funds. Contingent liability, for the purposes of this section, means an amount not to exceed one annual premium as stated in the policy. No portion of any risk or hazard which has been reinsured, as authorized by the laws of this state, shall be included in determining the limitation of risk prescribed by this section. For the purpose of transacting employers' liability and workers' compensation insurance, each employee shall be considered a separate risk for determining the maximum single risk;
(3) It shall maintain unearned premiums and other reserves, separately for each kind of business, upon the same basis as that required of domestic stock insurance companies transacting the same kind of business;
(4) Except as expressly provided in this chapter, it shall comply with all the provisions of the laws of this state relating to the organization and internal management of mutual fire insurance companies in so far as the same may be applicable and not inconsistent with chapter 66A.
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Subd. 2. Fire lines.
(1) General. No policy shall be issued by a mutual fire insurance company hereafter organized until not less than $750,000 of insurance, in not less than 300 separate risks, upon property located in this state, has been subscribed for and entered upon the books and the premiums thereon for one year paid in cash, which premiums shall aggregate not less than $7,500 in cash.
(2) Exceptions. When the mutual insurance company is organized to issue policies exclusively upon one of the specified lines of business listed below, it may issue policies insuring such risks by complying with the following requirements:
(a) Those organized to insure creamery and cheese factory buildings, their contents and equipments, and the dwelling house and contents, and barn, livestock, and vehicles of the owner of the creamery or factory, may issue policies when not less than $50,000 of insurance, in not less than 25 separate risks, upon these buildings and contents in this state, has been subscribed for and so entered and the premiums thereon for one year paid in cash, which premiums shall aggregate not less than $1,000 in cash; and the name of every such company shall include the words "Mutual creamery fire insurance company," and it shall issue no policy except upon the class of risks aforesaid.
Any company heretofore organized and doing business under this clause, which for 15 years prior to the passage of Laws 1935, chapter 97, has insured creamery and cheese factory buildings, their contents and equipments, and the dwelling houses and contents and barn, livestock, and vehicles of the owner of the creamery or factory, and which has assets of $100,000, may issue policies in addition thereto to cover farmers' elevators, cooperatively owned warehouses, cooperative filling stations, cooperative oil companies, and all cooperatively owned or organized enterprises;
(b) Those organized to insure the stock in trade, tools, and fixtures of retail hardware dealers, the buildings containing the same, and the dwelling house and its contents, barns, livestock, and vehicles owned by these dealers, may issue policies when not less than $500,000 of insurance, in not less than 200 separate risks, upon such property in this state, has been subscribed for and entered upon its books and the premiums thereon for one year paid in cash, which premiums shall aggregate not less than $5,000 in cash; and the name of every such company shall include the words "Mutual retail hardware fire insurance company," and it shall issue no policy except as above specified;
(c) Those organized to insure dwelling houses, their contents, barns, livestock, and vehicles, exclusively, may issue policies when not less than $250,000 of insurance, in not less than 200 separate risks, upon such property located within this state, has been subscribed for and entered upon their books and the premiums thereon for one year paid in cash, which premiums shall aggregate not less than $2,500 in cash; and the name of every such company shall include the words "Mutual dwelling house fire insurance company," and it shall issue no policy except upon the class of risks aforesaid;
(d) Those organized to insure printing material, machinery, and stock in trade of newspaper publishers and printers, the buildings containing the same, and the dwelling house and its contents, barns, livestock, and vehicles, when such buildings and contents are owned and occupied by the owner of the printing material, machinery, and stock in trade may issue policies when not less than $200,000 of insurance, in not less than 200 separate risks, upon such property located in this state, has been subscribed for and entered upon such companies' books and the premiums thereon for one year paid in cash, which premiums shall aggregate not less than $2,000 in cash; and the name of every such company shall include the words "Mutual publishers' fire insurance company," and it shall issue no policy except upon the class of risks aforesaid;
(e) Those organized to insure grain elevators, warehouses and cribs, machinery, grain, sacks, and tools appurtenant to or contained in such elevators, warehouses, and cribs, and dwelling house and contents, barns, livestock, and vehicles when such buildings and contents are owned and occupied by the owner of the grain elevator, may issue such policies when not less than $100,000 of insurance, in not less than 50 separate risks, upon such property in this state, has been subscribed for and entered upon the books of such companies and the premiums thereon for one year paid in cash, which premiums shall aggregate not less than $1,000 in cash; and the name of the company shall include the words "Mutual grain dealers' fire insurance company," and it shall issue no policy except upon the class of risks aforesaid; and
(f) Those organized to insure exclusively the property of any one church or any one religious denomination, and the church property and equipment and furnishings thereof of any one church or any one religious denomination may issue policies when not less than $100,000, in not less than 50 separate risks, upon these properties, has been subscribed for and so entered, and the premiums thereon for one year paid in cash, which premiums shall aggregate not less than $1,000 in cash; and the name of every such company shall include the words "Mutual denominational fire insurance company," and it shall issue no policy except upon the class of risks aforesaid. This section shall not be construed as a repeal of section
Minn. Stat. § 67A.231
67A.231 DEPOSIT OF FUNDS; INVESTMENT; LIMITATIONS.
The directors of any township mutual insurance company may authorize the treasurer to invest any of its funds and accumulations in:
(a) Bonds, notes, mortgages, or other obligations guaranteed by the full faith and credit of the United States of America and those for which the credit of the United States is pledged to pay principal, interest or dividends, including United States agency and instrumentality bonds, debentures, or obligations;
(b) Bonds, notes, evidence of indebtedness, or other public authority obligations guaranteed by this state;
(c) Bonds, notes, evidence of the indebtedness or other obligations guaranteed by the full faith and credit of any county, municipality, school district, or other duly authorized political subdivision of this state;
(d) Bonds or other interest bearing obligations, payable from revenues, provided that the bonds or other interest bearing obligations are at the time of purchase rated among the highest four quality categories used by a nationally recognized rating agency for rating the quality of similar bonds or other interest bearing obligations, and are not rated lower by any other such agency; or obligations of a United States agency or instrumentality that have been rated in one of the two highest categories established by the Securities Valuation Office of the National Association of Insurance Commissioners. A company may not invest more than 20 percent of its admitted assets in the obligations of any one corporation. This is not applicable to bonds or other interest bearing obligations in default as to principal;
(e) Investments in the obligations stated in paragraphs (a), (b), (c), and (d), may be made either directly or in the form of securities of, or other interests in, an investment company registered under the federal Investment Company Act of 1940. Investment company shares authorized pursuant to this subdivision shall not exceed 20 percent of the company's surplus. These obligations must be carried at the lower of cost or market on the annual statement filed with the commissioner and adjusted to market on an annual basis;
(f) Loans upon improved and unencumbered real property in this state worth at least twice the amount loaned thereon, not including buildings, unless insured by property insurance policies payable to and held by the security holder;
(g) Real estate, including land, buildings and fixtures, located in this state and used primarily as home office space for the insurance company;
(h) Demand or time deposits or savings accounts in federally insured depositories located in any state to the extent that the deposit or investment is insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation or the National Credit Union Administration. An additional deposit not to exceed 50 percent of the township mutual insurance company's policyholder surplus may be located in these depositories if covered by private deposit insurance written by an insurer licensed by the Department of Commerce;
(i) Guarantee fund certificates of a mutual insurer which reinsures the business of the township mutual insurance company. The commissioner may by rule limit the amount of guarantee fund certificates which the township mutual insurance company may purchase and this limit may be a function of the size of the township mutual insurance company;
(j) Up to $1,500 in stock of an insurer which issues directors and officers liability insurance to township mutual insurance company directors and officers;
(k) Up to $10,000 in shares of stock of the National Association of Mutual Insurance Companies bank, subject to the commissioner's approval; and
(l) Overnight repurchase agreements with the depository that handles the company's primary accounts under paragraph (h). The repurchase agreements must be collateralized by securities that the company is otherwise authorized to invest in under this section. The securities must have an aggregate market value of at least 105 percent of the total amount invested under the repurchase agreement.
History:
1981 c 127 s 1 ; 1987 c 337 s 112 ; 1995 c 214 s 16 ; 1997 c 222 s 8 ; 1998 c 297 s 2 ; 1999 c 52 s 1
Minn. Stat. § 68A.01
68A.01 REAL ESTATE TITLE INSURANCE COMPANIES.
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Subdivision 1.
[Repealed, 1969 c 7 s 30 ]
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Subd. 2. Guaranty fund and investment thereof.
Before issuing any policy or other contract of guaranty or insurance, every real estate title insurer shall set apart and keep separate a guaranty fund of $100,000 or an amount equal to two-fifths of its capital stock whichever is the greater. The guaranty fund shall be invested according to law.
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Subd. 3. Deposit of guaranty fund.
The securities in which the guaranty fund is invested shall be duly deposited with the commissioner in accordance with section 60A.10, subdivision 4 , and the commissioner's certificate thereof procured, as provided by law. This deposit shall be maintained unimpaired and the principal of the fund shall be applied only to the payments of losses and expenses by reason of its guaranty and insurance contracts, with the right to the company to collect the income thereof and to substitute other like securities of equal amount and value from time to time. In the case of a foreign insurer, the deposit may be made with the commissioner of the domicile state of such foreign insurer and that commissioner's certificate thereof shall be accepted by the commissioner.
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Subd. 4. Investment of other funds.
After the investment of such portion of its capital stock as hereinbefore provided and the deposit of the securities in its guaranty fund as aforesaid the remainder of its capital stock and funds may be invested in such securities, records, and equipment as the board of directors or the board of trustees of the company shall determine to be suitable for the transaction of its business, unless otherwise limited by this chapter.
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Subd. 5. Other powers.
In addition to the powers now possessed, these companies are authorized to make abstracts of title to real property for compensation.
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Subd. 6. Admitted asset standards.
An investment in a title plant or plants in an amount equal to the actual cost must be allowed as an admitted asset for title insurers. The aggregate amount of the investment must not exceed the lesser of 20 percent of admitted assets or 40 percent of surplus to policyholders, both as required to be shown on the statutory balance sheet of the insurer for its most recently filed statement with the commissioner. If the amount of the investment exceeds the limits in this subdivision, the excess amount must be recorded as a nonadmitted asset.
History:
1967 c 395 art 9 s 1 ; 1969 c 7 s 29 ; 1969 c 253 s 1 ,2; 1974 c 425 s 9 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1991 c 325 art 21 s 7 ; 2000 c 350 s 11 ,12; 2014 c 198 art 4 s 9
Minn. Stat. § 7080.2150
7080.2150 , subpart 3, item A. The local standards must include references to applicable requirements under other state laws or rules or local ordinances. Nothing in this paragraph prevents a local subsurface sewage treatment system ordinance from including provisions of the current rule as part of the alternative local standards.
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Subd. 8.
[Repealed, 1Sp2001 c 2 s 162 ]
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Subd. 9. Warrantied systems.
(a) A subsurface sewage treatment system may be installed provided that it meets all local ordinance requirements and provided the requirements of paragraphs (b) to (e) are met.
(b) The manufacturer shall provide to the commissioner:
(1) documentation that the manufacturer's system was designated by the agency as a warrantied system as of June 30, 2001, or the system is a modified version of the system that was designated as a warrantied system and meets the size requirements or other requirements that were the basis for the previous warrantied system classification; or
(2) documentation showing that a minimum of 50 of the manufacturer's systems have been installed and operated and are under normal use across all major soil classifications for a minimum of three years.
(c) For each system that meets the requirements of paragraph (b), clause (1) or (2), the manufacturer must provide to the commissioner:
(1) documentation that the system manufacturer or designer will provide full warranty effective for at least five years from the time of installation, covering design, labor, and material costs to remedy failure to meet performance expectations for systems used and installed in accordance with the manufacturer's or designer's instructions; and
(2) a commonly accepted financial assurance document or documentation of the manufacturer's or designer's financial ability to cover potential replacement and upgrades necessitated by failure of the system to meet the performance expectations for the duration of the warranty period.
(d) The manufacturer shall reimburse the agency an amount of $2,000 for staff services needed to review the information submitted pursuant to paragraphs (b) and (c). Reimbursements accepted by the agency shall be deposited in the environmental fund and are appropriated to the agency for the purpose of reviewing information submitted. Reimbursement by the manufacturer shall precede, not be contingent upon, and shall not affect the agency's decision on whether the submittal meets the requirements of paragraphs (b) and (c).
(e) The manufacturer shall provide to the local unit of government reasonable assurance of performance of the manufacturer's system, engineering design of the manufacturer's system, a monitoring plan that will be provided to system owners, and a mitigation plan that will be provided to system owners describing actions to be taken if the system fails.
(f) The commissioner may prohibit a subsurface sewage treatment system from qualifying for installation under this subdivision upon a finding of fraud, system failure, failure to meet warranty conditions, or failure to meet the requirements of this subdivision or other matters that fail to meet with the intent and purpose of this subdivision. Prohibition of installation of a system by the commissioner does not alter or end warranty obligations for systems already installed.
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Subd. 10.
[Repealed, 2009 c 109 s 15 ]
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Subd. 11. Straight-pipe systems; noncompliance.
An inspector who discovers the existence of a straight-pipe system shall issue a noncompliance notice to the owner of the straight-pipe system and forward a copy of the notice to the agency. The notice must state that the owner must replace or discontinue the use of the straight-pipe system within ten months of receiving the notice. If the owner does not replace or discontinue the use of the straight-pipe system within ten months after the notice was received, the owner of the straight-pipe system shall be subject to an administrative penalty of $500 per month of noncompliance beyond the ten-month period. Administrative penalty orders may be issued for violations under this subdivision, as provided in section 116.072. One-half of the proceeds collected from an administrative penalty order issued for violating this subdivision shall be remitted to the local unit of government with jurisdiction over the noncompliant straight-pipe system.
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Subd. 12. Subsurface sewage treatment systems; county management plan.
A county may adopt a subsurface sewage treatment system management plan that describes how the county plans on carrying out subsurface sewage treatment system needs.
§
Subd. 13. Subsurface Sewage Treatment Systems Implementation and Enforcement Task Force.
(a) By September 1, 2010, the agency shall appoint a Subsurface Sewage Treatment Systems Implementation and Enforcement Task Force in collaboration with the Association of Minnesota Counties, Minnesota Association of Realtors, Minnesota Association of County Planning and Zoning Administrators, and the Minnesota Onsite Wastewater Association. The agency shall work in collaboration with the task force to develop effective and timely implementation and enforcement methods in order to rapidly reduce the number of subsurface sewage treatment systems that are an imminent threat to public health or safety and effectively enforce all violations of the subsurface sewage treatment system rules. The agency shall meet at least three times per year with the task force to address implementation and enforcement issues. The meetings shall be scheduled so that they do not interfere with the construction season.
(b) The agency, in collaboration with the task force and in consultation with the attorney general, county attorneys, and county planning and zoning staff, shall develop, periodically update, and provide to counties enforcement protocols and a checklist that county inspectors, field staff, and others may use when inspecting subsurface sewage treatment systems and enforcing subsurface sewage treatment system rules.
History:
1994 c 617 s 1 ; 1995 c 233 art 1 s 5 ; 1996 c 427 s 1 ; 1997 c 235 s 1 -7; 1997 c 251 s 17 ; 3Sp1997 c 3 s 12 ; 1998 c 401 s 40 ; 1999 c 231 s 130 ; 2000 c 320 s 1 ; 1Sp2001 c 2 s 121 ; 2002 c 293 s 1 ; 2002 c 382 art 1 s 1 ; 2003 c 128 art 1 s 123 ; 2004 c 248 s 1 ; 2004 c 249 s 1 ; 1Sp2005 c 1 art 2 s 126 ; 2006 c 224 s 1 ,2; 2007 c 13 art 1 s 6 ; 2007 c 57 art 1 s 136 -139; 2009 c 109 s 1 -9,14; 2010 c 361 art 4 s 62 ; 2011 c 107 s 80 ; 2012 c 272 s 62 ; 2014 c 286 art 2 s 3 ; 1Sp2015 c 4 art 4 s 102 ; 2023 c 25 s 29
Minn. Stat. § 72A.204
72A.204 PROHIBITED USES OF SENIOR-SPECIFIC CERTIFICATIONS AND PROFESSIONAL DESIGNATIONS.
§
Subdivision 1. Purpose and scope.
The purpose of this section is to set forth standards to protect consumers from misleading and fraudulent marketing practices with respect to the use of senior-specific certifications and professional designations in:
(1) the solicitation, sale, or purchase of a life insurance or annuity product; or
(2) the provision of advice in connection with the solicitation, sale, or purchase of a life insurance or annuity product.
§
Subd. 2. Insurance producer.
For purposes of this section, "insurance producer" means a person required to be licensed under the laws of this state to sell, solicit, or negotiate insurance, including annuities.
§
Subd. 3. Prohibited uses of senior-specific certifications and professional designations.
(a) It is an unfair and deceptive act or practice in the business of insurance for an insurance producer to use a senior-specific certification or professional designation that indicates or implies in such a way as to mislead a client or prospective client that the insurance producer has special certification or training in advising or servicing seniors in connection with the solicitation, sale, or purchase of a life insurance or annuity product or in the provision of advice as to the value of or the advisability of purchasing or selling a life insurance or annuity product, either directly or indirectly, including the provision of advice through publications or writings or by issuing or promulgating analyses or reports related to a life insurance or annuity product.
(b) The prohibited use of senior-specific certifications or professional designations includes, but is not limited to, the following:
(1) use of a certification or professional designation by an insurance producer who has not actually earned or is otherwise ineligible to use such certification or designation;
(2) use of a nonexistent or self-conferred certification or professional designation;
(3) use of a certification or professional designation that indicates or implies a level of occupational qualifications obtained through education, training, or experience that the insurance producer using the certification or designation does not have; and
(4) use of a certification or professional designation that was obtained from a certifying or designating organization that:
(i) is primarily engaged in the business of instruction in sales or marketing;
(ii) does not have reasonable standards or procedures for ensuring the competency of its certificants or designees;
(iii) does not have reasonable standards or procedures for monitoring and disciplining its certificants or designees for improper or unethical conduct; or
(iv) does not have reasonable continuing education requirements for its certificants or designees in order to maintain the certificate or designation.
(c) There is a rebuttable presumption that a certifying or designating organization is not disqualified solely for the purposes of paragraph (b), clause (4), when the certification or designation issued from the organization does not primarily apply to sales or marketing and when the organization or the certification or designation in question has been accredited by:
(1) the American National Standards Institute (ANSI);
(2) the National Commission for Certifying Agencies; or
(3) any organization that is on the United States Department of Education list entitled "Accrediting Agencies Recognized for Title IV Purposes."
(d) In determining whether a combination of words or an acronym standing for a combination of words constitutes a certification or professional designation indicating or implying that a person has special certification or training in advising or servicing seniors, factors to be considered must include:
(1) use of one or more words such as "senior," "retirement," "elder," or like words combined with one or more words such as "certified," "registered," "chartered," "adviser," "specialist," "consultant," "planner," or like words, in the name of the certification or professional designation; and
(2) the manner in which those words are combined.
(e) For purposes of this section, a job title within an organization that is licensed or registered by a state or federal financial services regulatory agency is not a certification or professional designation, unless it is used in a manner that would confuse or mislead a reasonable consumer, when the job title:
(1) indicates seniority or standing within the organization; or
(2) specifies an individual's area of specialization within the organization.
(f) For purposes of paragraph (e), "financial services regulatory agency" includes, but is not limited to, an agency that regulates insurers, insurance producers, broker-dealers, investment advisers, or investment companies as defined under the Investment Company Act of 1940.
History:
2009 c 178 art 1 s 43
Minn. Stat. § 72A.505
72A.505 .
§
Subd. 3. General right of rescission.
A viatical settlement contract entered into in this state shall provide the viator with an absolute right to rescind the contract before the earlier of 30 calendar days after the date upon which the viatical settlement contract is executed by all parties or 15 calendar days after the viatical settlement proceeds have been sent to the viator as provided in subdivision 6. Rescission by the viator may be conditioned upon the viator both giving notice and repaying to the viatical settlement provider within the rescission period all proceeds of the settlement and any premiums, loans, and loan interest paid by or on behalf of the viatical settlement provider in connection with or as a consequence of the viatical settlement. If the insured dies during the rescission period, the viatical settlement contract is deemed to have been rescinded, subject to repayment to the viatical settlement provider or purchaser of all viatical settlement proceeds, and any premiums, loans, and loan interest that have been paid by the viatical settlement provider or purchaser, which shall be paid within 60 calendar days of the death of the insured. In the event of any rescission, if the viatical settlement provider has paid commissions or other compensation to a viatical settlement broker in connection with the rescinded transaction, the viatical settlement broker shall refund all commissions and compensation to the viatical settlement provider within five business days following receipt of written demand from the viatical settlement provider, which demand shall be accompanied by either the viator's notice of rescission if rescinded at the election of the viator, or notice of the death of the insured if rescinded by reason of the death of the insured within the applicable rescission period.
§
Subd. 4. Right to rescind after mandated disclosures.
The purchaser shall have the right to rescind a viatical settlement contract within three days after the disclosures mandated by section
Minn. Stat. § 72B.092
72B.092 MOTOR VEHICLE INSURANCE ADJUSTMENTS; PROHIBITIONS.
§
Subdivision 1. Prohibitions on insurer.
No adjuster or insurer, director, officer, broker, agent, attorney-in-fact, employee, or other representative of an insurer shall in collision cases:
(1) limit the freedom of an insured or claimant to choose the shop;
(2) require that an insured or claimant present the claim or the automobile for loss adjustment or inspection at a "drive-in" claim center or any other similar facility solely under the control of the insurer;
(3) engage in boycotts, intimidation or coercive tactics in negotiating repairs to damaged motor vehicles which they insure or are liable to claimants to have repaired;
(4) attempt to secure, except in an emergency, the insured's or claimant's signature authorizing the party securing the signature to act in behalf of the insured or claimant in selection of a repair shop facility;
(5) adjust a damage appraisal of a repair shop when the extent of damage is in dispute without conducting a physical inspection of the vehicle;
(6) specify the use of a particular vendor for the procurement of parts or other materials necessary for the satisfactory repair of the vehicle. This clause does not require the insurer to pay more than a reasonable market price for parts of like kind and quality in adjusting a claim; or
(7) unilaterally and arbitrarily disregard a repair operation or cost identified by an estimating system, which an insurer and collision repair facility have agreed to utilize in determining the cost of repair.
§
Subd. 2. Boycotts.
No motor vehicle repair shop shall in any way coerce, or intimidate a motor vehicle owner to boycott an insurer's "drive-in" claim center or similar facility.
§
Subd. 3. Owner's signature.
No motor vehicle repair shop shall attempt to secure, except in an emergency, the vehicle owner's signature authorizing the party securing the signature to act in behalf of the owner in selection of a repair shop.
§
Subd. 4. Access to repair shop.
An insurer's representative shall not be unreasonably denied access to a motor vehicle repair shop during normal business hours for the purpose of inspecting or reinspecting damaged vehicles.
§
Subd. 5. Storage and towing charges.
When a damaged vehicle is towed to a motor vehicle repair shop, the storage and towing charges shall not exceed the usual and customary charges for the towing and storage of undamaged vehicles in the area except if the vehicle, due to its damaged condition, requires special handling in the towing or storage, an added charge may be made.
History:
1980 c 456 s 3 ; 1986 c 444 ; 2007 c 80 s 1 ; 2008 c 284 s 1
Minn. Stat. § 79.01
79.01 ;
(8) the Minnesota Life and Health Insurance Guaranty Association governed by chapter 61B;
(9) the Minnesota Insurance Guaranty Association governed by chapter 60C;
(10) the Minnesota Joint Underwriting Association governed by chapter 62I;
(11) all insurers providing credit life, credit accident and health, and credit involuntary unemployment insurance under chapter 62B, but also including those coverages written in connection with real estate mortgage loans and those provided to borrowers at no additional cost;
(12) the Minnesota unemployment insurance program provided under chapter 268;
(13) coverage offered by the state under medical assistance and MinnesotaCare; and
(14) any other plan providing health, life, disability income, or long-term care coverage.
(b) A third-party tortfeasor who is required to make payments, including future payments, to a survivor may not eliminate or reduce those payments as a result of compensation paid to a survivor under section
Minn. Stat. § 80A.41
80A.41 SECTION 102; DEFINITIONS.
In this chapter, unless the context otherwise requires:
(1) "Accredited investor" means an accredited investor as the term is defined in Rule 501(a) of Regulation D adopted pursuant to the Securities Act of 1933.
(2) "Administrator" means the commissioner of commerce.
(3) "Agent" means an individual, other than a broker-dealer, who represents a broker-dealer in effecting or attempting to effect purchases or sales of securities or represents an issuer in effecting or attempting to effect purchases or sales of the issuer's securities. But a partner, officer, or director of a broker-dealer or issuer, or an individual having a similar status or performing similar functions is an agent only if the individual otherwise comes within the term. The term does not include an individual excluded by rule adopted or order issued under this chapter.
(4) "Bank" means:
(A) a banking institution organized under the laws of the United States;
(B) a member bank of the Federal Reserve System;
(C) any other banking institution, whether incorporated or not, doing business under the laws of a state or of the United States, a substantial portion of the business of which consists of receiving deposits or exercising fiduciary powers similar to those permitted to be exercised by national banks under the authority of the Comptroller of the Currency pursuant to Section 1 of Public Law 87-722 (12 U.S.C. Section 92a), and which is supervised and examined by a state or federal agency having supervision over banks, and which is not operated for the purpose of evading this chapter; and
(D) a receiver, conservator, or other liquidating agent of any institution or firm included in subparagraph (A), (B), or (C).
(5) "Broker-dealer" means a person engaged in the business of effecting transactions in securities for the account of others or for the person's own account. The term does not include:
(A) an agent;
(B) an issuer;
(C) a depository institution; provided such activities are conducted in accordance with such rules as may be adopted by the administrator;
(D) an international banking institution; or
(E) a person excluded by rule adopted or order issued under this chapter.
(6) "Depository institution" means:
(A) a bank; or
(B) a savings institution, trust company, credit union, or similar institution that is organized or chartered under the laws of a state or of the United States, authorized to receive deposits, and supervised and examined by an official or agency of a state or the United States if its deposits or share accounts are insured to the maximum amount authorized by statute by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, the National Credit Union Share Insurance Fund, or a successor authorized by federal law. The term does not include:
(i) an insurance company or other organization primarily engaged in the business of insurance;
(ii) a Morris Plan bank; or
(iii) an industrial loan company that is not an "insured depository institution" as defined in section 3(c)(2) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, United States Code, title 12, section 1813(c)(2), or any successor federal statute.
(7) "Federal covered investment adviser" means a person registered under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940.
(8) "Federal covered security" means a security that is, or upon completion of a transaction will be, a covered security under Section 18(b) of the Securities Act of 1933 (15 U.S.C. Section 77r(b)) or rules or regulations adopted pursuant to that provision.
(9) "Filing" means the receipt under this chapter of a record by the administrator or a designee of the administrator.
(10) "Fraud," "deceit," and "defraud" are not limited to common law deceit.
(11) "Guaranteed" means guaranteed as to payment of all principal and all interest.
(12) "Institutional investor" means any of the following, whether acting for itself or for others in a fiduciary capacity:
(A) a depository institution or international banking institution;
(B) an insurance company;
(C) a separate account of an insurance company;
(D) an investment company as defined in the Investment Company Act of 1940;
(E) a broker-dealer registered under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934;
(F) an employee pension, profit-sharing, or benefit plan if the plan has total assets in excess of $10,000,000 or its investment decisions are made by a named fiduciary, as defined in the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, that is a broker-dealer registered under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, an investment adviser registered or exempt from registration under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940, an investment adviser registered under this chapter, a depository institution, or an insurance company;
(G) a plan established and maintained by a state, a political subdivision of a state, or an agency or instrumentality of a state or a political subdivision of a state for the benefit of its employees, if the plan has total assets in excess of $10,000,000 or its investment decisions are made by a duly designated public official or by a named fiduciary, as defined in the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, that is a broker-dealer registered under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, an investment adviser registered or exempt from registration under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940, an investment adviser registered under this chapter, a depository institution, or an insurance company;
(H) a trust, if it has total assets in excess of $10,000,000, its trustee is a depository institution, and its participants are exclusively plans of the types identified in subparagraph (F) or (G), regardless of the size of their assets, except a trust that includes as participants self-directed individual retirement accounts or similar self-directed plans;
(I) an organization described in Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. Section 501(c)(3)), corporation, Massachusetts trust or similar business trust, limited liability company, or partnership, not formed for the specific purpose of acquiring the securities offered, with total assets in excess of $10,000,000;
(J) a small business investment company licensed by the Small Business Administration under Section 301(c) of the Small Business Investment Act of 1958 (15 U.S.C. Section 681(c)) with total assets in excess of $10,000,000;
(K) a private business development company as defined in Section 202(a)(22) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. Section 80b-2(a)(22)) with total assets in excess of $10,000,000;
(L) a federal covered investment adviser acting for its own account;
(M) a "qualified institutional buyer" as defined in Rule 144A(a)(1), other than Rule 144A(a)(1)(i)(H), adopted under the Securities Act of 1933 (17 C.F.R. 230.144A);
(N) a "major U.S. institutional investor" as defined in Rule 15a-6(b)(4)(i) adopted under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (17 C.F.R. 240.15a-6);
(O) any other person, other than an individual or a private fund, of institutional character with total assets in excess of $10,000,000 not organized for the specific purpose of evading this chapter; or
(P) any other person specified by rule adopted or order issued under this chapter.
(13) "Insurance company" means a company organized as an insurance company whose primary business is writing insurance or reinsuring risks underwritten by insurance companies and which is subject to supervision by the insurance commissioner or a similar official or agency of a state.
(14) "Insured" means insured as to payment of all principal and all interest.
(15) "International banking institution" means an international financial institution of which the United States is a member and whose securities are exempt from registration under the Securities Act of 1933.
(16) "Investment adviser" means a person that, for compensation, engages in the business of advising others, either directly or through publications or writings, as to the value of securities or the advisability of investing in, purchasing, or selling securities or that, for compensation and as a part of a regular business, issues or promulgates analyses or reports concerning securities. The term includes a financial planner or other person that, as an integral component of other financially related services, provides investment advice to others for compensation as part of a business or that holds itself out as providing investment advice to others for compensation. The term does not include:
(A) an investment adviser representative;
(B) a lawyer, accountant, engineer, or teacher whose performance of investment advice is solely incidental to the practice of the person's profession;
(C) a broker-dealer or its agents whose performance of investment advice is solely incidental to the conduct of business as a broker-dealer and that does not receive special compensation for the investment advice;
(D) a publisher of a bona fide newspaper, news magazine, or business or financial publication of general and regular circulation;
(E) a federal covered investment adviser;
(F) a bank or savings institution;
(G) any other person that is excluded by the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 from the definition of investment adviser; or
(H) any other person excluded by rule adopted or order issued under this chapter.
(17) "Investment adviser representative" means an individual employed by or associated with an investment adviser or federal covered investment adviser and who makes any recommendations or otherwise gives investment advice regarding securities, manages accounts or portfolios of clients, determines which recommendation or advice regarding securities should be given, provides investment advice or holds herself or himself out as providing investment advice, receives compensation to solicit, offer, or negotiate for the sale of or for selling investment advice, or supervises employees who perform any of the foregoing. The term does not include an individual who:
(A) performs only clerical or ministerial acts;
(B) is an agent whose performance of investment advice is solely incidental to the individual acting as an agent and who does not receive special compensation for investment advisory services;
(C) is employed by or associated with a federal covered investment adviser, unless the individual has a "place of business" in this state as that term is defined by rule adopted under Section 203A of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. Section 80b-3a) and is
(i) an "investment adviser representative" as that term is defined by rule adopted under Section 203A of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. Section 80b-3a); or
(ii) not a "supervised person" as that term is defined in Section 202(a)(25) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. Section 80b-2(a)(25)); or
(D) is excluded by rule adopted or order issued under this chapter.
(18) "Issuer" means a person that issues or proposes to issue a security, subject to the following:
(A) The issuer of a voting trust certificate, collateral trust certificate, certificate of deposit for a security, or share in an investment company without a board of directors or individuals performing similar functions is the person performing the acts and assuming the duties of depositor or manager pursuant to the trust or other agreement or instrument under which the security is issued.
(B) The issuer of an equipment trust certificate or similar security serving the same purpose is the person by which the property is or will be used or to which the property or equipment is or will be leased or conditionally sold or that is otherwise contractually responsible for assuring payment of the certificate.
(C) The issuer of a fractional undivided interest in an oil, gas, or other mineral lease or in payments out of production under a lease, right, or royalty is the owner of an interest in the lease or in payments out of production under a lease, right, or royalty, whether whole or fractional, that creates fractional interests for the purpose of sale.
(19) "Nonissuer transaction" or "nonissuer distribution" means a transaction or distribution not directly or indirectly for the benefit of the issuer.
(20) "Offer to purchase" includes an attempt or offer to obtain, or solicitation of an offer to sell, a security or interest in a security for value. The term does not include a tender offer that is subject to Section 14(d) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. Section 78n(d)).
(21) "Person" means an individual; corporation; business trust; estate; trust; partnership; limited liability company; association; joint venture; government; governmental subdivision, agency, or instrumentality; public corporation; or any other legal or commercial entity.
(22) "Place of business" of a broker-dealer, an investment adviser, or a federal covered investment adviser means:
(A) an office at which the broker-dealer, investment adviser, or federal covered investment adviser regularly provides brokerage or investment advice or solicits, meets with, or otherwise communicates with customers or clients; or
(B) any other location that is held out to the general public as a location at which the broker-dealer, investment adviser, or federal covered investment adviser provides brokerage or investment advice or solicits, meets with, or otherwise communicates with customers or clients.
(23) "Predecessor Act" means Minnesota Statutes 2002, sections 80A.01 to 80A.31.
(24) "Price amendment" means the amendment to a registration statement filed under the Securities Act of 1933 or, if an amendment is not filed, the prospectus or prospectus supplement filed under the Securities Act of 1933 that includes a statement of the offering price, underwriting and selling discounts or commissions, amount of proceeds, conversion rates, call prices, and other matters dependent upon the offering price.
(25) "Principal place of business" of a broker-dealer or an investment adviser means the executive office of the broker-dealer or investment adviser from which the officers, partners, or managers of the broker-dealer or investment adviser direct, control, and coordinate the activities of the broker-dealer or investment adviser.
(26) Only for purposes of calculating the number of purchasers under section 80A.46, clauses (1) and (14), "purchaser" does not include:
(A) any relative, spouse, or relative of the spouse of a purchaser who has the same principal residence as the purchaser;
(B) any trust or estate in which a purchaser and any of the persons related to him as specified in Regulation D, Rule 501(e)(1)(i) or (e)(1)(ii) collectively have more than 50 percent of the beneficial interest (excluding contingent interests);
(C) any corporation or other organization of which a purchaser and any of the persons related to the purchaser as specified in Regulation D, Rule 501(e)(1)(i) or (e)(1)(ii) collectively are beneficial owners of more than 50 percent of the equity securities (excluding directors' qualifying shares) or equity interests; and
(D) any accredited investor.
A corporation, partnership, or other entity must be counted as one purchaser. If, however, that entity is organized for the specific purpose of acquiring the securities offered and is not an accredited investor, then each beneficial owner of equity securities or equity interests in the entity shall count as a separate purchaser for all provisions of Regulation D, except to the extent provided in Regulation D, Rule 501(e)(1).
A noncontributory employee benefit plan within the meaning of Title I of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 shall be counted as one purchaser where the trustee makes all investment decisions for the plan.
(27) "Record," except in the phrases "of record," "official record," and "public record," means information that is inscribed on a tangible medium or that is stored in an electronic or other medium and is retrievable in perceivable form.
(28) "Sale" includes every contract of sale, contract to sell, or disposition of, a security or interest in a security for value, and "offer to sell" includes every attempt or offer to dispose of, or solicitation of an offer to purchase, a security or interest in a security for value.
(A) A security given or delivered with, or as a bonus on account of, any purchase of securities or any other thing is considered to constitute part of the subject of the purchase and to have been offered and sold for value.
(B) A gift of assessable stock is considered to involve an offer and sale.
(C) A sale or offer of a warrant or right to purchase or subscribe to another security of the same or another issuer and a sale or offer of a security that gives the holder a present or future right or privilege to convert the security into another security of the same or another issuer, are each considered to include an offer of the other security.
(29) "Securities and Exchange Commission" means the United States Securities and Exchange Commission.
(30) "Security" means a note; stock; treasury stock; security future; bond; debenture; evidence of indebtedness; certificate of interest or participation in a profit-sharing agreement; collateral trust certificate; preorganization certificate or subscription; transferable share; investment contract; voting trust certificate; certificate of deposit for a security; fractional undivided interest in oil, gas, or other mineral rights; put, call, straddle, option, or privilege on a security, certificate of deposit, or group or index of securities, including an interest therein or based on the value thereof; put, call, straddle, option, or privilege entered into on a national securities exchange relating to foreign currency; or, in general, an interest or instrument commonly known as a "security"; or a certificate of interest or participation in, temporary or interim certificate for, receipt for, guarantee of, or warrant or right to subscribe to or purchase, any of the foregoing. The term:
(A) includes both a certificated and an uncertificated security;
(B) does not include an insurance or endowment policy or annuity contract under which an insurance company promises to pay a fixed or variable sum of money either in a lump sum or periodically for life or other specified period;
(C) does not include an interest in a contributory or noncontributory pension or welfare plan subject to the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974;
(D) includes as an "investment contract," among other contracts, an interest in a limited partnership and a limited liability company and an investment in a viatical settlement or similar agreement; and
(E) does not include any equity interest of a closely held corporation or other entity with not more than 35 holders of the equity interest of such entity offered or sold pursuant to a transaction in which 100 percent of the equity interest of such entity is sold as a means to effect the sale of the business of the entity if the transaction has been negotiated on behalf of all purchasers and if all purchasers have access to inside information regarding the entity before consummating the transaction.
(31) "Self-regulatory organization" means a national securities exchange registered under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, a national securities association of broker-dealers registered under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, a clearing agency registered under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, or the Municipal Securities Rulemaking Board established under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934.
(32) "Sign" means, with present intent to authenticate or adopt a record:
(A) to execute or adopt a tangible symbol; or
(B) to attach or logically associate with the record an electronic symbol, sound, or process.
(33) "State" means a state of the United States, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, the United States Virgin Islands, or any territory or insular possession subject to the jurisdiction of the United States.
(34) "Associated with" with respect to a person means any partner, officer, director, manager, or employee of such person or any person occupying a similar status or performing similar functions or any person directly or indirectly controlling, controlled by, or in common control with, such person, but does not include a person whose primary duties are ministerial or clerical. "Employee" includes an independent contractor who performs advisory functions on behalf of an investment adviser.
(35) "Private fund" means an issuer that would be an investment company as defined in Section 3 of the Investment Company Act of 1940 but for section 3(c)(1) or 3(c)(7) of that act.
(36) "Private fund adviser" means an investment adviser whose only advisory clients are one or more qualifying private funds.
(37) "Qualifying private fund" means a private fund that meets the definition of a qualifying private fund in SEC Rule 203(m)-1, Code of Federal Regulations, title 17, section 275.203(m)-1.
(38) "3(c)(1) fund" means a qualifying private fund that is eligible for the exclusion from the definition of an investment company under section 3(c)(1) of the Investment Company Act of 1940, United States Code, title 15, section 80a-3(c)(1).
(39) "Venture capital fund" means a private fund that meets the definition of a venture capital fund in SEC Rule 203(1)-1, Code of Federal Regulations, title 17, section 275.203(1)-1.
(40) "Funding portal" means any person acting as a funding portal as defined in section 3(a)(80) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, United States Code, title 15, section 78c(a)(80), and any rule adopted or order issued thereunder.
History:
2006 c 196 art 1 s 2 ,52; 2008 c 256 s 2 ; 2010 c 384 s 44 ; 2013 c 106 s 1
Minn. Stat. § 80A.52
80A.52 SECTION 304; SECURITIES REGISTRATION BY QUALIFICATION.
(a) Registration permitted. A security may be registered by qualification under this section.
(b) Required records. A registration statement under this section must contain the information or records specified in section 80A.53, a consent to service of process complying with section 80A.88, and, if required by rule adopted under this chapter, the following information or records:
(1) with respect to the issuer and any significant subsidiary, its name, address, and form of organization; the state or foreign jurisdiction and date of its organization; the general character and location of its business; a description of its physical properties and equipment; and a statement of the general competitive conditions in the industry or business in which it is or will be engaged;
(2) with respect to each director and officer of the issuer, and other person having a similar status or performing similar functions, the person's name, address, and principal occupation for the previous five years; the amount of securities of the issuer held by the person as of the 30th day before the filing of the registration statement; the amount of the securities covered by the registration statement to which the person has indicated an intention to subscribe; and a description of any material interest of the person in any material transaction with the issuer or a significant subsidiary effected within the previous three years or proposed to be effected;
(3) with respect to persons covered by paragraph (2), the aggregate sum of the remuneration paid to those persons during the previous 12 months and estimated to be paid during the next 12 months, directly or indirectly, by the issuer, and all predecessors, parents, subsidiaries, and affiliates of the issuer;
(4) with respect to a person owning of record or owning beneficially, if known, ten percent or more of the outstanding shares of any class of equity security of the issuer, the information specified in paragraph (2) other than the person's occupation;
(5) with respect to a promoter, if the issuer was organized within the previous three years, the information or records specified in paragraph (2), any amount paid to the promoter within that period or intended to be paid to the promoter, and the consideration for the payment;
(6) with respect to a person on whose behalf any part of the offering is to be made in a nonissuer distribution, the person's name and address; the amount of securities of the issuer held by the person as of the date of the filing of the registration statement; a description of any material interest of the person in any material transaction with the issuer or any significant subsidiary effected within the previous three years or proposed to be effected, and a statement of the reasons for making the offering;
(7) the capitalization and long-term debt, on both a current and pro forma basis, of the issuer and any significant subsidiary, including a description of each security outstanding or being registered or otherwise offered, and a statement of the amount and kind of consideration, whether in the form of cash, physical assets, services, patents, goodwill, or anything else of value, for which the issuer or any subsidiary has issued its securities within the previous two years or is obligated to issue its securities;
(8) the kind and amount of securities to be offered; the proposed offering price or the method by which it is to be computed; any variation at which a proportion of the offering is to be made to a person or class of persons other than the underwriters, with a specification of the person or class; the basis on which the offering is to be made if otherwise than for cash; the estimated aggregate underwriting and selling discounts or commissions and finders' fees, including separately cash, securities, contracts, or anything else of value to accrue to the underwriters or finders in connection with the offering or, if the selling discounts or commissions are variable, the basis of determining them and their maximum and minimum amounts; the estimated amounts of other selling expenses, including legal, engineering, and accounting charges; the name and address of each underwriter and each recipient of a finder's fee; a copy of any underwriting or selling group agreement under which the distribution is to be made or the proposed form of any such agreement whose terms have not yet been determined; and a description of the plan of distribution of any securities that are to be offered otherwise than through an underwriter;
(9) the estimated monetary proceeds to be received by the issuer from the offering; the purposes for which the proceeds are to be used by the issuer; the estimated amount to be used for each purpose; the order or priority in which the proceeds will be used for the purposes stated; the amounts of any funds to be raised from other sources to achieve the purposes stated; the sources of the funds; and, if a part of the proceeds is to be used to acquire property, including goodwill, otherwise than in the ordinary course of business, the names and addresses of the vendors, the purchase price, the names of any persons that have received commissions in connection with the acquisition, and the amounts of the commissions and other expenses in connection with the acquisition, including the cost of borrowing money to finance the acquisition;
(10) a description of any stock options or other security options outstanding, or to be created in connection with the offering, and the amount of those options held or to be held by each person required to be named in paragraph (2), (4), (5), (6), or (8) and by any person that holds or will hold ten percent or more in the aggregate of those options;
(11) the dates of, parties to, and general effect concisely stated of each managerial or other material contract made or to be made otherwise than in the ordinary course of business to be performed in whole or in part at or after the filing of the registration statement or that was made within the previous two years, and a copy of the contract;
(12) a description of any pending litigation, action, or proceeding to which the issuer is a party and that materially affects its business or assets, and any litigation, action, or proceeding known to be contemplated by governmental authorities;
(13) a copy of any prospectus, pamphlet, circular, form letter, advertisement, or other sales literature intended as of the effective date to be used in connection with the offering and any solicitation of interest used in compliance with section 80A.46(17)(B);
(14) a specimen or copy of the security being registered, unless the security is uncertificated; a copy of the issuer's articles of incorporation and bylaws or their substantial equivalents, in effect; and a copy of any indenture or other instrument covering the security to be registered;
(15) a signed or conformed copy of an opinion of counsel concerning the legality of the security being registered, with an English translation if it is in a language other than English, which states whether the security when sold will be validly issued, fully paid, and nonassessable and, if a debt security, a binding obligation of the issuer;
(16) a signed or conformed copy of a consent of any accountant, engineer, appraiser, or other person whose profession gives authority for a statement made by the person, if the person is named as having prepared or certified a report or valuation, other than an official record, that is public, which is used in connection with the registration statement;
(17) a balance sheet of the issuer as of a date within four months before the filing of the registration statement; a statement of income and a statement of cash flows for each of the three fiscal years preceding the date of the balance sheet and for any period between the close of the immediately previous fiscal year and the date of the balance sheet, or for the period of the issuer's and any predecessor's existence if less than three years; and, if any part of the proceeds of the offering is to be applied to the purchase of a business, the financial statements that would be required if that business were the registrant; and
(18) any additional information or records required by rule adopted or order issued under this chapter.
(c) Conditions for effectiveness of registration statement. A registration statement under this section becomes effective 30 days, or any shorter period provided by rule adopted or order issued under this chapter, after the date the registration statement or the last amendment other than a price amendment is filed, if:
(1) a stop order is not in effect and a proceeding is not pending under section 80A.54;
(2) the administrator has not issued an order under section 80A.54 delaying effectiveness; and
(3) the applicant or registrant has not requested that effectiveness be delayed.
(d) Delay of effectiveness of registration statement. The administrator may delay effectiveness once for not more than 90 days if the administrator determines the registration statement is not complete in all material respects and promptly notifies the applicant or registrant of that determination. The administrator may also delay effectiveness for a further period of not more than 30 days if the administrator determines that the delay is necessary or appropriate.
(e) Prospectus distribution may be required. A rule adopted or order issued under this chapter may require as a condition of registration under this section that a prospectus containing a specified part of the information or record specified in subsection (b) be sent or given to each person to which an offer is made, before or concurrently, with the earliest of:
(1) the first offer made in a record to the person otherwise than by means of a public advertisement, by or for the account of the issuer or another person on whose behalf the offering is being made or by an underwriter or broker-dealer that is offering part of an unsold allotment or subscription taken by the person as a participant in the distribution;
(2) the confirmation of a sale made by or for the account of the person;
(3) payment pursuant to such a sale; or
(4) delivery of the security pursuant to such a sale.
History:
2006 c 196 art 1 s 13 ,52; 2008 c 256 s 5
Minn. Stat. § 80A.56
80A.56 SECTION 401; BROKER-DEALER REGISTRATION REQUIREMENT AND EXEMPTIONS.
(a) Registration requirement. It is unlawful for a person to transact business in this state as a broker-dealer unless the person is registered under this chapter as a broker-dealer or is exempt from registration as a broker-dealer under subsection (b) or (d).
(b) Exemptions from registration. The following persons are exempt from the registration requirement of subsection (a):
(1) a broker-dealer without a place of business in this state if its only transactions effected in the state are with:
(A) the issuer of the securities involved in the transactions;
(B) a broker-dealer registered under this chapter or not required to be registered as a broker-dealer under this chapter;
(C) an institutional investor;
(D) an accredited investor;
(E) a nonaffiliated federal covered investment adviser with investments under management in excess of $100,000,000 acting for the account of others pursuant to discretionary authority in a signed record;
(F) a bona fide preexisting customer whose principal place of residence is not in this state and the person is registered as a broker-dealer under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 or not required to be registered under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 and is registered under the securities act of the state in which the customer maintains a principal place of residence;
(G) a bona fide preexisting customer whose principal place of residence is in this state but was not present in this state when the customer relationship was established, if:
(i) the broker-dealer is registered under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 or not required to be registered under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 and is registered under the securities laws of the state in which the customer relationship was established and where the customer had maintained a principal place of residence; and
(ii) within 45 days after the customer's first transaction in this state, the person files an application for registration as a broker-dealer in this state and a further transaction is not effected more than 75 days after the date on which the application is filed, or, if earlier, the date on which the administrator notifies the person that the administrator has denied the application for registration or has stayed the pendency of the application for good cause;
(H) not more than three customers in this state during the previous 12 months, in addition to those customers specified in subparagraphs (A) through (G) and under subparagraph (I), if the broker-dealer is registered under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 or not required to be registered under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 and is registered under the securities act of the state in which the broker-dealer has its principal place of business; and
(I) any other person exempted by rule adopted or order issued under this chapter; and
(2) a person that deals solely in United States government securities and is supervised as a dealer in government securities by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, the Comptroller of the Currency, the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, or the Office of Thrift Supervision; and
(3) a broker-dealer that is registered in Canada and who has no office or other physical presence in this state if the broker-dealer complies with the following conditions:
(A) the broker-dealer is registered with or is a member of a self-regulatory organization in Canada, a stock exchange in Canada, or the Bureau des services financiers;
(B) the broker-dealer maintains in good standing its provincial or territorial registration and its registration with or membership in a self-regulatory organization in Canada, a stock exchange in Canada, or the Bureau des services financiers; and
(C) the broker-dealer effects or attempts to effect transactions in securities:
(i) with or for a person from Canada who is temporarily present in this state, with whom the broker-dealer had a bona fide broker-dealer-client relationship before the person entered the United States; or
(ii) with or for a person from Canada who is present in this state, whose transactions are in a Canadian self-directed tax advantaged retirement account of which the person is the holder or contributor.
(c) Limits on employment or association. It is unlawful for a broker-dealer, or for an issuer engaged in offering, offering to purchase, purchasing, or selling securities in this state, directly or indirectly, to employ or associate with an individual to engage in an activity related to securities transactions in this state if the registration of the individual is suspended or revoked or the individual is barred from employment or association with a broker-dealer, an issuer, an investment adviser, or a federal covered investment adviser by an order of the administrator under this chapter, the Securities and Exchange Commission, or a self-regulatory organization. A broker-dealer or issuer does not violate this subsection if the broker-dealer or issuer did not know and in the exercise of reasonable care could not have known, of the suspension, revocation, or bar. Upon request from a broker-dealer or issuer and for good cause, an order under this chapter may modify or waive, in whole or in part, the application of the prohibitions of this subsection to the broker-dealer.
(d) Foreign transactions. A rule adopted or order issued under this chapter may permit:
(1) a broker-dealer that is registered in Canada or other foreign jurisdiction and that does not have a place of business in this state to effect transactions in securities with or for, or attempt to effect the purchase or sale of any securities by:
(A) an individual from Canada or other foreign jurisdiction who is temporarily present in this state and with whom the broker-dealer had a bona fide customer relationship before the individual entered the United States;
(B) an individual from Canada or other foreign jurisdiction who is present in the state and whose transactions are in a self-directed tax advantaged retirement plan of which the individual is the holder or contributor in that foreign jurisdiction; or
(C) an individual who is present in this state, with whom the broker-dealer customer relationship arose while the individual was temporarily or permanently resident in Canada or the other foreign jurisdiction; and
(2) an agent who represents a broker-dealer that is exempt under this subsection to effect transactions in securities or attempt to effect the purchase or sale of securities in this state as permitted for a broker-dealer described in paragraph (1).
History:
2006 c 196 art 1 s 17 ,52; 2008 c 256 s 8
Minn. Stat. § 80A.57
80A.57 SECTION 402; AGENT REGISTRATION REQUIREMENT AND EXEMPTIONS.
(a) Registration requirement. It is unlawful for an individual to transact business in the state as an agent unless the individual is registered under this chapter as an agent or is exempt from registration as an agent under subsection (b).
(b) Exemptions from registration. The following individuals are exempt from the registration requirement of subsection (a):
(1) an individual who represents a broker-dealer in effecting transactions in this state limited to those described in Section 15(h)(2) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. Section 78(o)(2));
(2) an individual who represents a broker-dealer that is exempt under section 80A.56(b) or (d);
(3) an individual who represents an issuer with respect to an offer or sale of the issuer's own securities or those of the issuer's parent or any of the issuer's subsidiaries, and who is not compensated in connection with the individual's participation by the payment of commissions or other remuneration based, directly or indirectly, on transactions in those securities;
(4) an individual who represents an issuer and who effects transactions in the issuer's securities exempted by section 80A.46, other than section 80A.46(11) and (14);
(5) an individual who represents an issuer that effects transactions solely in federal covered securities of the issuer, but an individual who effects transactions in a federal covered security under Section 18(b)(3) or 18(b)(4)(D) of the Securities Act of 1933 (15 U.S.C. Section 77r(b)(3) or 77r(b)(4)(D)) is not exempt if the individual is compensated in connection with the agent's participation by the payment of commissions or other remuneration based, directly or indirectly, on transactions in those securities;
(6) an individual who represents a broker-dealer registered in this state under section 80A.56(a) or exempt from registration under section 80A.56(b) in the offer and sale of securities for an account of a nonaffiliated federal covered investment adviser with investments under management in excess of $100,000,000 acting for the account of others pursuant to discretionary authority in a signed record;
(7) an individual who represents an issuer in connection with the purchase of the issuer's own securities;
(8) an individual who represents an issuer and who restricts participation to performing clerical or ministerial acts;
(9) an individual who represents an issuer in effecting transactions in a security exempted by section 80A.45;
(10) an individual who represents an issuer in effecting transactions with existing employees, partners, or directors of the issuer if no commission or other remuneration is paid or given directly or indirectly for soliciting any person in this state;
(11) an individual who represents one or more issuers with respect to an offer or sale of the issuer's securities if the offer or sale of the securities is exempted by section
Minn. Stat. § 80A.61
80A.61 SECTION 406; REGISTRATION BY BROKER-DEALER, AGENT, FUNDING PORTAL, INVESTMENT ADVISER, AND INVESTMENT ADVISER REPRESENTATIVE.
(a) Application for initial registration by broker-dealer, agent, investment adviser, or investment adviser representative. A person shall register as a broker-dealer, agent, investment adviser, or investment adviser representative by filing an application and a consent to service of process complying with section 80A.88, and paying the fee specified in section 80A.65 and any reasonable fees charged by the designee of the administrator for processing the filing. The application must contain:
(1) the information or record required for the filing of a uniform application; and
(2) upon request by the administrator, any other financial or other information or record that the administrator determines is appropriate.
(b) Amendment. If the information or record contained in an application filed under subsection (a) is or becomes inaccurate or incomplete in a material respect, the registrant shall promptly file a correcting amendment.
(c) Effectiveness of registration. If an order is not in effect and a proceeding is not pending under section 80A.67, registration becomes effective at noon on the 45th day after a completed application is filed, unless the registration is denied. A rule adopted or order issued under this chapter may set an earlier effective date or may defer the effective date until noon on the 45th day after the filing of any amendment completing the application.
(d) Registration renewal. A registration is effective until midnight on December 31 of the year for which the application for registration is filed. Unless an order is in effect under section 80A.67, a registration may be automatically renewed each year by filing such records as are required by rule adopted or order issued under this chapter, by paying the fee specified in section 80A.65, and by paying costs charged by the designee of the administrator for processing the filings.
(e) Additional conditions or waivers. A rule adopted or order issued under this chapter may impose such other conditions, not inconsistent with the National Securities Markets Improvement Act of 1996. An order issued under this chapter may waive, in whole or in part, specific requirements in connection with registration as are in the public interest and for the protection of investors.
(f) Funding portal registration. A funding portal that has its principal place of business in the state of Minnesota shall register with the state of Minnesota by filing with the administrator a copy of the information or record required for the filing of an application for registration as a funding portal in the manner established by the Securities and Exchange Commission and/or the Financial Institutions Regulatory Authority (FINRA), along with any rule adopted or order issued, and any amendments thereto.
(g) Application for investment adviser representative registration.
(1) The application for initial registration as an investment adviser representative pursuant to section
Minn. Stat. § 80A.62
80A.62 SECTION 407; SUCCESSION AND CHANGE IN REGISTRATION OF BROKER-DEALER OR INVESTMENT ADVISER.
(a) Succession. A broker-dealer or investment adviser may succeed to the current registration of another broker-dealer or investment adviser or a notice filing of a federal covered investment adviser, and a federal covered investment adviser may succeed to the current registration of an investment adviser or notice filing of another federal covered investment adviser, by filing as a successor an application for registration pursuant to section 80A.56 or 80A.58 or a notice pursuant to section 80A.60 for the unexpired portion of the current registration or notice filing.
(b) Organizational change. A broker-dealer or investment adviser that changes its form of organization or state of incorporation or organization may continue its registration by filing an amendment to its registration if the change does not involve a material change in its financial condition or management. The amendment becomes effective when filed or on a date designated by the registrant in its filing. The new organization is a successor to the original registrant for the purposes of this chapter. If there is a material change in financial condition or management, the broker-dealer or investment adviser shall file a new application for registration. A predecessor registered under this chapter shall stop conducting its securities business other than winding down transactions and shall file for withdrawal of broker-dealer or investment adviser registration within 45 days after filing its amendment to effect succession.
(c) Name change. A broker-dealer or investment adviser that changes its name may continue its registration by filing an amendment to its registration. The amendment becomes effective when filed or on a date designated by the registrant.
(d) Change of control. A change of control of a broker-dealer or investment adviser may be made in accordance with a rule adopted or order issued under this chapter.
History:
2006 c 196 art 1 s 22 ,52
Minn. Stat. § 80A.63
80A.63 SECTION 408; TERMINATION OF EMPLOYMENT OR ASSOCIATION OF AGENT AND TRANSFER OF EMPLOYMENT OR ASSOCIATION.
(a) Notice of termination. If an agent registered under this chapter terminates employment by or association with a broker-dealer or issuer, or terminates activities that require registration as an agent, the broker-dealer, or issuer shall promptly file a notice of termination. If the registrant learns that the broker-dealer or issuer has not filed the notice, the registrant may do so.
(b) Transfer of employment or association. If an agent registered under this chapter terminates employment by or association with a broker-dealer registered under this chapter and begins employment by or association with another broker-dealer registered under this chapter, then upon the filing by or on behalf of the registrant, within 30 days after the termination, of an application for registration that complies with the requirement of section 80A.61(a) and payment of the filing fee required under section 80A.65, the registration of the agent is:
(1) immediately effective as of the date of the completed filing, if the agent's Central Registration Depository record or successor record does not contain a new or amended disciplinary disclosure within the previous 12 months; or
(2) temporarily effective as of the date of the completed filing, if the agent's Central Registration Depository record or successor record contains a new or amended disciplinary disclosure within the preceding 12 months.
(c) Withdrawal of temporary registration. The administrator may withdraw a temporary registration if there are or were grounds for discipline as specified in section 80A.67 and the administrator does so within 30 days after the filing of the application. If the administrator does not withdraw the temporary registration within the 30-day period, registration becomes automatically effective on the 31st day after filing.
(d) Power to prevent registration. The administrator may prevent the effectiveness of a transfer of an agent under subsection (b)(1) or (2) based on the public interest and the protection of investors.
(e) Termination of registration or application for registration. If the administrator determines that a registrant or applicant for registration is no longer in existence or has ceased to act as a broker-dealer, agent, or investment adviser, or is the subject of an adjudication of incapacity or is subject to the control of a committee, conservator, or guardian, or cannot reasonably be located, a rule adopted or order issued under this chapter may require the registration be canceled or terminated or the application denied. The administrator may reinstate a canceled or terminated registration, with or without hearing, and may make the registration retroactive.
History:
2006 c 196 art 1 s 23 ,52
Minn. Stat. § 80A.64
80A.64 SECTION 409; WITHDRAWAL OF REGISTRATION OF BROKER-DEALER, AGENT, AND INVESTMENT ADVISER.
Withdrawal of registration by a broker-dealer, agent, or investment adviser becomes effective 60 days after the filing of the application to withdraw or within any shorter period as provided by rule adopted or order issued under this chapter unless a revocation or suspension proceeding is pending when the application is filed. If a proceeding is pending, withdrawal becomes effective when and upon such conditions as required by rule adopted or order issued under this chapter. The administrator may institute a revocation or suspension proceeding under section 80A.67 within one year after the withdrawal became effective automatically and issue a revocation or suspension order as of the last date on which registration was effective if a proceeding is not pending.
History:
2006 c 196 art 1 s 24 ,52
Minn. Stat. § 80A.67
80A.67 SECTION 412; DENIAL, REVOCATION, SUSPENSION, WITHDRAWAL, RESTRICTION, CONDITION, OR LIMITATION OF REGISTRATION.
(a) Disciplinary conditions-applicants. If the administrator finds that the order is in the public interest and subsection (d) authorizes the action, an order issued under this chapter may deny an application, or may condition or limit registration of an applicant to be a broker-dealer, agent, or investment adviser, and, if the applicant is a broker-dealer or investment adviser, of a partner, officer, director, or person having a similar status or performing similar functions, or a person directly or indirectly in control of the broker-dealer or investment adviser.
(b) Disciplinary conditions-registrants. If the administrator finds that the order is in the public interest and subsection (d) authorizes the action an order issued under this chapter may revoke, suspend, condition, or limit the registration of a registrant and, if the registrant is a broker-dealer or investment adviser, of a partner, officer, director, or person having a similar status or performing similar functions, or a person directly or indirectly in control of the broker-dealer or investment adviser. However, the administrator may not:
(1) institute a revocation or suspension proceeding under this subsection based on an order issued under a law of another state that is reported to the administrator or a designee of the administrator more than one year after the date of the order on which it is based; or
(2) under subsection (d)(5)(A) or (B), issue an order on the basis of an order issued under the securities act of another state unless the other order was based on conduct for which subsection (d) would authorize the action had the conduct occurred in this state.
(c) Disciplinary penalties-registrants. If the administrator finds that the order is in the public interest and subsection (d)(1) through (6), (8), (9), (10), or (12) and (13) authorizes the action, an order under this chapter may censure, impose a bar, or impose a civil penalty in an amount up to $10,000 for each violation, on a registrant, and, if the registrant is a broker-dealer or investment adviser, a partner, officer, director, person having a similar status or performing similar functions, or a person directly or indirectly in control, of the broker-dealer or investment adviser.
(d) Grounds for discipline. A person may be disciplined under subsections (a) through (c) if the person:
(1) has filed an application for registration in this state under this chapter or the predecessor act within the previous ten years, which, as of the effective date of registration or as of any date after filing in the case of an order denying effectiveness, was incomplete in any material respect or contained a statement that, in light of the circumstances under which it was made, was false or misleading with respect to a material fact;
(2) willfully violated or willfully failed to comply with this chapter or the predecessor act or a rule adopted or order issued under this chapter or the predecessor act within the previous ten years;
(3) has been convicted of a felony or within the previous ten years has been convicted of a misdemeanor involving a security, a commodity future or option contract, or an aspect of a business involving securities, commodities, investments, franchises, insurance, banking, or finance;
(4) is enjoined or restrained by a court of competent jurisdiction in an action instituted by the administrator under this chapter or the predecessor act, a state, the Securities and Exchange Commission, or the United States from engaging in or continuing an act, practice, or course of business involving an aspect of a business involving securities, commodities, investments, franchises, insurance, banking, or finance;
(5) is the subject of an order, issued after notice and opportunity for hearing by:
(A) the securities, depository institution, insurance, or other financial services regulator of a state or by the Securities and Exchange Commission or other federal agency denying, revoking, barring, or suspending registration as a broker-dealer, agent, investment adviser, federal covered investment adviser, or investment adviser representative;
(B) the securities regulator of a state or the Securities and Exchange Commission against a broker-dealer, agent, investment adviser, investment adviser representative, or federal covered investment adviser;
(C) the Securities and Exchange Commission or a self-regulatory organization suspending or expelling the registrant from membership in the self-regulatory organization;
(D) a court adjudicating a United States Postal Service fraud order;
(E) the insurance regulator of a state denying, suspending, or revoking registration as an insurance agent; or
(F) a depository institution regulator suspending or barring the person from the depository institution business;
(6) is the subject of an adjudication or determination, after notice and opportunity for hearing, by the Securities and Exchange Commission, the Commodity Futures Trading Commission; the Federal Trade Commission; a federal depository institution regulator, or a depository institution, insurance, or other financial services regulator of a state that the person willfully violated the Securities Act of 1933, the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, the Investment Advisers Act of 1940, the Investment Company Act of 1940, or the Commodity Exchange Act, the securities or commodities law of a state, or a federal or state law under which a business involving investments, franchises, insurance, banking, or finance is regulated;
(7) is insolvent, either because the person's liabilities exceed the person's assets or because the person cannot meet the person's obligations as they mature, but the administrator may not enter an order against an applicant or registrant under this paragraph without a finding of insolvency as to the applicant or registrant;
(8) refuses to allow or otherwise impedes the administrator from conducting an audit or inspection under section 80A.66(d) or refuses access to a registrant's office to conduct an audit or inspection under section 80A.66(d);
(9) has failed to reasonably supervise an agent, investment adviser representative, or other individual, if the agent, investment adviser representative, or other individual was subject to the person's supervision and committed a violation of this chapter or the predecessor act or a rule adopted or order issued under this chapter or the predecessor act within the previous ten years;
(10) has not paid the proper filing fee within 30 days after having been notified by the administrator of a deficiency, but the administrator shall vacate an order under this paragraph when the deficiency is corrected;
(11) after notice and opportunity for a hearing, has been found within the previous ten years:
(A) by a court of competent jurisdiction to have willfully violated the laws of a foreign jurisdiction under which the business of securities, commodities, investment, franchises, insurance, banking, or finance is regulated;
(B) to have been the subject of an order of a securities regulator of a foreign jurisdiction denying, revoking, or suspending the right to engage in the business of securities as a broker-dealer, agent, investment adviser, investment adviser representative, or similar person; or
(C) to have been suspended or expelled from membership by or participation in a securities exchange or securities association operating under the securities laws of a foreign jurisdiction;
(12) is the subject of a cease and desist order issued by the Securities and Exchange Commission or issued under the securities, commodities, investment, franchise, banking, finance, or insurance laws of a state;
(13) has engaged in dishonest or unethical practices in the securities, commodities, investment, franchise, banking, finance, or insurance business within the previous ten years; or
(14) is not qualified on the basis of factors such as training, experience, and knowledge of the securities business. However, in the case of an application by an agent for a broker-dealer that is a member of a self-regulatory organization, a denial order may not be based on this paragraph if the individual has successfully completed all examinations required by subsection (e). The administrator may require an applicant for registration under section 80A.57 who has not been registered in a state within the two years preceding the filing of an application in this state to successfully complete an examination.
(e) Examinations. A rule adopted or order issued under this chapter may require that an examination, including an examination developed or approved by an organization of securities regulators, be successfully completed by a class of individuals or all individuals. An order issued under this chapter may waive, in whole or in part, an examination as to an individual and a rule adopted under this chapter may waive, in whole or in part, an examination as to a class of individuals if the administrator determines that the examination is not necessary or appropriate in the public interest and for the protection of investors.
(f) Summary process. The administrator may suspend or deny an application summarily; restrict, condition, limit, or suspend a registration; or censure, bar, or impose a civil penalty on a registrant before final determination of an administrative proceeding. Upon the issuance of an order, the administrator shall promptly notify each person subject to the order that the order has been issued, the reasons for the action, and that within 15 days after the receipt of a request in a record from the person the matter will be scheduled for a hearing. If a hearing is not requested and none is ordered by the administrator within 30 days after the date of service of the order, the order becomes final by operation of law. If a hearing is requested or ordered, the administrator, after notice of and opportunity for hearing to each person subject to the order, may modify or vacate the order or extend the order until final determination.
(g) Procedural requirements. An order issued may not be issued under this section, except under subsection (f), without:
(1) appropriate notice to the applicant or registrant;
(2) opportunity for hearing; and
(3) findings of fact and conclusions of law in a record in accordance with chapter 14.
(h) Control person liability. A person that controls, directly or indirectly, a person not in compliance with this section may be disciplined by order of the administrator under subsections (a) through (c) to the same extent as the noncomplying person, unless the controlling person did not know, or knowingly or recklessly disregarded evidence, of the existence of conduct that is a ground for discipline under this section.
(i) Limit on investigation or proceeding. The administrator may not institute a proceeding under subsection (a), (b), or (c) based solely on material facts actually known by the administrator unless an investigation or the proceeding is instituted within one year after the administrator actually acquires knowledge of the material facts.
History:
2006 c 196 art 1 s 27 ,52; 2008 c 256 s 15
FRAUD AND LIABILITIES
Minn. Stat. § 80A.74
80A.74 SECTION 507; QUALIFIED IMMUNITY.
A broker-dealer, agent, investment adviser, federal covered investment adviser, or investment adviser representative is not liable to another broker-dealer, agent, investment adviser, federal covered investment adviser, or investment adviser representative for defamation relating to a statement that is contained in a record required by the administrator, or designee of the administrator, the Securities and Exchange Commission, or a self-regulatory organization, unless the person knew, or should have known at the time that the statement was made, that is was false in a material respect or the person acted in reckless disregard of the statement's truth or falsity.
History:
2006 c 196 art 1 s 34 ,52
Minn. Stat. § 80A.76
80A.76 SECTION 509; CIVIL LIABILITY.
(a) Securities Litigation Uniform Standards Act. Enforcement of civil liability under this section is subject to the Securities Litigation Uniform Standards Act of 1998.
(b) Liability of seller to purchaser. A person is liable to the purchaser if the person sells a security in violation of section 80A.49 or, by means of an untrue statement of a material fact or an omission to state a material fact necessary in order to make the statement made, in light of the circumstances under which it is made, not misleading, the purchaser not knowing the untruth or omission and the seller not sustaining the burden of proof that the seller did not know and, in the exercise of reasonable care, could not have known of the untruth or omission. An action under this subsection is governed by the following:
(1) The purchaser may maintain an action to recover the consideration paid for the security, less the amount of any income received on the security, and interest from the date of the purchase, costs, and reasonable attorneys' fees determined by the court, upon the tender of the security, or for actual damages as provided in paragraph (3).
(2) The tender referred to in paragraph (1) may be made any time before entry of judgment. Tender requires only notice in a record of ownership of the security and willingness to exchange the security for the amount specified. A purchaser that no longer owns the security may recover actual damages as provided in paragraph (3).
(3) Actual damages in an action arising under this subsection are the amount that would be recoverable upon a tender less the value of the security when the purchaser disposed of it, and interest from the date of the purchase, costs, and reasonable attorneys' fees determined by the court.
(c) Liability of purchaser to seller. A person is liable to the seller if the person buys a security by means of an untrue statement of a material fact or omission to state a material fact necessary in order to make the statement made, in light of the circumstances under which it is made, not misleading, the seller not knowing of the untruth or omission, and the purchaser not sustaining the burden of proof that the purchaser did not know, and in the exercise of reasonable care, could not have known of the untruth or omission. An action under this subsection is governed by the following:
(1) The seller may maintain an action to recover the security, and any income received on the security, costs, and reasonable attorneys' fees determined by the court, upon the tender of the purchase price, or for actual damages as provided in paragraph (3).
(2) The tender referred to in paragraph (1) may be made any time before entry of judgment. Tender requires only notice in a record of the present ability to pay the amount tendered and willingness to take delivery of the security for the amount specified. If the purchaser no longer owns the security, the seller may recover actual damages as provided in paragraph (3).
(3) Actual damages in an action arising under this subsection are the difference between the price at which the security was sold and the value the security would have had at the time of the sale in the absence of the purchaser's conduct causing liability, and interest from the date of the sale of the security, costs, and reasonable attorneys' fees determined by the court.
(d) Liability of unregistered broker-dealer and agent. A person acting as a broker-dealer or agent that sells or buys a security in violation of section 80A.56(a), 80A.57(a), or 80A.73 is liable to the customer. The customer, if a purchaser, may maintain an action for recovery of actual damages as specified in subsections (b)(1) through (3), or, if a seller, for a remedy as specified in subsections (c)(1) through (3).
(e) Liability of unregistered investment adviser. A person acting as an investment adviser that provides investment advice for compensation in violation of section 80A.58(a) or 80A.73 is liable to the client. The client may maintain an action to recover the consideration paid for the advice, interest from the date of payment, costs, and reasonable attorneys' fees determined by the court.
(f) Liability for investment advice. A person that receives directly or indirectly any consideration for providing investment advice to another person and that employs a device, scheme, or artifice to defraud the other person or engages in an act, practice, or course of business that operates or would operate as a fraud or deceit on the other person, is liable to the other person. An action under this subsection is governed by the following:
(1) The person defrauded may maintain an action to recover the consideration paid for the advice and the amount of any actual damages caused by the fraudulent conduct, interest from the date of the fraudulent conduct, costs, and reasonable attorneys' fees determined by the court, less the amount of any income received as a result of the fraudulent conduct.
(2) This subsection does not apply to a broker-dealer or its agents if the investment advice provided is solely incidental to transacting business as a broker-dealer and no special compensation is received for the investment advice.
(g) Joint and several liability. The following persons are liable jointly and severally with and to the same extent as persons liable under subsections (b) through (f):
(1) a person that directly or indirectly controls a person liable under subsections (b) through (f), unless the controlling person sustains the burden of proof that the person did not know, and in the exercise of reasonable care could not have known, of the existence of conduct by reason of which the liability is alleged to exist;
(2) an individual who is a managing partner, executive officer, or director of a person liable under subsections (b) through (f), including an individual having a similar status or performing similar functions, unless the individual sustains the burden of proof that the individual did not know and, in the exercise of reasonable care could have known, of the existence of conduct by reason of which the liability is alleged to exist;
(3) an individual who is an employee of or associated with a person liable under subsections (b) through (f) and who materially aids the conduct giving rise to the liability, unless the individual sustains the burden of proof that the individual did not know and, in the exercise of reasonable care could not have known, of the existence of conduct by reason of which the liability is alleged to exist; and
(4) a person that is a broker-dealer, agent, investment adviser, or investment adviser representative that materially aids the conduct giving rise to the liability under subsections (b) through (f), unless the person sustains the burden of proof that the person did not know and, in the exercise of reasonable care could not have known, of the existence of conduct by reason of which liability is alleged to exist.
(h) Right of contribution. A person liable under this section has a right of contribution as in cases of tort against any other person liable under this section for the same conduct.
(i) Survival of cause of action. A cause of action under this section survives the death of an individual who might have been a plaintiff or defendant.
(j) Statute of limitations. A person may not obtain relief:
(1) under subsection (b) for violation of section 80A.49, or under subsection (d) or (e), unless the action is instituted within one year after the violation occurred; or
(2) under subsection (b), other than for violation of section 80A.49, or under subsection (c) or (f), unless the action is instituted within the earlier of two years after discovery of the facts constituting the violation or five years after the violation.
(k) No enforcement of violative contract. A person that has made, or has engaged in the performance of, a contract in violation of this chapter or a rule adopted or order issued under this chapter, or that has acquired a purported right under the contract with knowledge of conduct by reason of which its making or performance was in violation of this chapter, may not base an action on the contract.
(l) No contractual waiver. A condition, stipulation, or provision binding a person purchasing or selling a security or receiving investment advice to waive compliance with this chapter or a rule adopted or order issued under this chapter is void.
(m) Survival of other right or remedies. The rights and remedies provided by this chapter are in addition to any other rights or remedies that may exist, but this chapter does not create a cause of action not specified in this section or section 80A.66(e).
History:
2006 c 196 art 1 s 36 ,52; 2008 c 256 s 16
Minn. Stat. § 80A.81
80A.81 SECTION 604; ADMINISTRATIVE ENFORCEMENT.
(a) Issuance of an order or notice. If the administrator determines that a person has engaged, is engaging, or is about to engage in an act, practice, or course of business constituting a violation of this chapter or a rule adopted or order issued under this chapter or that a person has materially aided, is materially aiding, or is about to materially aid an act, practice, or course of business constituting a violation of this chapter or a rule adopted or order issued under this chapter, the administrator may:
(1) issue an order directing the person to cease and desist from engaging in the act, practice, or course of business or to take other action necessary or appropriate to comply with this chapter;
(2) issue an order denying, suspending, revoking, or conditioning the exemptions for a broker-dealer under section 80A.56(b)(1)(D) or (F) or an investment adviser under section 80A.58(b)(1)(C); or
(3) issue an order under section 80A.48.
(b) Summary process. An order under subsection (a) is effective on the date of issuance. Upon issuance of the order, the administrator shall promptly serve each person subject to the order with a copy of the order and a notice that the order has been entered. The order must include a statement whether the administrator will seek a civil penalty or costs of the investigation, a statement of the reasons for the order, and notice that, within 15 days after receipt of a request in a record from the person, the matter will be scheduled for a hearing. If a person subject to the order does not request a hearing and none is ordered by the administrator within 30 days after the date of service of the order, the order, which may include a civil penalty or costs of the investigation if a civil penalty or costs were sought in the statement accompanying the order, becomes final as to that person by operation of law. If a hearing is requested or ordered, the administrator, after notice of an opportunity for hearing to each person subject to the order, may modify or vacate the order or extend it until final determination.
(c) Procedure for final order. If a hearing is requested or ordered pursuant to subsection (b), a hearing must be held under chapter 14. A final order may not be issued unless the administrator makes findings of fact and conclusions of law in a record according to chapter 14. The final order may make final, vacate, or modify the order issued under subsection (a).
(d) Civil penalty. In a final order under subsection (c), the administrator may impose a civil penalty up to $10,000 for each violation.
(e) Costs. In a final order, the administrator may charge the actual cost of an investigation or proceeding for a violation of this chapter or a rule adopted or order issued under this chapter.
(f) Filing of certified final order with court; effect of filing. If a petition for judicial review of a final order is not filed in accordance with section 80A.86, the administrator may file a certified copy of the final order with the clerk of a court of competent jurisdiction. The order so filed has the same effect as a judgment of the court and may be recorded, enforced, or satisfied in the same manner as a judgment of the court.
(g) Enforcement by court; further civil penalty. If a person does not comply with an order under this section, the administrator may petition a court of competent jurisdiction to enforce the order. The court may not require the administrator to post a bond in an action or proceeding under this section. If the court finds, after service and opportunity for hearing, that the person was not in compliance with the order, the court may adjudge the person in civil contempt of the order. The court may impose a further civil penalty against the person for contempt in an amount up to $10,000 for each violation and may grant any other relief the court determines is just and proper in the circumstances.
History:
2006 c 196 art 1 s 41 ,52
Minn. Stat. § 80A.83
80A.83 SECTION 606; ADMINISTRATIVE FILES AND OPINIONS.
(a) Public register of filings. The administrator shall maintain, or designate a person to maintain, a register of applications for registration of securities; registration statements; notice filings; applications for registration of broker-dealers, agents, and investment advisers; notice filings by federal covered investment advisers that are or have been effective under this chapter or the predecessor act; notices of claims of exemption from registration or notice filing requirements contained in a record; orders issued under this chapter or the predecessor act; and interpretative opinions or no action determinations issued under this chapter.
(b) Public availability. The administrator shall make all rules, forms, interpretative opinions, and orders available to the public.
(c) Copies of public records. The administrator shall furnish a copy of a record that is a public record or a certification that the public record does not exist to a person that so requests. A rule adopted under this chapter may establish a reasonable charge for furnishing the record or certification. A copy of the record certified or a certificate by the administrator of a record's nonexistence is prima facie evidence of a record or its nonexistence.
History:
2006 c 196 art 1 s 43 ,52; 2008 c 256 s 18
Minn. Stat. § 80A.91
80A.91 AGENT ERRORS AND OMISSIONS INSURANCE; CHOICE OF SOURCE.
A broker-dealer shall not require an agent to maintain insurance coverage for the agent's errors and omissions from a specific insurance company. This section does not apply if the agent is an employee of that broker-dealer, or if the broker-dealer or affiliated insurance company contributes to the premiums for the errors and omissions coverage. Nothing in this section shall prohibit a broker-dealer from requiring an agent to maintain errors and omissions coverage or requiring that the errors and omissions coverage meet certain criteria.
History:
2009 c 178 art 1 s 49
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Minnesota Office of the Revisor of Statutes, Centennial Office Building,
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Minn. Stat. § 80B.05
80B.05 FRAUDULENT AND DECEPTIVE PRACTICES.
It is unlawful for any offeror or target company or any controlling person of an offeror or target company or any broker-dealer acting on behalf of an offeror or target company to engage in any fraudulent, deceptive or manipulative acts or practices in connection with a takeover offer. Fraudulent, deceptive and manipulative acts or practices include, without limitation:
(1) the publication or use in connection with the offer of any false statement of a material fact or the omission to state a material fact necessary to make the statements made not misleading;
(2) the sale by any controlling shareholders of a target company of any or their equity securities to the offeror for a consideration greater than that to be paid other stockholders pursuant to the offer or the purchase of any of the securities of a controlling shareholder of the target company by the offeror for a consideration greater than that to be paid other shareholders, pursuant to an agreement not disclosed to the other shareholders;
(3) the refusal by a target company incorporated under the laws of this state to permit an offeror who is a stockholder of record to examine its list of stockholders, and to make extracts therefrom, pursuant to the applicable statutes and rules of this state and the United States, for the purpose of making a takeover offer in compliance with sections
Minn. Stat. § 80G.01
80G.01 DEFINITIONS.
§
Subdivision 1. Scope.
For purposes of this chapter, the following terms have the meanings given to them in this section.
§
Subd. 2. Bullion product.
"Bullion product" means any coin, round, bar, or ingot containing silver, gold, platinum, palladium, or other precious metal.
§
Subd. 3. Dealer.
(a) Subject to the exceptions in paragraph (b), a "dealer" means any person who buys, sells, solicits, or markets bullion products or investments in bullion products to consumers and conducts Minnesota transactions.
(b) A dealer does not include any of the following persons:
(1) a person who engages only in wholesale bullion product transactions with other persons who engage only in wholesale bullion product transactions or with dealers who buy or sell at retail and are properly registered under this chapter;
(2) a person who engages only in transactions at occasional garage or yard sales held at the seller's residence, farm auctions held at the seller's residence, or estate sales held at the decedent's residence;
(3) a person who is properly registered pursuant to chapter 80A, or the federal Securities Exchange Act of 1934 and rules promulgated thereunder as a securities broker dealer or broker dealer agent;
(4) an auctioneer who auctions bullion products on behalf of an owner, if the auctioneer does not take title or ownership of the bullion products, or the operator of an Internet website that allows users to offer the sale of bullion products through that website, does not set the price, is not the seller of record, and does not take possession of any bullion products to be offered;
(5) a person who engages only in transactions at no more than 12 trade shows per year where the consumer is present and the transaction is made at the trade show; or
(6) a federally or state-chartered bank, bank and trust, savings bank, savings association, or credit union or any operating subsidiary of them.
§
Subd. 4. Dealer representative.
"Dealer representative" means any natural person acting as an employee, contractor, or agent of a dealer and who has interactions with consumers for the purpose of the buying, selling, solicitation, or marketing of bullion products or investments in bullion products. This term does not mean a natural person who has interactions with consumers solely for administrative purposes.
§
Subd. 5. Commissioner.
"Commissioner" means the commissioner of commerce.
§
Subd. 5a. Minnesota transaction.
"Minnesota transaction" means a bullion product transaction conducted:
(1) by a dealer that is incorporated, registered, domiciled, or otherwise located in Minnesota;
(2) by a dealer representative at a location in Minnesota;
(3) between a dealer and a consumer who lives in Minnesota; or
(4) between a dealer and a Minnesota consumer when the transaction involves:
(i) delivering or shipping a bullion product to an address in Minnesota;
(ii) delivering to or shipping from a precious metal depository on behalf of a Minnesota resident; or
(iii) making payment to a consumer or receiving a payment from a consumer at an address in Minnesota, unless the transaction occurs when the consumer is at a business location outside of Minnesota.
§
Subd. 6. Owner.
"Owner" means any person who has an ownership interest in a dealer, regardless of whether directly or indirectly, of more than ten percent and who is actively engaged in the direction, management, oversight, or operation of the dealer or its business affairs.
§
Subd. 7. Person.
"Person" has the same meaning given in section
Minn. Stat. § 82.55
82.55 DEFINITIONS.
§
Subdivision 1. Scope.
For the purposes of this chapter the terms defined in this section have the meanings given to them.
§
Subd. 1a. Automated valuation model.
For purposes of this chapter, "automated valuation model" means a computerized model used by mortgage originators and secondary market issuers to determine the collateral worth of a mortgage secured, or to be secured, by a consumer's principal dwelling.
§
Subd. 1b. Broker price opinion or BPO.
For purposes of this chapter, "broker price opinion" or "BPO" means an estimate prepared by a real estate broker, real estate salesperson, or licensed real estate appraiser that details the probable selling price of a particular parcel of real property and provides a varying level of detail about the property's condition, market, and neighborhood, and information on comparable sales, but does not include an automated valuation model.
§
Subd. 2. Brokerage; business entity.
"Brokerage" or "business entity" means a corporation, partnership, limited liability company, limited liability partnership, or other business structure that holds a real estate broker license.
§
Subd. 3. Business of financial planning.
"Business of financial planning" means providing, or offering to provide, financial planning services or financial counseling or advice, on a group or individual basis. A person who, on advertisements, cards, signs, circulars, letterheads, or in any other manner, indicates that the person is a "financial planner," "financial counselor," "financial adviser," "investment counselor," "estate planner," "investment adviser," "financial consultant," or any other similar designation or title or combination thereof, is considered to be representing himself or herself to be engaged in the business of financial planning.
§
Subd. 3a. Buyer's broker.
"Buyer's broker" means a licensee who represents a buyer under a signed buyer's broker agreement. A buyer's broker owes to the buyer fiduciary duties.
§
Subd. 4. Closing agent; real estate closing agent.
"Closing agent" or "real estate closing agent" means any person whether or not acting as an agent for a title insurance agent, a licensed attorney, real estate broker, or real estate salesperson, who for another and with or without a commission, fee, or other valuable consideration or with or without the intention or expectation of receiving a commission, fee, or other valuable consideration, directly or indirectly provides closing services incident to the sale, trade, lease, or loan of residential real estate, including drawing or assisting in drawing papers incident to the sale, trade, lease, or loan, or advertises or claims to be engaged in these activities.
§
Subd. 5. Commissioner.
"Commissioner" means the commissioner of commerce or a designee.
§
Subd. 6. Dual agency.
"Dual agency" means a situation in which a licensee owes a duty to more than one party to the transaction.
Circumstances which establish dual agency include the following:
(1) when one licensee represents both the buyer and the seller in a real estate transaction; or
(2) when two or more licensees, licensed to the same broker, each represent a party to the transaction.
§
Subd. 7. Electronic agent.
"Electronic agent" means a computer program or an electronic or other automated means used independently to initiate an action or respond to electronic records or performances, in whole or in part, without review or action by an individual.
§
Subd. 8. Electronic record.
"Electronic record" means a record created, generated, sent, communicated, received, or stored by electronic means.
§
Subd. 9. Electronic signature.
"Electronic signature" means an electronic sound, symbol, or process attached to or logically associated with a record and executed or adopted by a person with the intent to sign the record.
§
Subd. 10. Licensee.
"Licensee" means a person duly licensed under this chapter.
§
Subd. 11. Loan broker.
"Loan broker" means a licensed real estate broker or salesperson who, for another and for an advance fee or with the intention or expectation of receiving the same, directly or indirectly, negotiates or offers or attempts to negotiate a loan secured or to be secured by a mortgage or other encumbrance on real estate, or represents himself or herself or otherwise holds himself or herself out as a licensed real estate broker or salesperson, either in connection with any transaction in which he or she directly or indirectly negotiates or offers or attempts to negotiate a loan, or in connection with the conduct of his or her ordinary business activities as a loan broker.
"Loan broker" does not include a licensed real estate broker or salesperson who, in the course of representing a purchaser or seller of real estate, incidentally assists the purchaser or seller in obtaining financing for the real property in question if the licensee does not receive a separate commission, fee, or other valuable consideration for this service.
For the purposes of this subdivision, an "advance fee" means a commission, fee, charge, or compensation of any kind paid before the closing of a loan, that is intended in whole or in part as payment for finding or attempting to find a loan for a borrower. Advance fee does not include pass-through fees or commitment or extended lock fees or other fees as determined by the commissioner.
§
Subd. 12. Overpayment.
"Overpayment" means any payment of money in excess of a statutory fee or for a license for which a person does not qualify.
§
Subd. 13. Override clause.
"Override clause" means:
(1) a provision in a listing agreement or similar instrument allowing the broker to receive compensation when, after the listing agreement has expired, the property is sold to persons with whom a broker or salesperson had negotiated or shown the property prior to the expiration of the listing agreement; or
(2) a provision in the buyer's representation agreement or similar instrument allowing the broker to receive compensation when, after the buyer's representation agreement has expired, the buyer has purchased a property the salesperson had shown the buyer prior to the expiration of the buyer's agreement.
§
Subd. 14. Person.
"Person" means a natural person, firm, partnership, corporation or association, and the officers, directors, employees and agents thereof.
§
Subd. 15. Primary broker.
"Primary broker" means the broker on whose behalf salespersons are licensed to act pursuant to section 82.63, subdivision 4 . In the case of a corporation licensed as a broker, "primary broker" means each officer of the corporation who is individually licensed to act as broker for the corporation. In the case of a partnership, "primary broker" means each partner licensed to act as a broker for the partnership. In the case of a limited liability company licensed as a broker, "primary broker" means each officer of the company who is individually licensed to act as a broker for the company.
§
Subd. 16. Protective list.
"Protective list" means:
(1) the written list of names and addresses of prospective buyers with whom a licensee has negotiated the sale or rental of the property or to whom a licensee has exhibited the property before the expiration of the listing agreement. For the purposes of this subdivision, "property" means the property that is the subject of the listing agreement in question; or
(2) the written list of addresses of properties that a licensee has negotiated the sale or rental of before the expiration of the buyer's agreement.
§
Subd. 17.
[Repealed, 2014 c 199 s 37 ]
§
Subd. 18. Real estate.
For purposes of this chapter, "real estate" shall also include a manufactured home, when such manufactured home is affixed to land. Manufactured home means any factory built structure or structures equipped with the necessary service connections and made so as to be readily movable as a unit or units and designed to be used as a dwelling unit or units.
§
Subd. 19. Real estate broker; broker.
"Real estate broker" or "broker" means any person who:
(a) for another and for commission, fee, or other valuable consideration or with the intention or expectation of receiving the same directly or indirectly lists, sells, exchanges, buys or rents, manages, or offers or attempts to negotiate a sale, option, exchange, purchase or rental of an interest or estate in real estate, or advertises or holds out as engaged in these activities;
(b) for another and for commission, fee, or other valuable consideration or with the intention or expectation of receiving the same directly or indirectly negotiates or offers or attempts to negotiate a loan, secured or to be secured by a mortgage or other encumbrance on real estate, which is not a residential mortgage loan as defined by section 58.02, subdivision 18 ;
(c) "real estate broker" or "broker" as set forth in clause (b) shall not apply to the originating, making, processing, selling, or servicing of a loan in connection with the ordinary business activities of a mortgagee, lender, or servicer approved or certified by the secretary of Housing and Urban Development, or approved or certified by the administrator of Veterans Affairs, or approved or certified by the administrator of the Farmers Home Administration, or approved as a multifamily seller/servicer by the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation, or as a multifamily partner approved by the Federal National Mortgage Association;
(d) for another and for commission, fee, or other valuable consideration or with the intention or expectation of receiving the same directly or indirectly lists, sells, exchanges, buys, rents, manages, offers or attempts to negotiate a sale, option, exchange, purchase or rental of any business opportunity or business, or its good will, inventory, or fixtures, or any interest therein;
(e) for another and for commission, fee, or other valuable consideration or with the intention or expectation of receiving the same directly or indirectly offers, sells or attempts to negotiate the sale of property that is subject to the registration requirements of chapter 83, concerning subdivided land;
(f) for another and for commission, fee, or other valuable consideration or with the intention or expectation of receiving the same, promotes the sale of real estate by advertising it in a publication issued primarily for this purpose, if the person:
(1) negotiates on behalf of any party to a transaction;
(2) disseminates any information regarding the property to any party or potential party to a transaction subsequent to the publication of the advertisement, except that in response to an initial inquiry from a potential purchaser, the person may forward additional written information regarding the property which has been prepared prior to the publication by the seller or broker or a representative of either;
(3) counsels, advises, or offers suggestions to the seller or a representative of the seller with regard to the marketing, offer, sale, or lease of the real estate, whether prior to or subsequent to the publication of the advertisement;
(4) counsels, advises, or offers suggestions to a potential buyer or a representative of the seller with regard to the purchase or rental of any advertised real estate; or
(5) engages in any other activity otherwise subject to licensure under this chapter;
(g) engages wholly or in part in the business of selling real estate to the extent that a pattern of real estate sales is established, whether or not the real estate is owned by the person. A person shall be presumed to be engaged in the business of selling real estate if the person engages as principal in five or more transactions during any 12-month period, unless the person is represented by a licensed real estate broker or salesperson.
§
Subd. 20. Real estate salesperson.
"Real estate salesperson" means one who acts on behalf of a real estate broker in performing any act authorized by this chapter to be performed by the broker.
§
Subd. 21. Rental service.
"Rental service" means a person who gathers and catalogs information concerning apartments or other units of real estate available for rent, and who, for a fee, provides information intended to meet the individual needs of specifically identified lessors or prospective lessees. "Rental service" does not apply to newspapers or other periodicals with a general circulation or individual listing contracts between an owner or lessor of property and a licensee.
§
Subd. 22. Responsible person.
"Responsible person" means a natural person that is an officer of a corporation, a partner of a partnership, a general partner of a limited liability partnership, or a manager of a limited liability company.
§
Subd. 23. Residential real property or residential real estate.
"Residential real property" or "residential real estate" means property occupied by, or intended to be occupied by, one to four families as their residence.
§
Subd. 23a. Seller's broker.
"Seller's broker" means a licensee who represents a seller under a signed seller's broker agreement. A seller's broker owes to the seller fiduciary duties.
§
Subd. 24. Sponsor.
"Sponsor" means a person offering or providing real estate education.
§
Subd. 25. Trust account.
"Trust account" means, for purposes of this chapter, a savings account, negotiable order of withdrawal account, demand deposit or checking account maintained for the purpose of segregating trust funds from other funds. A trust account must be an interest-bearing account paying the highest current passbook savings account rate of interest and must not allow the financial institution a right of set off against money owed it by the licensee.
§
Subd. 26. Trust funds.
"Trust funds" means funds received by a broker, salesperson, or closing agent in a fiduciary capacity as a part of a real estate or business opportunity transaction, pending the consummation or termination of a transaction, and includes all down payments, earnest money deposits, rents for clients, tax and insurance escrow payments, damage deposits, and any funds received on behalf of any person.
History:
1973 c 410 s 1 ; 1980 c 516 s 2 ; 1981 c 365 s 9 ; 1983 c 284 s 11 ,12; 1984 c 552 s 7 ; 1986 c 358 s 7 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1987 c 105 s 3 ; 1987 c 336 s 20 ; 1988 c 654 s 1 ; 1988 c 695 s 2 ; 1989 c 347 s 1 -3; 1993 c 309 s 1 -3; 1995 c 202 art 1 s 25 ; 1998 c 343 art 2 s 2 ; 2004 c 203 art 2 s 1 -13,61; 2005 c 118 s 12 ,13; 2010 c 384 s 47 -49; 2011 c 15 s 1 ,2; 2014 c 198 art 4 s 12 ; 2014 c 199 s 1 -5
Minn. Stat. § 82.56
82.56 EXCEPTIONS.
Unless a person is licensed or otherwise required to be licensed under this chapter, the term real estate broker does not include:
(a) a licensed practicing attorney if the attorney complies in all respects with the trust account provisions of this chapter;
(b) a receiver, trustee, administrator, guardian, executor, or other person appointed by or acting under the judgment or order of any court;
(c) any person owning and operating a cemetery and selling lots therein solely for use as burial plots;
(d) any custodian, janitor, or employee of the owner or manager of a residential building who leases residential units in the building;
(e) any bank, trust company, savings association, industrial loan and thrift company, regulated lender under chapter 56, public utility, or land mortgage or farm loan association organized under the laws of this state or the United States, when engaged in the transaction of business within the scope of its corporate powers as provided by law;
(f) public officers while performing their official duties;
(g) employees of persons enumerated in clauses (b), (e), and (f), when engaged in the specific performance of their duties;
(h) any person who acts as an auctioneer bonded in conformity with section 330.02, when that person is engaged in the specific performance of duties as an auctioneer, and when that person has been employed to auction real estate by a person licensed under this chapter or when the auctioneer has engaged a licensed attorney to supervise the real estate transaction;
(i) any person who acquires real estate for the purpose of engaging in and does engage in, or who is engaged in the business of constructing residential, commercial or industrial buildings for the purpose of resale if no more than 25 such transactions occur in any 12-month period and the person complies with section 82.75;
(j) any person who is licensed as a securities broker-dealer or is licensed as a securities agent representing a broker-dealer pursuant to chapter 80A and who offers to sell or sells an interest or estate in real estate which is a security as defined in section 80A.41(30), and is registered or exempt from registration or part of a transaction exempt from registration pursuant to chapter 80A, when acting solely as an incident to the sale of these securities;
(k) any person who offers to sell or sells a business opportunity which is a franchise registered pursuant to chapter 80C, when acting solely to sell the franchise;
(l) any person who contracts with or solicits on behalf of a provider a contract with a resident or prospective resident to provide continuing care in a facility, pursuant to the Continuing Care Facility Disclosure and Rehabilitation Act (chapter 80D), when acting solely as incident to the contract;
(m) any broker-dealer or agent of a broker-dealer when participating in a transaction in which all or part of a business opportunity or business, including any interest therein, is conveyed or acquired pursuant to an asset purchase, merger, exchange of securities, or other business combination, if the agent or broker-dealer is licensed pursuant to chapter 80A;
(n) an accountant acting incident to the practice of the accounting profession if the accountant complies in all respects with the trust account provisions of this chapter.
History:
1973 c 410 s 2 ; 1975 c 38 s 1 ; 1976 c 2 s 37 ; 1976 c 197 s 1 ; 1976 c 230 s 1 ; 1976 c 239 s 19 ; 1980 c 516 s 20 ; 1981 c 135 s 13 ; 1983 c 252 s 15 ; 1983 c 284 s 13 ; 1984 c 653 s 1 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1989 c 347 s 4 ; 1991 c 311 s 1 ; 1995 c 68 s 1 ; 1995 c 202 art 1 s 25 ; 1998 c 343 art 2 s 3 ; 2004 c 203 art 2 s 61 ; 2006 c 196 art 1 s 52 ; art 2 s 2; 2008 c 256 s 22
Minn. Stat. § 82.57
82.57 LICENSE FEES.
§
Subdivision 1. Amounts.
The following fees shall be paid to the commissioner:
(a) a fee of $150 for each initial individual broker's license, and a fee of $100 for each renewal thereof;
(b) a fee of $70 for each initial salesperson's license, and a fee of $40 for each renewal thereof;
(c) a fee of $85 for each initial real estate closing agent license, and a fee of $60 for each renewal thereof;
(d) a fee of $150 for each initial corporate, limited liability company, or partnership license, and a fee of $100 for each renewal thereof;
(e) a fee for payment to the education, research and recovery fund in accordance with section
Minn. Stat. § 82.58
82.58 LICENSING: APPLICATION.
§
Subdivision 1. Qualification of applicants.
An applicant for a real estate broker or real estate salesperson license shall be at least 18 years of age at the time of making application for said license.
§
Subd. 2. Application for license; contents.
(a) An applicant for a license as a real estate broker or real estate salesperson shall make an application in the format prescribed by the commissioner. The application shall be accompanied by the license fee required by this chapter.
(b) Each application for a real estate broker license or real estate salesperson license shall contain such information as required by the commissioner consistent with the administration of the provisions and purposes of this chapter.
(c) The application for a real estate salesperson license shall give the applicant's legal name, age, residence address, and the name and place of business of the real estate broker on whose behalf the salesperson is to be acting.
(d) The commissioner may require such further information as the commissioner deems appropriate to administer the provisions and further the purposes of this chapter.
(e) In addition to the application for licensure, an applicant for a real estate salesperson license shall submit to the commissioner a copy of the course completion certificate for courses I, II, and III and passing examination results.
§
Subd. 3. Application for broker's license.
After successful completion of the real estate broker's examination, an individual shall have one year from the date of the examination to apply for a broker's license, unless the individual is a salesperson who remains continuously active in the real estate field as a licensee. Failure to apply for the broker's license or to remain continuously active in the real estate field will necessitate a reexamination.
§
Subd. 4. Business entity; brokerage licenses.
(a) A business entity applying for a license shall have at least one responsible person individually licensed to act as broker for the brokerage. The business entity broker's license shall extend no authority to act as broker to any person other than the business entity. Each responsible person who intends to act as a broker shall obtain a license.
(b) A business entity applying for a license shall have at least one responsible person individually licensed to act as broker for the business entity. Each responsible person who intends to act as a broker shall obtain a license.
(c) An application for a business entity license shall be verified by a responsible person for the business entity.
(d) A responsible person who ceases to act as broker for a business entity shall notify the commissioner upon said termination. The individual licenses of all salespersons acting on behalf of a brokerage are automatically ineffective upon the revocation or suspension of the license of the brokerage. The commissioner may suspend or revoke the license of a responsible person licensee without suspending or revoking the license of the business entity.
(e) The application of all responsible persons of a business entity who intend to act as brokers on behalf of a business entity shall accompany the initial license application of the business entity. Responsible persons intending to act as brokers subsequent to the licensing of the business entity shall procure an individual real estate broker's license prior to acting in the capacity of a broker. No responsible person who maintains a salesperson's license may exercise any authority over any trust account administered by the broker nor may they be vested with any supervisory authority over the broker.
(f) The business entity applicant shall make available upon request, such records and data required by the commissioner for enforcement of this chapter.
(g) The commissioner may require further information, as the commissioner deems appropriate, to administer the provisions and further the purposes of this chapter.
§
Subd. 5. Period for application.
An applicant who obtains an acceptable score on a salesperson's examination must file an application and obtain the license within one year of the date of successful completion of the examination or a second examination must be taken to qualify for the license.
§
Subd. 6.
[Repealed, 2010 c 384 s 104 ]
History:
1973 c 410 s 4 ,6; 1975 c 38 s 3 ,4; 1976 c 197 s 2 -4; 1977 c 215 s 1 -3; 1979 c 144 s 3 ; 1982 c 424 s 130 ; 1982 c 478 s 1 ; 1983 c 284 s 14 ; 1983 c 328 s 9 ; 1984 c 552 s 8 ,9,11-14; 1985 c 251 s 8 ,9; 1986 c 358 s 9 -11; 1986 c 444 ; 1Sp1986 c 1 art 7 s 5 ; 1987 c 336 s 23 ; 1989 c 347 s 10 -16,18-22; 1990 c 364 s 1 ; 1991 c 20 s 1 ; 1991 c 75 s 1 ,2; 1991 c 233 s 48 -51; 1992 c 555 art 1 s 3 ; 1993 c 309 s 10 ,13,14; 1994 c 632 art 4 s 32 ,33,36,37; 1995 c 68 s 4 ; 1995 c 202 art 1 s 25 ; 1996 c 439 art 1 s 10 ; art 3 s 9; 1997 c 222 s 34 ,35; 2000 c 483 s 44 ; 2001 c 208 s 14 ; 2002 c 387 s 7 -9; 2004 c 203 art 2 s 24 -26,43,61; 2005 c 100 s 7 ; 2009 c 178 art 1 s 50 ; 2010 c 384 s 56 -58; 2014 c 199 s 9 ,10
Minn. Stat. § 82.60
82.60 EDUCATION; COURSE CURRICULUM.
§
Subdivision 1. Prelicense education.
Prelicense education for a real estate salesperson must consist of Course I, Course II, and Course III as described in this section. Prelicense education for a real estate broker must consist of the broker course as described in this section.
§
Subd. 2. Course I.
(a) Introduction to Real Estate, one hour:
(1) overview of course I:
(i) course goals;
(ii) attendance breaks;
(iii) examination policy; and
(iv) course and instructor evaluation;
(2) scope of industry;
(3) areas of specialization;
(4) industry terminology;
(5) professional standards and ethics; and
(6) broker/salesperson relationship.
(b) Title Closing, six hours:
(1) examination of title:
(i) history;
(ii) examination of abstract;
(iii) title insurance:
(A) owners;
(B) purchasers; and
(C) mortgage; and
(iv) title registration (torrens);
(2) closing:
(i) closing checklist;
(ii) methods of closing:
(A) closing through escrow; and
(B) other;
(iii) delivery of deed;
(iv) responsibilities of buyer and seller:
(A) taxes and liens;
(B) reduction certificate (assumption statement);
(C) insurance;
(D) leases;
(E) bill of sale;
(F) title search;
(G) survey;
(H) certificate of occupancy;
(I) violations (ordinances); and
(J) apportionments;
(v) adjournment of closing (settlement);
(vi) Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act (RESPA):
(A) lender requirements;
(B) truth in lending (Regulation Z); and
(C) settlement (closing);
(vii) responsibilities of broker;
(viii) deeds:
(A) parts of a deed:
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parties;
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consideration;
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words of conveyance;
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property description;
-
appurtenances;
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habendum (estate);
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execution and acknowledgment; and
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seal;
(B) delivery;
(C) recording;
(D) types of deeds:
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quitclaim;
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warranty deed and covenants;
-
special warranty deed; and
-
other;
(E) covenants running with the land; and
(F) validity;
(3) search and examination of title:
(i) object of search:
(A) chain of title; and
(B) recording acts;
(ii) grantor-grantee system of indexing:
(A) running the chain of title;
(B) grantors;
(C) mortgages;
(D) lis pendens;
(E) judgments;
(F) liens;
(G) taxes;
(H) court with probate jurisdiction; and
(I) special assessments; and
(iii) lot and block indexing.
(c) Real Estate Law, eight hours:
(1) real estate license law:
(i) purpose of law and rules;
(ii) administration of law:
(A) Department of Commerce; and
(B) penalties for violation; and
(iii) substantive provisions of law:
(A) trust accounts;
(B) prohibition of fraudulent, deceptive, or dishonest practices;
(C) standards of conduct;
(D) Real Estate Research and Recovery Fund; and
(E) licensing and education requirements;
(2) laws relating to agency;
(3) subdivided land act:
(i) scope of law;
(ii) registration provisions; and
(iii) licensing requirements;
(4) Securities Act-potential applicability to real estate; and
(5) appraiser licensing law.
(d) Basic Law of Contracts, three hours:
(1) definition;
(2) essentials;
(3) breach-remedies;
(4) types of real estate contracts:
(i) purchase agreement-parties to;
(ii) listing agreement-parties to;
(iii) contract for deed;
(iv) options; and
(v) lease; and
(5) cancellation.
(e) Principles of Financing, five hours:
(1) types:
(i) FHA;
(ii) VA;
(iii) Conventional/insured conventional;
(iv) ARM;
(v) other; and
(vi) points;
(2) sources of mortgage funds:
(i) lenders;
(ii) secondary mortgage market; and
(iii) owner financing; and
(3) usury.
(f) Types and Classifications of Property, four hours:
(1) residential construction, government regulation;
(2) land development and use:
(i) city planning; and
(ii) zoning; and
(3) condominiums, cooperatives, planned unit developments, common interest communities, manufactured housing:
(i) definitions;
(ii) financing;
(iii) licenses required to sell;
(iv) homeowner's associations; and
(v) bylaws.
(g) Environmental Issues, three hours.
§
Subd. 3. Course II.
(a) Valuation, three hours:
(1) evaluation vs. appraisal;
(2) methods of valuation:
(i) market approach;
(ii) cost approach; and
(iii) income approach; and
(3) tax value.
(b) Financing Applications, seven hours:
(1) review of course I financing;
(2) mortgages:
(i) legal elements;
(ii) theories:
(A) lien; and
(B) title;
(iii) mortgage note; and
(iv) assumption; and
(3) foreclosure/default.
(c) Contracts, 16 hours:
(1) review of course I contracts;
(2) purchase agreement, essential elements;
(3) listing agreement:
(i) employment contract - broker; and
(ii) essential elements; and
(4) contract for deed, essential elements.
(d) Fair Housing, three hours:
(1) Federal fair housing laws; and
(2) state fair housing laws.
(e) Real Estate Specialties, one hour.
§
Subd. 4. Course III.
Course III must be a 30-hour course consisting of one of the courses in paragraphs (a) to (j).
(a) Real Estate Appraisal:
(1) nature, importance, and purposes of appraisals;
(2) nature, importance, and characteristics of property and value;
(3) principles controlling real estate value;
(4) the appraisal process;
(5) economic and neighborhood analysis;
(6) considerations and fundamentals of site evaluation;
(7) construction methods and materials;
(8) architectural styles and utility;
(9) cost approach; estimating costs and accrued depreciation;
(10) analysis;
(11) market data approach;
(12) income approach; income and expense analysis, capitalization theory and techniques;
(13) reconciliation and final value estimate;
(14) writing the report;
(15) USPAP; and
(16) course examination.
(b) Closing Procedures:
(1) overview of closing; persons present, protocol, timeliness;
(2) review of purchase agreement, supplements, addendum;
(3) compilation of data needed to prepare a closing file;
(4) legal documents;
(5) abstracts, title procedures;
(6) review of settlement costs; buyer, seller;
(7) closing statement; prorations and other math;
(8) review of sample cases;
(9) follow-up procedures; and
(10) course examination.
(c) Farm and Ranch Brokerage:
(1) responsibilities of broker to seller and buyer;
(2) selling options;
(3) sources of financing;
(4) factors in selecting a farm or ranch;
(5) advantages and disadvantages of irrigation systems;
(6) determination of farm and ranch value;
(7) consideration in the constructing of purchase agreements; and
(8) course examination.
(d) Real Estate Finance:
(1) introduction to the mortgage market;
(2) sources of mortgage money;
(3) real estate investment trusts and syndication;
(4) mortgage banking;
(5) financing residential properties;
(6) financing income producing properties;
(7) construction and land development loans;
(8) special techniques used in financing real estate;
(9) junior mortgages;
(10) land contracts;
(11) financing long-term leases; and
(12) course examination.
(e) Real Estate Investment:
(1) real estate investments;
(2) discounted cash flow analysis;
(3) measuring investment returns;
(4) estimation of real estate cash flows;
(5) real estate financing;
(6) the tax process;
(7) acquisitions and operations;
(8) dispositions and exchanges;
(9) after-tax investment analysis;
(10) speculative land investment;
(11) multiple exchanges; and
(12) course examination.
(f) Real Estate Law:
(1) the process of real estate law;
(2) real estate brokerage;
(3) contract for the sale of real estate;
(4) property conveyance;
(5) title insurance and closing;
(6) property ownership and taxes;
(7) estates in land and landlord/tenant relationships;
(8) cooperatives, condominiums, and planned unit developments;
(9) real estate lending and land use regulations; and
(10) course examination.
(g) Real Estate Management:
(1) overview and economics of real estate management;
(2) government involvement;
(3) the management plan;
(4) owner relations and record keeping;
(5) marketing and leasing;
(6) property operations:
(i) tenant administration;
(ii) physical plant maintenance; and
(iii) staffing and employee relations;
(7) residential management:
(i) rental housing; and
(ii) condominiums and cooperatives;
(8) commercial management:
(i) office building and special purpose properties; and
(ii) shopping centers and retail properties;
(9) the management office;
(10) creative property management; and
(11) course examination.
(h) Business Brokerage:
(1) business financial statements;
(2) financial statement ratio analysis;
(3) cash flow, rate of return, and break-even analysis;
(4) competitive market analysis;
(5) valuation of the business;
(6) developing the business plan;
(7) qualifying the buyer;
(8) terms of the purchase agreement;
(9) financing the business opportunity;
(10) evaluation of business risk; and
(11) course examination.
(i) Commercial Real Estate:
(1) types of commercial properties;
(2) introduction to commercial real estate sales;
(3) office leasing;
(4) industrial leasing;
(5) retail leasing;
(6) business opportunity sales; and
(7) course examination.
(j) Residential Architecture and Construction:
(1) architectural styles and designs;
(2) blueprints and plans;
(3) construction basics;
(4) exteriors;
(5) interiors;
(6) mechanical systems; and
(7) course examination.
A combination course must consist of no more than three of the preceding ten subjects and must devote at least ten hours to each subject. An education provider that proposes to offer a combination course III must submit to the commissioner, as part of the application for approval, an outline setting forth the subjects to be addressed and the number of hours proposed to be devoted to each topic.
§
Subd. 5. Broker course.
The required course for real estate brokers must consist of the subject hours in paragraphs (a) to (j).
(a) Broker Licensing Requirements, three hours:
(1) ownership and operational forms; and
(2) Minnesota license law review.
(b) Trust Account Requirements, two hours:
(1) opening the trust account;
(2) deposit requirements; and
(3) trust account records.
(c) Agency, five hours:
(1) current statutes and agency law; and
(2) statutory addenda and disclosures.
(d) Antidiscrimination, three hours:
(1) federal fair housing;
(2) Americans with Disabilities Act; and
(3) Minnesota Human Rights Act.
(e) Real Estate Principles Update, one hour:
(1) land improvement, estates;
(2) legal descriptions;
(3) governmental rights; and
(4) property taxation and special assessments.
(f) Real Estate Sale, Lease, and Transfer, two hours:
(1) purchase agreement and addenda;
(2) lease types and terms;
(3) deed types and clauses; and
(4) contract for deed.
(g) Financing and Valuation Update, three hours:
(1) sources of financing;
(2) foreclosure law;
(3) principles of value; and
(4) methods of valuation.
(h) Broker's Role in Closing, three hours:
(1) prorating;
(2) closing statements;
(3) closing documents; and
(4) deposit requirements.
(i) Income Taxation, three hours:
(1) tax rules of home ownership;
(2) investment tax issues; and
(3) sale of personal residence.
(j) Employment Laws and Insurance, three hours:
(1) Fair Labor Standards Act;
(2) tax laws, withholding, reports;
(3) independent contractor vs. employee;
(4) State and Federal Unemployment Tax Act; and
(5) errors and omissions insurance.
(k) Final Exam.
History:
2009 c 63 s 59
Minn. Stat. § 82.63
82.63 , subdivisions 6 and 10.
§
Subd. 3. Regulation of practice; rulemaking.
The commissioner may promulgate rules further specifying and defining those actions and omissions which constitute fraudulent, deceptive, or dishonest practices, and establishing standards of conduct for real estate brokers, salespeople, or closing agents.
§
Subd. 4. Monetary settlements.
The commissioner shall not coerce or attempt to coerce a licensee to enter into any monetary settlement with a consumer in connection with any complaint investigation. The commissioner may consider the totality of the circumstances, including any efforts by the licensee to mitigate any losses by a consumer, in determining the appropriateness or severity of administrative sanction.
§
Subd. 5. Order to show cause.
The commissioner shall issue an order requiring a licensee or applicant for a license to show cause why the license should not be revoked or suspended, or the licensee censured, or the application denied. The order shall be calculated to give reasonable notice of the time and place for hearing thereon, and shall state the specific statute or rule that has been violated for the entry of the order. The commissioner may by order summarily suspend a license pending final determination of any order to show cause. If a license is suspended pending final determination of an order to show cause, a hearing on the merits shall be held within 30 days of the issuance of the order of suspension. All hearings shall be conducted in accordance with the provisions of chapter 14. After the hearing, the commissioner shall enter an order making such disposition of the matter as the facts require. If the licensee or applicant fails to appear at a hearing after having been duly notified of it, such person shall be deemed in default, and the proceeding may be determined against the licensee or applicant upon consideration of the order to show cause, the allegations of which may be deemed to be true.
§
Subd. 6. ALJ hearing.
The commissioner may delegate to an administrative law judge the authority to conduct a hearing. The examiner shall make proposed findings of fact and submit them to the commissioner. The examiner shall have the same power as the commissioner to compel the attendance of witnesses, to examine them under oath, to require the production of books, papers and other evidence, and to issue subpoenas and cause the same to be served and executed in any part of the state.
§
Subd. 7. Judicial review of orders.
Orders of the commissioner shall be subject to judicial review pursuant to chapter 14.
§
Subd. 8. Hearing procedures; rulemaking.
The commissioner may promulgate rules of procedure concerning all hearings and other proceedings conducted pursuant to this chapter.
§
Subd. 9. Tax clearance certificate.
(a) In addition to the provisions of subdivision 1, the commissioner may not issue or renew a license if the commissioner of revenue notifies the commissioner and the licensee or applicant for a license that the licensee or applicant owes the state delinquent taxes in the amount of $500 or more. The commissioner may issue or renew the license only if (1) the commissioner of revenue issues a tax clearance certificate and (2) the commissioner of revenue or the licensee or applicant forwards a copy of the clearance to the commissioner. The commissioner of revenue may issue a clearance certificate only if the licensee or applicant does not owe the state any uncontested delinquent taxes.
(b) For purposes of this subdivision, the following terms have the meanings given.
(1) "Taxes" are all taxes payable to the commissioner of revenue, including penalties and interest due on those taxes.
(2) "Delinquent taxes" do not include a tax liability if (i) an administrative or court action that contests the amount or validity of the liability has been filed or served, (ii) the appeal period to contest the tax liability has not expired, or (iii) the licensee or applicant has entered into a payment agreement to pay the liability and is current with the payments.
(c) In lieu of the notice and hearing requirements of subdivisions 5, 6, 7, and 8 when a licensee or applicant is required to obtain a clearance certificate under this subdivision, a contested case hearing must be held if the licensee or applicant requests a hearing in writing to the commissioner of revenue within 30 days of the date of the notice provided in paragraph (a). The hearing must be held within 45 days of the date the commissioner of revenue refers the case to the Office of Administrative Hearings. Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, the licensee or applicant must be served with 20 days' notice in writing specifying the time and place of the hearing and the allegations against the licensee or applicant. The notice may be served personally or by mail.
(d) The commissioner shall require all licensees or applicants to provide their Social Security number and Minnesota business identification number on all license applications. Upon request of the commissioner of revenue, the commissioner must provide to the commissioner of revenue a list of all licensees and applicants, including the name and address, Social Security number, and business identification number. The commissioner of revenue may request a list of the licensees and applicants no more than once each calendar year.
§
Subd. 10. Revocations.
If the commissioner finds that any licensee or applicant is no longer in existence or has ceased to do business as a broker or salesperson or is subject to an adjudication of mental incompetence or to the control of a committee, conservator, or guardian, or cannot be located after reasonable search, the commissioner may by order revoke the license or deny the application.
History:
1973 c 410 s 4 ,11; 1976 c 197 s 2 ,3; 1977 c 215 s 1 ; 1982 c 424 s 130 ; 1982 c 478 s 1 ; 1983 c 284 s 15 ; 1984 c 552 s 8 ,9; 1984 c 640 s 32 ; 1985 c 248 s 70 ; 1985 c 251 s 8 ; 1986 c 358 s 14 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1Sp1986 c 1 art 7 s 6 ; 1989 c 184 art 2 s 2 ; 1989 c 347 s 10 -16,31,32; 1990 c 364 s 1 ; 1991 c 20 s 1 ; 1993 c 309 s 10 ,16; 1994 c 632 art 4 s 32 ,33; 1995 c 68 s 4 ; 1995 c 202 art 1 s 25 ; 1996 c 439 art 1 s 10 ; 1997 c 222 s 34 ; 1998 c 343 art 2 s 4 ; 2001 c 208 s 16 ; 2002 c 286 s 6 ; 2002 c 387 s 7 ; 2004 c 203 art 2 s 55 ,61
Minn. Stat. § 82.65
82.65 NOTICE TO COMMISSIONER.
§
Subdivision 1. Change of application information.
Notice in writing or in the format prescribed by the commissioner shall be given to the commissioner by a licensee of any change of information contained in the license application on file with the commissioner, including but not limited to personal name, trade name, address, or business location not later than ten days after the change.
§
Subd. 2. Mandatory.
The licensee shall notify the commissioner in writing or in the format prescribed by the commissioner within ten days of the facts in subdivisions 3 to 5.
§
Subd. 3. Civil judgment.
The licensee must notify the commissioner in writing of a final adverse decision or order of a court, whether or not the decision or order is appealed, regarding any proceeding in which the licensee was named as a defendant, and which alleged fraud, misrepresentation, or the conversion of funds, if the final adverse decision relates to the allegations of fraud, misrepresentation, or the conversion of funds.
§
Subd. 4. Disciplinary action.
The licensee must notify the commissioner in writing of the suspension or revocation of the licensee's real estate or other occupational license issued by this state or another jurisdiction.
§
Subd. 5. Criminal offense.
The licensee must notify the commissioner in writing if the licensee is charged with, adjudged guilty of, or enters a plea of guilty or nolo contendere to a charge of any felony, or of any gross misdemeanor alleging fraud, misrepresentation, conversion of funds, or a similar violation of any real estate licensing law.
History:
1973 c 410 s 4 ; 1976 c 197 s 2 ,3; 1977 c 215 s 1 ; 1982 c 424 s 130 ; 1982 c 478 s 1 ; 1984 c 552 s 8 ,9; 1985 c 251 s 8 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1989 c 347 s 10 -16; 1990 c 364 s 1 ; 1991 c 20 s 1 ; 1993 c 309 s 10 ; 1994 c 632 art 4 s 32 ,33; 1995 c 68 s 4 ; 1995 c 202 art 1 s 25 ; 1996 c 439 art 1 s 10 ; 1997 c 222 s 34 ; 2002 c 387 s 7 ; 2004 c 203 art 2 s 31 -34,61; 2010 c 384 s 68
Minn. Stat. § 82.66
82.66 CONTRACTS.
§
Subdivision 1. Listing agreements.
(a) Requirement. Licensees shall obtain a signed listing agreement or other signed written authorization from the owner of real property or from another person authorized to offer the property for sale or lease before advertising to the general public that the real property is available for sale or lease.
For the purposes of this section "advertising" includes placing a sign on the owner's property that indicates that the property is being offered for sale or lease.
(b) Contents. All listing agreements must be in writing and must include:
(1) a definite expiration date;
(2) a description of the real property involved;
(3) the list price and any terms required by the seller;
(4) the amount of any compensation or commission or the basis for computing the commission;
(5) a clear statement explaining the events or conditions that will entitle a broker to a commission;
(6) a clear statement explaining if the agreement may be canceled and the terms under which the agreement may be canceled;
(7) information regarding an override clause, if applicable, including a statement to the effect that the override clause will not be effective unless the licensee supplies the seller with a protective list within 72 hours after the expiration of the listing agreement;
(8) the following notice in not less than ten-point boldface type immediately preceding any provision of the listing agreement relating to compensation of the licensee:
"NOTICE: THE COMPENSATION FOR THE SALE, LEASE, RENTAL, OR MANAGEMENT OF REAL PROPERTY SHALL BE DETERMINED BETWEEN EACH INDIVIDUAL BROKER AND THE BROKER'S CLIENT.";
(9) for residential property listings, the following "dual agency" disclosure statement:
If a buyer represented by broker wishes to buy the seller's property, a dual agency will be created. This means that broker will represent both the seller(s) and the buyer(s), and owe the same duties to the buyer(s) that broker owes to the seller(s). This conflict of interest will prohibit broker from advocating exclusively on the seller's behalf. Dual agency will limit the level of representation broker can provide. If a dual agency should arise, the seller(s) will need to agree that confidential information about price, terms, and motivation will still be kept confidential unless the seller(s) instruct broker in writing to disclose specific information about the seller(s). All other information will be shared. Broker cannot act as a dual agent unless both the seller(s) and the buyer(s) agree to it. By agreeing to a possible dual agency, the seller(s) will be giving up the right to exclusive representation in an in-house transaction. However, if the seller(s) should decide not to agree to a possible dual agency, and the seller(s) want broker to represent the seller(s), the seller(s) may give up the opportunity to sell the property to buyers represented by broker.
Seller's Instructions to Broker
Having read and understood this information about dual agency, seller(s) now instructs broker as follows:
.
Seller(s) will agree to a dual agency representation and will consider offers made by buyers represented by broker.
.
Seller(s) will not agree to a dual agency representation and will not consider offers made by buyers represented by broker.
.
.
Seller
Real Estate Company Name
.
By:
.
Seller
Salesperson
Date:
.
;
(10) a notice requiring the seller to indicate in writing whether it is acceptable to the seller to have the licensee arrange for closing services or whether the seller wishes to arrange for others to conduct the closing; and
(11) for residential listings, a notice stating that after the expiration of the listing agreement, the seller will not be obligated to pay the licensee a fee or commission if the seller has executed another valid listing agreement pursuant to which the seller is obligated to pay a fee or commission to another licensee for the sale, lease, or exchange of the real property in question. This notice may be used in the listing agreement for any other type of real estate.
(c) Prohibited provisions. Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (d), clause (2), licensees shall not include in a listing agreement a holdover clause, automatic extension, or any similar provision, or an override clause the length of which is more than six months after the expiration of the listing agreement.
(d) Override clauses. (1) Licensees shall not seek to enforce an override clause unless a protective list has been furnished to the seller within 72 hours after the expiration of the listing agreement.
(2) A listing agreement may contain an override clause of up to two years in length when used in conjunction with the purchase or sale of a business. The length of the override clause must be negotiable between the licensee and the seller of the business. The protective list provided in connection with the override clause must include the written acknowledgment of each party named on the protective list, that the business which is the subject of the listing agreement was presented to that party by the licensee.
(e) Protective lists. A broker or salesperson has the burden of demonstrating that each person on the protective list has, during the period of the listing agreement, either made an affirmative showing of interest in the property by responding to an advertisement or by contacting the broker or salesperson involved or has been physically shown the property by the broker or salesperson. For the purpose of this section, the mere mailing or other distribution by a licensee of literature setting forth information about the property in question does not, of itself, constitute an affirmative showing of interest in the property on the part of a subsequent purchaser.
For listings of nonresidential real property which do not contain the notice described in paragraph (b), clause (11), the protective list must contain the following notice in boldface type:
"IF YOU RELIST WITH ANOTHER BROKER WITHIN THE OVERRIDE PERIOD AND THEN SELL YOUR PROPERTY TO ANYONE WHOSE NAME APPEARS ON THIS LIST, YOU COULD BE LIABLE FOR FULL COMMISSIONS TO BOTH BROKERS. IF THIS NOTICE IS NOT FULLY UNDERSTOOD, SEEK COMPETENT ADVICE."
§
Subd. 2. Buyer's broker agreements.
(a) Requirements. Licensees shall obtain a signed buyer's broker agreement from a buyer before performing any acts as a buyer's representative.
(b) Contents. All buyer's broker agreements must be in writing and must include:
(1) a definite expiration date;
(2) the amount of any compensation or commission, or the basis for computing the commission;
(3) a clear statement explaining the services to be provided to the buyer by the broker, and the events or conditions that will entitle a broker to a commission or other compensation;
(4) a clear statement explaining if the agreement may be canceled and the terms under which the agreement may be canceled;
(5) information regarding an override clause, if applicable, including a statement to the effect that the override clause will not be effective unless the licensee supplies the buyer with a protective list within 72 hours after the expiration of the buyer's broker agreement;
(6) the following notice in not less than ten-point boldface type immediately preceding any provision of the buyer's broker agreement relating to compensation of the licensee:
"NOTICE: THE COMPENSATION FOR THE PURCHASE, LEASE, RENTAL, OR MANAGEMENT OF REAL PROPERTY SHALL BE DETERMINED BETWEEN EACH INDIVIDUAL BROKER AND THE BROKER'S CLIENT.";
(7) the following "dual agency" disclosure statement:
If the buyer(s) choose(s) to purchase a property listed by broker, a dual agency will be created. This means that broker will represent both the buyer(s) and the seller(s), and owe the same duties to the seller(s) that broker owes to the buyer(s). This conflict of interest will prohibit broker from advocating exclusively on the buyer's behalf. Dual agency will limit the level of representation broker can provide. If a dual agency should arise, the buyer(s) will need to agree that confidential information about price, terms, and motivation will still be kept confidential unless the buyer(s) instruct broker in writing to disclose specific information about the buyer(s). All other information will be shared. Broker cannot act as a dual agent unless both the buyer(s) and the seller(s) agree to it. By agreeing to a possible dual agency, the buyer(s) will be giving up the right to exclusive representation in an in-house transaction. However, if the buyer(s) should decide not to agree to a possible dual agency, and the buyer(s) want(s) broker to represent the buyer(s), the buyer(s) may give up the opportunity to purchase the properties listed by broker.
Buyer's Instructions to Broker
.
Buyer(s) will agree to a dual agency representation and will consider properties listed by broker.
.
Buyer(s) will not agree to a dual agency representation and will not consider properties listed by broker.
.
.
Buyer
Real Estate Company Name
.
By:
.
Buyer
Salesperson
Date:
.
; and
(8) for buyer's broker agreements which involve residential real property, a notice stating that after the expiration of the buyer's broker agreement, the buyer will not be obligated to pay the licensee a fee or commission if the buyer has executed another valid buyer's broker agreement pursuant to which the buyer is obligated to pay a fee or commission to another licensee for the purchase, lease, or exchange of real property.
(c) Prohibited provisions. Licensees shall not include in a buyer's broker agreement a holdover clause, automatic extension, or any other similar provision, or an override clause the length of which is more than six months after the expiration of the buyer's broker agreement.
(d) Override clauses. (1) Licensees shall not seek to enforce an override clause unless a protective list has been furnished to the buyer within 72 hours after the expiration of the buyer's broker agreement.
(2) A buyer's broker agreement may contain an override clause of up to two years in length when used in conjunction with the purchase or sale of a business. The length of the override clause must be negotiable between the licensee and the buyer of the business. The protective list provided in connection with the override clause must include the written acknowledgement of each party named on the protective list, that the business that is the subject of the buyer's broker agreement was presented to that party by the licensee.
(e) Protective lists. A licensee has the burden of demonstrating that each property on the protective list has been shown to the buyer, or specifically brought to the attention of the buyer, during the time the buyer's broker agreement was in effect.
(f) Application. This section applies only to residential real property transactions.
History:
1993 c 309 s 7 ,8; 1994 c 465 art 1 s 4 ; 1995 c 68 s 3 ; 1996 c 439 art 3 s 2 -4; 2001 c 208 s 9 ,10; 2004 c 203 art 2 s 20 ,21,61; 2010 c 384 s 51 ; 2014 c 199 s 23
Minn. Stat. § 82.67
82.67 .
(b) The seller may, in the listing agreement, authorize the seller's broker to disburse part of the broker's compensation to other brokers, including the buyer's brokers solely representing the buyer, as authorized in section 82.70, subdivision 4 .
§
Subd. 7. Securities sold by businesses outside scope of licensing.
A license issued under this chapter does not allow a licensee to engage in the business of buying, selling, negotiating, brokering, or otherwise dealing in vendor's interests in contracts for deed, mortgagee's interests in mortgages, or other evidence of indebtedness regarding real estate, except that a licensee may, if there is no compensation in addition to the brokerage commission or fee, and if the licensee represents the seller, buyer, lessor, or lessee in the sale, lease, or exchange of real estate, arrange for the sale of a contract, mortgage, or similar evidence of indebtedness for the subject property.
§
Subd. 8. Closing services.
No real estate broker, salesperson, or closing agent shall require a person to use any particular lender, licensed attorney, real estate broker, real estate salesperson, real estate closing agent, or title insurance agent in connection with a residential real estate closing.
§
Subd. 9. Exclusive agreements.
(a) Except as provided in paragraph (c), a licensee shall not negotiate the sale, exchange, lease, or listing of any real property directly with the owner or lessor knowing that the owner or lessor has executed a written contract granting exclusive representation or assistance for the same service in connection with the property to another real estate broker, buyer, or lessee, nor shall a licensee negotiate the purchase, lease, or exchange of real property knowing that the buyer or lessee has executed a written contract granting exclusive representation or assistance for the same service of purchase, lease, or exchange of the real property with another real estate broker.
(b) A licensee shall not induce any party to a contract of sale, purchase, lease, or option, or to an exclusive listing agreement or buyer's agreement, or facilitator services agreement, to breach the contract, option, or agreement.
(c) A licensee may discuss the terms upon which a listing or buyer representation contract or a contract for facilitator services may be entered into after expiration of any existing exclusive contract when the inquiry or discussion is initiated by the owner, lessor, buyer, or lessee. The licensee must inquire of the owner, lessor, buyer, or lessee whether such an exclusive contract exists.
§
Subd. 10. Prohibition on guaranteeing future profits.
Licensees shall not, with respect to the sale or lease of real property, guarantee or affirmatively encourage another person to guarantee future profits or earnings that may result from the purchase or lease of the real property in question unless the guarantee and the assumptions upon which it is based are fully disclosed and contained in the contract, purchase agreement, or other instrument of sale or lease.
§
Subd. 11. Prohibition against discouraging use of attorney.
Licensees shall not discourage prospective parties to a real estate transaction from seeking the services of an attorney.
§
Subd. 12. Fraudulent, deceptive, and dishonest practices.
(a) Prohibitions. For the purposes of section 82.82, subdivision 1 , clause (b), the following acts and practices constitute fraudulent, deceptive, or dishonest practices:
(1) act on behalf of more than one party to a transaction without the knowledge and consent of all parties;
(2) act in the dual capacity of licensee and undisclosed principal in any transaction;
(3) receive funds while acting as principal which funds would constitute trust funds if received by a licensee acting as an agent, unless the funds are placed in a trust account. Funds need not be placed in a trust account if a written agreement signed by all parties to the transaction specifies a different disposition of the funds, in accordance with section 82.82, subdivision 1 ;
(4) violate any state or federal law concerning discrimination intended to protect the rights of purchasers or renters of real estate;
(5) make a material misstatement in an application for a license or in any information furnished to the commissioner;
(6) procure or attempt to procure a real estate license for the procuring individual or any person by fraud, misrepresentation, or deceit;
(7) represent membership in any real estate-related organization in which the licensee is not a member;
(8) advertise in any manner that is misleading or inaccurate with respect to properties, terms, values, policies, or services conducted by the licensee;
(9) make any material misrepresentation or permit or allow another to make any material misrepresentation;
(10) make any false or misleading statements, or permit or allow another to make any false or misleading statements, of a character likely to influence, persuade, or induce the consummation of a transaction contemplated by this chapter;
(11) fail within a reasonable time to account for or remit any money coming into the licensee's possession which belongs to another;
(12) commingle with the individual's own money or property trust funds or any other money or property of another held by the licensee;
(13) a demand from a seller for a commission or compensation to which the licensee is not entitled, knowing that the individual is not entitled to the commission or compensation;
(14) pay or give money or goods of value to an unlicensed person for any assistance or information relating to the procurement by a licensee of a listing of a property or of a prospective buyer of a property (this item does not apply to money or goods paid or given to the parties to the transaction);
(15) fail to maintain a trust account at all times, as provided by law;
(16) engage, with respect to the offer, sale, or rental of real estate, in an anticompetitive activity;
(17) represent on advertisements, cards, signs, circulars, letterheads, or in any other manner, that the individual is engaged in the business of financial planning unless the individual provides a disclosure document to the client. The document must be signed by the client and a copy must be left with the client. The disclosure document must contain the following:
(i) the basis of fees, commissions, or other compensation received by an individual in connection with rendering of financial planning services or financial counseling or advice in the following language:
"My compensation may be based on the following:
(a) ... commissions generated from the products I sell you;
(b) ... fees; or
(c) ... a combination of (a) and (b). [Comments]";
(ii) the name and address of any company or firm that supplies the financial services or products offered or sold by an individual in the following language:
"I am authorized to offer or sell products and/or services issued by or through the following firm(s):
[List]
The products will be traded, distributed, or placed through the clearing/trading firm(s) of:
[List]";
(iii) the license(s) held by the person under this chapter or chapter 60A or 80A in the following language:
"I am licensed in Minnesota as a(n):
(a) ... insurance agent;
(b) ... securities agent or broker/dealer;
(c) ... real estate broker or salesperson;
(d) ... investment adviser"; and
(iv) the specific identity of any financial products or services, by category, for example mutual funds, stocks, or limited partnerships, the person is authorized to offer or sell in the following language:
"The license(s) entitles me to offer and sell the following products and/or services:
(a) ... securities, specifically the following: [List];
(b) ... real property;
(c) ... insurance; and
(d) ... other: [List]."
(b) Determining violation. A licensee shall be deemed to have violated this section if the licensee has been found to have violated sections
Minn. Stat. § 82.68
82.68 OTHER DISCLOSURE REQUIREMENTS.
§
Subdivision 1. Agent of broker disclosure.
A salesperson shall only conduct business under the licensed name of and on behalf of the broker to whom the salesperson is licensed. An individual broker shall only conduct business under the brokerage's licensed name. A broker licensed to a business entity shall only conduct business under the licensed business entity name. A licensee shall affirmatively disclose, before the negotiation or consummation of any transaction, the licensed name of the brokerage under whom the licensee is authorized to conduct business according to this section.
§
Subd. 2. Financial interests disclosure; licensee.
(a) Before the negotiation or consummation of any transaction, a licensee shall affirmatively disclose to the owner of real property that the licensee is a real estate broker or agent salesperson, and in what capacity the licensee is acting, if the licensee directly, or indirectly through a third party, purchases for himself or herself or acquires, or intends to acquire, any interest in, or any option to purchase, the owner's property.
(b) When a principal in the transaction is a licensee or a relative or business associate of the licensee, that fact must be disclosed in writing before negotiating or consummating any transaction.
§
Subd. 3. Material facts.
(a) A licensee shall disclose to a prospective purchaser all material facts of which the licensee is aware, which could adversely and significantly affect an ordinary purchaser's use or enjoyment of the property, or any intended use of the property of which the licensee is aware.
(b) It is not a material fact relating to real property offered for sale the fact or suspicion that the property:
(1) is or was occupied by an owner or occupant who is or was suspected to be infected with human immunodeficiency virus or diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome;
(2) was the site of a suicide, accidental death, natural death, or perceived paranormal activity; or
(3) is located in a neighborhood containing any adult family home, community-based residential facility, or nursing home.
(c) A licensee or employee of the licensee has no duty to disclose information regarding an offender who is required to register under section
Minn. Stat. § 82.69
82.69 ADVERTISING REQUIREMENTS.
(a) Any advertising by a licensee must clearly and conspicuously display the real estate brokerage name.
(b) If a salesperson or broker is part of a team or group within the brokerage, the licensee may include the team or group name in the advertising only under the following conditions:
(1) the inclusion of the team or group name is authorized by the primary broker of the brokerage to which the salesperson or broker is licensed; and
(2) the real estate brokerage name must be clearly and conspicuously displayed in the advertising.
History:
2010 c 384 s 77 ; 2014 c 199 s 26 ; 2019 c 30 s 1
Minn. Stat. § 82.70
82.70 COMPENSATION.
§
Subdivision 1. Licensee to receive only from, or authorized by, broker.
Unless authorized in writing by the real estate broker to whom the licensee is licensed or to whom the licensee was licensed at the time of the transaction, a licensee shall not pay and a licensee shall not accept a commission, compensation, referral fee, BPO fee, or other valuable consideration for the performance of any acts requiring a real estate license from any person except the real estate broker to whom the licensee is licensed or to whom the licensee was licensed at the time of the transaction.
§
Subd. 2. Commission-splitting, rebates, referral fee, and fees.
(a) In connection with a real estate or business opportunity transaction, a real estate broker or real estate salesperson shall not offer, pay, or give, and a person shall not accept, any compensation or other thing of value from a real estate broker or real estate salesperson by way of commission-splitting, rebate, referral fees, finder's fees, or otherwise.
(b) This subdivision does not apply to transactions:
(1) between a licensed real estate broker or salesperson and the parties to the transaction;
(2) among persons licensed as provided in this chapter;
(3) between a licensed real estate broker or salesperson and persons from other jurisdictions similarly licensed in that jurisdiction;
(4) involving timeshare or other recreational lands where the amount offered or paid does not exceed $150, and payment is not conditioned upon any sale but is made merely for providing the referral and the person paying the fee is bound by any representations made by the person receiving the fee; and
(5) involving a person who receives a referral fee from a person or an agent of a person licensed under this section, provided that in any 12-month period, no recipient may earn more than the value of one month's rent, that the recipient is a resident of the property or has lived there within 60 days of the payment of the fee, and that the person paying the fee is bound by any representations made by the recipient of the fee.
§
Subd. 3. Undisclosed compensation.
A licensee shall not accept, give, or charge any undisclosed compensation or realize any direct or indirect remuneration that inures to the benefit of the licensee on an expenditure made for a principal.
§
Subd. 4. Sharing of compensation with other brokers.
The seller may, in the listing agreement, authorize the seller's broker to disburse part of the broker's compensation to other brokers, including the buyer's brokers solely representing the buyer.
§
Subd. 5. Directing payment of compensation.
A licensed real estate broker or salesperson may assign or direct that commissions or other compensation earned in connection with a real estate or business opportunity transaction be paid to a corporation, limited liability company, or sole proprietorship of which the licensed real estate broker or salesperson is the sole owner. "Sole owner" in this subdivision means the licensed real estate broker or salesperson and may include the licensed real estate broker's or salesperson's spouse.
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Subd. 6. Closing agent fee.
A real estate closing agent may not charge a fee for closing services to a borrower, and a borrower may not be required to pay such a fee at settlement, if the fee was not previously disclosed in writing at least one business day before the settlement. This disclosure requirement is satisfied if a disclosure is made or an estimate given under section
Minn. Stat. § 82.71
82.71 NEGOTIATIONS.
§
Subdivision 1. Written offers.
All written offers to purchase or lease shall be promptly submitted in writing to the seller or lessor.
§
Subd. 2. Nondisclosure of terms of offer.
A licensee shall not disclose the terms of an offer to another prospective buyer or the licensee representing or assisting the buyer prior to the presentation of the offer to the seller.
§
Subd. 3. Closing costs.
Licensees shall disclose to a buyer or a seller at or before the time an offer is written or presented that the buyer or seller may be required to pay certain closing costs, which may effectively reduce the proceeds from the sale or increase the cash outlay at closing.
§
Subd. 4. Required documents.
Licensees shall furnish to the parties to the transaction at the time the documents are signed or become available a true and accurate copy of listing agreements, earnest money receipts, purchase agreements, contracts for deed, option agreements, closing statements, truth-in-housing forms, energy audits, and any other record, instrument, or document that is material to the transaction and that is in the licensee's possession.
§
Subd. 5. Closing statement.
The listing broker or his or her designee if acting as the transaction closing agent shall deliver to the seller, at the time of closing, a complete and detailed closing statement setting forth all of the receipts and disbursements handled by the broker for the seller. The listing broker if acting as the transaction closing agent shall also deliver to the buyer, at the time of closing, a complete and detailed statement setting forth the disposition of all money received in the transaction from the buyer.
History:
2004 c 203 art 2 s 57 ; 2014 c 199 s 29
Minn. Stat. § 82.72
82.72 RECORDS.
§
Subdivision 1. Delivery.
Each real estate broker, real estate salesperson, or closing agent shall furnish parties to a transaction a true and accurate copy of any document pertaining to their interests as the commissioner through appropriate rules may require.
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Subd. 2. Examination of records.
The commissioner may make examinations within or outside of this state of each broker's or closing agent's records at such reasonable time and in such scope as is necessary to enforce the provisions of this chapter.
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Subd. 3. Retention.
A licensed real estate broker shall retain for six years copies of all listings, buyer representation and facilitator services contracts, deposit receipts, purchase money contracts, canceled checks, trust account records, and such other documents as may reasonably be related to carrying on a real estate brokerage business. The retention period shall run from the date of the closing of the transaction, or from the date of the document if the transaction is not consummated. The following documents need not be retained:
(1) agency disclosure forms provided to prospective buyers or sellers, where no contractual relationship is subsequently created and no services are provided by the licensee; and
(2) facilitator services contracts or buyer representation contracts entered into with prospective buyers, where the prospective buyer abandons the contractual relationship before any services have been provided by the licensee.
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Subd. 4. Storage.
Storage of documents identified in subdivision 3 may be by electronic means.
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Subd. 5. Destruction.
After the retention period specified in subdivision 3 has elapsed and the broker no longer wishes to retain the documents, the broker must ensure that the documents are disposed of according to the confidential record destruction procedures of the Fair and Accurate Credit Transaction Act of 2003, Public Law 108-159.
History:
1973 c 410 s 7 ; 1989 c 347 s 23 ,24; 2002 c 286 s 5 ; 2004 c 203 art 2 s 61 ; 2010 c 384 s 72 -74; 2014 c 199 s 30 ,31; 2015 c 21 art 1 s 10
Minn. Stat. § 82.73
82.73 , subdivision 3, paragraph (e).
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Subd. 3. Nondepositable items.
In the event earnest money or other down payments in a real estate transaction are received by the broker or salesperson in the form of a nondepositable item such as a note, bond, stock certificate, treasury bill, or any other instrument or equity or thing of value received by a broker, salesperson, or closing agent received in lieu of cash shall be deposited immediately with an authorized escrow agent, whose authority is evidenced by a written agreement executed by the offeror and the escrow agent. A receipt shall be issued to the buyer for the value of the nondepositable item.
In the event the broker acts as the escrow agent, the broker shall obtain written authority from the buyer and seller to hold such items in escrow. In all cases, the parties shall be advised of the details relative to the nondepositable item, including the nature of the item, the amount, and in whose custody such item is being held. The fact that such an item is being held by the broker shall be duly recorded in the broker's trust account records.
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Subd. 4. Commingling funds.
A broker, salesperson, or closing agent shall deposit only trust funds in a trust account and shall not commingle personal funds or other funds in a trust account, except that a broker, salesperson, or closing agent may deposit and maintain a sum in a trust account from personal funds, which sum shall be specifically identified and used to pay service charges or satisfy the minimum balance requirements relating to the trust account.
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Subd. 5. Trust accounts.
(a) Each broker or closing agent shall maintain and retain records of all trust funds and trust accounts. The commissioner may prescribe information to be included in the records by appropriate rules.
(b) Unless otherwise agreed upon in writing by the parties to a transaction, the broker with whom trust funds are to be deposited shall be the listing broker.
(c) Earnest money received from a potential buyer shall be deposited into the listing broker's trust account pursuant to the terms of a written agreement between the parties. If the written agreement between the parties is silent as to the timing of the deposit of earnest money, the listing broker shall deposit the earnest money within three business days of either receipt of the earnest money or final acceptance of the purchase agreement, whichever is later. If the offer is rejected, the earnest money shall be returned to the potential buyer not later than the next business day after rejection.
(d) Trust funds must be maintained in a trust account until disbursement is made in accordance with this section and proper accounting is made to the parties entitled to an accounting.
Trust funds may only be disbursed upon the occurrence of one of the following:
(1) a closing of the transaction;
(2) written agreement between the parties;
(3) pursuant to an affidavit as required in section
Minn. Stat. § 82.735
82.735 BROKER PRICE OPINION; REQUIREMENTS; DUTIES OF LICENSEE; REGULATIONS.
§
Subdivision 1. Requirements.
A person licensed under this chapter or chapter 82B may prepare and provide a broker price opinion and a broker may charge and collect a fee for it if the license of that licensee is active and in good standing.
§
Subd. 2. Duties of licensee.
Notwithstanding any provision of the laws of this state to the contrary, a person licensed under this chapter or chapter 82B may prepare a broker price opinion for:
(1) an existing or potential seller for the purposes of listing and selling a parcel of real property;
(2) an existing or potential buyer of a parcel of real property;
(3) a third party making decisions or performing due diligence related to the potential listing, offering, sale, exchange, option, lease, or acquisition price of a parcel of real property when prepared as required by subdivision 3; or
(4) an existing or potential lienholder or other third party for any purpose other than as the primary basis to determine the value of a piece of property for the purpose of a loan origination of a residential mortgage loan secured by such piece of property, when done in conjunction with the purchase of a consumer's principal dwelling, when prepared as required by subdivision 3.
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Subd. 3. Written report; requirement.
(a) Unless the party requesting the opinion requires a specific report, a broker price opinion prepared for a party under subdivision 2, clause (3) or (4), must be in writing and contain the following:
(1) a statement of the intended purpose of the broker price opinion;
(2) a brief description of the subject property and property interest to be priced;
(3) the basis of reasoning used to reach the opinion on the price, including the applicable market data;
(4) any assumptions or limiting conditions;
(5) a disclosure of any existing or contemplated interest of the broker or salesperson issuing the opinion;
(6) the name of the broker or salesperson issuing the price opinion;
(7) the name of the real estate brokerage that the broker or salesperson is acting on behalf of;
(8) the date of the price opinion; and
(9) a disclaimer stating, "This opinion is not an appraisal of the market value of the property, and may not be used in lieu of an appraisal. If an appraisal is desired, the services of a licensed or certified appraiser must be obtained."
(b) A copy of the broker price opinion report required under this subdivision together with any supporting materials and documents used in its preparation shall be retained as required under section 82.72, subdivisions 3 and 4.
(c) A licensee may produce or transmit a broker price opinion report electronically to any person entitled to receive it.
History:
2011 c 15 s 3 ; 2014 c 199 s 32
Minn. Stat. § 82.74
82.74 GUARANTEED SALE PROGRAMS.
If a broker advertises or offers a guaranteed sale program, or other program whereby the broker undertakes to purchase real property in the event he or she is unable to effectuate a sale to a third party within a specified period of time, a written disclosure that sets forth clearly and completely the general terms and conditions under which the broker agrees to purchase the property and the disposition of any profit at the time of resale by the broker must be provided to the seller prior to the execution of a listing agreement.
History:
2004 c 203 art 2 s 54 ,61
Minn. Stat. § 82.75
82.75 TRUST ACCOUNT REQUIREMENTS.
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Subdivision 1. Generally.
All trust funds received by a broker or the broker's salespeople or closing agents shall be deposited, as provided in subdivision 5, in a trust account, maintained by the broker for such purpose in a bank, savings association, credit union, or an industrial loan and thrift company with deposit liabilities designated by the broker or closing agent, except as such money may be paid to one of the parties pursuant to express written agreement between the parties to a transaction. The depository bank shall be a Minnesota bank or trust company or any foreign bank and shall authorize the commissioner to examine its records of such deposits upon demand by the commissioner. The industrial loan and thrift company shall be organized under chapter 53. The savings association or credit union shall be organized under the laws of any state or the United States.
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Subd. 2. Licensee acting as principal.
A licensee acting in the capacity of principal in a real estate transaction where the seller retains any liability, contingent or otherwise, for the payment of an obligation on the property shall deposit in a Minnesota bank or trust company, any foreign bank which authorizes the commissioner to examine its records of the deposits, a savings association, credit union, or an industrial loan and thrift company organized under chapter 53 with deposit liabilities, in a trust account, those parts of all payments received on contracts that are necessary to meet any amounts concurrently due and payable on any existing mortgages, contracts for deed or other conveyancing instruments, and reserve for taxes and insurance or any other encumbrance on the receipts. The deposits must be maintained until disbursement is made under the terms of the encumbrance and proper accounting on the property made to the parties entitled to an accounting. The provisions of this subdivision relating to rental of interests in real estate apply only to residential property, except as provided in section
Minn. Stat. § 82.76
82.76 LOAN BROKERS.
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Subdivision 1. Compliance.
Loan brokers shall comply with the requirements of subdivisions 2 to 7.
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Subd. 2. Contract provisions.
A loan broker shall enter into a written contract with each customer and shall provide a copy of the written contract to each customer at or before the time of receipt of any fee or valuable consideration paid for loan brokerage services. The written contract shall:
(1) identify the escrow account into which the fees or consideration will be deposited;
(2) set forth the circumstances under which the loan broker will be entitled to disbursement from the escrow account;
(3) set forth the circumstances under which the customer will be entitled to a refund of all or part of the fee;
(4) specifically describe the services to be provided by the loan broker and the dates by which the services will be performed;
(5) state the maximum rate of interest to be charged on any loan obtained;
(6) contain a statement which notifies the customer of his or her rights to cancel the contract pursuant to subdivision 3;
(7) disclose, with respect to the 12-month period ending ten business days prior to the date of the contract in question, the percentage of the loan broker's customers for whom loans have actually been funded as a result of the loan broker's services. This disclosure need not be made for any period prior to September 8, 1986; and
(8) disclose the cancellation rights and procedures set forth in subdivision 3.
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Subd. 3. Cancellation.
Any customer of a loan broker who pays a fee prior to the time a loan is actually funded shall have an unconditional right to rescind the contract for loan brokerage services at any time until midnight of the third business day after the day on which the contract is signed. Cancellation is evidenced by the customer giving written notice of cancellation to the loan broker at the address stated in the contract. Notice of cancellation, if given by mail, is effective upon deposit in a mailbox properly addressed to the loan broker with postage prepaid. Notice of cancellation need not take a particular form and is sufficient if it indicates by any form of written expression the intention of the customer not to be bound by the contract. No act of a customer of a loan broker shall be effective to waive the right to rescind as provided in this subdivision.
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Subd. 4. Escrow account.
The loan broker shall deposit in an escrow account within 48 hours all fees received prior to the time a loan is actually funded. The escrow account shall be in a bank located within the state of Minnesota and shall be controlled by an unaffiliated accountant, lawyer, or bank.
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Subd. 5. Records.
The loan broker shall maintain a separate record of all fees received for services performed or to be performed as a loan broker. Each record shall set forth the date funds are received, the person from whom the funds are received, the amount received, the date of deposit in the escrow account, the account number, the date the funds are disbursed and the check number of the disbursement, and a description of each disbursement and the justification for the disbursement.
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Subd. 6. Monthly statement.
The loan broker shall provide to each customer at least monthly a detailed written accounting of all disbursements of the customer's funds from the trust account.
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Subd. 7. Disclosure of lenders.
The loan broker shall provide to each customer at the expiration of the contract a list of the lenders or loan sources to whom loan applications were submitted on behalf of the customer.
History:
2004 c 203 art 2 s 56 ; 2005 c 118 s 14
Minn. Stat. § 82.77
82.77 , relating to table funding;
(23) make, provide, or arrange for a residential mortgage loan all or a portion of the proceeds of which are used to fully or partially pay off a "special mortgage" unless the borrower has obtained a written certification from an authorized independent loan counselor that the borrower has received counseling on the advisability of the loan transaction. For purposes of this section, "special mortgage" means a residential mortgage loan originated, subsidized, or guaranteed by or through a state, tribal, or local government, or nonprofit organization, that bears one or more of the following nonstandard payment terms which substantially benefit the borrower: (i) payments vary with income; (ii) payments of principal or interest are not required or can be deferred under specified conditions; (iii) principal or interest is forgivable under specified conditions; or (iv) where no interest or an annual interest rate of two percent or less is charged in connection with the loan. For purposes of this section, "authorized independent loan counselor" means a nonprofit, third-party individual or organization providing home buyer education programs, foreclosure prevention services, mortgage loan counseling, or credit counseling certified by the United States Department of Housing and Urban Development, the Minnesota Home Ownership Center, the Minnesota Mortgage Foreclosure Prevention Association, AARP, or NeighborWorks America;
(24) make, provide, or arrange for a residential mortgage loan without verifying the borrower's reasonable ability to pay the scheduled payments of the following, as applicable: principal; interest; real estate taxes; homeowner's insurance, assessments, and mortgage insurance premiums. For loans in which the interest rate may vary, the reasonable ability to pay shall be determined based on a fully indexed rate and a repayment schedule which achieves full amortization over the life of the loan. For all residential mortgage loans, the borrower's income and financial resources must be verified by tax returns, payroll receipts, bank records, or other similarly reliable documents.
Nothing in this section shall be construed to limit a mortgage originator's or exempt person's ability to rely on criteria other than the borrower's income and financial resources to establish the borrower's reasonable ability to repay the residential mortgage loan, including criteria established by the United States Department of Veterans Affairs or the United States Department of Housing and Urban Development for interest rate reduction refinancing loans or streamline loans, or criteria authorized or promulgated by the Federal National Mortgage Association or Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation; however, such other criteria must be verified through reasonably reliable methods and documentation. The mortgage originator's analysis of the borrower's reasonable ability to repay may include, but is not limited to, consideration of the following items, if verified: (1) the borrower's current and expected income; (2) current and expected cash flow; (3) net worth and other financial resources other than the consumer's equity in the dwelling that secures the loan; (4) current financial obligations; (5) property taxes and insurance; (6) assessments on the property; (7) employment status; (8) credit history; (9) debt-to-income ratio; (10) credit scores; (11) tax returns; (12) pension statements; and (13) employment payment records, provided that no mortgage originator shall disregard facts and circumstances that indicate that the financial or other information submitted by the consumer is inaccurate or incomplete. A statement by the borrower to the residential mortgage originator or exempt person of the borrower's income and resources or sole reliance on any single item listed above is not sufficient to establish the existence of the income or resources when verifying the reasonable ability to pay;
(25) engage in "churning." As used in this section, "churning" means knowingly or intentionally making, providing, or arranging for a residential mortgage loan when the new residential mortgage loan does not provide a reasonable, tangible net benefit to the borrower considering all of the circumstances, including the terms of both the new and refinanced loans, the cost of the new loan, and the borrower's circumstances. In order to demonstrate a reasonable, tangible net benefit to the borrower, the circumstances at the time of the application must be documented in writing and must be signed by the borrower prior to the closing date;
(26) the first time a residential mortgage originator orally informs a borrower of the anticipated or actual periodic payment amount for a first-lien residential mortgage loan which does not include an amount for payment of property taxes and hazard insurance, the residential mortgage originator must inform the borrower that an additional amount will be due for taxes and insurance and, if known, disclose to the borrower the amount of the anticipated or actual periodic payments for property taxes and hazard insurance. This same oral disclosure must be made each time the residential mortgage originator orally informs the borrower of a different anticipated or actual periodic payment amount change from the amount previously disclosed. A residential mortgage originator need not make this disclosure concerning a refinancing loan if the residential mortgage originator knows that the borrower's existing loan that is anticipated to be refinanced does not have an escrow account; or
(27) make, provide, or arrange for a residential mortgage loan, other than a reverse mortgage pursuant to United States Code, title 15, chapter 41, if the borrower's compliance with any repayment option offered pursuant to the terms of the loan will result in negative amortization during any six-month period.
(b) Paragraph (a), clauses (24) through (27), do not apply to a state or federally chartered bank, savings bank, or credit union, an institution chartered by Congress under the Farm Credit Act, or to a person making, providing, or arranging a residential mortgage loan originated or purchased by a state agency or a tribal or local unit of government. This paragraph supersedes any inconsistent provision of this chapter.
[See Note.]
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Subd. 2. Statements, representations, or advertising.
A statement, representation, or advertisement is deceptive or misleading if it has the capacity or tendency to deceive or mislead a borrower or potential borrower. The commissioner shall consider the following factors in deciding whether a statement, representation, or advertisement is deceptive or misleading: the overall impression that the statement, representation, or advertisement reasonably creates; the particular type of audience to which it is directed; and whether it may be reasonably comprehended by the segment of the public to which it is directed.
History:
1998 c 343 art 1 s 13 ; 2004 c 203 art 1 s 1 ; art 2 s 61; 2007 c 18 s 2 ; 2007 c 74 s 3 ; 2008 c 241 s 1 ; 2008 c 276 s 2 ; 2009 c 37 art 3 s 9 ; 2019 c 19 s 1 ; 2024 c 114 art 2 s 30
NOTE: Subdivision 1, clauses (9) and (19), were found preempted for national banks by the federal National Bank Act in Bohnhoff v. Wells Fargo Bank, N.A. , 853 F.Supp.2d 849 (D. Minn. 2012).
Minn. Stat. § 82.78
82.78 RENTAL SERVICES.
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Subdivision 1. License.
A rental service shall obtain a real estate broker's license before engaging in business or holding itself out as being engaged in business. No person shall act as a real estate salesperson on behalf of a rental service without first obtaining a real estate salesperson's license on behalf of the rental service.
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Subd. 2. Dissemination of unit information.
A rental service shall not provide information regarding a rental unit without the express authority of the owner of the unit.
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Subd. 3. Advertising.
A rental service shall not advertise in a manner that is misleading with regards to fees charged, services provided, the availability of rental units, or rental terms or conditions.
History:
2004 c 203 art 2 s 58
Minn. Stat. § 82.80
82.80 UNCLAIMED PROPERTY ACT COMPLIANCE.
Upon the initial application for a real estate broker's license and upon each annual application for renewal, the applicant or broker shall be required to inform the commissioner of compliance with the requirements set forth in chapter 345 relating to unclaimed property.
History:
2004 c 203 art 2 s 60
Minn. Stat. § 82.81
82.81 PROHIBITIONS.
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Subdivision 1. License required.
No person shall act as a real estate broker or real estate salesperson unless licensed as provided in this section.
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Subd. 2. Misrepresenting status as licensee.
No persons shall advertise or represent themselves to be real estate brokers or real estate salespersons unless licensed as provided in this section.
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Subd. 3. Limitation on broker when transaction not completed.
When the owner fails or is unable to consummate a real estate transaction, through no fault of the purchaser, the listing broker may not claim any portion of any trust funds deposited with the broker by the purchaser, absent a separate agreement with the purchaser.
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Subd. 4. Authorizing or engaging unlicensed person to act on licensee's behalf.
No real estate broker, salesperson, or closing agent shall engage or authorize any person, except one licensed as provided herein, to act as a real estate broker, salesperson, or closing agent on the engager's or authorizer's behalf.
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Subd. 5. Self-serving provision prohibited.
No purchase agreement, earnest money contract, or similar contract for the purchase, rental, or lease of real property may contain any hold harmless clause or arbitration clause which addresses the rights or liabilities of persons required to be licensed pursuant to this chapter unless the person required to be licensed is a principal in the transaction.
This does not prohibit separate and independent written agreements between any of the parties and persons required to be licensed pursuant to this chapter.
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Subd. 6. Disclosure regarding representation of parties.
(a) No person licensed pursuant to this chapter or who otherwise acts as a real estate broker or salesperson shall fail to provide at the first substantive contact with a consumer in a residential real property transaction an agency disclosure form as set forth in section
Minn. Stat. § 82.82
82.82 DENIAL, SUSPENSION AND REVOCATION OF LICENSES.
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Subdivision 1. General authority.
The commissioner may by order deny, suspend or revoke any license or may censure a licensee if the commissioner finds (1) that the order is in the public interest, and (2) that the applicant or licensee or, in the case of a broker, any officer, director, partner, employee or agent or any person occupying a similar status or performing similar functions, or any person directly or indirectly controlling the broker or closing agent or controlled by the broker or closing agent:
(a) has filed an application for a license which is incomplete in any material respect or contains any statement which, in light of the circumstances under which it is made, is false or misleading with respect to any material fact;
(b) has engaged in a fraudulent, deceptive, or dishonest practice;
(c) is permanently or temporarily enjoined by any court of competent jurisdiction from engaging in or continuing any conduct or practice involving any aspect of the real estate business;
(d) has failed to reasonably supervise brokers, salespersons, or closing agents so as to cause injury or harm to the public;
(e) has violated or failed to comply with any provision of this chapter or any rule or order under this chapter;
(f) has, in the conduct of the licensee's affairs under the license, been shown to be incompetent, untrustworthy, or financially irresponsible;
(g) has acted on behalf of any party to a transaction, where the licensee has a conflict of interest that may affect the licensee's ability to represent that party, without the knowledge and consent of the party; or
(h) has, while performing residential mortgage activities regulated under chapter 58 violated any provision of chapter 58.
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Subd. 2. Effect of suspension or revocation.
The license of a salesperson is not effective during any period for which the license of the broker on whose behalf the salesperson is acting is suspended or revoked. The salesperson may apply for transfer to some other licensed broker by complying with section
Minn. Stat. § 82.85
82.85 CIVIL ACTIONS.
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Subdivision 1. Compensation actions; proof of license.
No person shall bring or maintain any action in the courts of this state for the collection of compensation for the performance of any of the acts for which a license is required under this chapter without alleging and proving that the person was a duly licensed real estate broker, salesperson, or closing agent at the time the alleged cause of action arose.
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Subd. 2. Compensation actions; written agreement required.
No person required by this chapter to be licensed shall be entitled to or may bring or maintain any action in the courts for any commission, fee or other compensation with respect to the purchase, sale, lease or other disposition or conveyance of real property, or with respect to the negotiation or attempt to negotiate any sale, lease or other disposition or conveyance of real property unless there is a written agreement with the person required to be licensed.
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Subd. 3. Compensation actions; residential real property; disclosure of agency.
No person required by this chapter to be licensed shall be entitled to bring any action to recover any commission, fee, or other compensation with respect to the purchase, sale, lease, or other disposition or conveyance of residential real property, or with respect to the negotiation or attempt to negotiate any sale, lease, or other disposition or conveyance of residential real property unless the person's agency relationships have been disclosed to the parties to the transaction in accordance with the requirements of this chapter.
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Subd. 4. Contract enforcement actions; limitation.
No person required to be licensed by this chapter may maintain an action in the courts of this state to enforce any provision of a purchase agreement, earnest money contract, or similar contract for the purchase, rental, or lease of real property if the provision to be enforced violates section 82.81, subdivision 5 .
History:
1973 c 410 s 17 ; 1986 c 358 s 15 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1989 c 347 s 35 ; 1993 c 309 s 17 -19; 2004 c 203 art 2 s 61
Minn. Stat. § 82.86
82.86 REAL ESTATE EDUCATION, RESEARCH AND RECOVERY FUND.
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Subdivision 1. Administration.
There is established a "real estate education, research and recovery fund" to be administered by the commissioner of commerce. The commissioner of management and budget shall be the custodian of the fund and shall operate under the direction of the commissioner.
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Subd. 2. Creation.
There is hereby created in the state treasury a real estate education, research and recovery fund which shall be administered by the commissioner in the manner and for the purposes prescribed in this section.
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Subd. 3. Fee for real estate fund.
Each real estate broker, real estate salesperson, and real estate closing agent entitled under this chapter to renew a license shall pay in addition to the appropriate renewal fee a further fee of $20 per licensing period which shall be credited to the real estate education, research, and recovery fund. Any person who receives an initial license shall pay, in addition to all other fees payable, a fee of $30.
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Subd. 4. Additional assessment.
If the amount in the fund is at any time less than the commissioner believes is necessary to carry out the purposes of this section every licensee, when renewing a license, shall pay, in addition to the annual renewal fee and the fee set forth in subdivision 3, an assessment not to exceed $100, said sum having been reasonably determined by the commissioner to be necessary to restore a balance in the fund of an amount adequate to carry out the purposes of this section.
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Subd. 5. Investment of funds.
Any funds shall, upon request of the commissioner, be invested by the state Board of Investment in the class of securities specified in section
Minn. Stat. § 82.88
82.88 NONRESIDENT SERVICE OF PROCESS.
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Subdivision 1. Appointment of agent.
Every nonresident, before being licensed as a real estate broker, real estate salesperson, or real estate closing agent shall appoint the commissioner and a successor or successors in office as true and lawful attorney, upon whom may be served all legal process in any action or proceedings against such person, or in which such person may be a party, in relation to or involving any transaction covered by this chapter or any rule or order hereunder, which appointment shall be irrevocable. Service upon such attorney shall be as valid and binding as if due and personal service had been made upon such person. Any such appointment shall be effective upon the issuance of the license in connection with which the appointment was filed.
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Subd. 2. Violation as appointment.
The commission of any act which constitutes a violation of this chapter or rule or order hereunder by any nonresident person who has not theretofore appointed the commissioner as attorney in compliance with subdivision 1 shall be conclusively deemed an irrevocable appointment by such person of the commissioner and a successor or successors in any action or proceedings against the nonresident or in which the nonresident may be a party in relation to or involving such violation; and such violation shall be a signification of agreement that all such legal process which is so served shall be as valid and binding upon the nonresident as if due and personal service thereof had been made.
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Subd. 3. How made.
Service of process under this section shall be made in compliance with section 45.028, subdivision 2 .
History:
1973 c 410 s 15 ; 1978 c 674 s 60 ; 1980 c 420 s 1 ; 1984 c 640 s 32 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1989 c 347 s 34 ; 1992 c 564 art 2 s 13 ; 2004 c 203 art 2 s 61
Minn. Stat. § 82A.02
82A.02 DEFINITIONS.
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Subdivision 1. Advertisement or advertising.
"Advertisement" or "advertising" means any written or printed communication or any communication transmitted on radio, television, electronic means, or similar communications media other than telephone, published in connection with the offer or sale of membership camping contracts or to induce prospective purchasers to visit or attend an offer or sales presentation.
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Subd. 1a. Advanced payment.
"Advanced payment" means any money paid in advance regardless of its descriptive nomenclature, including, but not limited to, a management fee, listing, security, or advance fee or payment.
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Subd. 2. Amenity.
"Amenity" means any major recreational building, swimming pool, utility serviced camping sites, or similar facility which is represented as available for use by purchasers now or in the future.
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Subd. 3. Affiliate.
"Affiliate" of another person means any person directly or indirectly controlling, controlled by, or under common control with the other person.
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Subd. 4. Blanket encumbrance.
"Blanket encumbrance" means any mortgage, deed of trust, option to purchase, vendor's lien or interest under a contract or agreement of sale, judgment lien, federal or state tax lien, or any other material lien or encumbrance which secures or evidences the obligation to pay money or to sell or convey any campground located in this state, or any portion thereof, made available to purchasers by the membership camping operator, and which authorizes, permits, or requires the foreclosure or other disposition of the campground. "Blanket encumbrance" also includes the lessor's interest in a lease of a campground which is located in this state, or any portion thereof, and which is made available to purchasers by a membership camping operator. "Blanket encumbrance" does not include a lien for taxes or assessments levied by any public authority which are not yet due and payable.
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Subd. 5. Broker.
"Broker" means a person who, for a fee or other valuable consideration, resells a membership camping contract to a new purchaser on behalf of a prior purchaser or who engages in the business of buying and selling membership camping contracts. "Broker" does not include a membership camping operator or a licensed salesperson acting on behalf of a membership camping operator or a licensed broker.
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Subd. 6. Campground.
"Campground" means real property owned or operated by a membership camping operator which is available for use by purchasers of membership camping contracts. Campground does not include:
(1) a recreational camping area as defined by section 327.14, subdivision 8 , if the operator of the recreational camping area does not offer or sell membership camping contracts, but rather rents or licenses camping sites on the recreational camping area for a per use fee; or
(2) a manufactured home park as defined in section 327.14, subdivision 3 .
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Subd. 7. Camping site.
"Camping site" means a space on a campground designed and promoted for the purpose of locating a trailer, tent, tent trailer, pickup camper, or other similar device used for camping.
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Subd. 8. Commissioner.
"Commissioner" means the commissioner of commerce of the state of Minnesota or an authorized delegate.
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Subd. 9. Controlling person.
"Controlling person" of a membership camping operator means each director and officer and each owner of 25 percent or more of stock of the operator, if the operator is a corporation; and each general partner and each owner of 25 percent or more of the partnership or other interests, if the operator is a general or limited partnership or other person doing business as a membership camping operator.
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Subd. 10. Membership camping contract.
"Membership camping contract" means an agreement offered or sold within this state evidencing a purchaser's right or license to use for more than one year a campground owned or operated by a membership camping operator and includes a membership which provides for this use.
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Subd. 11. Membership camping operator.
"Membership camping operator" or "operator" means any person, other than one that is tax exempt under section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended through December 31, 1992, that owns or operates a campground and offers or sells membership camping contracts paid for by a fee or periodic payments and has as one of its purposes camping or outdoor recreation including use of camping sites by purchasers. "Membership camping operator" does not include any person who engages in the business of arranging and selling reciprocal programs except to the extent such person owns or operates campgrounds.
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Subd. 12. Nondisturbance agreement.
"Nondisturbance agreement" means any instrument by which the holder of a blanket encumbrance agrees that:
(1) its rights in any campground located in this state made available to purchasers by the membership camping operator shall be subordinate to the rights of purchasers;
(2) the holder and all successors and assigns, and any person who acquires a campground located in this state through foreclosure or by deed in lieu of foreclosure of the blanket encumbrance, or by default or cancellation of a lease shall take the property subject to the rights of purchasers; and
(3) the holder or any successor acquiring a campground located in this state through the blanket encumbrance shall not use or cause the campground to be used in a manner which would materially prevent the purchasers from using or occupying the campground in the manner contemplated by the purchasers' membership camping contract; provided, however, the holder shall have no obligation or liability to assume the responsibilities or obligations of the membership camping operator under the membership camping contract.
The agreement may be in any form or language that reasonably evidences the foregoing.
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Subd. 13. Offer.
"Offer" means every inducement, solicitation, or attempt to encourage a person to acquire a membership camping contract.
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Subd. 14. Own, owned, or ownership.
"Own," "owned," or "ownership" means to hold title, either legal or equitable, in real property.
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Subd. 15. Person.
"Person" means an individual, corporation, business trust, estate, trust, partnership, unincorporated association, two or more of any of the foregoing having a joint or common interest, or any other legal or commercial entity.
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Subd. 16. Purchaser.
"Purchaser" means a person who enters into a membership camping contract with a membership camping operator and obtains the right to use the campground owned or operated by the membership camping operator.
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Subd. 17. Reciprocal program.
"Reciprocal program" means any arrangements allowing purchasers to use campgrounds owned or operated by persons other than the membership camping operator with whom the purchaser has entered into a membership camping contract.
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Subd. 18. Sale or sell.
"Sale" or "sell" means entering into, or other disposition of, a membership camping contract for value. "Value" does not include any fee charged by a membership camping operator to offset the reasonable costs of transfer of a membership camping contract from an existing purchaser to a new purchaser.
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Subd. 19. Salesperson.
"Salesperson" means an individual, other than a membership camping operator or broker, who offers or sells membership camping contracts, but does not include individuals who refer persons, provided that the referring party is a current member of the campground or does not directly or indirectly receive compensation of more than $150 per referral, does not make more than 15 referrals per year, and has entered into a referral agreement with a membership camping operator that prohibits the discussion of terms or prices of camping memberships. The practice of subcontracting referral services where referral fees are split or shared with another person is prohibited.
History:
1985 c 129 s 2 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1987 c 154 s 1 -3; 1989 c 252 s 1 ; 1993 c 375 art 8 s 14
Minn. Stat. § 82A.05
82A.05 DISCLOSURE STATEMENT.
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Subdivision 1. Delivery.
A disclosure statement shall be delivered to each person to whom an offer is made before or concurrently with:
(1) the first written offer other than offer by means of an advertisement; or
(2) any payment pursuant to a sale, whichever occurs first.
Each person to whom an offer is made must be afforded a reasonable opportunity to examine the disclosure statement and must be permitted to retain the statement. The seller shall obtain a receipt, signed by the person, acknowledging that the person has received a copy of the disclosure statement prior to the execution by the purchaser of any membership camping contract. All receipts shall be kept in files which are in the possession of the membership camping operator or broker subject to inspection by the commissioner, for a period of three years from the date of the receipt.
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Subd. 2. Contents.
A disclosure statement shall include the following information:
(1) the name, principal address, and telephone number of the membership camping operator and of its offices in this state;
(2) a brief description of the membership camping operator's experience in the membership camping business, including the number of years the membership camping operator has been in the membership camping business;
(3) a brief description of the campgrounds owned or operated by the membership camping operator and represented as available for use by purchasers, including identification of the amenities then available for use by purchasers, whether amenities will be available to nonpurchasers and, if so, the price to nonpurchasers therefor;
(4) a statement of whether or not the operator has obtained a bond, deposited funds in an escrow account, obtained an irrevocable letter of credit, or provided any other assurance securing the cost of the amenities which are represented as planned to be constructed or installed in the future for use by purchasers and, if so, the identity of the amenities and the year in which completion is estimated to occur;
(5) a description of the nature of the purchaser's title to, interest in, or right or license to use the campgrounds and amenities;
(6) a description of the membership camping operator's ownership of, or other right to use, the campground and amenities represented to be available for use by purchasers, together with a brief description of any material blanket or other material encumbrance on the campground, and the material provisions of any agreements which materially restrict a purchaser's use of the property, and a statement of the consequences to purchasers in the event of any conveyances of the campgrounds or foreclosure or other adverse action which can be taken with respect to the encumbrances;
(7) a statement or summary of what required material discretionary land use permits, the issuance of which is in the discretion of the issuing governmental authority, have not been obtained for each campground located in this state, and a description of the conditions that must be met to obtain the permits that have not yet been obtained;
(8) a summary and copy of the articles, bylaws, rules, restrictions, or covenants regulating the purchaser's use of each campground and amenities on each campground in this state, including a statement of whether and how the articles, bylaws, rules, restrictions, or covenants may be changed; provided that the foregoing need not include any rules adopted in response to unique local or immediate needs if the rules are posted at the campground;
(9) a description of all payments required of a purchaser under a membership camping contract, including initial fees and any further fees, charges or assessments, together with any provisions for changing the payments;
(10) a description of any restraints on the transfer of membership camping contracts;
(11) a statement of the assistance, if any, that the membership camping operator will provide to the purchaser in the resale of membership camping contracts;
(12) a description of the policies of the membership camping operator relating to the availability of camping sites and whether reservations are required;
(13) a description of the membership camping operator's right to change or withdraw from use all or a material portion of the campgrounds or amenities and the extent to which the operator is obligated to replace campgrounds or amenities withdrawn;
(14) a description of any grounds for forfeiture of a membership camping contract;
(15) a statement of the person's right to cancel the membership camping contract as provided in section
Minn. Stat. § 82A.06
82A.06 EXEMPTIONS.
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Subdivision 1. Total transactional exemptions.
The following transactions are exempt from the provisions of this chapter:
(1) an offer, sale, or transfer by any one person of not more than one membership camping contract in any 12-month period; unless the offer, sale, or transfer is effected by or through a broker;
(2) an offer or sale by a government or governmental agency;
(3) a bona fide pledge of a membership camping contract; and
(4) any transaction which the commissioner by rule or order exempts as not being within the purposes of this chapter and the registration of which the commissioner finds is not necessary or appropriate in the public interest or for the protection of purchasers.
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Subd. 2.
[Repealed, 2014 c 222 art 1 s 58 ]
History:
1985 c 129 s 6 ; 1986 c 444 ; 2013 c 135 art 1 s 5 ; 2014 c 222 art 2 s 8 ; 2018 c 182 art 1 s 109
Minn. Stat. § 82A.10
82A.10 INSPECTION OF RECORDS.
All records of a membership camping operator and broker and their agents pertaining to the advertising or sale of membership camping contracts in this state shall be maintained by the membership camping operator or broker at that person's principal place of business and shall there be subject to inspection by the commissioner during normal business hours.
History:
1985 c 129 s 10 ; 2014 c 222 art 1 s 19
Minn. Stat. § 82A.111
82A.111 ESCROW REQUIREMENT.
§
Subdivision 1. Generally.
All funds received by a broker, membership camping operator, or salesperson in connection with the offer or sale of a membership camping contract must be deposited immediately upon receipt in an escrow account maintained by the broker or membership camping operator for that purpose in a bank or an industrial loan and thrift company with deposit liabilities designated by the broker or membership camping operator. The funds must remain in the escrow account, for the benefit of the purchaser, until the expiration of the purchaser's right of rescission as set forth in section 82A.11, subdivision 3 . The depository bank must be a Minnesota bank, trust company, or savings association, or a foreign bank which authorizes the commissioner to examine its records of these deposits upon demand by the commissioner. The industrial loan and thrift company must be organized under chapter 53.
§
Subd. 2. Membership camping dues.
A membership camping operator or the operator's salesperson shall deposit all membership dues received in an escrow account in a Minnesota bank, trust company, or savings association, a foreign bank which authorizes the commissioner to examine its records of these deposits upon demand by the commissioner, or an industrial loan and thrift company organized under chapter 53 with deposit liabilities. The operator may draw funds from the escrow as needed provided that funds are expended for purposes identified by the budget.
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Subd. 3. Commingling funds.
A broker, membership camping operator, or salesperson shall deposit only funds specified in subdivisions 1 and 2 in an escrow account and shall not commingle personal funds or other funds in an escrow account; except that a broker, membership camping operator, or salesperson may deposit and maintain a sum not to exceed $100 in an escrow account from personal funds, which sum must be specifically identified and used to pay service charges relating to the escrow account.
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Subd. 4. Trust account records.
Each broker and membership camping operator shall maintain and retain records of all escrowed funds and escrow accounts.
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Subd. 5.
[Repealed, 2014 c 222 art 1 s 58 ]
History:
1987 c 154 s 7 ; 1995 c 202 art 1 s 25 ; 2014 c 222 art 1 s 20
Minn. Stat. § 82A.26
82A.26 NONAPPLICABILITY OF CERTAIN LAW.
Membership camping contracts registered pursuant to this chapter are exempt from the provisions of chapter 83. To the extent that salespersons and licensed brokers engage in the offer or sale of membership camping contracts, those brokers and salespersons are exempt from the licensing requirements of chapter 82.
History:
1985 c 129 s 26 ; 2014 c 222 art 1 s 26
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Minnesota Office of the Revisor of Statutes, Centennial Office Building,
3rd Floor, 658 Cedar Street, St. Paul, MN 55155
Minn. Stat. § 82B.021
82B.021 , subdivision 26, an appraiser must, prior to performing any appraisal service which requires licensing pursuant to this chapter, disclose in writing to the person contracting for the appraisal service the information identified in clause (4). In addition, an appraiser must prepare a written disclosure providing the information identified in clauses (1) to (13). The written disclosure must be included as part of the final written appraisal report. As specified in this subdivision, an appraiser must:
(1) disclose who has employed the appraiser;
(2) disclose who the appraisal is rendered for, if not the person who employed the appraiser;
(3) disclose the purpose of the appraisal, including an explanation of the difference between the appraisal being given and an appraisal of fee simple market valuation;
(4) disclose any conflict of interest or situation which might reasonably be perceived to be a conflict of interest which must include, but not be limited to, the following situations:
(i) whether the appraiser has any ownership interest in the subject property or contiguous properties;
(ii) whether there is an ownership interest by a spouse, parent, or child of the appraiser in the property or contiguous properties; and
(iii) whether the appraiser has a continuing business relationship with one of the parties, for example, any part-time or full-time employment of the appraiser, spouse, children living at home, or dependent children.
Failure to promptly give notification of a conflict must be considered a violation of the standards of professional appraisal practice;
(5) disclose that the appraisal is a reevaluation and identify the areas of difference between the two appraisals and the justification for the changes;
(6) disclose any facts concerning the valuation needed for loan purposes or similar information that was provided to the appraiser before or during the appraisal;
(7) disclose that the appraiser has not performed appraisals of the type requested or for the type of property to be appraised as a regular part of the appraiser's business in the preceding five-year period, provided that if the appraiser asserts qualification by training or related experience to perform the appraisal, the appraiser must set forth the training or experience and how it is applicable to the appraisal;
(8) disclose the license classification of the appraiser and the types of appraisals that the appraiser is authorized to conduct under the licensure;
(9) disclose any lack of experience or training that would affect the ability of the appraiser to perform the appraisal or could cause rejection of the appraisal by the party requiring the appraisal;
(10) disclose any appraisal on the same property made by the appraiser in the last three years;
(11) disclose all pertinent assumptions upon which a valuation based upon income from the property is derived such as expected occupancy rates, rental rates, construction of future improvements, roads, or highways; and
(12) disclose any other fact or circumstance that could bring the reliability of the appraisal or the impartiality of the appraiser into question.
§
Subd. 3. Additional requirements.
In addition to the requirements of subdivisions 1 and 2, an appraiser must:
(1) not knowingly make any of the following unacceptable appraisal practices:
(i) include inaccurate or misleading factual data about the subject neighborhood, site, improvements, or comparable sales;
(ii) fail to comment on negative factors with respect to the subject neighborhood, subject property, or proximity of the subject property to adverse influences;
(iii) unless otherwise disclosed in the appraisal report, use comparables in the valuation process that the appraiser has not at least personally inspected from the exterior by driving by them;
(iv) select and use inappropriate comparable sales or fail to use comparables that are physically and by location the most similar to the subject property;
(v) use data, particularly comparable sales data, that was provided by parties who have a financial interest in the sale or financing of the subject property without the appraiser's verification of the information from a disinterested source. For example, it would be inappropriate for an appraiser to use comparable sales provided by the builder of the subject property or a real estate broker who is handling the sale of the subject property, unless the appraiser verifies the accuracy of the data provided through another source. If a signed HUD Settlement Statement is used for this verification, the appraiser must also verify the sale data with the buyer or county records. The appraiser must also make an independent investigation to determine that the comparable sales provided were the best ones available;
(vi) use adjustments to the comparable sales that do not reflect the market's reaction to the differences between the subject property and the comparables, or fail to make adjustments when they are clearly indicated;
(vii) develop a valuation conclusion that is based either partially or completely on factors identified in chapter 363A, including race, color, creed, religion, sex, gender identity, marital status, status with regard to public assistance, disability, sexual orientation, familial status of the owner or occupants of nearby property, or national origin of either the prospective owners or occupants of the properties in the vicinity of the subject property; or
(viii) develop a valuation conclusion that is not supported by available market data;
(2) provide a resume, current within six months of the date it is provided, to anyone who employs the appraiser, indicating all professional degrees and licenses held by the appraiser; and
(3) reject any request by the person who has employed the appraiser that is in conflict with the requirements of Minnesota law or this chapter and withdraw from the appraisal assignment if the employing party persists in the request.
§
Subd. 4. Enforcement.
Failure to comply with the provisions of this section is a prohibited practice under section
Minn. Stat. § 82B.03
82B.03 , to appraise the property to be sold.
(c) The county must allocate the costs of appraisal to the lots offered for sale, and the successful purchaser on each lot must reimburse the county for the appraisal costs allocated to the lot purchased. If no one purchases a lot, the county is responsible for the appraisal cost.
(d) If a leaseholder disagrees with the appraised value of the leasehold improvements, the leaseholder may select an appraiser that meets the qualifications in paragraph (b) to reappraise the improvements. The leaseholder must give notice of intent to object to the appraised value of the improvements within ten days of the date of the mailing or service of notice under subdivision 2, paragraph (a). The leaseholder must deliver the reappraisal to the county auditor within 60 days of the date of mailing or service of notice of appraised value under subdivision 2, paragraph (a). If the reappraisal is not delivered to the county auditor according to this paragraph, the initial appraisal is conclusive. The leaseholder is responsible for the costs of the reappraisal. If the parcel is reappraised within the time required in this paragraph and the county and the leaseholder fail to agree on the value of the improvements by a date set by the county, each of the appraisers must agree upon the selection of a third appraiser to conduct a third appraisal that is conclusive as to the value of the improvements. The cost of the third appraisal must be paid equally by the county and the leaseholder.
§
Subd. 4. Proceeds.
(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b), the county must deposit the proceeds from the sale of land described in subdivision 1 into an environmental trust fund as provided in Laws 1998, chapter 389, article 16, section 31, subdivision 4, as amended.
(b) The following amounts may be withheld by the county board and not deposited into an environmental trust fund:
(1) the costs of appraisal, abstracts, and surveys;
(2) money received from a sale that is attributable to land owned by the county in fee;
(3) amounts the county paid to lessees for improvements; and
(4) the costs of sale to lessees or other parties, including the costs of advertising, realtors, and closing services.
§
Subd. 5. Survey.
(a) Before offering a lot for sale, St. Louis County must have each lot surveyed by a licensed surveyor.
(b) The county must allocate the costs of the survey to the lots offered for sale, and the successful purchaser on each lot must reimburse the county for the survey costs allocated to the lot purchased. If no one purchases the lot, the county is responsible for the survey costs. All surveying must be conducted by a licensed surveyor.
§
Subd. 6. Adding lands; zoning conformance.
Any lands to be sold under this section must be considered lots of record for zoning purposes. Whenever possible, St. Louis County may add land to the lots offered for sale to permit conformance with zoning requirements. The added lands must be included in the appraised value of the lot.
§
Subd. 7. Roadways.
St. Louis County may designate whether roads within minor subdivisions under the county platting and subdivision ordinance are public or private.
§
Subd. 8. Opt out; continuing lease.
The leaseholder may elect not to purchase the leased parcel if offered for sale under this section and instead continue in the annual lease program with the county, not to exceed the lifetime of the leaseholder. The fee for a lease under this subdivision must include the amount of the estimated property tax on the parcel if it had been returned to private ownership.
History:
2023 c 9 s 7
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Minnesota Office of the Revisor of Statutes, Centennial Office Building,
3rd Floor, 658 Cedar Street, St. Paul, MN 55155
Minn. Stat. § 82B.035
82B.035 EXEMPTION.
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Subdivision 1. Market analysis.
This chapter does not apply to a licensed real estate salesperson or broker who, in the ordinary course of the licensee's business, gives a market analysis of the price of real estate, if the market analysis is not referred to or construed as an appraisal.
§
Subd. 1a. Broker price opinion.
(a) This chapter does not apply to a licensed real estate salesperson, broker, or real estate appraiser who prepares a broker price opinion in accordance with section
Minn. Stat. § 82B.071
82B.071 RECORDS.
§
Subdivision 1. Examination of records.
The commissioner may make examinations within or without this state of each real estate appraiser's records at such reasonable time and in such scope as is necessary to enforce the provisions of this chapter.
§
Subd. 2. Retention.
Licensees shall keep a separate work file for each appraisal assignment, which is to include copies of all contracts engaging his or her services for the real estate appraisal, appraisal reports, and all data, information, and documentation assembled and formulated by the appraiser to support the appraiser's opinions and conclusions and to show compliance with USPAP, for a period of five years after preparation, or at least two years after final disposition of any judicial proceedings in which the appraiser provided testimony or was the subject of litigation related to the assignment, whichever period expires last. Appropriate work file access and retrieval arrangements must be made between any trainee and supervising appraiser if only one party maintains custody of the work file.
History:
2009 c 178 art 1 s 51
Minn. Stat. § 82B.073
82B.073 REAL ESTATE APPRAISAL ADVISORY BOARD.
§
Subdivision 1. Creation; appointments.
(a) The Real Estate Appraisal Advisory Board is created and composed of seven persons appointed by the commissioner. Members are appointed to the board subject to the following conditions:
(1) members must currently be, and have been for the past five years, residents of this state;
(2) the membership of the board must reasonably reflect the geographic distribution of the population of this state;
(3) one member must be currently licensed as, and have been actively engaged and in good standing for the past five years as, a certified general real property appraiser;
(4) two members must be currently licensed as, and have been actively engaged and in good standing for the past five years as, a certified residential real property appraiser;
(5) one member must be currently licensed as, and have been actively engaged and in good standing for the past five years as, a real estate appraiser and as a real estate broker or salesperson under chapter 82 ;
(6) one member must represent appraisal management companies, as defined in section 82C.02, subdivision 4 , as evidenced by the member's employment with an appraisal management company;
(7) one member must represent the interests of the general public and have knowledge of the real estate business; and
(8) the commissioner must be a member.
(b) In making appointments under paragraph (a), clauses (3) and (4), the commissioner must consider recommendations by members and the Minnesota chapters of any nationally recognized real estate appraisal organization.
(c) In making the appointment under paragraph (a), clause (5), the commissioner must consider recommendations by members and organizations representing the real estate industry.
(d) In making the appointment under paragraph (a), clause (6), the commissioner must consider recommendations by members and appraisal management companies.
§
Subd. 2. Terms.
The terms, compensation, and removal of members, other than the commissioner, are governed by section
Minn. Stat. § 82B.08
82B.08 LICENSING REQUIREMENTS.
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Subdivision 1. Generally.
The commissioner shall issue a license as a real estate appraiser to a person who qualifies for the license under the terms of this chapter.
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Subd. 2. Qualification of applicants.
An applicant must be at least 18 years of age when making application.
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Subd. 2a. Criminal history record check; fingerprints.
(a) An applicant for an initial license must:
(1) consent to a criminal history record check;
(2) submit a fingerprint card in a form acceptable to the commissioner; and
(3) pay the fee required to perform criminal history record checks with the Minnesota Bureau of Criminal Apprehension and the Federal Bureau of Investigation.
(b) The commissioner may contract for the collection and transmission of fingerprints required under this chapter and may order the fee for collecting and transmitting fingerprints to be payable directly to the contractor by the applicant. The commissioner may agree to a reasonable fingerprinting fee to be charged by the contractor.
(c) The commissioner shall submit the applicant's fingerprints, consent, and the required fee to the superintendent of the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension. The superintendent shall perform a check of the state criminal history repository and is authorized to exchange the applicant's fingerprints with the Federal Bureau of Investigation to obtain the national criminal history record. The superintendent shall return the results of the state and national criminal history records checks to the commissioner.
(d) An applicant for a renewal of a license must disclose, in a form acceptable to the commissioner, any crimes involving moral turpitude or that are substantially related to the qualifications, functions, or duties of the profession of real estate appraiser that the applicant has been convicted of or pled guilty or nolo contendere to, as provided in this paragraph. An applicant renewing a license is only required to disclose events that occurred since the license was issued if this is the applicant's first license renewal or, since the license was renewed, if this is a subsequent renewal.
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Subd. 3. Application for license; contents.
(a) An applicant for a license must apply in writing upon forms prescribed by the commissioner. Each application must be signed and sworn to by the applicant and must be accompanied by the license fee required by this chapter.
(b) An application must contain information required by the commissioner consistent with the provisions and purposes of this chapter.
(c) An application must give the applicant's name, age, residence address, and the name and place of business.
(d) The commissioner may require additional information the commissioner considers appropriate to administer this chapter.
(e) When filing an initial application or application for renewal for a license, the applicant shall state that the person agrees to comply with the standards set forth in this chapter and that the person understands the types of misconduct for which disciplinary proceedings may be started against a licensed real estate appraiser.
(f) The application for original licensing, renewal licensing, and examination must specify the classification of licensing being applied for and previously granted.
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Subd. 3a. Initial application.
The initial application for licensing of a trainee real property appraiser must identify the name and address of the supervisory appraiser or appraisers. Trainee real property appraisers licensed prior to the effective date of this provision must identify the name and address of their supervisory appraiser or appraisers at the time of license renewal. A trainee must notify the commissioner in writing within ten days of terminating or changing the trainee's relationship with any supervisory appraiser.
The initial application for licensing of a certified residential real property appraiser and certified general real property appraiser who intends to act in the capacity of a supervisory appraiser must identify the name and address of the trainee real property appraiser or appraisers the supervisory appraiser intends to supervise. A certified residential real property appraiser and certified general real property appraiser licensed and acting in the capacity of a supervisory appraiser prior to the effective date of this provision must, at the time of license renewal, identify the name and address of any trainee real property appraiser or appraisers under supervision.
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Subd. 4. Effective date of license.
Initial licenses issued under this chapter are valid for a period not to exceed two years. The commissioner shall assign an expiration date to each initial license so that approximately one-half of all licenses expire each year. Each initial license must expire on August 31 of the expiration year assigned by the commissioner.
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Subd. 5. Renewals.
(a) Licenses renewed under this chapter are valid for a period of 24 months. Persons whose applications have been properly and timely filed who have not received notice of denial of renewal are considered to have been approved for renewal and may continue to transact business as a real estate appraiser whether or not the renewed license has been received on or before September 1 of the renewal year. Application for renewal of a license is considered to have been timely filed if received by the commissioner by, or mailed with proper postage and postmarked by, August 1 of the renewal year. Applications for renewal are considered properly filed if made upon forms duly executed and sworn to, accompanied by fees prescribed by this chapter and containing information the commissioner requires.
(b) Persons who have failed to make a timely application for renewal of a license and who have not received the renewal license as of September 1 of the renewal year are unlicensed until the time the license has been issued by the commissioner and is received.
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Subd. 6. Notice.
Notice in writing must be given to the commissioner by each licensee of any change in personal name, trade name, address or business location not later than ten days after the change. The commissioner shall issue a new license if required for the unexpired period.
§
Subd. 7. Nonresidents.
A nonresident of Minnesota may be licensed as a real estate appraiser upon compliance with all provisions of this chapter.
§
Subd. 8. Cancellation of license.
A real estate appraiser's license must be canceled by the commissioner for failure of a licensee to complete continuing education requirements. In this case, the license must be returned to the commissioner within ten days of receipt of notice of cancellation.
§
Subd. 9. Reinstatement of license.
Within two years of a license cancellation, a person who was previously licensed may reinstate the license without examination by completing the required application, paying the required fee for a new license application, and reporting successful completion of all outstanding continuing education requirements for the period during which the license was canceled. The license must be reinstated without reexamination by completing the required instruction, filing an application, and paying the fee for the license within two years of the cancellation date.
§
Subd. 10. Withdrawal of license or application.
A licensee or license applicant may at any time file with the commissioner a request to withdraw from the status of licensee or to withdraw a pending license application. Withdrawal from the status of licensee or withdrawal of the license application becomes effective upon receipt by the commissioner unless a revocation, suspension, or denial proceeding is pending when the request to withdraw is filed or a proceeding to revoke, suspend, deny, or impose condition upon the withdrawal is instituted within 30 days after the request to withdraw is filed. If a proceeding is pending or instituted, withdrawal becomes effective at the time and upon the conditions the commissioner by order determines. If no proceeding is pending or instituted and withdrawal automatically becomes effective, the commissioner must institute a revocation or suspension proceeding within one year after withdrawal became effective and enter a revocation or suspension order as of the last date on which the license was in effect.
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Subd. 11. Failure to renew license.
If a license lapses or becomes ineffective due to the licensee's failure to timely file a renewal application and the licensee continues to conduct business for which a license is required, the commissioner must institute a revocation or suspension proceeding within two years after the license was last effective and enter a revocation or suspension order as of the last date on which the license was in effect.
History:
1989 c 341 art 1 s 8 ; 1994 c 632 art 4 s 39 ,40; 2009 c 63 s 63 -66; 2009 c 178 art 1 s 52 ; 2013 c 135 art 3 s 9 ; 2017 c 37 s 3
Minn. Stat. § 82B.09
82B.09 FEES.
§
Subdivision 1. Amounts.
(a) The following fees must be paid to the commissioner:
(1) $150 for each initial individual real estate appraiser's license; and
(2) $100 for each renewal.
(b) In addition to the fees required under this subdivision, individual real estate appraisers shall pay a technology surcharge of up to $40 under section
Minn. Stat. § 82B.094
82B.094 SUPERVISION OF TRAINEE REAL PROPERTY APPRAISERS.
(a) A certified residential real property appraiser or a certified general real property appraiser, in good standing, may engage a trainee real property appraiser to assist in the performance of real estate appraisals, provided that the certified residential real property appraiser or a certified general real property appraiser:
(1) has been licensed in good standing as either a certified residential real property appraiser or a certified general real property appraiser for the three-year period immediately preceding the individual's application to become a supervisor;
(2) has completed a six-hour course, approved in advance by the commissioner and provided by an education provider approved by the commissioner, that is specifically oriented to the requirements and responsibilities of supervisory appraisers and trainee appraisers. A course approved by the commissioner for the purposes of this section must be given the course title "Minnesota Supervisor/Trainee Appraiser Course";
(3) has not been the subject of any license or certificate suspension or revocation or has not been prohibited from supervising activities in this state or any other state within the three years immediately preceding the individual's application to become a supervisor;
(4) has no more than three trainee real property appraisers working under supervision at any one time;
(5) actively and personally supervises the trainee real property appraiser, which includes ensuring that research of general and specific data has been adequately conducted and properly reported, application of appraisal principles and methodologies has been properly applied, that the analysis is sound and adequately reported, and that any analyses, opinions, or conclusions are adequately developed and reported so that the appraisal report is not misleading;
(6) discusses with the trainee real property appraiser any necessary and appropriate changes that are made to a report, involving any trainee appraiser, before it is transmitted to the client. Changes not discussed with the trainee real property appraiser that are made by the supervising appraiser must be provided in writing to the trainee real property appraiser upon completion of the appraisal report;
(7) accompanies the trainee real property appraiser on the inspections of the subject properties and drive-by inspections of the comparable sales on all appraisal assignments for which the trainee will perform work until the trainee appraiser is determined to be competent, in accordance with the competency rule of USPAP for the property type;
(8) accepts full responsibility for the appraisal report by signing and certifying that the report complies with USPAP; and
(9) reviews and signs the trainee real property appraiser's appraisal report or reports or if the trainee appraiser is not signing the report, states in the appraisal the name of the trainee and scope of the trainee's significant contribution to the report.
(b) The supervising appraiser must review and sign the applicable experience log required to be kept by the trainee real property appraiser.
(c) The supervising appraiser must notify the commissioner within ten days when the supervision of a trainee real property appraiser has terminated or when the trainee appraiser is no longer under the supervision of the supervising appraiser.
(d) The supervising appraiser must maintain a separate work file for each appraisal assignment.
(e) The supervising appraiser must verify that any trainee real property appraiser that is subject to supervision is properly licensed and in good standing with the commissioner.
History:
2009 c 178 art 1 s 54 ; 2013 c 135 art 3 s 10 ; 2014 c 198 art 1 s 3
Minn. Stat. § 82B.11
82B.11 CLASSES OF LICENSE.
§
Subdivision 1. Generally.
There are five classes of license for real estate appraisers.
§
Subd. 2.
MS 2018 [Repealed, 1Sp2019 c 7 art 10 s 15 ]
§
Subd. 2a. Trainee real property appraiser.
The scope of practice for a trainee real property appraiser is the appraisal of properties which a certified residential real property appraiser or certified general real property appraiser acting as the supervisory appraiser is permitted and competent to appraise.
§
Subd. 3. Licensed residential real property appraiser.
A licensed residential real property appraiser may appraise noncomplex residential property or agricultural property having a transaction value less than $1,000,000 and complex residential or agricultural property having a transaction value less than $400,000.
§
Subd. 4. Certified residential real property appraiser.
A certified residential real property appraiser may appraise residential property or agricultural property without regard to transaction value or complexity.
§
Subd. 5. Certified general real property appraiser.
A certified general real property appraiser may appraise all types of real property.
§
Subd. 6. Temporary practice.
(a) The commissioner shall issue a license for temporary practice as a real estate appraiser under subdivision 3, 4, or 5 to a person certified or licensed by another state if:
(1) the appraiser's business is of a temporary nature; and
(2) the appraiser registers with the commissioner to obtain a temporary license before conducting appraisals within the state.
(b) The term of a temporary practice license is the lesser of:
(1) the time required to complete the assignment; or
(2) 12 months.
If more than 12 months are necessary to complete the assignment, a new temporary application and fee is required.
History:
1989 c 341 art 1 s 11 ; 1991 c 97 s 4 ; 1992 c 363 art 1 s 3 ; 1992 c 587 art 4 s 1 ,2; 1993 c 309 s 25 ; 2005 c 100 s 11 ; 2006 c 235 s 2 ,3; 2011 c 108 s 45 ; 1Sp2019 c 7 art 10 s 8 ,9; 1Sp2021 c 4 art 3 s 26
Minn. Stat. § 82B.135
82B.135 COURSE COMPLETION CERTIFICATIONS FOR REAL ESTATE APPRAISER LICENSE.
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Subdivision 1. Submitting to commissioner.
An applicant for a real estate appraiser license must submit to the commissioner, along with an application for licensure and in a manner prescribed by the commissioner, evidence that the applicant has completed all required prelicensing education coursework applicable to the class of license sought.
§
Subd. 2. Forms.
The real estate appraiser prelicensing education course completion certificate must be on forms provided by the commissioner.
§
Subd. 3. Copies to be maintained.
Students are responsible for maintaining copies of course completion certificates.
History:
2009 c 63 s 72 ; 2014 c 198 art 1 s 6
Minn. Stat. § 82B.15
82B.15 NONRESIDENT SERVICE OF PROCESS.
§
Subdivision 1. Appointment of commissioner.
A nonresident, before being licensed as a real estate appraiser, shall appoint the commissioner and a successor or successors in office as true and lawful attorney, upon whom may be served all legal process in an action or proceedings against the person, or in which the person may be a party, in relation to or involving a transaction covered by this chapter or a rule or order under this chapter. The appointment is irrevocable. Service upon the attorney is as valid and binding as if due and personal service had been made upon the person. The appointment is effective upon the issuance of the license in connection with which the appointment was filed.
§
Subd. 2. Effect of nonappointment.
The commission of an act constituting a violation of this chapter or rule or order adopted under this chapter by a nonresident person who has not appointed the commissioner as attorney in compliance with subdivision 1, is conclusively considered an irrevocable appointment by the person of the commissioner and a successor or successors in an action or proceedings against the nonresident or in which the nonresident may be a party in relation to or involving the violation. The violation is a signification of agreement that all legal process that is served is as valid and binding upon the nonresident as if due and personal service had been made.
§
Subd. 3. Procedure.
Service of process under this section shall be made in compliance with section 45.028, subdivision 2 .
History:
1989 c 341 art 1 s 15 ; 1991 c 97 s 9 ; 1992 c 564 art 2 s 16
Minn. Stat. § 82B.16
82B.16 PRINCIPAL PLACE OF BUSINESS AND NOTICE.
A licensed real estate appraiser shall advise the commissioner of the address of the person's principal place of business and all other addresses at which the person is now engaged in the business of preparing real property appraisal reports.
When a licensed real estate appraiser changes a place of business, the person shall immediately give written notification of the change to the commissioner and apply for an amended license.
A licensed real estate appraiser shall notify the commissioner of the person's current residence address.
History:
1989 c 341 art 1 s 16
Minn. Stat. § 82B.17
82B.17 LICENSE DESIGNATION.
When a real estate appraiser uses the designation real estate appraiser or similar terms in an appraisal report or in a contract or other instrument used by the license holder in conducting real property appraisal activities or in advertisements, the appraiser shall place the appraiser's license number adjacent to or immediately below the designation used and indicate the class of license held.
History:
1989 c 341 art 1 s 17 ; 1991 c 97 s 10 ; 1992 c 363 art 1 s 4
Minn. Stat. § 82B.18
82B.18 USE OF TERM.
The term "real estate appraiser" may only be used to refer to individuals who hold a license under this chapter. The term may not be used following or immediately in connection with the name or signature of a firm, partnership, corporation, or group; or in a manner that might cause it to be interpreted as referring to a firm, partnership, corporation, group, or anyone other than an individual holder of the license.
No license may be issued under this chapter to a corporation, partnership, firm, or group. This does not prevent a licensed real estate appraiser from signing an appraisal report on behalf of a corporation, partnership, firm, or group practice.
History:
1989 c 341 art 1 s 18 ; 1991 c 97 s 11
Minn. Stat. § 82B.19
82B.19 CONTINUING EDUCATION.
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Subdivision 1. License renewals.
The commissioner must determine that a licensed real estate appraiser has met the continuing education requirements of this chapter before the commissioner renews a license. This determination must be based on, for a resident appraiser, course completion records uploaded electronically in a manner prescribed by the commissioner and, for a nonresident appraiser, course completion records presented by electronic transmission or uploaded electronically in a manner prescribed by the commissioner.
[See Note.]
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Subd. 1a. Deferral.
(a) Deferrals may not be granted to appraisers, except in the case of individuals returning from active military duty, or individuals impacted by a state-declared or federally declared disaster. The commissioner may allow appraisers returning from active military duty to be placed in active status for a period of up to 90 days pending completion of all continuing education requirements. The commissioner may allow appraisers impacted by a state-declared or federally declared disaster that occurs within 90 days before the end of the continuing education cycle to remain or be placed in active status for a period of up to 90 days after the end of the appraiser's continuing education cycle, pending completion of all continuing education requirements.
(b) This subdivision supersedes any conflicting provision in section
Minn. Stat. § 82B.20
82B.20 PROHIBITED PRACTICES.
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Subdivision 1. Enforcement.
The license of a licensed real estate appraiser may be denied, revoked, or suspended, or the person may be otherwise disciplined in accordance with this chapter, upon any of the grounds set forth in this section.
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Subd. 2. Conduct prohibited.
No person may:
(1) obtain or try to obtain a license under this chapter by knowingly making a false statement, submitting false information, refusing to provide complete information in response to a question in an application for license, or through any form of fraud or misrepresentation;
(2) fail to meet the minimum qualifications established by this chapter;
(3) be convicted, including a conviction based upon a plea of guilty or nolo contendere, of a crime that is substantially related to the qualifications, functions, and duties of a person developing real estate appraisals and communicating real estate appraisals to others;
(4) engage in an act or omission involving dishonesty, fraud, or misrepresentation with the intent to substantially benefit the license holder or another person or with the intent to substantially injure another person;
(5) engage in a violation of any of the standards for the development or communication of real estate appraisals as provided in this chapter;
(6) fail or refuse without good cause to exercise reasonable diligence in developing an appraisal, preparing an appraisal report, or communicating an appraisal;
(7) engage in negligence or incompetence in developing an appraisal, in preparing an appraisal report, or in communicating an appraisal;
(8) willfully disregard or violate any of the provisions of this chapter or the rules of the commissioner for the administration and enforcement of the provisions of this chapter;
(9) accept an appraisal assignment when the employment itself is contingent upon the appraiser reporting a predetermined estimate, analysis, or opinion, or where the fee to be paid is contingent upon the opinion, conclusion, or valuation reached, or upon the consequences resulting from the appraisal assignment;
(10) violate the confidential nature of governmental records to which the person gained access through employment or engagement as an appraiser by a governmental agency;
(11) offer, pay, or give, and no person shall accept, any compensation or other thing of value from a real estate appraiser by way of commission-splitting, rebate, finder's fee, or otherwise in connection with a real estate appraisal. This prohibition does not apply to transactions among persons licensed under this chapter if the transactions involve appraisals for which the license is required;
(12) engage or authorize a person, except a person licensed under this chapter, to act as a real estate appraiser on the appraiser's behalf;
(13) violate standards of professional practice;
(14) make an oral appraisal report without also making a written report within a reasonable time after the oral report is made;
(15) represent a market analysis to be an appraisal report;
(16) give an appraisal in any circumstances where the appraiser has a conflict of interest, as determined under rules adopted by the commissioner; or
(17) engage in other acts the commissioner by rule prohibits.
No person, including a mortgage originator, appraisal management company, real estate broker or salesperson, appraiser, or other licensee, registrant, or certificate holder regulated by the commissioner may improperly influence or attempt to improperly influence the development, reporting, result, or review of a real estate appraisal. Prohibited acts include blacklisting, boycotting, intimidation, coercion, and any other means that impairs or may impair the independent judgment of the appraiser, including but not limited to the withholding or threatened withholding of payment for an appraisal fee, or the conditioning of the payment of any appraisal fee upon the opinion, conclusion, or valuation to be reached, or a request that the appraiser report a predetermined opinion, conclusion, or valuation, or the desired valuation of any person, or withholding or threatening to withhold future work in order to obtain a desired value on a current or proposed appraisal assignment.
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Subd. 3. Revocations.
If the commissioner finds that any licensee or applicant is no longer in existence or has ceased to do business as a real estate appraiser or is subject to an adjudication of mental incompetence or to the control of a committee, conservator, or guardian, or cannot be located after reasonable search, the commissioner may by order revoke the license or deny the application of that person.
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Subd. 4. Time limitations.
(a) If more than five years have passed from the date on which a licensed real estate appraiser completes a disciplinary action under subdivision 1, then notwithstanding section
Minn. Stat. § 82B.21
82B.21 CLASSIFICATION OF SERVICES.
A client or employer may retain or employ a licensed real estate appraiser to act as a disinterested third party in giving an unbiased estimate of value or analysis; to provide a market analysis to facilitate the client's or employer's objectives. The appraisal and the appraisal report must comply with the provisions of this chapter and the uniform standards of professional appraisal practice.
History:
1989 c 341 art 1 s 21 ; 2002 c 387 s 11 ; 1Sp2019 c 7 art 10 s 12
Minn. Stat. § 82C.02
82C.02 DEFINITIONS.
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Subdivision 1. Terms.
As used in this chapter, the terms in this section have the meanings given them.
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Subd. 2. Appraisal.
In conformance with the Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice (USPAP), "appraisal" is defined as: (noun) the act or process of developing an opinion of value; an opinion of value; (adjective) of or pertaining to appraising and related functions such as appraisal practice or appraisal services. For purposes of this chapter, all appraisals or assignments that are referred to involve one to four unit single-family properties.
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Subd. 3. Appraisal assignment.
"Appraisal assignment" means an engagement for which an appraiser is retained to act, as a disinterested third party in giving an unbiased analysis, opinion, or conclusion relating to the nature, quality, value, or utility of named interests in, or aspects of, identified real estate.
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Subd. 3a.
[Renumbered subd 12b]
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Subd. 4. Appraisal management company.
"Appraisal management company" means a corporation, partnership, sole proprietorship, subsidiary, unit, or other business entity that directly or indirectly performs the following appraisal management services:
(1) within a given 12-month period, as defined in section
Minn. Stat. § 82C.03
82C.03 , subdivision 5;
(iv) violated a standard of conduct or engaged in a fraudulent, coercive, deceptive, or dishonest act or practice, whether or not the act or practice involves the appraisal management company;
(v) engaged in an act or practice, whether or not the act or practice involves the business of appraisal management, appraisal assignments, or real estate mortgage related practices, that demonstrates untrustworthiness, financial irresponsibility, or incompetence;
(vi) pled guilty, with or without explicitly admitting guilt, pled nolo contendere, or been convicted of a felony, gross misdemeanor, or a misdemeanor involving moral turpitude;
(vii) paid a civil penalty or been the subject of disciplinary action by the commissioner, or an order of suspension or revocation, cease and desist order, or injunction order, or an order barring involvement in an industry or profession issued by this or any other state or federal regulatory agency or government-sponsored enterprise, or by the secretary of Housing and Urban Development;
(viii) been found by a court of competent jurisdiction to have engaged in conduct evidencing gross negligence, fraud, misrepresentation, or deceit;
(ix) refused to cooperate with an investigation or examination by the commissioner;
(x) failed to pay any fee or assessment imposed by the commissioner; or
(xi) failed to comply with state and federal tax obligations.
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Subd. 2. Orders of the commissioner.
To begin a proceeding under this section, the commissioner shall issue an order requiring the subject of the proceeding to show cause why action should not be taken against the licensee according to this section. The order must be calculated to give reasonable notice of the time and place for the hearing and must state the reasons for entry of the order. The commissioner may by order summarily suspend a license pending a final determination of an order to show cause. If a license is summarily suspended, pending final determination of an order to show cause, a hearing on the merits must be held within 30 days of the issuance of the order of summary suspension. All hearings must be conducted under chapter 14. After the hearing, the commissioner shall enter an order disposing of the matter as the facts require. If the subject of the order fails to appear at a hearing after having been duly notified of it, the subject is considered in default, and the proceeding may be determined against the subject of the order upon consideration of the order to show cause, the allegations of which may be considered to be true.
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Subd. 3. Actions against lapsed license.
If a license lapses, is surrendered, withdrawn, terminated, or otherwise becomes ineffective, the commissioner may institute a proceeding under this subdivision within two years after the license was last effective and enter a revocation or suspension order as of the last date which the license was in effect, and may impose a civil penalty as provided for in this section or section
Minn. Stat. § 82C.11
82C.11 LIMITATIONS.
An appraisal management company licensed in this state pursuant to this chapter may enter into contracts or agreements for appraisal assignments in this state only with an employee or independent appraiser holding an active Minnesota real estate appraiser license pursuant to chapter 82B.
History:
2010 c 347 art 6 s 19
Minn. Stat. § 82C.12
82C.12 ADHERENCE TO STANDARDS.
An appraisal management company must have a system in place to review the work of all employed and independent appraisers that are performing real estate appraisal assignments for the appraisal management company on a periodic basis to verify that the real estate appraisal services are being conducted in accordance with USPAP and chapter 82B. An appraisal management company is required to make referrals directly to state appraiser regulatory authorities when a state licensed or certified appraiser violates USPAP, applicable state law, or engages in other unethical or unprofessional conduct.
History:
2010 c 347 art 6 s 20
Minn. Stat. § 82C.15
82C.15 ADJUDICATION OF DISPUTES BETWEEN AN APPRAISAL MANAGEMENT COMPANY AND AN INDEPENDENT APPRAISER.
An appraisal management company may not remove an appraiser from its appraiser panel, or otherwise refuse to assign requests for real estate appraisal services to an independent appraiser without:
(1) notifying the appraiser in writing of the reasons why the appraiser is being removed from the appraiser panel or is not receiving appraisal requests from the appraisal management company;
(2) if the appraiser is being removed from the panel for illegal conduct, having determined that the appraiser has violated USPAP, or chapter 82B, taking into account the nature of the alleged conduct or violation; and
(3) providing an opportunity for the appraiser to respond and appeal the notification of the appraisal management company.
History:
2010 c 347 art 6 s 23 ; 2020 c 80 art 1 s 21
Minn. Stat. § 82C.16
82C.16 DENIAL, SUSPENSION, OR REVOCATION OF LICENSES.
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Subdivision 1. Powers of commissioner.
(a) The commissioner may by order take any or all of the following actions:
(1) bar a person from serving as an officer, director, partner, controlling person, or any similar role at an appraisal management company, if such person has ever been the subject of a final order suspending, revoking, or denying a certification, registration, or license as a real estate agent, broker, or appraiser, or a final order barring involvement in any industry or profession issued by this or another state or federal regulatory agency;
(2) deny, suspend, or revoke an appraisal management company license;
(3) censure an appraisal management company license; and
(4) impose a civil penalty as provided for in chapter
Minn. Stat. § 83.20
83.20 DEFINITIONS.
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Subdivision 1. Advertisement.
"Advertisement" means any written or printed communication or any communication by telephone or transmitted on radio, television, electronic means or similar communications media published in connection with the offer or sale of subdivided lands or any communication made to induce prospective purchasers to visit or attend an offer or sales presentation.
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Subd. 2. Agent.
"Agent" means any person who represents, or acts for or on behalf of, a subdivider in disposing of subdivided lands or lots in a subdivision, and includes a real estate salesperson or broker, but does not include an attorney at law whose representation of another person consists solely of rendering legal services.
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Subd. 3. Blanket encumbrance.
"Blanket encumbrance" means a trust deed or mortgage or mechanics lien or any other lien or financial encumbrance, securing or evidencing money debt and affecting lands to be subdivided or affecting more than one lot, parcel, unit or interest of subdivided land; or an agreement affecting more than one lot, parcel unit or interest by which the subdivider holds the subdivision under an option, contract for deed, contract to purchase or trust agreement, except a lien or other encumbrance arising as a result of the imposition of a tax assessment by a public authority so long as no portion thereof is past due.
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Subd. 4. Commissioner.
"Commissioner" means the commissioner of commerce of the state of Minnesota or the commissioner's authorized delegate.
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Subd. 5. Sale; sell.
"Sale" or "sell" means every contract or agreement to convey an interest, including a leasehold interest, in subdivided land for value.
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Subd. 6. Notice.
"Notice" means a communication from the commissioner. Notice to subdividers shall be deemed complete when personally served upon or mailed to the subdivider's address currently on file with the commissioner.
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Subd. 7. Offer.
"Offer" includes every inducement, solicitation or attempt to encourage a person to acquire a lot, unit, parcel or interest in land.
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Subd. 8. Option.
"Option" means, and is limited to, an offer to sell or to purchase respecting which a consideration of not more than 15 percent of the total purchase price is exchanged to guarantee that the offer will not be withdrawn or revoked for an agreed period of time.
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Subd. 9. Person.
"Person" means an individual, corporation, government or governmental division or agency, business trust, estate, trust, partnership, unincorporated association, two or more of any of the foregoing having a joint or common interest or any other legal or commercial entity.
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Subd. 10. Purchaser.
"Purchaser" means a person who acquires or attempts to acquire or succeeds to an interest in land.
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Subd. 11. Subdivision; subdivided land.
"Subdivision" or "subdivided land" means any real estate, wherever located, improved or unimproved, which is divided or proposed to be divided for the purpose of sale or lease, including sales or leases of any timeshare interest, unit in a common interest community, or similar interest in real estate.
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Subd. 12. Subdivider.
"Subdivider" means a person whose interest in subdivided land is offered or advertised, by the person or the person's agent, for disposition.
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Subd. 13. Timeshare interest.
"Timeshare interest" means a right to occupy a unit or any of several units during intermittent time periods over a period of at least three years, including renewal options, whether or not coupled with a freehold estate or an estate for years.
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Subd. 14. Improved lots.
"Improved lots" means lots which have or will have within a two-year period from the date of purchase, a permanent residential structure thereon, and are not devoted to or used as a time share interest, unit in a common interest community, or similar interest in real estate.
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Subd. 15. Advance payment.
"Advance payment" means any money paid in advance regardless of its descriptive nomenclature, including but not limited to, management fee, listing, security, or advance fee or payment in connection with the resale of a timeshare interest.
History:
1973 c 413 s 1 ; 1974 c 440 s 1 ; 1980 c 516 s 2 ; 1983 c 289 s 114 subd 1; 1984 c 452 s 1 -5; 1984 c 655 art 1 s 92 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1989 c 252 s 4 ; 1999 c 11 art 3 s 4 ,5
Minn. Stat. § 83.25
83.25 LICENSE.
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Subdivision 1. Requirement.
No person shall offer or sell in this state any interest in subdivided lands without having obtained:
(1) a license under chapter 82; and
(2) MS 2002 [Expired, 2001 c 208 s 20]
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Subd. 2. Application of other licensing provisions.
Every license issued pursuant to this section must be renewed, transferred, suspended, revoked or denied in the same manner as provided in chapter 82 for licenses issued pursuant to that chapter.
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Subd. 3. Nonapplication.
This section does not apply to persons offering or disposing of interests in subdivided lands which are registered as securities pursuant to chapter 80A.
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Subd. 4. Limited broker licensee.
An individual acting on behalf of a limited broker licensee issued a license under section 82.63, subdivision 13 , is not required to be an officer of a corporation or a partner of a partnership if:
(1) the individual is solely engaged in the business of selling a timeshare interest as defined in section 83.20, subdivision 13 ;
(2) the individual is adequately supervised by the limited broker licensee; and
(3) the limited broker licensee maintains a roster of individuals selling a timeshare interest including the date the individual started selling. This roster must be made available to the commissioner upon demand within three days of the request.
History:
1973 c 413 s 6 ; 1976 c 2 s 38 ; 1984 c 452 s 9 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1994 c 632 art 4 s 43 ; 2001 c 208 s 20 ; 2008 c 344 s 54
Minn. Stat. § 85.021
85.021 ACQUIRING LAND; MINNESOTA VALLEY TRAIL.
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Subdivision 1. Acquiring entire tract.
The commissioner of natural resources on determining that it is necessary to acquire any interest in a part of a tract or parcel of real estate for purposes of the Minnesota Valley Trail, may acquire in fee the whole or any additional parts of the tract or parcel that the commissioner deems to be in the best interests of the state.
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Subd. 2. Conveying excess.
Within one year after acquiring excess real estate pursuant to subdivision 1, the commissioner of natural resources shall notify the governor that the excess real estate is available for sale. The commissioner shall then publish notice of sale for three successive weeks in a newspaper of general circulation in the territory from which bids are likely to be received. After receipt of sealed bids, and upon recommendation of the commissioner of natural resources, the governor shall convey the excess real estate by quitclaim deed in a form approved by the attorney general in the name of the state to the highest responsible bidder. The deed may contain restrictive clauses limiting the use of the real estate in the interest of preserving the integrity of the trail when the commissioner finds that the restrictions are reasonably necessary.
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Subd. 3. Leasing.
The commissioner may lease for the term between the acquisition and sale thereof and for a fair rental rate and upon terms and conditions that the commissioner deems proper, any excess real estate acquired under the provisions of this section and any real estate acquired in fee for natural resources purposes and not presently needed therefor. All rents received from the leases shall be paid into the state treasury.
History:
1975 c 144 s 2 ; 1980 c 458 s 13 ,14; 1986 c 444
Minn. Stat. § 92.72
92.72 PAYMENT OF TAXES AND ASSESSMENTS.
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Subdivision 1. Cancellation of certificate of sale.
If the state acquires an interest in real property prior to the cancellation of a certificate of sale or upon completion of the cancellation process by advertisement or court order, the state must make provision to pay all taxes, interests, costs, penalties, and assessments. The commissioner of natural resources must request the certificate of sale vendee to make a good faith attempt to pay the debt. If the commissioner determines that the vendee is unwilling or unable to pay the debt, the commissioner may pay the debt and seek redress against the vendee.
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Subd. 2. Voluntary and involuntary reversions.
(a) If a grantee on a certificate of sale or state deed desires the state to exercise its reversionary interest in real property, the grantee must pay all real estate taxes, costs, interest, penalties, and assessments on the property prior to reversion.
(b) If a grantee on a certificate of sale or state deed breaches the contractual terms of the certificate or deed, the commissioner of natural resources must request the grantee to make a good faith attempt to pay all real estate taxes, costs, interest, penalties, and assessments on the property prior to reversion. If the commissioner determines that the grantee is unwilling or unable to pay the debt, the commissioner may pay the debt and seek redress against the grantee.
History:
1997 c 216 s 74
Minn. Stat. § 94.10
94.10 SURVEYS, APPRAISALS, AND SALE.
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Subdivision 1. Appraisal; notice and offer to public bodies.
(a) Before offering any surplus state-owned lands for sale, the commissioner of natural resources must establish the value of the lands. The commissioner shall have the lands appraised if the estimated value is in excess of $100,000. No parcel of state-owned land shall be sold for less than $1,000.
(b) The appraisals must be made by regularly appointed and qualified state appraisers. To be qualified, an appraiser must hold a state appraiser license issued by the Department of Commerce. The appraisal must be in conformity with the Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice of the Appraisal Foundation.
(c) Before offering surplus state-owned lands for public sale, the lands must first be offered to the city, county, town, school district, or other public body corporate or politic in which the lands are situated for public purposes and the lands may be sold for public purposes for not less than the appraised value of the lands. To determine whether a public body desires to purchase the surplus land, the commissioner of natural resources shall give a written notice to the governing body of each political subdivision whose jurisdictional boundaries include or are adjacent to the surplus land. If a public body desires to purchase the surplus land, the public body must submit a written offer to the commissioner no later than two weeks after receipt of notice setting forth in detail the reasons for desiring to acquire and the intended use of the land. If more than one public body tenders an offer, the commissioner shall determine which party shall receive the property and shall submit written findings regarding the decision. If lands are offered for sale for public purposes and if a public body notifies the commissioner of its desire to acquire the lands, the public body may have up to two years from the date of the accepted offer to begin paying for the lands in the manner provided by law.
(d) Before offering surplus state-owned lands that are located within the reservation boundary of a federally recognized Indian tribe for public sale or before offering the lands to an entity specified in paragraph (c), the lands must first be offered to the federally recognized Indian tribe with governing authority over the reservation where the lands are located. If the lands are located within the reservation boundary of a federally recognized tribe that is one of the six constituent tribes of the Minnesota Chippewa Tribe, then the lands must be offered to both the Minnesota Chippewa Tribe and the constituent tribe where the lands are located. The lands may be sold for not less than the appraised value of the lands. To determine whether an Indian tribe desires to purchase the lands, the commissioner of natural resources must give a written notice to the governing body of the Indian tribe and, when applicable, to the Minnesota Chippewa Tribe if the tribe is a member of the Minnesota Chippewa Tribe. If the Indian tribe desires to purchase the lands, the Indian tribe must notify the commissioner in writing of the intent to purchase the lands no later than two weeks after receiving the notice. If the Indian tribe notifies the commissioner of its intent to acquire the lands, the Indian tribe has up to two years from the date that the notice of intent to purchase the lands was submitted to begin paying for the lands in the manner provided by law.
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Subd. 2. Public sale requirements.
(a) After complying with subdivision 1 and before any public sale of surplus state-owned land is made and at least 30 days before the sale, the commissioner of natural resources shall publish a notice of the sale in a newspaper of general distribution in the county in which the real property to be sold is situated. The notice shall specify the time and place at which the sale will commence, a general description of the lots or tracts to be offered, and a general statement of the terms of sale. The commissioner shall provide electronic notice of the sale.
(b) The minimum bid for a parcel of land must include the estimated value or appraised value of the land and any improvements and, if any of the land is valuable for merchantable timber, the value of the merchantable timber. The minimum bid may include expenses incurred by the commissioner in rendering the property salable, including survey, appraisal, legal, advertising, and other expenses.
(c) The purchaser of state land must pay recording fees and the state deed tax.
(d) Except as provided under paragraph (e), parcels remaining unsold after the offering may be sold to anyone agreeing to pay at least 75 percent of the appraised value. The sale must continue until all parcels are sold or until the commissioner orders a reappraisal or withdraws the remaining parcels from sale.
(e) The commissioner may retain the services of a licensed real estate broker to find a buyer for parcels remaining unsold after the offering. The sale price may be negotiated by the broker, but must not be less than 90 percent of the appraised value as determined by the commissioner. The broker's fee must be established by prior agreement between the commissioner and the broker and must not exceed ten percent of the sale price for sales of $10,000 or more. The broker's fee must be paid to the broker from the proceeds of the sale.
(f) Public sales of surplus state-owned land may be conducted through online auctions.
History:
( 6443 ) 1909 c 452 s 2 ; 1957 c 861 s 4 ; 1969 c 897 s 2 ; 1971 c 911 s 1 ; 1973 c 123 art 5 s 7 ; 1974 c 184 s 7 ; 1975 c 81 s 6 ; 1980 c 614 s 79 ; 1984 c 543 s 4 ; 1984 c 601 s 1 ; 1986 c 444 ; 1993 c 285 s 11 ; 1997 c 216 s 75 ; 2004 c 262 art 1 s 34 ; 1Sp2015 c 4 art 4 s 66 ; 2016 c 154 s 4 ; 2018 c 186 s 4 ; 1Sp2019 c 4 art 4 s 4
Minn. Stat. § 97A.105
97A.105 GAME FARMS.
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Subdivision 1. License requirements.
(a) A person may breed and propagate game birds, bear, or mute swans only on privately owned or leased land and after obtaining a license. Any of the permitted animals on a game farm may be sold to other licensed game farms. "Privately owned or leased land" includes waters that are shallow or marshy, are not actually navigable, and are not of substantial beneficial public use. Before an application for a license is considered, the applicant must enclose the area to sufficiently confine the animals to be raised in a manner approved by the commissioner. A license may be granted only if the commissioner finds the application is made in good faith with intention to actually carry on the business described in the application and the commissioner determines that the facilities are adequate for the business.
(b) A person may purchase live game birds or their eggs without a license if the birds or eggs, or birds hatched from the eggs, are released into the wild, consumed, or processed for consumption within one year after they were purchased or hatched. This paragraph does not apply to the purchase of migratory waterfowl or their eggs.
(c) A person may not introduce mute swans into the wild without a permit issued by the commissioner.
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Subd. 2. Transfer of license.
(a) A game farm license is transferable with the transfer of all or a portion of the title or leasehold of the land if:
(1) the land transferred complies with the license requirements;
(2) the land is used for the purposes of the license; and
(3) a verified written report of the existing and intended land use is made to the commissioner, accompanied by a copy of deed, assignment, lease, or other instrument transferring the corresponding title or leasehold in the enclosed land.
(b) A transfer of less than the whole interest in the license is not valid. Each bona fide partner or associate in the ownership or operation of a game farm must obtain a separate license.
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Subd. 3. Ownership of wild animals.
All wild animals and their offspring, of the species identified in the license, that are within the enclosure are the property of the game farm licensee.
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Subd. 3a.
[Repealed, 2003 c 128 art 1 s 176 ]
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Subd. 3b.
[Repealed, 2003 c 128 art 1 s 176 ]
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Subd. 4. Sale of live animals.
(a) A sale of live animals from a licensed game farm is not valid unless the animals are delivered to the purchaser or they are identified and kept separately.
(b) Live animals sold through auction or through a broker are considered to be sold by the game farm licensee.
(c) The sale agreement or contract must be in writing. The licensee must notify a purchaser of the death of an animal within 30 days and of the number of increase before July 20 of each year.
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Subd. 5. Sale of products.
The commissioner shall prescribe:
(1) the manner that products of wild animals raised on game farms may be sold or transported; and
(2) the tags or seals to be affixed to the products.
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Subd. 6.
MS 2022 [Repealed by amendment, 2024 c 116 art 6 s 2 ]
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Subd. 7.
MS 2022 [Repealed by amendment, 2024 c 116 art 6 s 2 ]
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Subd. 8. Penalty.
A licensee that does not comply with a provision of this section subjects all wild animals on the game farm to confiscation.
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Subd. 9. Rules.
The commissioner may adopt rules for:
(1) issuing game farm licenses;
(2) inspecting game farm facilities;
(3) acquiring and disposing of game farm animals; and
(4) record keeping and reporting by game farm licensees, including transactions handled by auction or broker.
History:
1986 c 386 art 1 s 20 ; 1987 c 121 s 1 ; 1987 c 404 s 119 ; 1993 c 231 s 13 ,14; 1996 c 385 art 2 s 2 ; 2001 c 185 s 24 ,25; 2002 c 373 s 28 ,29; 2003 c 128 art 1 s 54 ; 2024 c 116 art 6 s 2
Minn. Stat. § 97A.106
97A.106 FUR FARMS.
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Subdivision 1. License requirements.
A person may breed and propagate fur-bearing animals only on privately owned or leased land and after obtaining a license. Any of the permitted animals on a fur farm may be sold to other licensed fur farms. "Privately owned or leased land" includes waters that are shallow or marshy, are not actually navigable, and are not of substantial beneficial public use. Before an application for a license is considered, the applicant must enclose the area to sufficiently confine the animals to be raised in a manner approved by the commissioner. A license may be granted only if the commissioner finds the application is made in good faith with intention to actually carry on the business described in the application and the commissioner determines that the facilities are adequate for the business.
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Subd. 2. Transfer of license.
(a) A fur farm license is transferable with the transfer of all or a portion of the title or leasehold of the land if:
(1) the land transferred complies with the license requirements;
(2) the land is used for the purposes of the license; and
(3) a verified written report of the existing and intended land use is made to the commissioner, accompanied by a copy of deed, assignment, lease, or other instrument transferring the corresponding title or leasehold in the enclosed land.
(b) A transfer of less than the whole interest in the license is not valid. Each bona fide partner or associate in the ownership or operation of a fur farm must obtain a separate license.
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Subd. 3. License fee.
For each fur farm, the owner must, on or before January 1, pay to the commissioner an annual fee of $250.
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Subd. 4. Fur farm account.
The fur farm account is established in the game and fish fund. Fees collected under this section and interest attributable to money in the account must be deposited in the account. Money in the account, including interest earned, is appropriated to the commissioner for administration and enforcement of this section.
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Subd. 5. Ownership of wild animals.
All wild animals and their offspring, of the species identified in the license, that are within the enclosure are the property of the fur farm licensee.
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Subd. 6. Containment and disease control.
The commissioner, in consultation with the Board of Animal Health and the commissioners of agriculture and health, must develop:
(1) containment and disposal requirements for farmed fur-bearers; and
(2) farmed fur-bearer disease testing and reporting requirements.
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Subd. 7. Sale of live animals.
(a) A sale of live animals from a licensed fur farm is not valid unless the animals are delivered to the purchaser or they are identified and kept separately.
(b) Live animals sold through auction or through a broker are considered to be sold by the fur farm licensee.
(c) The sale agreement or contract must be in writing. The licensee must notify a purchaser of the death of an animal within 30 days and of the number of increase before July 20 of each year.
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Subd. 8. Sale of pelts and products.
The commissioner must prescribe:
(1) the manner that pelts and products of wild animals raised on fur farms may be sold or transported; and
(2) the tags or seals to be affixed to the pelts and products.
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Subd. 9. Fox and mink.
Fox and mink may not be bought or sold for breeding or propagating unless they have been pen-bred for at least two generations.
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Subd. 10. Transporting live beaver.
Live beaver may not be transported without a permit from the commissioner.
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Subd. 11. Penalty.
A licensee that does not comply with a provision of this section subjects all wild animals on the fur farm to confiscation.
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Subd. 12. Rules.
The commissioner may adopt rules for:
(1) issuing fur farm licenses;
(2) inspecting fur farm facilities;
(3) acquiring fur farm animals; and
(4) record keeping and reporting by fur farm licensees, including transactions handled by auction or broker.
History:
2024 c 116 art 6 s 3
Minn. Stat. § 97A.135
97A.135 ; or
(6) property leased, loaned, or otherwise made available to a private individual, corporation, or association under section 272.68, subdivision 4 .
(c) Taxes imposed by this subdivision are payable as in the case of personal property taxes and shall be assessed to the lessees or users of real or personal property in the same manner as taxes assessed to owners of real or personal property, except that such taxes shall not become a lien against the property. When due, the taxes shall constitute a debt due from the lessee or user to the state, township, city, county, and school district for which the taxes were assessed and shall be collected in the same manner as personal property taxes. If property subject to the tax imposed by this subdivision is leased or used jointly by two or more persons, each lessee or user shall be jointly and severally liable for payment of the tax.
(d) The tax on real property of the federal government, the state or any of its political subdivisions that is leased, loaned, or otherwise made available to a private individual, association, or corporation and becomes taxable under this subdivision or other provision of law must be assessed and collected as a personal property assessment. The taxes do not become a lien against the real property.
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Subd. 3. Exceptions.
The provisions of subdivision 2 shall not apply to:
(a) Federal property for which payments are made in lieu of taxes in amounts equivalent to taxes which might otherwise be lawfully assessed;
(b) Real estate exempt from ad valorem taxes and taxes in lieu thereof which is leased, loaned, or otherwise made available to telephone companies or electric, light and power companies upon which personal property consisting of transmission and distribution lines is situated and assessed pursuant to sections
The law belongs to the people. Georgia v. Public.Resource.Org, 590 U.S. (2020)